1. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing 2. Project charter, stakeholder register, stakeholder management plan 3.

Identifying stakeholders and collect requirements 4. To control unnecessary change 5. Controlling unnecessary change 6. Control schedule 7. Support the project and resolve resource and other conflicts 8. Project charter, stakeholder register, stakeholder management plan 9. Co-location 10. Increasing output to meet unusually high customer demand 11. To control unnecessary change 12. Functional management 13. They are all equal importance unless stated otherwise 14. Project management office 15. Control schedule 16.700MB capacity for a CD-ROM 17 The project expeditor has no limit or no decision-making ability 18. The project management life cycle is the project management piece of the project and the project life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project. 19. They are all of equal importance unless otherwise stated. 20. Managing of related or similar projects in a coordinated way 21. Plan-Do-Check-Act 22. The project manager 23. Corrective action 24. Product life cycle 25. Control schedule 26 .Strategic planning 27 Having a home to go to when the project is complete

28. To control unnecessary change 29. Information distribution plan 30. All the answers 31. Controlling unnecessary change 32. Project product 33. Charter 34. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing 35. The charter and project planning 36. A project that utilizes all groups across a company 37. Optimization for a single focus on the project 38. Focusing most product development on a specific market segments 39. Operations management 40. Project manager 41. Optimization for a single focus on the project 42. Control schedule 43. Stakeholder risk tolerance 44. Progressive Elaboration 45. A project proposed in response to a legal requirement 46. Being away from the group might make career advancement more difficult. 47. Operations management is responsible for the continued support of the product, service, or result. 48. Strategic planning 49. As a response to a legal requirement, a business problem, a technology advance, or a business opportunity 50. Operations management is responsible for the continued support of the product, service, or result. 51. Work result 52. Weekly progress reports for stakeholders 53. Senior management (D)

54. To check for variances from plan and make appropriate adjustments when variances are encountered. (B) 55. Weekly progress reports for stakeholders (B) 56. Creating marketing materials in Spanish and English for areas that have a large Hispanic population. (B) 57. Matrix (A) 58. The PMO will collect, measure, and interpret the information (C) 59. All of the answers (C) 60. Project management office (D) 61. Approved changes. (B) 62. Project management information system (PMIS) 63. Project B (D) 64. Evaluate the impact of the persons absence on the project and communicate to senior management.(B) 65. Network diagram (B) 66. Whether the new project will impact your projects business case. (C) 67. Evaluate the impact to the project and let the customer know the options and impact of the change. (B) 68. To control change by approval of needed changes and rejection of unneeded changes to the project. (D) 69. Procedures to document and control product or services characteristics (C) 70. Meet with the sponsor and find out what their concerns are (C) 71. Direct and manage project execution (D) 72. Procurement audit (C) 73 .Formal acceptance (C) 74. Lessons learned (A) 75. Close procurements (D) 76. Formal acceptance (A) 77. Assignment of the project manager (D) 78. They are all equal unless otherwise stated in the project charter (C)

79. Kick off meetings (C) 80. Sponsor (B) 81. To control Gold plating (C) 82. He is incorrectly calling a schedule a project management plan (D) 83. What impact the new project is expected to have on your biggest project (C) 84. Budget management plan (B) 85. It has a duration of zero (0) (A) 86. A change in the market which the work of the project will operate (B) 87. Conflicting goals of the sponsors (D) 88. Change requests (D) 89. Stakeholder identification (B) 90. A thorough change control system to ensure the project produces the desired results (A) 91. Direct and manage project execution (C) 92. Lessons learned (D) 93. All the answers 94. Formal acceptance (D) 95. To show that all servers at distribution centres are less than two years old (D) 96. To ensure that all technology in place at key branches is less than three years old (D) 97. Constraints that impact the projects (A) 98. A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement. (D) 99. The system accommodates the need to send the right information to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner. (D) 100. The budget management plan (A) 101. The project baseline (A) 102. Schedule, budget, risk register, various management plans, and change management plan (D) 103. Project management information system (PMIS) 104. Change control meetings (B)

