MT
MT
MT 1/12
MT:METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100
Please read the following instructions carefully:
General Instructions:
1. Total duration of examination is 180 minutes (3 hours).
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display
the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the
examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.
3. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using
one of the following symbols:
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the
question for review.
You have answered the question, but marked it for review.
The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that
question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question
will be considered in the evaluation.
Navigating to a Question
4. To answer a question, do the following:
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question. Use the virtual numeric keypad to enter
a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save and Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next
question.
d. Click on Mark for Review and Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it
for review, and then go to the next question.
e. Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you
navigate to another question directly by clicking on its question number.
5. You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. Note that the options for
multiple choice type questions will not be shown.
2013 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING MT
MT 2/12
Answering a Question
6. Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the
Clear Response button
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Next button. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered
in the evaluation.
7. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:
a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad
b. A fraction (eg.,-0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without 0 before the decimal
point
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Next button. If an
answer is entered for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered
in the evaluation.
8. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for
answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
9. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be
considered for evaluation.
2013 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING MT
MT 3/12
Paper specific instructions:
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
2. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
3. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2marks each.
4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.
5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.
2013 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING MT
MT 4/12
USEFUL DATA
Universal gas constant, R: 8.314 J/mol/K
Acceleration due to gravity, g: 9.81 m/s
2
Faraday constant, F: 96500 C/mol
Bohr magneton,
B
: 9.273 10
24
Am
2
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1
Degree and order of the differential equation
d
2
dx
2
+S
d
dx
-6y = u, respectively, are
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 1 (C) 1 and 1 (D) 2 and 2
Q.2 As the concentration of point defects in a crystal increases, its configurational entropy
(A) does not change (B) decreases
(C) increases (D) initially increases and then decreases
Q.3 In a binary system A-B, c
AA
, c
BB
and c
AB
correspond to A-A, B-B and A-B bond energies
respectively. The miscibility gap will occur if
(A) c
AB
> (c
AA
+ c
BB
) (B) c
AB
< (c
AA
+ c
BB
)
(C) c
AB
= (c
AA
+ c
BB
) (D) c
AB
< (c
AA
+ c
BB
)
Q.4 Critical value of the Gibbs energy of nucleation at equilibrium temperature is
(A) zero (B) infinite (C) positive (D) negative
Q.5 With respect to the matrix of Al-Cu alloys, G-P zones are
(A) coherent (B) incoherent
(C) semi-coherent (D) chemically indistinguishable
Q.6 Which one of the following techniques does NOT require quenching to obtain final case hardness?
(A) Flame hardening (B) Induction hardening
(C) Nitriding (D) Carburizing
Q.7 Which one of the following elements is an austenite stabilizer?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Molybdenum
(C) Vanadium (D) Tungsten
Q.8 A 0.2 wt.% plain carbon steel sheet is heated and equilibrated in the inter-critical region followed
by instant water quenching. The microstructure of the quenched steel sheet consists of
(A) fully martensite (B) proeutectoid ferrite + martensite
(C) martensite + pearlite (D) martensite + austenite
Q.9 As compared to the engineering stress-engineering strain curve, the true stress-true strain curve for
a given material
(A) lies above and to the left
(B) lies below and to the right
(C) crosses the engineering stress-engineering strain curve
(D) is identical
2013 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING MT
MT 5/12
Q.10 Which one of the following does NOT improve fatigue life of a steel component?
(A) Nitriding (B) Decarburization
(C) Improving surface finish (D) Shot-peening
Q.11 When two phases and in an alloy are in thermodynamic equilibrium, then
(A)
p p
c c
o |
=
(B)
m m
V V
o |
= (C)
m m
G G
o |
=
(D) i i G G
o |
=
Q.12 Isothermal compressibility of a material is given by
(A)
1
T
V
p p
| | c
|
c
\ .
(B)
1
T
V
p p
| | c
|
c
\ .
(C)
1
T
V
V p
| | c
|
c
\ .
(D)
1
T
V
V p
| | c
|
c
\ .
Q.13 In the Ellingham diagram for oxides, C-CO line cuts the M-MO line at temperature T
1
and the
M-MO line at a higher temperature T
2
. At a temperature greater than T
1
and less than T
2
, carbon
can reduce
(A) MO (B) both MO and MO
(C) MO (D) neither MO nor MO
Q.14 Which one of the following can give information about the corrosion rate?
