raul.

raghav

CAT 2007 Question Paper & Solutions

Quantitative Ability
This section contains 25 questions
1. Consider the sets = (2, 3, 4,...., 2n+1}, where n is a positive integer
larger than 2007. Define X as the average of the odd integers in S and Y as
the average of the even integers in S. What is the value of X-Y?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) (4) (5) 2008

Solution:
S = {2, 3, 4,…………, 2n+1} n greater then equal to 2007
If you take n = 2008
The series of even no. is 2, 4, …………4016 ? average = 2009 = Y
The series of odd no. is 3, 5, ………4017? average = 2010 = X
X – Y = 2010 – 2009 = 1
Hence the answer is option (2).

2. Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people
added up to 231 years. Three years later, one member died at the age of 60
years and a child was born during the same year. After another three years,
one more member died, again at 60, and a child was born during the same
year. The current average age of this eight-member joint family is nearest
to
(1) 23 years (2) 22 years (3) 21 years (4) 25 years (5) 24 years

Solution:
Ten years ago, the sum of the ages of 8 members in the family = 231
After 3 years, the age of every member increases by 3; hence the total age
increases by 8X3 = 24.
The total age is 231 + 24 = 255
A member of 60 years age died = 255 – 60 = 195
Similarly, again after 3 years,
Sum of the ages of all members = 195 + 24 = 219
Again a member of age 60 died = 219 – 60 = 159
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Now they have asked the sum in the current years, so the remaining years
are 4.
Hence the sum increases by 8 * 4 = 32
Total sum of the ages of 8 members in the present year = 159 + 32 = 191
Average age = 191 / 8 = 23.8 = 24 (approx)
Hence the answer is option (5).

3. A function 1 satisfies f(1)= 3600, and f(1)+f(2) + ... +f(n) = n 2f(n), for
all positive integers n > 1. What is the value of f(9) ?
(1) 80 (2) 240 (3) 200 (4) 100 (5) 120

Solution:
Given f(1) = 3600 and f(1) + f(2) + …………+ f(n) = n2f(n)
f(1) + f(2) = 22f(2). Therefore f(2) = f(0)/3
f(2) = 1200
Similarly f(3) = 600, f(4) = 390, f(5) = 341.25, f(6) = 175.1
f(7) = 131.3, f(8) = 102.74, f(9) = 81.7, approx (80)
f(9) = 80
Hence the answer is option (1).

4. Suppose you have a currency, named Miso, in three denominations: 1

Miso, 10 Misos and 50 Misos. In how many ways can you pay a bill of 107
Misos ?
(1)17 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4)15 (5) 19

Solution:
The bill of 107 Misos can be paid in the following ways:
Number of coins in Number of coins in Number of coins in
Amount
Denomination 50 Denomination 10 Denomination 1
0 0 107 107
0 1 97 107
0 2 87 107
0 3 77 107
0 4 67 107
0 5 57 107
0 6 47 107
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0 7 37 107
0 8 27 107
0 9 17 107
0 10 7 107
1 0 57 107
1 1 47 107
1 2 37 107
1 3 27 107
1 4 17 107
2 0 7 107

So, the number of combinations is 18.

Hence the answer is option (3).

5. A confused bank teller transposed the rupees and paise when he cashed a
cheque for Shailaja, giving her rupees instead of paise and paise instead of
rupees. After buying a toffee for 50 paise, Shailaja noticed that she was left
with exactly three times as much as the amount on the cheque. Which of the
following is a valid statement about the cheque amount?
(1) Over Rupees 13 but less than Rupees 14
(2) Over Rupees 7 but less than Rupees 8
(3) Over Rupees 22 but less than Rupees 23
(4) Over Rupees 18 but less than Rupees 19
(5) Over Rupees 4 but less than Rupees 5

Solution:
Rs. P
I case X Y Cheque amount
II case Y X Cost Amount

It is given that after buying a toffee for 50 paise, she is left with 3 times of
the amount on the cheque. Therefore
3(X + Y/100) = (Y + X – 50/100)
(299X + 50)/100 = (97Y/100)
Y = 3X + (8X + 50/97)
X = 18 giving an integral value
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So the answer will be between 18 and 19.

Hence the answer is option (4).

6. How many pairs of positive integers m, n satisfy

where n is an odd integer less than 60 ?
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 5 (5) 3

Solution:
The given condition is 1/m + 4/n = 1/12
= (n + 4m)12 = mn
= 12n + 48m = mn
= mn – 12n + 48m = 0
= n(m – 12) + 48 (m – 12) = 12 * 48 = 576
= (m – 12) (n + 48) = 576
Now, the prime factors of 576 which satisfy m = 12n / (n – 48) are 49, 51,
and 57.
Hence the answer is option (5).

Directions for Questions 7 through 10:

Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Indicate your

responses based on the following directives:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered using A alone but not using B
alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered using B alone but not using A
alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered using A and B together, but not
using either A or B alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered even using A and B together.
7. The average weight of a class of 100 students is 45 kg. The class consists
of two sections, I and II, each with 50 students. The average weight, WI of
Section I is smaller than the average weight, WII of Section II. If the
heaviest student, say Deepak, of Section II is moved to Section 1, and the
lightest student, say Poonam, of Section I is moved to Section II, then the
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average weights of the two sections are switched, i.e., the average weight
of Section I becomes WII and that of Section II becomes WI. What is the
weight of Poonam?
A: WII - WI = 1.0
B: Moving Deepak from Section II to I (without any move from Ito II)
makes the average weights of the two sections equal.

Solution:
We are given the average weight of a class of 100 students which is 45 kg.
Let the weight of Poonam and Deepak be P and D respectively Also,
WI <>II (given)
Now, WI + WII = 90 … (1)
When Deepak moves from section II to I, then average would be
50 WI – P + D = 50WII…….. (2)
By using statement A:
WII– WI = 1 … (2)
We get WI = 44.5 and WII = 45.5
For this we can’t say about the weight of Poonam.
By using statement B:
We get (50WI + D) / 51 = (50WII – D) / 49
51WII – 49Wi = 2D by which we can’t deduce the value of D.
Finally By using both the statement we can deduce the value of D.
After getting the value of D we can easily find out the value of P
Hence the correct answer option is (3).
8. ABC Corporation is required to maintain at least 400 Kilolitres of water at
all times in its factory, in order to meet safety and regulatory requirements.
ABC is considering the suitability of a spherical tank with uniform wall
thickness for the purpose. The outer diameter of the tank is 10 meters. Is
the tank capacity adequate to meet ABC requirements?
A: The inner diameter of the tank is at least 8 meters.
B: The tank weighs 30,000 kg when empty, and is made of a material with
density of
3 gm/cc.
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Solution:
A = inner diameter is at least 8 meter, so from 8 to 10, there can be many
values. So this answer is not possible.
B = weight = 30, 000 kg & density = 39gm/cc
So we can find the volume, we also know the outer diameter, so we can find
the inner diameter.
The answer is option (2).

9. Consider integers x, y and z. What is the minimum possible value of

x2+y2+z2 ?
A: x+y+z =89
B: Among x, y, z two are equal.

Solution:
Using statement A: x + y + z = 89.
For x2 + y2 + z2 to be minimum, each of x, y, z, must take equal integral
value nearest to 89 / 3. Let x = 30, y = 30, and z = 29.
Therefore minimum value of x2 + y2 + z2 = 2641
Hence statement A alone is sufficient.
From statement B alone nothing can be specified.
Hence correct answer option is (1).
10. Rahim plans to draw a square JKLM with a point 0 on the side JK but is
not successful. Why is Rahim unable to draw the square?
A: The length of OM is twice that of OL.
B. The length of OM is 4 cm.

Solution:
The maximum length of OM will be side x square root 2 when O is at K and it
forms a diagonal.
A = the length of OM that is twice of OL
Hence the answer is (1).
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Directions for Questions 11 and 12:

Cities A and B are in different time zones. A is located 3000 km east of B.
The table below describes the schedule of an airline operating non-stop
flights between A and B. All the times indicated are local and on the same
day.
Departure Arrival
City Time City Time
B 8:00 am A 3:00 pm
A 4:00 pm B 8:00 pm

Assume that planes cruise at the same speed in both directions. However,
the effective speed influenced by a steady wind blowing from east to west
at 50 km per hour.
11. What is the time difference between A and B?
(1) I hour and 30 minutes
(2) 2 hours
(3) 2 hours and 30 minutes
(4) 1 hour
(5) Cannot be determined

Solution:
The distance between 2 cities is 3000 km and A is located in the west. Let
the time difference be y hrs.
From city B to A, the departure is at 8.00am and the arrival is at 3.00 pm.
Let the speed of the planes be x km/hr
So, 3000 / (x – 50) = 7 – y …(1)
Where 7 hrs the time taken from B to A
Now, 3000/(x + 50) = 4 + y …(2)
On solving equations (1) & (2), we get y = 1 hr
Hence the answer is option (4).
12. What is the plane's cruising speed in km per hour?
(1) 700 (2) 550 (3) 600 (4) 500 (5) Cannot be determined.

Solution:
Again by solving equations (1) & (2), we get the value of x = 550 km/hr as
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the speed.
Hence, the correct option is (2).

