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Quantitative Techniques & Data Interpretation 1. The average score of boys in an examination is 63 and that of girls is 69. The average score of the school in that examination is 65.4. Find the ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls that appeared in the examination. (a) 2:3 (b) 3:2 (c) 1:2 (d) 2:1 Three partners together invested Rs. 240000 in a business. At the end of the year, one got Rs. 2140, the second got Rs. 3500 and the third Rs. 3000 as profit. What is the percentage of profit? (a) 3.6% (b) 3.4% (c) 3.2% (d) 3.1% There are two examination rooms A and B. If 20 candidates are sent from A to B then the ratio of students in room A and B will be 2:3. If 20 students are sent from room B to room A then the ratio of students in room A and B will be 4:1. Find the number of students in each room. (a) 50 in A and 50 in B (b) 20 in A and 30 in B (c) 30 in A and 20 in B (d) 60 in A and 40 in B Harish spends 70% of his monthly salary on consumable items and 50% of remaining on clothes. He saves the remaining amount. If his saving at the end of the year was Rs. 3792, how much amount per month would he spend on clothes? (a) Rs. 3792 (b) Rs. 3215 (c) Rs. 316 (d) Rs. 379.2 The side of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/3 : 1/5 : 1/6. The perimeter of the triangle is 63 cms, what is the length of the smallest side? (a) 18 cms (b) 21 cms (c) 12 cms (d) 15 cms The bar graph gives data regarding Revenue expenditure and Capital Expenditure for the years 2006 to 2011. How much percent is the percent increase in Capital Expenditure from 2006 to 2011 is more than the percent increase in Revenue Expenditure from 2006 to 2011.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

(a) 60% 7.

(b) 83%

(c) 100%

(d) 122%

City X has two libraries. Does the total number of books in both libraries exceed 18000? I. One library has twice as many books as the other library II. One library has 6000 books

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(a) (b) (c) (d) 8.

Can answer with statement I alone Can answer with statement II alone Can answer with both statements together but not with individual statements alone Can answer with each statement alone

A large cube is formed from the material obtained by melting three smaller cubes of 3, 4 and 5 cms side. What is the ratio of the total surface areas of the smaller cubes and the large cube? (a) 2:1 (b) 3:2 (c) 25:18 (d) 27:20 Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 min? (a) 648 (b) 1800 (c) 2700 (d) 10800

9.

10. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 6 and 72 respectively. If one number is three fourths of the other, what is the greater number? (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 24 11. The base and the height of a right angled triangle is the same as that of a trapezium. The other parallel line of trapezium is 2/3rd of the base of the trapezium. What will be the ratio of the areas of the triangle and the trapezium? (a) 2:3 (b) 3:5 (c) 3:2 (d) 5:2 12. If the hands of the clock coincide on every 64 minutes then the gain per day is (a) gains 96 minutes (b) gains 36 minutes (c) gains 90 minutes (d) gains 32 8/11 minutes 13. A man sells a radio at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it for Rs. 132 less he would have still gained 10%. The cost price of radio is (a) Rs. 1320 (b) Rs. 1280 (c) Rs. 1188 (d) Rs. 1200 14. 12% of 15% of a number is equal to 7.5% of ?% of that number. Find ?. (a) 24 (b) 18 (c) 9 (d) 6 15. A trader sells 6 washing machines and 4 TV sets for Rs. 98,480 to a shopkeeper. He sells 2 TV sets and 14 washing machines to another shopkeeper for the same price. The price of TV set is (a) Rs. 4476.38 (b) Rs. 17905.45 (c) Rs. 17915.52 (d) Rs. 4496.38 16. 48.85 / 0.85 6.25 x 5.87 = ?. Find the approximate value. (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 50 17. If a discount of 10% is given on marked price of the book, the shopkeeper gains 20%. If the discount is increased to 15%, the gain/loss percentage is (a) 10% (b) 13.33% (c) 15% (d) 16.66% 18. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days and 10 days respectively. They worked alternatively starting with A. If and amount of Rs. 5600 is given for the entire work, what is the share of B, if the wage is paid according to the amount of work done? (a) Rs. 3000 (b) Rs. 2100 (c) Rs. 2900 (d) Rs. 1800 19. Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