105. Procedures used to document and control product or service characteristics (C) 106. A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of the project (A) 107. (A) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of project 108. (A) A project that utilizes all groups across a company 109. (A) Progressive elaboration 110. (C) Business unit competency 111. (D) Direct and manage project execution 112. (B) Project management plan and performance Reports 113. (B) He really wants a schedule, not a project management plan 114. (C) Project management information system (PMIS) 115. (A) the project baseline 116. (A) constraints that impact the project 117. (D) Schedule, budget, risk register, various management plans, and change management plan 118. (B) Evaluate the impact the requested change will have on the project and advise the customer of the impact and his options 119. (A) Change control meetings 120. (C) To control gold plating 121. (D) It is vital that the system accommodates our need to send the right information to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner 122. (D) Approved changes 123. (A) Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, and what decisions were made 124. (D) Compiling lessons learned 125. (D) All the answers 126. (A) Closing the project or phase 127. (B) Closing the project execution 128. (A) Project B

129. (B) The sponsor pays for the project and could own the work of the project when it is complete 130. (A) Collect, measure, and interpret the information 131. (D) Work performance information, deliverables, project management plan updates, and change requests. 132. (B) Project D 133. (B) The project baseline 134. (B) The impact the new project may have on the business case for the reporting consolidation project 135. (C) The project manager and the project management team 136. (C) Closing the project or phase 137. (C) evaluates the impact of the persons absence on the project and communicates to senior management 138. (B) A schedule, not a project management plan 139. (B) To help ensure that work is done in the appropriate system 140. (D) Constraint that impact the project 141.(B) Constraints that impact the project 142. (A) Project management information system (PMIS) 143. (C) The system is utilized to send the right information to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner 144. (C) Project management plan and performance reports 145. (B) Lessons learned from prior projects 146. (B) Closing the project 147. (D) Compiling lessons learned 148. (A) All of the answers 149. (B) Define scope 150. (A) the decomposition of the work of the project 151. (C) It has duration of zero (0). 152. (A) Planning areas may lack supporting details 153. (C) Define scope

154. (A) Ask the sponsor for assistance 155. (C) Verify scope 156. (C) Verify scope is the process of comparing what the project created to the project scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps ensure that the results of the project will function as intended. 157. (A) At the end of every phase on the project 158. (C) Control scope 159. (A) All the answers 160. (D) Creating the WBS 161. (B) Project B 162. (B) Scope verification 163. (D) Scope verification 164. (B) Project charter 165. (C) To consider all the key stakeholders need when identifying requirements and scope 166. (A) Work packages and activity lists 167. (A) Requirements traceability matrix, requirements management plan, requirements documentation 168. (B) Organisational breakdown structure, which graphically illustrates how the project organisation is structured to accomplish project activities 169. (A) Expert judgment, alternatives identification, facilitated workshops, and product analysis 170. (A) Project scope statement updates 171. (A) Control scope 172. (A) Collect, measure, and interpret the information 173. (C) Requirements traceability matrix, validated deliverables, requirements documentation, and project management plan 174. (D) Verify scope is the process of comparing what the project created to the project scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps ensure that the results of the product will function as intended. 175. (C) Work performance information, requirements traceability matrix, requirements documentation, and project management plan