Directions for Questions 13 and 14:

Shabnam is considering three alternatives to invest her surplus cash for a

week. She wishes to guarantee maximum returns on her investment. She
has three options, each of which can be utilized fully or partially in
conjunction with others.
Option A: Invest in a public sector bank. It promises a return of +0.10%.
Option B: Invest in mutual funds of ABC Ltd. A rise in the stock market will
result in a return of +5%, while a fall will entail a return of -3%.
Option C: Invest in mutual funds of CBA Ltd. A rise in the stock market will
result in a return of -2.5%, while a fall will entail a return of +2%.
13. The maximum guaranteed return to Shabnam is
(1) 0.25% (2) 0.10% (3) 0.20% (4) 0.15% (5) 0.30%
14. What strategy will maximize the guaranteed return to Shabnam?
(1)100 % in option A
(2) 36 % in option B and 64% in option C
(3) 64 % in option B and 36% in option C
(4) 1/3 in each of the three options
(5) 30 % in option A, 32% in option B and 38% in option C

Solution:
Consider the total amount to be 100.
(i) 100% in option A
In A, the return is +0.10%.
Return =0.1
(ii) 36% in option B and 64% in option C
Option rise fall
B +5% -3%
C -2.5% +2%
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1st - 36*5/100 +(-)*64/100 =1.8-1.6=0.2

2nd - 36*(-)3/100+64*2/100 =-1.08+1.28=0.2
(iii) 64% in option B, 36% in option C
1st - 64*5/100 +(-2.5)*36/100=3.2-0.9=1.3
2nd - 64*(-)3/100+36*2/100=-1.92+0.72=-0.2
(iv) 1/3 in each of the 3 options
Rise - 100*0.1/3*100+100*5/3*100+100*(-2.5)/3*100=0.86
Fall - 100*.1/3*100+100*(-3)/3*100+100*2/3*100=-0.3
(v) 30% in option A, 32% in B and 38% in option C
Rise - 30*0.1/100+32*5/100+38*(-2.5)/100=0.68
Fall - 30*0.1/100+32(-3)/100+38*2/100=-0.17

13. The maximum guaranteed return =0.20%

Hence the answer is option (3).
14 The maximum guaranteed return of 0.20 is given by the strategy when
she invests 36% in option B and 64% in option C.
Hence the answer is option (2).

Directions for Questions 15 and 16:

Let S he the set of all pairs (i,j) where Any two distinct
members of S are called "friends" if they have one constituent of the pairs
in common and "enemies" otherwise. For example if n = 4, then S = {(1, 2),
(1, 3), (I, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 4)}. Here, (1, 2) and (1, 3) are friends, (1, 2)
and (2, 3) are also friends, but (1, 4) and (2, 3) are enemies.
15. For general n, how many enemies will each member of S have?

16. For general n, consider any two members of S that are friends. How
many other members of S will be common friends of both these members?
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Solution:
15. x = no. of enemies
n=4,x=1
n = 5, x = 3
n = 6, x = 6
When we put the value of n, we get the corresponding value of x.
We see from the options that only 1/2 (n2 – 5n + 6) satisfies the given
condition.
Hence the answer is option (4).
16. n = 4, z = 2
n = 5, z = 3
n = 6, z = 4
By putting the value of n, we get the corresponding value of z.
So by putting the value in the answer options, we get that option (n – 2)
satisfies the given condition.
Hence the answer is option (4).

17. In a tournament, there are n teams T1, T2, ...,Tn, with n >5. Each team
consists of k players, k > 3. The following pairs of teams have one player in
common:

No other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are
participating in the tournament, considering all the n teams together?

Solution:
As the no. of teams n>5, let the number of teams be n.
One player is common in 2 teams.
Therefore the arrangement of players will be as given below:
(k-2) (k-2) (k-2) (k-2) (k-2) (k-2)
T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 T6
(1) (1) (1) (1) (1)
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(1) represents the common player.

Therefore the total no. of players = (k-2)6 +6
If the no. of teams is n, the no. of players in each team is k
Total number of players
=(k-2)n +n
=n(k-2+1)
=n(k-1)
Hence the answer is option (1).

18. Consider four digit numbers for which the first two digits are equal and
the last two digits are also equal. How many such numbers are perfect
squares?
(1)3 (2)2 (3)4 (4)0 (5)1

Solution:
Let the four digit number be XXYY i.e. 1000X + 100X + 10Y + Y
= 1100X + 11Y
= 11(100X + Y) is a perfect square
100X + Y is a multiple of 11.
99X + X + Y is a multiple of 11.
99X is a multiple of 11.
X +Y is a multiple of 11.
i.e. (2, 9) or (3, 8) or (4, 7) or (5, 6)
11 * 11 (9X + 1) is a perfect square.
9X + 1 should be a perfect square.
Only 9x + 1 should be a perfect square.
Y=4
The number is 7744.
Hence the answer is option (5).

Directions for Questions 19 and 20:

Mr. David manufactures and sells a single product at a fixed price in a niche
market. The selling price of each unit is Rs. 30. On the other hand, the cost,
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in rupees, of producing x units is 240 + bx + cx 2 where b and c are some

constants. Mr. David noticed that doubling the daily production from 20 to
40 units increases the daily production cost by

However, an increase in daily production from 40 to 60 units results in an

increase of only 50% in the daily production cost. Assume that demand is
unlimited and that Mr. David can sell as much as he can produce. His
objective is to maximize the profit.
19. How many units should Mr. David produce daily?
(1) 130 (2) 100 (3) 70 (4) 150 (5) Cannot be determined
20. What is the maximum daily profit, in rupees, that Mr. David can realize
from his business?
(1) 620 (2) 920 (3) 840 (4) 760 (5) Cannot be determined

Solution:
19. The cost is given as 240 + bx + cx2
When the units increase from 20 to 40, the % rise in cost is 66 2/3% = 2/3
At 20 units, the cost = 240 + 20b + 400c.
At 40 units, the cost = 240 + 40b + 1600c
As the cost increases by 2/3,
5/3 (240 + 20b + 400c) = 240 + 40b + 1600c …(1)
Similarly
When units increase from 40 to 60, the % rise in cost is 50%
3/2 (240 + 40b + 1600c) = 240 + 60b +3600 …(2)
By solving equations (1) & (2), we get
b= 10, c = 1/10
The cost equation becomes 240 + 10x + x2 /10.
The selling price per unit is Rs. 30.
Therefore the profit we can obtain by selling x units is 30x-(240 + 10x + x2
/10)
Solving this, we get the maximum value of this expression is Rs. 760 which
is obtained at x=100 units.
Hence the answer is option (2).
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20. Maximum profit = Rs.760, daily.

Hence the answer is option (4).

21. The price of Darjeeling tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.10n, on
the n th day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, ..., 100), and then remains constant. On the
other hand, the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 89 + 0.15n, on
the nth day of 2007 (n = I, 2, ..., 365). On which date in 2007 will the prices
of these two varieties of tea be equal?
(1) May 21 (2) April 11 (3) May 20 (4) April 10 (5) June 30

Solution:
Price of Darjeeling tea = 100+ 0.10n on the nth day (n = 1, 2, 3, ………100)
Price of Ooty tea = 89 + .015n on the nth day (n = 1, 2, …………365)
For Darjeeling tea, the price after the100th day remains constant.
Price of Darjeeling tea after 100 days = 100 + 0.1 * 100 = Rs.110
We have to find on which day both have the same price.
So 110 = 89 + 0.15n
21 = 0.15n
n = 140th day of the year 2007
140th day of 2007 is 20th May
Hence the correct option is (3).
22. Two circles with centres P and Q cut each other at two distinct points A
and B. The circles have the same radii and neither P nor Q falls within the
intersection of the circles. What is the smallest range that includes all
possible values of the angle AQP in degrees?
(1) Between 0 and 90
(2) Between 0 and 30
(3) Between 0 and 60
(4) Between 0 and 75
(5) Between 0 and 45

Solution:
Two circles with centers P & Q of the same radius cut each other at A & B.
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When these 2 circles intersect, the value of angle AQP is greater than zero.
Now it is given that neither P nor Q falls within the intersection of the
circles.
When P & Q are at the circumference of the circles, triangle PAQ is an
equilateral triangle.
So the value of angle AQP is 60°.
So the range of angle AQP is between O and 60.
Hence the answer is option (3).

23. A quadratic function f(x) attains a maximum of 3 at x = 1. The value of

the function at x = 0 is 1. What is the value of f(x) at x = 10?
(1)-119 (2)-159 (3)-110 (4)-180 (5)-105

Solution:
In the quadratic equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0 …(1)
at x = 0, c = 1; substitute the values in equation (1).
ax2 + bx + 1 = 0
For the maximum value
-b/2a = 1 and 4ac-b2/4a = 3
Now for the values of a and b
4a – b2 = 12a
b2 = - 8a
4a2 = - 8a
a=-2
-b = 2a
b = - 2a
So, b = +4
Putting the values of a, b, c in the equation,
f (x) = ax2 + bx + c and x = 10
We get
- 2x2 + 4x + 1
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- 159
Hence the correct option is (2).
Directions for Questions 24 and 25:

24. Which of the following best describes an + bn for even n ?

25. If then what is the smallest odd n such that an + bn <0.01>

(1)7 (2)13 (3)11 (4)9 (5)15

Solution:
24. Going by the answer options for n = 2, a2 + b2 = pq + q2
Option (1) q(pq)n/2-1 (pq) = pq + q2
Option (2) qpn/2-1 (p + d) = qp + q2
Option (3) qn/2(p + q) = qp + q2
Option (4) qn/2 (p + q)n /2 = qp +q2

Option (5) qp + q2

For n = 4 a4 +b4 = p2q2 + pq3

Option (1) q(pq) (p + q) = p2q2 + pq3

Option (2) qp (p + q)
Option (3) pq2 + q3

Option (4) q2 ( p + q)2

Option (5) q(pq) (p + q)2 = pq2 (p + q)2
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Only option (1) best describes an + bn for even (n).

