ITIL V3 Foundation Certification - Sample Exam 2

The new version of ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) was

launched in June 2007. ITIL V3 primarily describes the Service Lifecycle of IT Service
Management.
The latest version (ITIL V3) is compassed of the five core volumes:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Service Strategy
Service Design
Service Transition
Service Operation
Continual Service Improvement

This is a full ITIL Foundation Exam Question Paper containing 40 mock questions that
are directly related to the ITIL Foundation Exam syllabus.
Remember, when practicing your free ITIL Foundation Test Exam you only have 60
minutes in which to correctly answer at least 26 out of 40 mock questions correctly.
The Answers are at the end of the exam.
Good Luck!

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1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?

a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?

1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the processes required
5. ?
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics

3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for

improvement?
1. Service Owner
2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
3. Process Owner
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2 and 3 only

4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements
of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual
Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement

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5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service
Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and
manage the infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an
external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where
value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes
defined by Service Design

6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT
and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?

a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement

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9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during
Service Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Operation
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with
Service Operation
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for any
other phase of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of the
Service Lifecycle

10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Purchasing tools to support the Process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process

11. Demand Management is primarily used to?

a) Increase customer value
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost

12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service

Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in
the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could
otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to
implement CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning

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13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management
process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio

Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?

15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support
Applications
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle
c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
d) Developing operational functionality required by the business

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17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the
following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)

18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?

a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met

19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above

20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about good practice?

a) It can be used to drive an organization forward
b) It is something that is in wide industry use
c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL

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21. Consider the following statements:

1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger
2. A characteristic of the Process is that it is performance driven and able to be
measured.
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only

22. Warranty of a service means which of the following?

a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and
security

23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately
described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs)
in order to maximize their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to
achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain
accurate configuration records

24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?

a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services

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25. Facilities Management refers to?

a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as utilities, such as printers or
network access
b) The Management of an outsourcing contract
c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Center
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to
maintain the infrastructure

26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative,
which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance
modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem
management processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and
business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages

27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library
(DML)?
a) Master copies of software
b) Backups of application data
c) Software licenses
d) Master copies of controlled documentation

28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a
controlled manner
b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made

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29. Functions are best described as?

a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal

30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?

a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents
b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incident
d) An Incident that is easy to solve

31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and

Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s)
resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal
resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application
service provisioning

32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy

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34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four Ps of Service
Design?
a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service
Management

35. Consider the following statements:

1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into
production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external
service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan

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37. An Incident occurs when:

1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to
service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above

38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management

39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
a) The Seven Ps of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data
and using it to take corrective action

40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only

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