176. (D) at the end of every phase on the project 177. (C) Verify scope and perform quality control 178. (B) The control scope process 179. (C) C. Review the scope and determine why it did not satisfy the customer 180. (B) A delay inserted between activities 181. (A) The sequencing of the activities on the project 182. (A) Fast tracking 183. (A) Parametric 184. (D) Milestone chart 185. (B) Crashing 186. (A) Parametric 187. (C) External dependencies 188. (C) BDE, 14 days 189. (D) Discretional dependencies 190. (B) Mandatory dependencies 191. (D) External Dependencies 192. (B) Slack 193. (A) Activity on Arrow (AOA) 194. (B) Fast tracking 195. (B) One day 196. (B) BDGH, 21 days 197. (C) Negative twelve weeks 198. (D) BEGH 199. (C) shows who is to perform work in certain areas of the project 200. (C) A delay after the sheetrock (wall board) is done in a house to allow it to dry before continuing work in that area 201. (B) Activity list and milestone list 202. (C) The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram 203. (D) It is not on the critical path, has 2 days float, and is 5 days long

204. (D) Report that the project is behind schedule, but the team has a solution to bring the project back on schedule in the next four weeks. 205. (A) Some activities may be fast tracked 206. (A) Tell senior management the project is two weeks behind with a contingency plan 207. (B) Performance reviews, project management software, variance analysis 208. (C) Plus three weeks 209. (B) Bottom-up estimating, project management software, expert judgement, published estimating date, and alternative analysis. 210. (D) if the longest paths are the same length, there can be multiple critical paths and the more critical paths there are on a project, the greater the increase of risk to project. 211. (C) A delay after installation of the rubberized flooring, allowing the adhesive to thoroughly dry before adding the equipment and furnishings 212. (D) The method can reveal more than one critical path, critical paths being the longest paths on the project, but multiple critical paths increase project risk 213. (A) a diagram of the order in which the project activities will occur 214. (D) it can be created quickly 215. (A) Bottom-up estimating 216. (B) Parametric 217. (A) Chart of accounts 218. (A) Variable indirect 219. (C) Chart of accounts 220. (D) $691.24 221.(A) -$65.00 222. (A) -$77.50 223. (B) $186.24 224. (D) Scope, time, and cost 225. (D) Project C 226. (A) Project C 227. (B) Life cycle costing

228. (D) Revenue and cost 229. (B) Project B 230. (A) Variables indirect 231. (C) Accelerated Depreciation 232. (B) $2668.09 233. (A) $1633.09 234. (D) -$168.09 235. (A) Estimate to completion 236. (A) -$55.00 237. (A) Project B 238.( C) -50% to +50% 239. (D) -25% to +75% 240. (A) project B 241. (C) Project C 242. (B) $5,000 243. (B) Scope, time, and cost 244. (C) $691.24 245. (B) Parametric 246. (A) Life cycle costing 247. (A) $275.00 248. (B) to complete performance index 249. (A) -$57.50 250. (A) -$185.39 251. (A) 0.84 252. $4,761.91 253. (C) The project costs may increase, but company might save money in the long term

254. (A) Project A 255. (B) $1550 256. (C) Earned value management (EVM) 257. (C) Cost control 258. (C) Estimate to complete 259. (A) -$230.00 260. (B) Fees to marketing company to create a get started kit for new intranet 261. (A) Parametric 262. (A) -25% to +75% 263. (B) Accelerated Depreciation 264. 30%/70% 265. (C) Definition of quality 266. (D) senior management 267. (C) Pareto diagram 268. (C) Zero Defects 269. (D) Total Quality management 270. (A) making a greater use of checklists 271. (B) Inspection 272. (B) Run chart 273. (B) Utilizing a Fishbone diagram 274. (B) Checklist 275. (B) Quality audit 276. (A) Quality audits 277. (D) Auditing the quality requirements and quality control measurements to ensure appropriate standards are used 278. (A) Perform Quality Assurance 279. (C) Changing the quality to a sigma level greater than 3 280. (B) Increase warranty support