Hence the answer is option (1).
25. When you solve for odd value of n, an + bn< 0.01 at n = 9
Hence the correct option is (4).

Logic & Data Interpretation

This section contains 25 questions

Directions for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the following questions based on
the information given below:
A health company's R&D department is trying to make various diet
formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is
considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q. R. and S), which
can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below
gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of
these ingredients is 0: 150, P: 50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
Composition
Ingredient Carbohydrate Protein Fat Minerals
% % % %
O 50 30 10 10
P 80 20 0 0
Q 10 30 50 10
R 5 50 40 5
S 45 50 0 5

26. For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing

10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we
prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None

Solutions:
Given that 10% minerals, greater than or equal to 30% protein.
For 10% minerals, we can eliminate P, R and S. The only combination left is
O and Q, which also satisfies the criterion of at least 30% protein.
Hence, the correct option is (1).
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27. Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per
unit for a diet having 10% fat and at least 30% protein? The diet has to be
formed by mixing two ingredients.
(1) P and Q (2) P and S (3) P and R (4) Q and S (5) R and S

Solutions:
To find out the lowest cost per unit for a diet having10% Fat, greater than
or equal to 30% protein and exactly two ingredients:
If we go by the options, we can eliminate option (1)- P and Q- because it
has less than 30% protein.
We can eliminate option (2)- P and S- since it has less than 10% Fat. The
other three options fulfill both the criteria. So, we have to check for the
lowest cost. Now options (3) and (5) include R which costs 500. Hence, the
correct option is (4).
28. In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at
least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest per unit cost?
(1) 2:1:3 (2) 4:1:2 (3) 2:1:4 (4) 3:1:2 (5) 4:1:1

Solutions:
To mix P, Q and S to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate:
% carbohydrate, P = 80, Q = 10, S = 45
If P : Q: S
l: m: n
% Carbohydate, 80l + 10m + 45n/l+m+n
Option (1) 2:1:3
(160+10+135)/6 = 295/6 <>
Option (2)
(320 + 10 +90)/7 = 420/7 =60%
Option (3)
(160+10+180)/7 = 350/7 = 50%
Option (4)
(240+10+90)/7 = 340/7 <>
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Option (5)
(320+10+45)/6 = 375/6 > 60%
Hence options (1), (3) and (4) are eliminated. Now we have to check (2)
and (5) for the lowest cost.
Cost P = 50 , Q = 200 , S = 100
Option (2) 4:1:2
200+200+200/7 = 600/7 = 85.7
Option (5) 4:1:1
200+200+100/6 = 500/6 = 83.33
Hence the correct option is (5).

29. The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth
needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of
carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals.
Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is
feasible?
(1) O and P (2) R and S (3) P and S (4) Q and R (5) O and S

Solutions:
Option (1), O and P, is low in protein, hence eliminated.
Option (2), R and S, is low in carbohydrates, hence eliminated.
Option (3), P and S, is low in minerals, hence eliminated.
Option (4), Q and R, is low in carbohydrates, hence eliminated.
Hence the correct option is (5).
Directions for Questions 30 to 33: Each question is followed by two
statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone
but not by using the statement B alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone
but not by using the statement A alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements
alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements
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together but not by either of the statements alone.

Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two
statements.
30. In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them
were also among the top academic performers. How many top academic
performers were in the school?
A. Sixty per cent of the top academic performers were not athletes.
B. All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.

Solutions:
Athletes (and not topper) Toppers (as well as Athletes) Total
50 10 60

Statement A is 40% of top academic performers were athletes.

i.e., 40% = 10
Therefore 100% = 10/40 * 100 = 100/4 = 25
Hence statement A is sufficient.
Statement B does not give any quantity, so it is not sufficient.
Hence the correct option is (1).

31. Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones
who participated in a quiz contest. They were ranked based on their scores
in the contest. Dcv got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while Bala got
a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan's rank was lower than the
median. Who among the five got the highest rank?
A. Atul was the last rank holder.
B. Bala was not among the top two rank holders.

Solutions:
Rank: Dev>Ernesto & Bala > Chetan.
Chetan’s rank is either 4 or 5.
By statement A: Atul’s rank = 5
Therefore, Chetan’s rank = 4
Now, the top three are left.
raul.raghav

Cases

Rank I II III

1 D D B

2 E B D

3 B E E
So B or D can be the topper.
Statement B: It says B is the third. So it is not sufficient.
So, by combining both the statements, only the 1st case is possible and D is
the highest ranker.
Hence the correct option is (4).

32. Thirty per cent of the employees of a call centre are males. Ten per cent
of the female employees have an engineering background. What is the
percentage of male employees with engineering background?
A. Twenty five per cent of the employees have engineering background.
B. Number of male employees having an engineering background is 20%
more than the number of female employees having an engineering
background.
Solutions:
Let the total employees be 100.
Therefore, Male employees = 30
Female employees = 70
Female employees having engineering background = 7 (10% of total female
employees)
Engineering Background General Background Total
Female 7 63 70
Male x y 30

We have to find x.
Statement A: It says that 25 employees have engineering background
i.e., Male engineers = 25 - 7 = 18

From Statement B, total Female employees = 70

Therefore Male employees with engineering background = 7+20% of 70
= 7+14 = 21.
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So either of the statements is sufficient.

Hence the correct option is (3).

33. In a football match, at the half-time, Mahindra and Mahindra Club was
trailing by three goals. Did it win the match?
A. In the second-half Mahindra and Mahindra Club scored four goals.
B. The opponent scored four goals in the match.

Solutions:
After half time, two cases are formed:
Case I
Mahindra = 0 Opponent = 3

Case II
Mahindra = 1 Opponent = 4

Considering Statement A:
Scores after the 2nd half:

Case I
Mahindra = 4 Opponent = 3/4/5

Considering Statement B:
Scores after the 2nd half :

Case I
Mahindra = 4 Opponent = 4
Case II
Mahindra = 5 Opponent = 4

Consider Case I result is a draw, while from case II Mahindra wins.

Thus, the exact answer can’t be estimated even by combining both the
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statements.
Hence the correct option is (5).

Directions for Questions 34 to 37 :

Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a
company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular
product:
Year Year Year Year Year
2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
Volume of production and sale
1000 900 1100 1200 1200
(units)
Costs (Rs.)
Material 50,000 45,100 55,200 59,900 60,000
Labour 20,000 18,000 22,100 24,150 24,000
Consumables 2,000 2,200 1,800 1,600 1,400
Rent of Building 1,000 1,000 1,100 1,100 1,200
Rates and taxes 400 400 400 400 400
Repair and maintenance
800 820 780 790 800
expenses
Operating cost of machines 30,000 27,000 33,500 36,020 36,000
Selling and marketing
5,750 5,800 5,800 5,750 5,800
expenses

The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for
the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct
proportion to the change in volume of production while others do not follow
any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and
hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year
2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the
following questions:
34. What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company
produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007?
(1) 104 (2) 107 (3) 110 (4) 115 (5) 116
35. What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to
produce and sell to avoid any loss?
(1) 313 (2) 350 (3) 384 (4) 747 (5) 928
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36. If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many
units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to
maximize its profit?
(1) 1400 (2) 1600 (3) 1800 (4) 1900 (5) 2000
37. Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will
have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than
1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can
earn?
(1) 25,400 (2) 24,400 (3) 31,400 (4) 32,900 (5) 32,000

Solution 34 to 37:
We can easily observe from the data given that Material Cost, Labour Cost
and Operating cost of the machine are varying directly as the number of
units produced and all the other costs are to be taken as fixed because they
are not following any particular trend. Accordingly we can solve the given
questions.

For 2007
Year 2007
Volume 1400
Costs
Material 70,000 (1400 x 50)
Labour 28,000 (1400 x 20)
Consumables 1,400 (Fixed)
Rent of Building 1,200 (Fixed)
Rates and Taxes 400 (Fixed)
Repair and Maintenance
800 (Fixed)
Expenses
Operating Cost of Machines 42,000 (1400 x 30)
Selling and Marketing Expenses 5, 800 (Fixed)
Total 149600

Cost per unit = 149600/1400 = 106.85 (approx. 107)

Hence the answer is option (2).
35. Suppose the number of units produced in the year 2007 is x. Then
Cost price = 50x + 20x + 30x + 9600 (Sum of all the fixed costs involved)
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= 100x + 9600
Selling Price = 125x
For no profit no loss
100x + 9600 = 125x
25x = 9600
x = 384
Hence the answer is option (3).
36. Price reduced by 5% from 125 i.e. the new price would be 118.75.
Suppose the number of units is x. Then
Profit = Selling Price – Cost Price
= 118.75x – (100x + 9600)
= 18.75x – 9600
So the profit will be the maximum when the value of x is the maximum.
Hence the answer is option (5).
37. If a Company sells 1400 units its profit is 1400X125-149600 = 25400.
If a Company sells 1700 units its profit is 1700X120-(100X1700+9600) =
24400
Therefore maximum profit = 25400. Hence the answer is option (1).