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The following graph gives details of Foreign Investment in India (in $ billion) Approximately what per cent of actual inflows occurred in 2009 with respect to the total inflow during the period? (a) 10.5% (b) 11.5% (c) 12.5% (d) 13.5% 20. Find the least number which is divisible by 18, 48 and 64 and which is not a square. (a) 576 (b) 676 (c) 1728 (d) 1152 21. The ratio of the ages of A and B 3 years ago was 2:5. The difference in their ages after 5 years is 6 years. What is the average of the ages of A and B after 3 years? (a) 7 years (b) 13 years (c) 19 years (c) 25 years 22. In a collection of 4 Mathematics books, 3 Physics books and 3 Chemistry books the probability that 3 particular Mathematics book will be together is (a) 1/8 (b) 1/10 (c) 1/15 (d) 4/11 23. Mr. X bought a scooter for Rs. 15,000. After a few weeks he sold the scooter to Y on 15% profit. Y spent Rs. 500 on its repair and sold it to Z for Rs. 21000. What profit percent did Y get approximately? (a) 14% (b) 24% (c) 18% (d) 21% 24. The cost price of an article is Rs. 500. How much profit did the trader get by selling the article if it was sold at 10% discount? I. The trader marked the article at Rs. 600 II. The trader sold the article to A and sold the article to B at Rs. 600 earning a profit of 10% (a) Can answer with either statement I alone or with statement II alone (b) Can answer with both statements together but not with individual statements alone (c) Can answer with each statement alone (d) Cannot answer with both the statements and require additional data 25. The sum of 20 consecutive integers is 290. What is the sum of middle 4 integers? (a) 29 (b) 46 (c) 58 (d) 116

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Logical Reasoning 26. Given series: H 5 F B 2 4 R A Y 3 8 4 F B 1 T P 9 T 6 4 H C T. If the first half of the series is reversed then how many numbers are preceded by a letter and followed by a letter. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 27. There are 200 students studying in a class. Each of the students read atleast one of the three newspapers TOI, DNA, HT. 20% of the students read only DNA. 40 students read both TOI and HT. 30 students read both DNA and TOI. 50 students read only TOI. 40% of the students read atleast 2 newspapers. Find the number of students who read only HT. (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50 28. Find the next term in the given series: 2, 6, 10, 22, ? (a) 42 (b) 44 (c) 40 (d)38 29. Five students participated in the scholarship examination. Sudha scored higher than Puja. Kavita scored lower than Suma but higher than Sudha. Mamta scored between Puja and Sudha. Who scored lowest in the examination? (a) Puja (b)Kavita (c) Mamta (d) Sudha 30. Samant remembers that his brothers birthday is after fifteenth but before eighteenth of February, whereas his sister remembers that her brothers (not Samant) birthday is after sixteenth but before Nineteenth of February. On which date of February is Samants brothers birthday? (a) 18th (b) 16th (c) 19th (d) 17th 31. Rajesh walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 5 metres. He then turned to his left and walked 13 metres. He again turned to his right and walked 11 metres. At what distance is he from the starting point? (a) 55 metres (b) 20 metres (c) 35 metres (d) 40 metres 32. Directions for the following question: The following question consists of four statements followed by four conclusions. Consider the statements to be true even if they vary from the normally known facts and find out which of the following conclusion(s) logically follow(s) the given statements and choose the proper alternative from the given choices: Statement: Some watches are clocks, some clocks are times, some times are fast, life is fast. Conclusions : 1. Some watches are life 2. Some lifes are time 3. Some clocks are fast 4. Some watches are fast (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 and 4 (c) all follows (d) none follows

33. How many pairs of letters are there in the word INTRODUCTION which has as many letters between them as in the alphabet? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 34. SUND : TWQH :: ? : KETS (a) JCQO (b) LGWW