281. (B) senior management 282. (D) Fishbone diagram 283. (A) the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfil requirements 284. (D) Pareto diagram 285. (D) it is not very thorough 286. (C) Scatter diagram 287. (C) Utilizing a fishbone diagram 288. (C) Making a greater use of checklists 289. (C) Verifying that the quality plan will help achieve the desired results 290. (D) Quality Audit 291. (B) Quality Audits 292. (B) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the perform Quality Assurance process 293. (D) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance 294. (D) Perform Quality Assurance 295. (D) Quality control measurements can be fed into the perform Quality Assurance process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of perform Quality control 296.( A) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used? 297. (C) Verify scope and perform quality control 298. (A) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are 299. (C) Quality control measurement can be fed into the perform Quality Assurance process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of perform Quality control 300. (D) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used 301. (A) Perform Quality Assurance 302. (D) Updates should occur as validation data from the perform Quality Assurance process 303. (A) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance 304. (A) Expert

305. (D) Responsibility assignment matrix 306. (A) Perks 307. (B) Training 308. (D) Mentoring 309. (D) Resource histogram 310. (D) Performance reviews 311. (D) Resource histogram 312. (D) Problem solving 313. (D) Team development 314. (D) Acquire project Team 315. (B) Executing 316. (D) Responsibility Assignment Matrix 317. (B) Psychedelic 318. (A) someone who is impacted by the project 319. (B) Team motivation 320. (A) Information about who is responsible for what work 321. (A) Resource Histogram 322. (B) Smoothing 323. (B) Resource Histogram 324. (C) Ground Rules 325. (D) Performance reviews 326. (A) during execution 327. (A) Performance improvements 328. (A) Team development 329. (C) Effective delegation involves effective communication: a clear definition of the work to be done, the time frame in which the work is to be done, and descriptions of the evaluation process and expected results are necessary 330. (D) Theory X environment

331. (A) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating 332. (A) Confusion about who is responsible for what 333. (C) The team will know who is responsible for what work 334. (C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus 335. (B) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner 336. (C) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles which may create quality issues 337. (B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project 338. (B) Conflict as they become familiar with each other 339. (B) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices 340. (C) project management plan, resource calendars, and project staff assignments 341. (D) Observation and conversation, conflict management, issue log, project performance appraisals, and interpersonal skills 342. (D) Leadership skills, effective decision making skills, and influencing skills 343. (C) Ground rules, team-building activities, co-location, recognition and reward, interpersonal skills, and training. 344. (A) directing in the early stage, coaching as the project gains momentum, facilitation upon completion of significant work, and support as the project is closing 345. (C) Group norms, ground rules, and project management practices 346. (B) Increased team performance 347. (B) Acquire project team 348. (A) Organisational theory, organization chart and position descriptions, and networking 349. (D) Someone who is impacted by the project 350. (A) Resource calendars, project staff assignments, and project management plan

351. (A) the key output of the develop human resource plan is the human resource plan 352. (C) If labor can and wants to see the ultimate reason for doing the work (big picture), management can set the expectation and lead rather than manage 353. (D) Language 354. (B) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting 355. (D) Work breakdown structure 356. (B) Message 357. (C) 90% 358. (B) Status report 359. (D) Variance report 360. (D) Earned value report 361. (D) Work performance information 362. (C) Forecast report 363. (C) A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the same time 364. (C) Message 365. (A) Project scope statement 366. (B) Communication management plan 367. (A) 22 channels 368. (C) Work results 369. (D) Progress report 370. (B) Earned value report 371. (D) Forecast report 372. (B) Issue log 373. (C) Stakeholder registers which contains a list of stakeholders and their needs 374. (A) Stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, level of impact on the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact. 375. (A) Stakeholder analysis and expert judgement