Directions for Questions 38 to 41: Answer the following questions based on

the information given below:
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students
in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of
whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class
11 and 12.
Male (M) Vegetarian (V)
Class 12 0.60
Class 11 0.55 0.50
Secondary Section 0.55
Total 0.475 0.53

38. What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?

(1) 40 (2) 45 (3) 50 (4) 55 (5) 60
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39. In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is
the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-
vegetarians?
(1) less than 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14 (5) 16
40. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?
(1) 40 (2) 45 (3) 50 (4) 55 (5) 60
41. In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of
students.
(2) Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of
students.
(3) Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of
students.
(4) Except non-vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of
students.
(5) All of the above groups have the same number of students.

Solution 38 to 41:
M V
Class12 0.60 -
Class11 0.55 0.5
Secondary Section - 0.55
Total 0.475 0.55

Total number of students = 800

It is given that 80% are in the Secondary Section.(SS)
Therefore Secondary section = 800 * 80% = 640.
The rest of the students are divided equally between Class 11 and 12.
Therefore Class 12 = Class 11 = 80.
Class 12 : 60% of 80 are Males = 48
Therefore Females = 32
Class 11 : 55% of 80 are males = 44
Therefore Females = 36
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Total males = 0.475 of 800 = 380

Therefore Males in the Second section = 380 – 48 – 44 = 288

Vegetarian Students
Class 11 : 50% of 80
Non veg = 40 (Class 11)
= 40 (Veg)
Secondary Section = 55% of 640
Therefore 352 (Veg)
Therefore Non Veg = 640 – 352 = 288 (N.V)
Total Veg = 53% of 800 = 424
Class 12, Vegetarian = 424 – 352 - 40 = 32.
38. In the Secondary section, 288 students are male.
So % would be 288/640 *100 = 45%
Hence the answer is option (2).
39. Total veg = 32.
Out of this, 25% are males = 8
So the remaining 24 are females.
Total number of male students = 48
Out of this, 8 male students are veg.
So 48 – 8 = 40 male students will be non veg
The difference between female veg & male non-veg students= 40 – 24 = 16.

Hence the answer is option (5).

40. The required percentage is
32/80 * 100 = 40%
Hence the correct option is (1).
41. If we take language of this question as ‘50% of male students of
secondary section are vegetarian’,
then 144 (M) students are veg.
144 (M) students are non-veg.
So the no. of females who are veg = 352 – 144 = 208
No. of females who are non-Veg = 144.
raul.raghav

Hence the correct option is (3).

Directions for Questions 42 to 45: Answer the following questions based on

the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major
surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries (in
Procedure US dollars)
USA India Thailand Singapore Malaysia
Heart Bypass 130000 10000 11000 18500 9000
Heart Valve
160000 9000 10000 12500 9000
Replacement
Angioplasty 57000 11000 13000 13000 11000
Hip Replacement 43000 9000 12000 12000 10000
Hysterectomy 20000 3000 4500 6000 3000
Knee Replacement 40000 8500 10000 13000 8000
Spinal Fusion 62000 5500 7000 9000 6000

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:

1 US Dollar Equivalent
India 40.928 Rupees
Malaysia 3.51 Ringits
Thailand 32.89 Bahts
Singapore 1.53 S Dollars

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the
same in all the countries above. The poor quality of a surgery may have
significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting
mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries
Procedure (in US dollars)
USA India Thailand Singapore Malaysia
Heart Bypass 0 3 3 2 4
Heart Valve
0 5 4 5 5
Replacement
Angioplasty 0 5 5 4 6
Hip Replacement 0 7 5 5 8
Hysterectomy 0 5 6 5 4
Knee Replacement 0 9 6 4 4
Spinal Fusion 0 5 6 5 6
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42. A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip

replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a
consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will
result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?
(1) India (2) Thailand (3) Malaysia (4) Singapore (5) USA

43. Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries
will be the most expensive for knee replacement?
(1) India (2) Thailand (3) Malaysia (4) Singapore (5) India and Singapore
44. Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai
citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her
native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500
Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India.
(1) 23500 (2) 40500 (3) 57500 (4) 67500 (5) 75000
45. The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things
including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in
cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking
this change into account?
(1) 700 (2) 2500 (3) 4500 (4) 8000 (5) No difference

Solution 42 to 45:

42. Cost of angioplasty, hip replacement and knee replacement of all

countries taking cost of poor quality into consideration,
For India – (11000 + 9000 + 8500) + 21000 = 49500
For Malaysia – (11000 + 10000 + 8000) + 18000 = 47000
Hence Malaysia is the cheapest.
Hence the correct answer is (3).
43. For knee replacement, the cost incurred in USD for various countries are

India = 17500
Thailand = 16000
Singapore = 17000
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Malaysia = 12000
Hence, India is the most expensive.
Hence the correct answer is (1).
44. Hysterectomy done in Thailand will cost 4500 + 6000 = 10500 USD
Hysterectomy done in India will cost 3000 + 5000 = 8000 USD
So the difference in Thai Bahts = 2500 x 33 = 82500 Bahts (Approx.)
He will have to travel from Thailand to India and back which will cost him
15000 Bahts.
So the required difference = 82500 – 15000 = 67500.
Hence the correct answer is (4).
45. The cost incurred in Spinal Fusion in India and Singapore is 5500 and
9000 USD respectively. (Cost of poor quality is not added as it is not
mentioned in the question.)
But in India 1USD = 40.928 Rs.
So 5500 USD = (5500 x 40.928)
Now we are given 1USD = 35 Rs
Therefore, the cost of the same will now be (5500 x 40.928)/ 35 = 6500
USD
So the required difference is (9000 – 6500) = 2500 USD
Hence the correct answer is (2).

Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the following questions based on

the information given below:
Distance
Sector Airport of Airport of between the
Price (Rs.)
No. Departure Arrival Airports
(km)
1 A B 560 670
2 A C 790 1350
3 A D 850 1250
4 A E 1245 1600
5 A F 1345 1700
6 A G 1350 2450
7 A H 1950 1850
8 B C 1650 2000
9 B H 1750 1900
10 B I 2100 2450
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11 B J 2300 2275
12 C D 460 450
13 C F 410 430
14 C G 910 1100
15 D E 540 590
16 D F 625 700
17 D G 640 750
18 D H 950 1250
19 D J 650 2450
20 E F 1250 1700
21 E G 970 1150
22 E H 850 875
23 F G 900 1050
24 F I 875 950
25 F J 970 1150
26 G I 510 550
27 G J 830 890
28 H I 790 970
29 H J 400 425
30 I J 460 540

A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table

below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding
price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure
airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where
they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

46. What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling
by the shortest route from A to J?
(1) 2275 (2) 2850 (3) 2890 (4) 2930 (5) 3340
47. The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The
market research results indicate that all its existing passengers traveling
between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the
minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge
approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?
(1)1991 (2) 2161 (3) 2707 (4) 2745 (5) 2783
48. If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons,
what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger
travelling from A to J?
raul.raghav

(1) 2275 (2) 2615 (3) 2850 (4) 2945 (5) 3190
49. If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the
company incurs, what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company
incurs in flying from A to J?
(1) 0.77 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.99 (4) 1.06 (5) 1.08
50. If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the
company incurs, which among the following is the distance to be covered in
flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the
company?
(1) 2170 (2) 2180 (3) 2315 (4) 2350 (5) 2390

Solution 46 to 50:
46. The shortest route from A to J is A – C – F – J i-e 2170km. The required
price is
Route Distance Fare
A–C 790 1350
C–F 410 430
F-J 970 1150
Total 2170 2930

Hence the correct option is (4).

47. The minimum price for traveling from A to J is Rs. 2275 through route A
–H–J
5% of 2275 = 113.5
So the company should charge 2275-113.5 = 2161
Hence the correct option is (2).
48. The possible route from A to J when C, D and H are closed down:
Routes with one airport in between Routes with two airport in between
Routes Fare Routes Fare
A–B–J 670+2275 = 2945 A – B –I – J 3660
A–F–J 1700+1150 = 2850 A–F–I–J 3190
A–G–J 2450+890 = 3340 A–G–I–J 3540
A–E–F–J 4450
A–E–G–I 3300
raul.raghav

Observing the above routes with two airports in between, it is clear that in
neither of the above cases, the fare is less than 2850.
Hence the correct option is (3).

49. The minimum price to travel from A to J through the shortest route A-H-
J (2350Km) is Rs.2275.
Therefore the total cost that the company incurs = 2047.5
Therefore cost per kilometer = 2047.5/2275 = 0.88
Hence the correct option is (2).
50. Refer to question 49.
The minimum price for the shortest distance = 2275 Rs.
The shortest distance A-H-J = 2350Km.
Hence the correct answer option is (4).