(c) JGWW

(d) LCQO

35. Find the set which is different from the other three. (a) JIKH (b) WQRS (c) FDCE (d) YWVX
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36. In the following questions study the series given in (A) and then fill in the blank in (B) following the same pattern A. 13, 49, 74, 90, 99 B. 8, 44, 69, __, 94 (a) 82 (b) 78 (c) 74 (d) 85 37. If in the English alphabet, all the letters at odd numbered positions are written in serial order from left to right followed by the letters at even numbered positions written in reverse order, then which letter will be sixth to the left of the seventeenth letter from left? (a) D (b) B (c) V (d) U 38. Boys and girls are made to sit in 5 rows and 5 columns, all of them facing North. A is at the centre of the arrangement. P is to the immediate right of A, Q is just behind P and R is to the north of A. In which direction is Q with respect of R? (a) South (b) South West (c) North East (d) None of these 39. A$B means B is father of A; A#B means B is mother of A; A*B means B is sister of A and A@B B is husband of A; then which of the following indicates relationship N is grandmother of P? (a) P*Q#M$N (b) P@Q$M#N (c) P#Q$N*M (d) None of these 40. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is third to the right of C and second to the left of H. D is not an immediate neighbor of C or H. E is to the immediate right of A, who is second to the right of G. Which of the following pairs of persons has first person sitting to the right of the second person? (a) CB (b) AE (c) DB (d) HA 41. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters ADER, using each letter only once in each word? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) More than three 42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (a) 35 (b) 52 (c) 26 (d) 17 43. Who reached the station first among L, M, J, T and R if no two persons reached together? I. M reached only after J and T II. L reached before R (a) Can answer with either statement I alone or with statement II alone (b) Can answer with both statements together but not with individual statements alone (c) Can answer with each statement alone (d) Cannot answer with both the statements and require additional data 44. A group of digits is given followed by three combinations of letters and symbols. Digits are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. Find out which combination correctly represents the group of digits. Digit: 5 1 2 8 6 3 9 0 4 7 Letter/Symbol Code: H $ T A U % # F R @ Conditions: If first digit is odd and the last digit is even their codes are to be interchanged If the first as well as last digit is even both are to be coded as * If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd both are to be coded as code for last digit 590247 (a) @#FTRH (b) H#FTR@ (c) H#FTRH (d) None of these
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45. If 8-7 means 56; 17/9 means 26; 23x9 means 14 and 18+3 means 6, then 312 +13 -2 x7 /3=? (a) 44 (b) 39 (c) 47 (d) 48 46. There was a race of cars. When the race ended, there were 6 cars in front of a car in a track, 6 cars were behind a car in the same track and a car in the middle. What is the minimum number of cars in that track, when the race finished? (a) 7 (b ) 9 (c) 13 (d) None of these 47. Directions for the following question: The following question consists of a statement followed by three conclusions. Consider the statements to be true even if they vary from the normally known facts and find out which of the following conclusion(s) logically follow(s) the given statements and choose the proper alternative from the given choices: Statements: Some tables are chairs. Some chairs are beds. Conclusions: 1. Some tables are beds. 2. No bed is either a chair or a table 3. All beds are chairs. (a) Only either 1 or 2 follows (b) Only 1 and 3 follow (c) None follows (d) All follow 48. There are 10 marbles kept on a table. Two persons started playing with them. A person can pick up 1 to 4 marbles at a time. The person who picks up marble(s) at last will lose the match. How many marbles should the first person pick up in the first attempt so that he must win the match? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 49. There are two cities A and B. The people of city A always tell truth. People of city B always tell lies P,Q, R and S are four persons belonging to city A or B. P said to Q: You and me do not belong to same city. Q said to P: You and S belong to city B. Then Q belongs to which city? (a) A (b) B (c) That depends on R (d) That depends on S 50. There are 10 racks. Nine racks contain 10 coins each having a weight of 10 gm. One rack contains 10 coins having weight of 9 gm each. How many minimum weighings do you require to identify the rack having the coins of 9 gm? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 Language comprehension 51. Thinking of throwing out your old cell phone? Think again. May be you should mine first for gold, silver, copper and a host of other metals embedded in the electronics many of which are enjoying near record prices. Its called urban mining, scavenging through the scrap metal in old electronic products. A tonne of ore from a gold mine produces just 5 gms of gold on an average, whereas a tonne of discarded mobile phones can yield 150 gms or more of gold, around 100 kg of copper and 3 kg of silver, among other metals. Which of the following can be deduced from the above? (a) Environment consciousness has led people to recycle. (b) Electronic gadgets should not be discarded thoughtlessly. (c) Recycling has gained in importance as metal prices hit record highs. (d)Recycling electronics makes sense for countries which have few natural resources . Tel. No.: 25394777 / 67120221 E-mail: [email protected] Website: www.quoinacademy.com 7