376. (B) Stakeholder register, which contains a list of stakeholders and their needs 377. (C) Stakeholder register and stakeholder management plan 378. (A) communication methods and information distribution tools 379. (D) Communications requirements analysis, communication technology, communication methods, and communication models 380. (B) Informal, unofficial, internal, vertical communication 381. (A) the product functionality required by the primary customer 382. (A) Communication skills commonly used by management 383. (C) Forecasting methods, communication methods, variance analysis, and reporting systems 384. (D) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem 385. (B) Communication methods, interpersonal skills, and management skills 386. (D) Communication methods, interpersonal skills, and management skills 387. (C) Organisational process assets updates, change requests, and project management plan updates 388. (B) Project management plan and performance reports 389. (D) Expert judgement and stakeholder analysis 390. (D) Earned value report 391 (A) Approved corrective actions, resolved issues, and approved change requests 392. (A) 45 channels 393. (C) A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the same time 394. (C) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of the project 395. (C) Performance reports and project management plan 396. (B) The report contains information related to recent project occurrences 397. (C) Stakeholder registers which contains a list of stakeholders and their needs 398. (C) 23 channels

399. (C) Communication skills commonly used by management 400. (D) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of the project 401. (A) Unofficial, informal, internal, vertical communication 402. (D) Answers (A) and (B) 403. (B) Identify Risks 404. (D) Share 405. (D) Risk owners 406. (D) Avoid 407. (A) Change requests 408. (C) Fix the problem with a workaround 409. (C) Scatter diagram 410. (C) Determining the validity of the documentation risks and looking for any new risks that could occur 411. (B) Known unknowns 412. (A) Business risk 413. (B) Unknown unknowns 414. (D) Mitigate 415. (D) Avoid 416. (A) Corrective measure 417. (B) Determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for any new risks that could occur 418. (A) Fix the problem 419. (B) Implementing a risk response plan if the risk events occur 420. (B) Risk events you know can occur on the project 421. (B) Identify Risk which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project 422. (B) Probability distribution 423. (A) Answers and (B) 424. (D) Risk management plan

425. (B) Fix the problem with a workaround 426. (A) Fix the problem 427. (C) Risk owner 428. (D) Risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis, reserve analysis, status meetings 429. (A) Monitor and control risks, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them 430. (D) Implementing a risk response if the risk event occurs 431. (C) Plan Risk Responses which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions 432. (A) Fix the problem 433. (D) Risk breakdown structure 434. (B) Monitor and control risk which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them 435. (C) $1,700 436. (B) Updating risks, risk probability and impact, planned responses and risk owners 437. (A) Project A 438. (B) Single source 439. (A) $700,700 440. (B) Lump-sum 441. (C) Request for proposal (RFP) 442. (A) Lack of career path for contract administrators 443. (A) Contract administrator 444. (D) Administer procurement 445. (B) Monitoring and controlling 446. (D) Conduct procurement 447. (C) Opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bids of other sellers 448. (B) Conduct procurements 449. (A) Bidders conference

450. (A) Close procurement comes before close project o phase 451. (B) Plan procurement 452. (C) Negotiation 453. (A) Special provision 454. (A) Request for proposal (RFP) 455. (C) Your Company has excess capacity for the work 456. (B) Contract administrator 457. (D) Administer procurements 458. (B) Conduct procurements 459. (A) Conduct procurements 460. (D) Close procurement will come before close project or phase 461. (C) Your Company has excessive capacity for the work 462. (A) the software package should be outsourced because the company doesnt have excessive capacity for the work 463. (C) $560K 464. (B) Fixed-price- economic-price-adjust 465. (C ) Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity purchases 466. (A) the contract administrator for the company 467. (C) Any agreement to modify the contract should be created and added as an attachment to the contract 468. (B) All the answers 469. (A) Offering services at a low cost, but raising the cost at signing 470. (B) Annual maintenance 471. (D) Criteria around which the provider of services can refer to the work 472. (D) Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible 473. (C) Validation of the contract terms and conditions and formal acceptance 474. (A) Close procurements comes before close project or phase 475. (D) A mechanism that insures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing

476. (A) Criteria to which the provider of services can refer in connection with the work 477. (C) Cost-plus-incentive-fee 478. (A) the project manager plans to buy from the vendor 479. (B) Close procurements comes before close project or phase 480. (C) $105,830.33 481. (B) Validation of the contract terms and conditions and formal acceptance 482. (B) The person being interviewed should have clarified the status to the employer when the confusion became apparent 483. (B) Order a copy from the company or an authorized reseller 484. (A) Meet with the team and brainstorm how to create a workaround for this 485. (C) Report this activity to PMI for corrective action 486. (B) that she will need a product description so she can provide the customer with time and cost estimates 487. (D) Project manager 488. (C) Reporting this problem to senior management with a solution of replacing this team member 489. (A) Why is the project being done or what is the business need? 490. (D) Culture differences 491. D. Review with the project manager how this status was produced 492. (B) Initiating, planning, Executing, Monitoring and controlling, Closing 493. (D) Identify stake holders and Collect Requirements 494. (D) Project charter, stake holder register, stakeholder management plan 495. (B) Kick off meeting 496. (B) they are all equal unless otherwise stated in the project charter 497. (D) Assignment of the project manager 498. (B) Project B 499. (C) Project C 500. (A) Charter 501. (C) Initiating, planning, Executing, Monitoring and controlling, closure

502. (D) The charter and project planning 503. (C) Kick-off meeting 504. (A) They are all equal unless otherwise stated in the charter 505. (A) Project charter 506. (A) Initiating, planning, Executing. Monitoring and controlling, closing 507. (B) Project charter, stake-holder register, stake-holder management plan 508. (C) Initiating, planning, Executing. Monitoring and controlling, closing 509. (A) A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement 510. (A) A change in the market for which the work of the project is intended 511. (B) to ensure that all servers at distribution centres are less than two years old 512. (C) A project proposed in response to a technology advance 513. (C) Whether the new project will impact the business case for his project 514. (C) -50% to + 50% 515. (A) Project B 516. (D) -25% to + 75% 517. (B) Project B 518. (D) Project C 519. (C) As a response to a legal requirement, a business problem, a technology advance, or business opportunity 520. (D) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and controlling, Closure 521. (D) Strategic planning 522. (A) Operations management is responsible for the continued support of the product, service, or result 523. (C) Work performance information, deliverables, project management plan updates, and change requests 524. (D) Project D 525. (A) A project proposed in response to a technological advance 526. (D) Conflicting goals of the sponsors 527. (D) to control gold plating

528. (D)To control gold plating 529. (D) The project costs may increase, but company might save money in the long term 530. (C) $4,761.91 531. (B) Project A 532. (A) Managing related or similar projects in a coordinated way 533. (B) Business unit competency 534. (B) Project manager 535. (A) Optimization for a single focus on the project 536. (A) the project management life cycle is the project management piece of the project and the life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project 537. (D) Constraints 538. (D) It ensures that all technology in place at key branches is less than three years old 539. (C) Historical information 540. (D) Budget management plan 541. (B) He is incorrectly calling a schedule a project management plan 542. (A) Project B 543. (C) Project scope statement 544. (B) Communication breakdown structure 545. (D) Work breakdown structure 546. (A) Define scope 547. (D) Analogous 548. (A) BFG 549. (C) A delay inserted between activities 550. (A) Some activities may be fast tacked 551. (C) Milestone chart 552. (D) Revenue and cost 553. (D) Sunk cost

554. (B) Determine Budget 555. (D) Indirect 556. (B) 2.78 557. (C) It is very thorough 558. (A) 95.46% 559. (D) Deming 560. (A) Increased warranty support 561. (B) Zero Defects 562. (A) Perks 563. (D) Functional manager 564. (C) Organisational breakdown structure (OBS) 565. (D) Confusion on who is responsible for doing what 566. (B) Halo theory 567. (A) Both the sender and receiver 568. (D) Formal written 569. (B) The product functionality required by the primary customer 570. (C) Work breakdown structure 571. (C) Language 572. (A) Risk seeker 573. (C) Risk owners 574. (C) Risk owners 575. (B) External. Internal, technology, personnel 576. (B) $22,400 577. (A) Share 578. (A) the project manager plans to buy from the vendor 579. (A) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost 580. (C) Proposals that use fixed-price 581. (C) Ten days