Verbal Ability
this section contains 25 questions
Directions for Questions 51 to 53: The passage given below is followed by a
set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each
question.
Human Biology does nothing to structure human society. Age may enfeeble
us all, but cultures vary considerably in the prestige and power they accord
to the elderly. Giving birth is a necessary condition for being a mother, but it
is not sufficient. We expect mothers to behave in maternal ways and to
display appropriately maternal sentiments. We prescribe a clutch of norms
or rules that govern the role of a mother. That the social role is independent
of the biological base can be demonstrated by going back three sentences.
Giving birth is certainly not sufficient to be a mother but, as adoption and
fostering show, it is not even necessary!
The fine detail of what is expected of a mother or a father or a dutiful son
differs from culture to culture, but everywhere behaviour is coordinated by
the reciprocal nature of roles. Husbands and wives, parents and children,
employers and employees, waiters and customers, teachers and pupils,
warlords and followers; each makes sense only in its relation to the other.
The term ‘role’ is an appropriate one, because the metaphor of an actor in a
raul.raghav

play neatly expresses the rule-governed nature or scripted nature of much

of social life and the sense that society is a joint production. Social life
occurs only because people play their parts (and that is as true for war and
conflicts as for peace and love) and those parts make sense only in the
context of the overall show. The drama metaphor also reminds us of the
artistic licence available to the players. We can play a part straight or, as
the following from J.P. Sartre conveys, we can ham it up.
Let us consider this waiter in the café. His movement is quick and forward, a
little too precise, a little too rapid. He comes towards the patrons with a
step a little too quick. He bends forward a little too eagerly; his voice, his
eyes express an interest a little too solicitous for the order of the customer.
Finally there he returns, trying to imitate in his walk the inflexible stiffness
of some kind of automaton while carrying his tray with the recklessness of a
tightrope walker.... All his behaviour seems to us a game....But what is he
playing? We need not watch long before we can explain it: he is playing at
being a waiter in a café.
The American sociologist Erving Goffman built an influential body of social
analysis on elaborations of the metaphor of social life as drama. Perhaps his
most telling point was that it is only through acting out a part that we
express character. It is not enough to be evil or virtuous; we have to be
seen to be evil or virtuous.
There is distinction between the roles we play and some underlying self.
Here we might note that some roles are more absorbing than others. We
would not be surprised by the waitress who plays the part in such a way as
to signal to us that she is much more than her occupation. We would be
surprised and offended by the father who played his part ‘tongue in cheek’.
Some roles are broader and more far-reaching than others. Describing
someone as a clergyman or faith healer would say far more about that
person than describing someone as a bus driver.
51. What is the thematic highlight of this passage?
(1) In the absence of strong biological linkages, reciprocal roles provide the
mechanism for coordinating human behaviour.
(2) In the absence of reciprocal roles, biological linkages provide the
raul.raghav

mechanism for coordinating human behaviour.

(3) Human behaviour is independent of biological linkages and reciprocal
roles.
(4) Human behaviour depends on biological linkages and reciprocal roles.
(5) Reciprocal roles determine normative human behaviour in society.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). Option (1), the very first sentence of the passage
tells us that human biology does not determine the structure of society.
Though this option is true, it is not the theme. It is only one example to
consolidate the theme, which is, ‘social behaviour is determined by
reciprocal roles’. Other examples are found in the first four lines of
paragraph 2. The second paragraph further elaborates that reciprocal
relationships determine human behaviour. Option (2) contradicts this point.
Option (3) says human behaviour is independent of reciprocal roles, which
is incorrect according to the passage. Option (4) says human behaviour
depends on biological linkages, which is incorrect according to the passage.
Option (5) correctly captures the theme of the passage.
52. Which of the following would have been true if biological linkages
structured human society?
(1) The role of mother would have been defined through her reciprocal
relationship with her children.
(2) We would not have been offended by the father playing his role ‘tongue
in cheek’.
(3) Women would have adopted and fostered children rather than giving
birth to them.
(4) Even if warlords were physically weaker than their followers, they
would still dominate them.
(5) Waiters would have stronger motivation to serve their customers.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). In the last paragraph, the author mentions that
the roles humans play and the self are different. So, if a father does not play
his role according to the expected behaviour, then this offends us. If only
biological linkages structured human society, then we would not have had
raul.raghav

any expectations, and thus, the father’s behaviour would not have offended
us. Option (1) does not specify whether the children are adopted or natural
born. Option (3) contradicts the question asked. Option (4) - if the warlords
were weaker than their followers and biology were the determining factor,
they would not be able to dominate. Option (5) is irrelevant to the question
asked.
53. It has been claimed in the passage that “some roles are more absorbing
than others”. According to the passage, which of the following seem(s)
appropriate reason(s) for such a claim?
A. Some roles carry great expectations from the society preventing
manifestation of the true self.
B. Society ascribes so much importance to some roles that the conception of
self may get aligned with the roles being performed.
C. Some roles require development of skill and expertise leaving little time
for manifestation of self.
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) A & B (5) B & C
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (1). The last paragraph suggests that the underlying
self may not always be the same as the role one performs. For example, the
father needs to conform to expected behavioural standards instead of
expressing his true self, otherwise we would be offended. Thus, it would be
a reason behind this argument. The passage does not mention the
conception of self. Thus, sentence B cannot be a reason for the given
argument. The passage does not mention skill and expertise, thus we can
also eliminate sentence C.

Directions for Questions 54 to 56: In each question, there are five sentences
or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or
part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage.
Then, choose the most appropriate option.
54. A. When I returned to home, I began to read
B. everything I could get my hand on about Israel.
C. That same year Israel’s Jewish Agency sent
raul.raghav

D. a Shaliach a sort of recruiter to Minneapolis.

E. I became one of his most active devotees.
(1) C & E (2) C only (3) E only (4) B, C & E (5) C, D & E
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (3). Only E is appropriate. Sentence A uses the wrong
preposition ‘to’. It should be ‘When I returned home’. In sentence B, the
correct idiom is ‘to get one’s hands on something’. Sentence C needs a
comma after ‘year’. Sentence D needs two commas, after ‘Shaliach’ and
‘recruiter’, since ‘a sort of recruiter’ is an appositive, giving us more
information about the noun ‘Shaliach’.
55. A. So once an economy is actually in recession,
B. the authorities can, in principle, move the economy
C. out of slump - assuming hypothetically
D. that they know how to - by a temporary stimuli.
E. In the longer term, however, such policies have no affect on the overall
behaviour of the economy.
(1) A, B & E (2) B, C & E (3) C & D (4) E only (5) B only
SOLUTION:
The answer is (5). B only. Sentence A needs a comma after ‘so.’ Sentence C
needs an article before ‘slump.’ Also, ‘hypothetically’ is redundant, as the
word ‘assuming’ has already been used. In sentence D, ‘by’ is an incorrect
preposition. The correct one would be ‘through.’ Sentence E should either
say ‘In the long run’ or ‘In the long term.’
56. A. It is sometimes told that democratic
B. government originated in the city-states
C. of ancient Greece. Democratic ideals have been handed to us from that
time.
D. In truth, however, this is an unhelpful assertion.
E. The Greeks gave us the word, hence did not provide us with a model.
(1) A, B & D (2) B, C & D (3) B & D (4) B only (5) D only
SOLUTION:
The answer is (3). B and D. Sentence A should say ‘It is sometimes said,’
not ‘told.’ Sentence C needs ‘handed down to us.’ Sentence E is wrong
raul.raghav