52. Around 1200 BC, many Bronze Age cultures in the eastern Mediterranean collapsed. Archaeology has traditionally put this down to invasions by seafaring peoples, but Amos Nur argues that a storm of earthquakes lasting several decades may also have played a major role. In this well written book he examines the signatures left by such quakes, and, turning to more recent tremors, he notes that some had major historical consequences. The above paragraph appears to be (a) an abstract from a book that examines the effect of earthquakes. (b) an extract from the book that examines the effect of earthquakes. (c) a white paper. (d) a review of a book that examines the effect of earthquakes. 53. Researchers in Britain have debunked the common belief that cravings are the result of the bodys biological needs, that a vitamin or mineral in the food we yearn for is missing from our diet and needs replacing. There is no evidence that food cravings are linked to nutritional deficiencies. What is more likely is that, the foods we crave are those we usually attempt to resist because they induce guilty feelings when we eat them. If we try to resist something the urge for it doesnt go away. it actually becomes amplified. Which of the following best summarizes the paragraph above? (a) Craving for a food comes because it has vitamins or minerals that the body lacks. (b) According to researchers in Britain, cravings are the result not of the bodys biological need but of resisting the food we feel guilty to eat. (c) Foods we deny ourselves because they are rich in calories cause a subconscious desire for it. (d) Our body has many biological needs that are fulfilled through our favourite food. 54. Steffy does not feel like working any more. In an organization where networking skills are given more preference than talent, she feels cheated. The trigger was a recent promotion of one of her peers who she thinks is not as capable as her. Being one of the key resources in the organization, she feels ignored. She has decided to be open and take a stand. If the organization has a plausible explanation, she will stay back or else she will quit. Which of the following arguments is used in the above passage? (a) Emotive appealing to peoples feeling to drive home a point. (b) Analogy drawing a parallel to explain a point. (c) Personalization telling a story of one person to make a point. (d) Statistical analysis noting the number of people who take a stand. In the below question, the word given is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which usage of the word is incorrect. 55. LINE (a) Large scale manufacturing has made assembly lines the order of the day. (b) Many politicians see power as a means to line their pocket. (c) The victim was asked to recognize the culprit from the suspects lined against the wall. (d) The latest in the line of Harry Potter novels has broken all records. 56. Ever since the arrival of printing thought to be the invention of the devil because it would put false opinion in peoples minds people have been arguing that new technology would have disastrous consequences for language. Scares accompanied the introduction of the telegraph, telephone and broadcasting but has there ever been a linguistic phenomenon that has aroused such curiosity, suspicion. fear, confusion. antagonism, fascination, excitement and enthusiasm all at once as texting? And in such a short space of time? ________________ (a) Texting appears as no more than a few ripples on the surface of the sea of language. (b) John Humphrey argued that texters are vandals who are doing to our language what Genghis Khan did to his neighbours 800 years ago. (c) Text messaging generated $ 70 billion in 2005 thats more than three times as much as all Hollywood box office returns tllat year. (d) Less than a decade ago hardly anyone had heard of it. Tel. No.: 25394777 / 67120221 E-mail: [email protected] Website: www.quoinacademy.com 8