(A) Pourbaix diagram (B) Polarization technique
(C) EMF series (D) Galvanic series
Q.15 In a roasting process, the set of conditions that favour sulphate formation from metal sulphide
concentrates are
P. high temperature
Q. high partial pressure of oxygen
R. use of excess air
S. high partial pressure of SO
3
(A) P, R and S (B) P, Q and R
(C) Q and S (D) R and S
Q.16 High top pressure in a blast furnace operation
(A) favours the solution-loss reaction
(B) suppresses the solution-loss reaction
(C) decreases gas-solid contact time
(D) increases coke rate
Q.17 In L-D steelmaking, the final slag can be best described as
(A) oxidizing (B) basic
(C) oxidizing and basic (D) reducing and basic
Q.18 The permeability of burden in an ironmaking blast furnace can be improved by using
(A) fine charge
(B) agglomerated charge
(C) oxygen enriched air blast
(D) pulverized coal injection through the tuyeres
2013 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING MT
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Q.19 For a good quality brazing, the molten filler alloy should have
(A) low contact angle with the base metal (B) low density
(C) high surface tension (D) high viscosity
Q.20 Risers are NOT required for casting
(A) stainless steel (B) plain carbon steel
(C) grey cast iron (D) white cast iron
Q.21 For scalar fields | and , the value of V(V|V) is ______
Q.22 The atomic packing fraction of diamond cubic structure is __________
Q.23 The total number of possible heat transfer mode(s) is __________
Q.24 If o and c are true stress and true strain, respectively, the maximum true uniform strain that can be
imparted to a material obeying o = 1050c
0.25
is _________
Q.25 Arc welding is done using current, voltage and welding speed of 200 A, 20 V and 0.01 m/s,
respectively. The heat input in kJ per unit length is _________
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 Which one of the following series is divergent?
(A)
1
1
1
3
n
n
(B)
1
1
n
n
(C)
0
1
2
n
n
(D)
1
1
n
n
n
Q.27
Taylor series expansion of the function (x) =
x
1+x
around x = 0 will be
(A) 1 +x +x
2
+ x
3
+ (B) 1 -x +x
2
-x
3
+
(C) u + x +
x
2
2
+
x
3
3
+
(D) u +x - x
2
+x
3
-
Q.28 Which one of the following attributes is NOT correct for the matrix?
cos sin 0
sin cos 0
0 0 1
u u (
(
u u
(
(
, where u = 60
(A) orthogonal (B) singular
(C) skew-symmetric (D) positive-definite
Q.29 A unit cell of an element has maximum linear density along the [110] direction. The packing
density of its (100) plane is
(A) 0.68 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.79 (D) 0.91
Q.30 For an FCC metal, the ratio of interplanar spacing obtained from the first two peaks of the X-ray
diffraction pattern is
(A) 1.91 (B) 1.63 (C) 1.41 (D) 1.15
2013 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING MT
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Q.31 There are 150 gearwheels in a box, out of which 112 are within the required tolerance, 21 are below
and rest are above the required tolerance. If the selection is done without replacement, the
combined probability of randomly selecting a gearwheel below the tolerance and then a second one
above the tolerance is
(A) 0.016 (B) 0.032 (C) 0.492 (D) 0.984
Q.32 Match the metal in Group I with its corresponding ore in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Ni (1) Monazite
(Q) Th (2) Cassiterite
(R) Pb (3) Penlandite
(S) Sn (4) Galena
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
Q.33 The yield strength of a polycrystalline metal increases from 100 MPa to 145 MPa on decreasing the
grain size from 64 m to 25 m. The yield strength of this metal (in MPa) having a grain size of 36
m is
(A) 110 (B) 125 (C) 140 (D) 165
Q.34 In a brittle material, the maximum internal crack length is 8 m. If Youngs modulus is 400 GPa
and surface energy is 3.14 J/m
2
, the estimated theoretical fracture strength (in MPa) is
(A) 375 (B) 412 (C) 327 (D) 447
Q.35 Saturation magnetization of an FCC metal with lattice parameter 0.2 nm is 600 kA/m. The net
magnetic moment per atom is given by (in Bohr magneton)
(A) 8.08 10
57
(B) 2.02 10
57
(C) 0.517 (D) 0.129
Q.36 A 480 mm thick slab is hot-rolled using a roll of 720 mm diameter. For a coefficient of friction of
0.5, the maximum possible reduction (in mm) is
(A) 90 (B) 180 (C) 240 (D) 360
Q.37 Match the defects listed in Group I with the corresponding manufacturing process listed in
Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Orange-peel effect (1) Extrusion
(Q) Chevron cracking (2) Deep drawing
(R) Flash (3) Arc welding
(S) Undercut (4) Forging
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
2013 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING MT
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Q.38 Match the powder production technique given in Group I with the corresponding shape listed in
Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Reduction (1) Flaky
(Q) Gas Atomization (2) Spongy
(R) Milling (3) Dendritic
(S) Electrolysis (4) Spherical
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
Q.39 Match the suitability of non-destructive testing method in Group I for the detection of defects
listed in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Magnetic particle inspection (1) Surface crack in martensitic stainless steels
(Q) X-ray radiography (2) Surface crack in austenitic stainless steels
(R) Dye penetrant test (3) Hairline crack in aluminium
(S) Ultrasonic testing (4) Inclusions in steels
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Q.40 For the following electrochemical reaction Sn + 2H
+
= Sn
2+
+ H
2
, if the solution has Sn
2+
concentration 10
2
M and pH 5 at 298 K, which of the following is true?
Given: standard reduction potential for Sn
2+
+ 2e