because it uses ‘hence’ which is a supporting conjunction, whereas, the

sentence needs a contrast indicator like ‘but’.
Directions for Questions 57 to 59: The passage given below is followed by a
set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each
question.
Every civilized society lives and thrives on a silent but profound agreement
as to what is to be accepted as the valid mould of experience. Civilization is
a complex system of dams, dykes, and canals warding off, directing, and
articulating the influx of the surrounding fluid element; a fertile fenland,
elaborately drained and protected from the high tides of chaotic,
unexercised, and inarticulate experience. In such a culture, stable and sure
of itself within the frontiers of ‘naturalized’ experience, the arts wield their
creative power not so much in width as in depth. They do not create new
experience, but deepen and purify the old. Their works do not differ from
one another like a new horizon from a new horizon, but like a madonna
from a madonna.
The periods of art which are most vigorous in creative passion seem to
occur when the established pattern of experience loosens its rigidity
without as yet losing its force. Such a period was the Renaissance, and
Shakespeare its poetic consummation. Then it was as though the discipline
of the old order gave depth to the excitement of the breaking away, the
depth of job and tragedy, of incomparable conquests and irredeemable
losses. Adventurers of experience set out as though in lifeboats to rescue
and bring back to the shore treasures of knowing and feeling which the old
order had left floating on the high seas. The works of the early Renaissance
and the poetry of Shakespeare vibrate with the compassion for live
experience in danger of dying from exposure and neglect. In this
compassion was the creative genius of the age. Yet, it was a genius of
courage, not of desperate audacity. For, however elusively, it still knew of
harbours and anchors, of homes to which to return, and of barns in which to
store the harvest. The exploring spirit of art was in the depths of its
consciousness still aware of a scheme of things into which to fit its exploits
and creations.
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But the more this scheme of things loses its stability, the more boundless
and uncharted appears the ocean of potential exploration. In the blank
confusion of infinite potentialities flotsam of significance gets attached to
jetsam of experience; for everything is sea, everything is at sea —
...The sea is all about us;
The sea is the land’s edge also, the granite
Into which it reaches, the beaches where it tosses
Its hints of earlier and other creation ...
- and Rilke tells a story in which, as in T.S. Eliot’s poem, it is again the sea
and the distance of ‘other creation’ that becomes the image of the poet’s
reality. A rowing boat sets out on a difficult passage. The oarsmen labour in
exact rhythm. There is no sign yet of the destination. Suddenly a man,
seemingly idle, breaks out into song. And if the labour of the oarsmen
meaninglessly defeats the real resistance of the real waves, it is the idle
single who magically conquers the despair of apparent aimlessness. While
the people next to him try to come to grips with the element that is next to
them, his voice seems to bind the boat to the farthest distance so that the
farthest distance draws it towards itself. ‘I don’t know why and how,’ is
Rilke’s conclusion, but suddenly I understood the situation of the poet, his
place and function in this age. It does not matter if one denies him every
place — except this one. There one must tolerate him.’
57. In the passage, the expression “like a madonna from a madonna”
alludes to
(1) The difference arising as a consequence of artistic license.
(2) The difference between two artistic interpretations.
(3) The difference between ‘life’ and ‘interpretation of life’.
(4) The difference between ‘width’ and ‘depth’ of creative power.
(5) The difference between the legendary character and the modem day
singer.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). Refer to paragraph 1, lines 6 and 7. It says that
arts wield their creative power in depth more than width. Arts do not create
an entirely new experience but deepen and purify the old. A Madonna
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compared to another Madonna does not create anything new regarding art
but will merely reflect the difference between two artistic interpretations or
perceptions. Option (1) is irrelevant. Option (2) talks about life in a general
perspective which is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Option (4) can be
ruled out as it has been picked up directly from the passage, and does not
explain what the phrase alludes to. Option (5) is an irrelevant option.
58. The sea and ‘other creation’ leads Rilke to
(1) Define the place of the poet in his culture.
(2) Reflect on the role of the oarsman and the singer.
(3) Muse on artistic labour and its aimlessness.
(4) Understand the elements that one has to deal with.
(5) Delve into natural experience and real waves.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (1). Refer to paragraph 3, last two lines. The author
gives the example of sea and ‘other creation’ and reaches the conclusion…
‘but suddenly I understood the situation the poet, his place and function in
this age’ which in other words is the poet’s place in his culture. Option (2) is
irrelevant and can be ruled out. Nowhere in the passage is the author
talking about the aimlessness of artistic labour (refer 2nd and 3rdline of the
3rd paragraph). Option (4) can be ruled out as it is a very general
statement. The passage is dealing with artists and poets in particular and
not with the general public. Option (5) is irrelevant and so can be
eliminated.
59. According to the passage, the term “adventurers of experience” refers
to
(1) Poets and artists who are driven by courage.
(2) Poets and artists who create their own genre.
(3) Poets and artists of the Renaissance.
(4) Poets and artists who revitalize and enrich the past for us.
(5) Poets and artists who delve in flotsam and jetsam at sea.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (4). Refer to paragraph 2, lines 6 and 7, which refer to
poets and artists who revitalize and enrich the past for us. Option (1) can be
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ruled out as it deals with poets and artists of only the Renaissance age.
Option (2) is irrelevant and is not referred to in the passage. Option (3) also
can be ruled out as the Renaissance age is given as an example for the
existence of the ‘adventurers of experience’. Option (5) is also irrelevant
and does not make any sense.
Directions for Questions 60 to 62: Each of the following questions has a
paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given
options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most
appropriate way.
60.
Characters are also part of deep structure. Characters tie events in a story
together and provide a thread of continuity and meaning. Stories can be
about individuals, groups, projects, or whole organizations so from an
organizational studies perspective, the focal actor(s) determine the level
and unit of analysis used in a study. Stories of mergers and acquisitions, for
example, are commonplace. In these stories whole organizations are
personified as actors. But these macro-level stories usually are not told
from the perspective of the macro-level participants, because whole
organizations cannot narrate their experiences in the first person.
(1) More generally, data concerning the identities and relationships of the
characters in the story are required, if one is to understand role structure
and social networks in which that process is embedded.
(2) Personification of a whole organization abstracts away from the
particular actors and from traditional notions of level of analysis.
(3) The personification of a whole organization is important because stories
differ depending on who is enacting various events.
(4) Every story is told from a particular point of view, with a particular
narrative voice, which is not regarded as part of the deep structure.
(5) The personification of a whole organization is a textual device we use to
make macro-level theories more comprehensible.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). The last line tells us that organizations have to be
personified because they cannot narrate their own stories. Thus,
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personification simplifies the narration and makes their stories more

comprehensible. The other answer options are irrelevant to the points
mentioned in the passage, and thus can be eliminated.

61.
Nevertheless, photographs still retain some of the magical allure that the
earliest daguerreotypes inspired. As objects, our photographs have
changed; they have become physically flimsier as they have become more
technologically sophisticated. Daguerre produced pictures on copper plates;
today many of our photographs never become tangible things, but instead
remain filed away on computers and cameras, part of the digital ether that
envelops the modern world. At the same time, our patience for the creation
of images has also eroded. Children today are used to being tracked from
birth by digital cameras and video recorders and they expect to see the
results of their poses and performances instantly. The space between life as
it is being lived and life as it is being displayed shrinks to a mere second.
(1) Yet, despite these technical developments, photographs still remain
powerful because they are reminders of the people and things we care
about.
(2) Images, after all, are surrogates carried into battle by a soldier or by a
traveller on holiday.
(3) Photographs, be they digital or traditional, exist to remind us of the
absent, the beloved, and the dead.
(4) In the new era of the digital image, the images also have a greater
potential for fostering falsehood and trickery, perpetuating fictions that
seem so real we cannot tell the difference.
(5) Anyway, human nature being what it is, little time has passed after
photography’s invention became means of living life through images.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (1). The first line of the paragraph mentions that
photographs retain some of their magical allure. The paragraph compares
other types of images with photographs describing how photographs are
better than others. The only answer option that relates to this point is
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option (1), which says something positive about photographs. Option (2)
introduces information not mentioned in the passage. Option (3) mentions
the similarity between photographs and other images, whereas the
paragraph suggests contrast. Option (4) mentions “falsehood and trickery”
which are irrelevant to the paragraph. Option (5) is also irrelevant to the
main idea of the paragraph.
62.
Mma Ramotswe had a detective agency in Africa, at the foot of Kgale Hill.
These were its assets: a tiny white van, two desks, two chairs, a telephone,
and an old typewriter. Then there was a teapot, in which Mma Ramotswe -
the only private lady detective in Botswana - brewed redbush tea. And three
mugs - one for herself, one for her secretary, and one for the client. What
else does a detective agency really need? Detective agencies rely on human
intuition and intelligence, both of which Mma Ramotswe had in abundance.
(1) But there was also the view, which again would appear on no inventory.
(2) No inventory would ever include those, of course.
(3) She had an intelligent secretary too.
(4) She was a good detective and a good woman.
(5) What she lacked in possessions was more than made up by a natural
shrewdness.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). This answer option has the pronoun “those” which
refers to “intuition and intelligence” mentioned in the paragraph. Option (1)
mentions a “view” which has not been mentioned in the paragraph. Option
(3) adds additional information to the paragraph. Option (4) is a judgment.
The paragraph does not mention that she “lacked” possessions, thus it can
be eliminated.
Directions for Questions 63 to 65: The passage given below is followed by a
set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each
question.
To discover the relation between rules, paradigms, and normal science,
consider first how the historian isolates the particular loci of commitment
that have been described as accepted rules. Close historical investigation of
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a given specialty at a given time discloses a set of recurrent and quasi-

standard illustrations of various theories in their conceptual, observational,
and instrumental applications. These are the community’s paradigms,
revealed in its textbooks, lectures, and laboratory exercises. By studying
them and by practicing with them, the members of the corresponding
community learn their trade. The historian, of course, will discover in
addition a penumbral area occupied by achievements whose status is still in
doubt, but the core of solved problems and techniques will usually be clear.
Despite occasional ambiguities, the paradigms of a mature scientific
community can be determined with relative ease.
That demands a second step and one of a somewhat different kind. When
undertaking it, the historian must compare the community’s paradigms with
each other and with its current research reports. In doing so, his object is to
discover what isolable elements, explicit or implicit, the members of that
community may have abstracted from their more global paradigms and
deploy it as rules in their research. Anyone who has attempted to describe
or analyze the evolution of a particular scientific tradition will necessarily
have sought accepted principles and rules of this sort. Almost certainly, he
will have met with at least partial success. But, if his experience has been at
all like my own, he will have found the search for rules both more difficult
and less satisfying than the search for paradigms. Some of the
generalizations he employs to describe the community’s shared beliefs will
present more problems. Others, however, will seem a shade too strong.
Phrased in just that way, or in any other way he can imagine, they would
almost certainly have been rejected by some members of the group he
studies. Nevertheless, if the coherence of the research tradition is to be
understood in terms of rules, some specification of common ground in the
corresponding area is needed. As a result, the search for a body of rules
competent to constitute a given normal research tradition becomes a source
of continual and deep frustration.
Recognizing that frustration, however, makes it possible to diagnose its
source. Scientists can agree that a Newton, Lavoisier, Maxwell, or Einstein
has produced an apparently permanent solution to a group of outstanding
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problems and still disagree, sometimes without being aware of it, about the
particular abstract characteristics that make those solutions permanent.
They can, that is, agree in their identification of a paradigm without
agreeing on, or even attempting to produce, a full interpretation or
rationalization of it. Lack of a standard interpretation or of an agreed
reduction to rules will not prevent a paradigm from guiding research.
Normal science can be determined in part by the direct inspection of
paradigms, a process that is often aided by but does not depend upon the
formulation of rules and assumption. Indeed, the existence of a paradigm
need not even imply that any full set of rules exists.
63. What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?
(1) Relationships between rules, paradigms, and normal science
(2) How a historian would isolate a particular ‘loci of commitment’
(3) How a set of shared beliefs evolves into a paradigm
(4) Ways of understanding a scientific tradition
(5) The frustrations of attempting to define a paradigm of a tradition
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). What the question asks is NOT the theme of the
passage, as one may wrongly interpret. We have to identify here, the
author’s purpose. The theme of the passage is conveyed in option (1). But
the author’s purpose of writing this passage is conveyed in option (5). The
author refers twice to the frustrations of attempting to define a paradigm of
tradition in the passage. He says that though it is relatively easy to agree in
their identification of paradigms, it’s not that easy to characterize or define
a paradigm. This is substantiated through the example of the great
scientists. Refer to lines 4 to 6 of the 3rd paragraph, “They can, that is,
agree in their identification of a paradigm without agreeing on, or even
attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it”. Though
all other options are also referred to in the passage, option (5) the one that
hits the nail on the head.
64. The term ‘loci of commitment’ as used in the passage would most likely
correspond with which of the following?
(1) Loyalty between a group of scientists in a research laboratory
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(2) Loyalty between groups of scientists across research laboratories