57. Often described as a noble quest for the truth, science can also be messy and duplicitous never more so than in the search for the keys to heredity, the gene. Here is the 100 year story of genetics with the set-back breakthroughs carefully explained and the human story thrillingly evoked. The above paragraph appears to be an attempt at (a) defending science from its detractors. (b) criticizing science and scientists. (c) explaining heredity and its implications (d) reviewing a book on heredity. 58. Real estate developers in Karnataka have decided to raise home prices by 3 to 8% from June 10. The price hike was inevitable because steel was dearer by 24% compared to its January level and cement prices were up by 56% from the beginning of the year. The price rise will be Rs.75 to Rs.500 per square feet based on the location and the stage of construction. Which of the following can be deduced from the above? (a) The rise in home prices is due to increasing cost of materials. (b) Cheaper home prices means the material used is not good. (c) The increase in price of houses already under construction is unjustified and must be condemned. (d) Costs of construction material is less important than the cost of labour in determining house price. 59. When people go blind early in life, the region of the brain that specializes in vision gets reassigned to other functions, such as processing sensations of touch, sound and speech. What is unclear is whether key parts of the original brain wiring are preserved during reassignment - and thus, whether normal sight is even possible if the eye is repaired. Which of the following best summarizes the above paragraph? (a) Most blind people will be able to see through surgery of the eye. (b) Sight can be restored by repairing the eye, only if the brain can interpret visual signals from the eye. (c) Blind people will never be able to see again because the brain switches functions. (d) Brain wiring is more important than the eye itself to the restoration of vision. 60. According to a recent report, teachers at residential schools are paid far more than those in regular or day-scholar schools. It does not seem fair that just because teachers at residential schools stay away from their homes and family, they should be paid so much more than their counterparts in day-scholar schools. A teachers salary should be based on the number of students taught. It is true that there are variations in teachers salary even in regular schools between government and private schools. But all teachers salary should be based on the strength of the students in class. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the speakers argument? (a) Even in a given school, teachers handling primary classes are paid less than those handling secondary and higher secondary classes. (b) Some teachers in private schools earn as much as their counter parts in residential schools. (c) All teachers do not require the same qualification, aptitude and commitment. (d) Teachers whether in residential or day-care schools are equally responsible for the moral, intellectual and social development of the young ones. 61. English should be the medium of education in all schools in India since proficiency in English, more than ones knowledge, has become the determining factor in obtaining a good job. This is the best way for the development of the people and the nation and such factors as pride in ones culture, heritage etc., should not hold us back. Which of the following weakens the above conclusion? (a) The death of a culture like the death of a species is irreplaceable. Tel. No.: 25394777 / 67120221 E-mail: [email protected] Website: www.quoinacademy.com 9

(b) Most of the scientific journals are in English and hence knowledge of English is essential. (c) Without English a person cannot keep abreast of the developments taking place in his field. (d) Many European countries do not teach English in their schools. 62. Arrange the following sentences to make a logical and coherent paragraph. A. Thats because gnats exist on that insignificant size level which is neither too small to be exotic like bacteria or viruses to set alarm hells ringing at the mention of their names nor are they big enough like dogs or whales to inspire affection or awe. B. Its a tiny two winged insect thats usually not of any great concern to anyone who has virtually anything else on his or her mind. C. Sometimes it is worth remembering the gnat. D. Today they are on the edge of eyesight, linguistically marginalized into derogatory phrases and even when some species have the mouthparts to bite into us, the nip is laughable to say the least. (a) ABCD (b) CBAD (c) CABD (d) CDAB 63. Arrange the following sentences to make a logical and coherent paragraph. A. One of the first signs of change is deterioration in vision, which is usually corrected through the use of lens. B. Thanks to technological innovations in eye care, doctors are not only initiating better medical remedies but also helping to detect a passive disease very early in life. C. Like the rest of the body, eyes also change throughout ones lifetime. D. But there are many diseases like diabetes, retinopathy or glaucoma which glasses cannot fix. (a) ABCD (b) CADB (c) CBAD (d) BCDA 64. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option. A _________ gain in the stock market made him rich beyond his expectation. But he _________ his new found wealth and ________ the norms of decency. (a) flout, flaunts, fortuitously (b) flaunts, flouts, fortuitous (c) fortuitous, flouts, flaunts (d) fortuitous, flaunts, flouts 65. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option. After class, the students _________ the new teacher who _________ at the comments made about his capabilities. He had rather expected to be ________ for his knowledge. (a) chaffed, chafed, complimented (b) complimented, chafed, chaffed (c) chafed, complimented, chaffed (d) chaffed, chafed, chafed 66. In each question, four different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to standard English usage. A The primary aim of the prophets of Nationalism was to rid the nation of the idea that the future was limited by the circumstances of the present, that because temporary causes had brought us low and made us weak, we would never be able to aspire to a bright future. B. The primary aim of the prophets of Nationalism was to rid the nation of the idea that the future was limited by the circumstances of the present, that because temporary causes have brought us low and made us weak, we will never be able to aspire to a bright future. C. The primary aim of the prophets of Nationalism was that the nation was to get rid of the idea that the future was limited by the circumstances of the present, that because temporary causes have brought us low and made us weak, we would never be able to aspire to a bright future.