(3) Loyalty to a certain paradigm of scientific inquiry
(4) Loyalty to global patterns of scientific inquiry
(5) Loyalty to evolving trends of scientific inquiry
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (3). Refer to lines 2 to 4 of the 1st paragraph. From
this reference, we can make out that ‘loci of commitment’ is nothing but
paradigms i.e. recurrent and quasi-standard illustrations of various theories
in their conceptual, observational, and instrumental applications. All other
options are irrelevant.
65. The author of this passage is likely to agree with which of the following?

(1) Paradigms almost entirely define a scientific tradition.

(2) A group of scientists investigating a phenomenon would benefit by
defining a set of rules.
(3) Acceptance by the giants of a tradition is a sine qua non for a paradigm
to emerge.
(4) Choice of isolation mechanism determines the type of paradigm that
may emerge from a tradition.
(5) Paradigms are a general representation of rules and beliefs of a
scientific tradition.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). From the passage, it can be inferred that there are
certain rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition which can be drawn from
paradigms (by comparing the community’s paradigms with each other and
with its current research report). Thus, the role of paradigm seems to be
representing those accepted rules and beliefs. All other options do not seem
to be the one to which author can agree with. Option (1) is too far-fetched,
so can be ruled out. Option (2) can also be eliminated as the passage
doesn’t support the thought of a group of scientists ‘benefiting’ by defining
a set of rules. Option (3) which says that acceptance by the giants is
essential for a paradigm, is an extreme inference. Hence, it can be ruled out.
raul.raghav

Option (4) can easily be eliminated as the passage doesn’t give any hint to
the ‘types of paradigms’ which may emerge from scientific tradition.
Directions for Questions 66 to 68: In each question, there are four
sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and
highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select
the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then,
from the options given, choose the best one.
66.
The cricket council that was [A] / were [B] elected last March is [A] / are
[B] at sixes and sevens over new rules.
The critics censored [A] / censured [B] the new movie because of its social
unacceptability.
Amit’s explanation for missing the meeting was credulous [A] / credible [B]

She coughed discreetly [A] / discretely [B] to announce her presence.

(1) BBAAA (2) AAABA (3) BBBBA (4) AABBA (5) BBBAA
SOLUTION:
Rule: Collective nouns can be considered singular or plural depending on the
context. When people do one thing “in unison” with the other members of
their group, that noun becomes singular. As a result, you must use singular
verbs and pronouns with it. However, when the members of a group are
“acting as individuals”, the collective noun is plural and requires plural
verbs and pronouns.
If there are two verbs in the sentence, one also needs to identify the
principal verb in the sentence. All other verbs in any phrase modifying the
noun will take the number which is assigned to the noun by the connotation
of the principal verb.
In this case, ‘is [A] / are at sixes and sevens’, is the principal verb and
pertains to the disagreement among the individual members of the council.
Here, the council members are acting as individuals, that is, they are ‘at
sixes and sevens’, meaning, ‘they do not agree’. Hence, the council, in this
context, will be a plural noun.
Once identified as a plural noun, verbs in any phrase modifying the plural
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noun will be plural. ‘…that was/were elected last March’ is a modifying

phrase. The verb will stand in agreement with the plural noun. Therefore,
even ‘that was/were elected last March’ would take a plural verb.
Hence, the answer is option (3), BBBBA.
67.
The further [A] /farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he
grew.
For the crowds it was more of a historical [A] / historic [B] event; for their
leader, it was just another day.
The old man has a healthy distrust [A] / mistrust [B] for all new technology.
This film is based on a real [A] / true [B] story.
One suspects that the compliment [A] / complement [B] was backhanded
(1) BABAB (2) ABBBA (3) BAABA (4) BBAAB (5) ABABA
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2), ABBBA.
Statement 1- ‘Further’ in this context means to a great degree or extent.
‘Farther’ denotes distance.
Statement 2- ‘Historic’ means significant whereas ‘historical’ means
connected with the past.
Statement 3- ‘Mistrust’ and ‘distrust’ are synonymous, but the latter is
slightly stronger than the former. If you are sure that someone is acting
dishonestly or cannot be relied on, you are more likely to say you ‘distrust’
them. If you are expressing doubts and suspicions, on the other hand, you
would probably use ‘mistrust’. Also, distrust is always used with ‘of’ and
mistrust with ‘for’.
Statement 4- When we refer to something connected with facts rather than
things that have been invented or guessed we use ‘true’. ‘Real’ is used to
refer to something that exists and is not imagined.
Statement 5- Compliment means praise whereas complement is something
that completes. The compliment is backhanded means the compliment is
indirect or ambiguous.
68.
Regrettably [A] / Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation.
raul.raghav

I am drawn to the poetic, sensual [A] / sensuous [B] quality of her

paintings.
He was besides [A] / beside [B] himself with age when I told him what I
had done. After brushing against a stationary [A] / stationery [B] truck my
car turned turtle.
As the water began to rise over [A] / above [B] the danger mark, the signs
of an imminent flood were clear.
(1) BAABA (2) BBBAB (3) AAABA (4) BBAAB (5) BABAB
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2), BBBAB.
Statement 1- Regretfully means feeling or showing regret. Regrettably
denotes something undesirable or unwelcome.
Statement 2- Sensual means depending on the senses whereas sensuous
means aesthetically pleasing.
Statement 3- ‘Besides’ means in addition to. The usage ‘to be beside
yourself with something’ means you are unable to control yourself because
of the strength of emotion (here, rage) you are feeling.
Statement 4- ‘Stationary’ means motionless whereas ‘stationery’ stands for
materials used for writing.
Statement 5- ‘Above’ shows ‘at or to a higher place or position than
something’. ‘Over’ denotes movement or position beyond something stated
or implied.
Directions for Questions 69 to 71: The passage given below is followed by a
set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each
question.
The difficulties historians face in establishing cause-and-effect relations in
th history of human societies are broadly similar to the difficulties facing
astronomers, climatologists. Ecologists, evolutionary biologists, geologists,
and palaeontologists. To varying degrees each of these fields is plagued by
the impossibility of performing replicated, controlled experimental
interventions, the complexity arising from enormous numbers of variables,
the resulting uniqueness of each system, the consequent impossibility of
formulating universal laws, and the difficulties of predicting emergent
raul.raghav

properties and future behaviour. Prediction in history, as in other historical

sciences, is most feasible on large spatial scales and over long times, when
the unique features of millions of small-scale brief’ events become averaged
out. Just as I could predict the sex ratio of the next 1,000 newborns but not
the sexes of my own two children, the historian can recognize factors that
made inevitable the broad outcome of the collision between American and
Eurasian societies after 13,000 years of separate developments, but not the
outcome of the 1960 U.S. presidential election. The details of which
candidate said what during a single televised debate in October 1960 could
have given the electoral victory to Nixon instead of to Kennedy, but no
details of who said what could have blocked the European conquest of
Native Americans.
How can students of human history profit from the experience of scientists
in other historical sciences? A methodology that has proved useful involves
the comparative method and so-called natural experiments. While neither
astronomers studying galaxy formation nor human historians can
manipulate their systems in controlled laboratory experiments, they both
can take advantage of natural experiments, by comparing systems differing
in the presence or absence (or in the strong or weak effect) of some
putative causative factor. For example, epidemiologists, forbidden to feed
large amounts of salt to people experimentally, have still been able to
identify effects of high salt intake by comparing groups of humans who
already differ greatly in their salt intake; and cultural anthropologists,
unable to provide human groups experimentally with varying resource
abundances for many centuries, still study long-term effects of resource
abundance on human societies by comparing recent Polynesian populations
living on islands differing naturally in resource abundance.
The student of human history can draw on many more natural experiments
than just comparisons among the five inhabited continents. Comparisons
can also utilize large islands that have developed complex societies in a
considerable degree of isolation (such as Japan, Madagascar, Native
American Hispaniola, New Guinea, Hawaii, and many others), as well as
societies on hundreds of smaller islands and regional societies within each
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of the continents. Natural experiments in any field, whether in ecology or