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D. The primary aim of the prophets of Nationalism was to rid of the nation of the idea that the future was limited by the circumstances of the present, that because temporary causes had brought us low and made us weak, we would never be able to aspire to a bright future. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 67. In each question, four different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to standard English usage. A. Concert or unity may come in good time, but it must be an underlying unity with a free difference, not a swallowing up of one another or an incongruous and inharmonious mixture. B. Concert or unity may come in good time, but it must be an underlying unity with a free differentiation, not a swallowing up of one by another or an incongruous and inharmonious mixture. C. Concert or unity may come in good time, but that must be an underlying unity with a differentiation, not a swallowing up of one another or an incongruous and inharmonious mixture. D. Concert or unity may come in good time, but it must be an underlying unity with a difference, not a swallowing up of one by another or an incongruous and inharmonious mixture. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 68. Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences. (A) The shuttle was scheduled for departure at 21.30 hours. (B) It stood majestically in the dying sunlight. (C) The last few routine check were being completed. (D) Until seconds before blast-of checks would go on. (a) A and B (b) A, B and D (c) C and D

(d) C and D

69. Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences. (A) Every morning the old mans cough was the first sound to hear. (B) Chang usually laid listening to it. (C) He moved only when he heard it approaching nearer. (D) But this morning he did not wait and sprang up from bed. (a) A and B (b) B and D (c) B and C (d) A, B and D 70. For the word given below, match the dictionary definitions with their corresponding usage. STABLE A firmly fixed, not likely to move or change E I think all of them are actors from the same stable. B Staying in the same state F Though he is quite experienced, he does not seem to be mentally stable. C calm and reasonable G Prices of electronic goods have remained stable for a few years now. D persons, products having a common H You have to prove that the product origin obtained is a stable compound. (a) (b) (c) (d) A-H, B-F, C-E, D-G A-G, B-F, C-H, D-E A-H, B-G, C-F, D-E A-G, B-H, C-F, D-E

71. A part of the phrase is underlined. Identify from the options given, the correct option that can replace the underlined sentence. A proposal has been made to trim the horns from rhinoceroses to discourage poachers; the question is whether tourists will continue to visit game parks and see rhinoceroses after their horns are trimmed. (a) whether tourists will continue to visit game parks and see rhinoceroses after their horns are
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(b) whether tourists will continue to visit game parks to see one once their horns are (c) whether tourists will continue to visit game parks to see rhinoceroses once the animals horns have been (d) if tourists will continue to visit game parks and see rhinoceroses once the animals horns are 72. An easy willingness to tell funny stories or jokes about oneself is the surest mark of supreme selfconfidence. This willingness, often not acquired until late in life, is even more revealing than is good-natured acquiescence in having others poke fun at one. Which one of the following inference is most supported by the statements above? (a) A person who lacks self-confidence will enjoy neither telling nor hearing funny stories about himself or herself. (b) People with high self-confidence do not tell funny stories or jokes about others. (c) Highly self-confident people tell funny stories and jokes in order to let their audience know that they are self-confident. (d) Most people would rather tell a funny story or joke than listen to one being told. 73. The more television children watch, the less competent they are in mathematical knowledge. More than a third of children in the United States watch television for more than five hours a day; in South Korea the figure is only 7 percent. But whereas less than 15 percent of children in the United States understand advanced measurement and geometric concept, 40 percent of South Korea children are competent in these areas. Therefore, if Untied States children are to do well in mathematics, they must watch less television. Which one of the following is an assumption upon which the argument depends? (a) Children in the United States are less interested in advanced measurement and geometric concepts than are South Korea children. (b) South Korea children are more disciplined about doing schoolwork than are children in the United States. (c) Children who want to do well in advanced measurement and geometry will watch less than television. (d) The instruction in advanced measurement and geometric concepts available to children in the United States is not substantially worse than that available to South Korea children. 74. A law that is not consistently enforced does not serve its purpose. Law without enforcement is not law; it is merely statute - a promise of law. To institute real law is not merely to declare that such and such behavior is forbidden, it is also to punish those who violate that edict. Furthermore, those who enforce law must punish without favor for their friends or malice for their enemies. To punish only those one dislike while forgiving others is not to enforce law but to engage in the arbitrary and unjust exercise of power. The main point of the passage is that instituting real law consists in (a)the exercise of power (b)authorizing the enforcement of punishments (c) the unbiased punishment of prohibited behavior (d)understanding the purpose of law 75. Find the odd man out: (a) Assuage (b) Mollify