human history, are inherently open to potential methodological criticisms.
Those include confounding effects of natural variation in additional
variables besides the one of interest, as well as problems in inferring chains
of causation from observed correlations between variables. Such
methodological problems have been discussed in great detail for some of
the historical sciences. In particular, epidemiology, the science of drawing
inferences about human diseases by comparing groups of people (often by
retrospective historical studies), has for a long time successfully employed
formalized procedures for dealing with problems similar to those facing
historians of human societies.
In short, I acknowledge that it is much more difficult to understand human
history than to understand problems in fields of science where history is
unimportant and where fewer individual variables operate. Nevertheless,
successful methodologies for analyzing historical problems have been
worked out in several fields. As a result, the histories of dinosaurs, nebulae,
and glaciers are generally acknowledged to belong to fields of science
rather than to the humanities.
69. Why do islands with considerable degree of isolation provide valuable
insights into human history?
(1) Isolated islands may evolve differently and this difference is of interest
to us.
(2) Isolated islands increase the number of observations available to
historians.
(3) Isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size may evolve
differently and this difference can be attributed to their endowments and
size.
(4) Isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size, provide a good
comparison to large islands such as Eurasia, Africa, Americas and Australia.
(5) Isolated islands, in so far as they are inhabited, arouse curiosity about
how human beings evolved there.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (4). The question is about the role of isolated islands
raul.raghav

providing valuable insights into human history. This is possible only by

comparing evolution in the isolated islands with that in the already evolved
islands like Eurasia, Africa etc. Options (1) and (5) can be ruled out as they
are specific to human history of isolated islands and do not talk about a
comparison of any kind, which is the basis of the whole passage. The author
is not discussing ‘evolution of communities’, he is discussing a methodology
of analysing historical problems. Option (2), ‘increasing the number of
observations’, is also not discussed in the passage and hence is irrelevant.
Option (3) is also irrelevant, as why isolated islands differ in evolution is
not discussed in the passage, only that these differences can be used as a
comparison tool in understanding human history.
70. According to the author, why is prediction difficult in history?
(1) Historical explanations are usually broad so that no prediction is
possible.
(2) Historical outcomes depend upon a large number of factors and hence
prediction is difficult for each case.
(3) Historical sciences, by their very nature, are not interested in a
multitude of minor factors, which might be important in a specific historical
outcome.
(4) Historians are interested in evolution of human history and hence are
only interested in long-term predictions.
(5) Historical sciences suffer from the inability to conduct controlled
experiments and therefore have explanations based on a few long-term
factors.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). The answer lies in the 1st paragraph. Refer to
lines 4-8, “To varying degrees…….prediction in history as in other historical
science ……. small scale brief events become averaged out’. Option (1) is
incorrect as it is too strong. Nowhere has it been mentioned that it is
‘impossible’ to make historical predictions. Option (3) is incorrect as the
passage does not mention anywhere that historical sciences are not
interested in minor factors. Option (4) is incorrect as nowhere in the
passage is it stated that historians are ‘only’ interested in long-term
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predictions. Option (5) is incorrect as it addresses only ‘explanations’ and

not ‘predictions’
71. According to the author, which of the following statements would be
true?
(1) Students of history are missing significant opportunities by not
conducting any natural experiments.
(2) Complex societies inhabiting large islands provide great opportunities
for natural experiments.
(3) Students of history are missing significant opportunities by not studying
an adequate variety of natural experiments.
(4) A unique problem faced by historians is their inability to establish cause
and effect relationships.
(5) Cultural anthropologists have overcome the problem of confounding
variables through natural experiments.
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (2). Refer to lines 2-5 of paragraph 3. Opportunities
for natural experiments are provided by complex societies inhabiting large
islands in considerable isolation. Options (1) and (3) are not true, as
nowhere in the passage is it mentioned that the students are not taking the
opportunities provided to them by way of conducting natural experiments.
Option (4) is incorrect as we do not have enough information to assume
that the problem the historians face is a unique one. Option (5) can be
misleading. Though true, it is only an example of making use of the
comparative methods and the natural experiments.
Directions for Questions 72 to 75: In each question, there are five
sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct
place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be
arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From
the given options, choose the most appropriate option.
72.
A. In America, highly educated women, who are in stronger position in the
labour market than less qualified ones, have higher rates of marriage than
other groups.
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B. Some work supports the Becker thesis, and some appear to contradict it.
C. And, as with crime, it is equally inconclusive.
D. But regardless of the conclusion of any particular piece of work, it is hard
to establish convincing connections between family changes and economic
factors using conventional approaches.
E. Indeed, just as with crime, an enormous academic literature exists on the
validity of the pure economic approach to the evolution of family structures.

(1) BCDE (2) DBEC (3) BDCE (4) ECBD (5) EBCD
SOLUTION:
The answer is (4). ECBD. D follows B, going by the common term ‘work’.
Therefore options 1, 2 and 5 are eliminated. We know E and C are related
because of the common term crime. The pronoun ‘it’ in sentence C refers to
‘an enormous academic literature’.
73.
A. Personal experience of mothering and motherhood are largely framed in
relation to two discernible or “official” discourses: the “medical discourse
and natural childbirth discourse”. Both of these tend to focus on the
“optimistic stories” of birth and mothering and underpin stereotypes of the
“good mother”.
B. At the same time, the need for medical expert guidance is also a feature
for contemporary reproduction and motherhood. But constructions of good
mothering have not always been so conceived - and in different contexts
may exist in parallel to other equally dominant discourses.
C. Similarly, historical work has shown how what are now taken-for-granted
aspects of reproduction and mothering practices result from contemporary
“pseudoscientific directives” and “managed constructs”. These changes
have led to a reframing of modern discourses that pattern pregnancy and
motherhood leading to an acceptance of the need for greater expert
management.
D. The contrasting, overlapping, and ambiguous strands within these
frameworks focus to varying degrees on a woman’s biological tie to her
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child and predisposition to instinctively know and he able to care for her
child.
E. In addition, a third, “unofficial popular discourse” comprising “old wives”
tales and based on maternal experiences of childbirth has also been noted.
These discourses have also been acknowledged in work exploring the
experiences of those who apparently do not “conform” to conventional
stereotypes of the “good mother”.
(I) EDBC (2) BCED (3) DBCE (4) EDCB (5) BCDE
SOLUTION:
The answer is (1), EDBC. Sentence E follows A as it gives a ‘third discourse’.
‘These frameworks’ in D refer to the three discourses mentioned earlier.
Hence we get the link A-E-D. Up to the sequence A-E-D, the focus has been
on ‘personal experience of mothering’ both official and in official. Statement
B makes a point of the ‘need for medical expert guidance’ at the same time.
Sentence C is an apt summary, as it integrates the ideas in A-E-D and B,
stating the fact of ‘reframing of modern discourse’ and ‘acceptance of the
need for greater expert management’. Hence the sequence A-E-D-B-C is the
correct order of sentences in the paragraph.
74.
A. Indonesia has experienced dramatic shifts in its formal governance
arrangements since the fall of President Soeharto and the close of his
centralized, authoritarian “New Order” regime in 1997.
B. The political system has taken its place in the nearly 10 years since
Reformasi began. It has featured the active contest for political office
among a proliferation of parties at central, provincial and district levels;
direct elections for the presidency (since 2004); and radical changes in
centre- local government relations towards administrative, fiscal, and
political decentralization.
C. The mass media, once tidily under Soeharto’s thumb, has experienced
significant liberalization, as has the legal basis for non-governmental
organizations, including many dedicated to such controversial issues as
corruption control and human rights.
D. Such developments are seen optimistically by a number of donors and
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some external analysts, who interpret them as signs of Indonesia’s political

normalization.
E. A different group of analysts paint a picture in which the institutional
forms have changed, but power relations have not. Vedi Hadiz argues that
Indonesia’s “democratic transition” has been anything but linear.
(1) BDEC (2) CBDE (3) CEBD (4) DEBC (5) BCDE
SOLUTION:
The answer is option (5). BCDE. B follows A because it speaks of the ‘nearly
10 years’ since 1997. C is talking about further changes since Soeharto’s fall
even in the mass media. We know D and E are related because they both
talk about analysts. However, E should end the paragraph since it talks of a
different group of analysts; also, D talks about ‘such developments’, which
further illustrates B and C, and should therefore follow them.
75.
A. I had six thousand acres of land, and had thus got much spare land
besides the coffee plantation. Part of the farm was native forest, and about
one thousand acres were squatters’ land, what Kikuyuj called their
shambas.
B. The squatters’ land was more intensely alive than the rest of the farm,
and was changing with the seasons the year round. The maize grew up
higher than your head as you walked on the narrow hard-trampled
footpaths in between the tall green rustling regiments.
C. The squatters are Natives, who with their families hold a few acres on a
white man’s farm, and in return have to work for him a certain number of
days in the year. My squatters, I think, saw the relationship in a different
light, for many of them were born on the farm, and their fathers before
them, and they very likely regarded me as a sort of superior squatter on
their estates.
D. The Kikuyu also grew the sweet potatoes that have a vine like leaf and
spread over the ground like a dense entangled mat, and many varieties of
big yellow and green speckled pumpkins.
E. The beans ripened in the fields, were gathered and thrashed by the
women, and the maize stalks and coffee pods were collected and burned, so
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that in certain seasons thin blue columns of smoke rose here and there all
over the farm.
(1) CBDE (2) BCDE (3) CBED (4) DBCE (5) EDBC
SOLUTION:
The answer is (3). CBED. C elaborates upon who ‘the squatters’ are, so we
know that it follows A. Option B talks about their land and shares the
common word ‘squatters’, which suggests that the two statements are
linked. Statement E mentions maize, which has been mentioned B as well,
which means that it would follow B.