(c) palliate

(d) exacerbate

General awareness 76. Who is the current President of World Bank? (a) Strauss Kahn (b) Marcelli Ibiz

(c) Deanne Cruz

(d) Jim Yong Kim

77. Who among the following was a contender to Pranab Mukherjee in the Presidential Elections? (a) P.A. Sangma (b) Dr. V. Ansari (c) J. Marak (d) V. Singh
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78. Where is the Head Quarters of the World Health Organization Located? (a) France (b) Zurich (c) Geneva (d) Lyons 79. Who among the following is the supreme commander of the Indian armed forces? (a) Lieutenant (b) Prime Minister Of India (c) President of India (d) Defence Minister of India 80. Our National Emblem, which also appears on all our currency notes has a wheel (Chakra) in between the bull and the horse, below the three lions. What is the Chakra called as? (a) Param Vir Chakra (b) Dharma Chakra (c) Satya Chakra (d) Ashoka Chakra 81. Our National Song Vande Mataram composed by Bankim Chandra Chatterji has been translated in English by (a) Sri. Aurobindo Ghose (b) Sri Ravindranath Tagore (c) Sri. Satchidanand Ghosh (d) Sri. Nirobaran Gupta 82. The collection and scienticfic study of coins is called as (a) Numismatics (b) Catagmatics (c) Apochromatics 83. Which among the following is the largest lake in the world? (a) Lake Superior, Noth America (b) Lake Victoria, Africa (c) Lake Michigan, North Africa (d) Aral Sea, Asia 84. What is the currency of The Phillipines. (a) Peso (b) Ringgit (c) Baht

(d) Zeugmatics

(d) Kyat

85. Which among the following in our constitution is called Magna Carta? (a) Preamble (b) Fundamental rights (c) Fundamental Duties (d) Directive Principles of State Policy 86. Indian Currency Printing Institutions are located in which of the following places? 1. Nasik 2. Hoshangabad 3. Hyderabad 4. Devas (a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

87. S and P waves are associated with which of the following? (a) Floods (b) Wind energy (c) Earthquakes

(d) Tidal Energy

88. Each character on the keyboard has an ASCII value which stands for: (a) American Stock Code for Information Interchange (b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange (c) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Interchange (d) American Stock Code for Information Institute 89. On 29th October 2012, one of the biggest publishing houses in the world, Bertelsmann, entered into an agreement with a rival conglomerate Pearson plc. What is the name of the new publishing company? (a) Penguin Random House (b) Penguin Putnam Inc (c) Penguin Group (d) Bertelsmann Pearson Publishing 90. Find the incorrect match. Minister & Portfolio (a) Manish Tewari - Information & Broadcasting (b) Ashwani Kumar - Law & Justice
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(c) Dayanidhi Maran - Steel (d) Kamal Nath - Urban development 91. Avenger and Platina are the names of the bike models that belong to the stable of . (a) Honda Motors Ltd. (b) Bajaj Auto Ltd. (c) Kinetic Engineering Ltd. (d) LML Ltd. 92. Leadership with trust, is the tagline of (a) A.V. Birla (b) Tata Group (c) RPG Enterprises (d) Bharti Enterprises 93. The term stagflation is used to describe (a) inflation with growth (b) inflation with recession (c) deflation with growth (d) deflation with recession 94. Pick the odd one out from the following: (a) NSE (b) BSE (c) DSE 95. What is the value of the Roman Number XC (a) 100 (b) 40 (c) 110 96. Which of the following term is used in Badminton? (a) Tee (b) Trump (c) Drop Shots

(d) SEBI

(d) 90

(d) Strike

97. The 69th Golden Globe Awards 2012 for Best Actor (Drama) was won by: (a) George Clooney (b) Bradley Cooper (c) Martin Scorsese (d) Leonardo Di Caprio 98. The author of the book The Wind Through The Keyhole is: (a) Ruchir Sharma (b) Stephen King (c) James Robinson (d) Rupa Bajwa 99. Which city is the capital of Israel? (a) Tel Aviv (b) Bethlehem

(c) Jerusalem

(d) Nazareth

100. Which company has unveiled its first new logo in 25 years on Thursday, 23rd August 2012, as it looks to unify its branding ahead of a clutch of new product releases this year? (a) IBM (b) Coca Cola (c) Pepsi (d) Microsoft Corp

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