582. (B) Functionality 583. (B) 700MB capacity for a CD-ROM 584. (D) The sponsor 585. (D) Project management plan 586. (B) Optimization for a single focus on the project 587. (C) A project that utilized all groups across a company 588. (A) Constraints 589. (C) Project management information system (PMIS) 590. (C) To control Gold plating 591. (D) He is incorrectly calling a schedule a project management plan 592. (B) Sponsor 593. (D) Breaking work down to realistic level where work packages are the lowest level 594. (A) It has duration of zero (o) 595. (A) Creating the WBS and Define Activity 596. (C) Defining activities 597. (A) Constraints 598. (B) Rolling wave planning 599. (C) Fast tracking 600. (D) Gantt chart 601. (B) External Dependencies 602. (C) Project C 603. (D) Scope, Time, and cost 604. (A) Direct 605. (B) Variable indirect 606. (C) Sunk cost 607. (B) Process flow 608. (B) Height 609. (D) 1 or 100%

610. (A) the construction Engineer 611. (A) the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfil requirements 612. (A) Theory X environment 613. (A) Responsibility Assignment matrix 614. (A) Organizational chart 615. (A) Reward 616. (D) Forcing 617. (A) 22 Channels 618. (B) Communication management plan 619. (C) Project scope statement 620. (B) Spreadsheet applications 621. (B) Formal written 622. (A) Business risk 623. (C) Project A 624. (D) Identifying risks 625. (B) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event could occur 626. (B) Transfer 627. (D) Cost plus fixed fee 628. (D) Time and materials 629. (D) The seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the item 630. (A) the company making the product internally 631. (A) the company making the product internally 632. (B) $260K US 633. (C) Support the project and resolve resource and other conflicts 634. (A) Matrix 635. (D)They are all equal unless otherwise stated in the project 636. (B) Progressive elaboration 637. (A) Identify stake holders and collect Requirements

638. (A) Project manager and the project management team 639. (B) Schedule, budget, risk register, various management plan, and change management plan 640. (A) He really wants a schedule, not a project management plan 641. (B) The budget management plan 642. (A) the project baseline 643. (D) Resource breakdown structure, which shows the type of resources used on the project 644. (B) Questionnaires and surveys, facilitated workshops, focus groups and interviews 645. (C)It helps attain buy-in from the team 646. (A) Communication breakdown structure 647. (C) Analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimates, reserve analysis, and expert judgement 648. (A) the activity-on-arrow method may only have one predecessor type and the activity-on-node method may have 4 predecessor types 649. (A) Analogous 651. (A) Templates, rolling wave planning, expert judgement, and decomposition 652. (D) $5,000 653. (B) Schedule performance index 654. (A) Determine Budget 655. (B) Sending the team to communication training 656. (A) Bottom-up estimating 657. (A) TQM and W.Edwards Deming, Fitness for use and Joseph juran, zero Defects and Philip Crosby 658. (D) 1 or 100% 659. (D) Definition of quality 660. (B) Conformance versus Non-conformances 661. (B) Physiological, belonging, esteem, safety, and self-actualization 662. (A) The project manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status reports for the weekly meeting

663. (B) Networking, organisational theory, and organisation charts and position descriptions 664. (D) someone who impacted by the project 665. (A) If labor can and wants to see the ultimate reason for doing the work (big picture), management can set the expectation and lead rather than manage 666. (D) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting 667. (D) 27 Channels 668. (B) Communication skills commonly used by management 669. (A) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting 670. (A) Medium, specifically the technique that dictates the format of a message 671. (D) The risk breakdown structure used in the risk identification process and the risk probabilities and impact rating matrix used in the Qualitative risk analysis process 672. (A) Planning meetings and analysis 673. (B) Earned value management (EVM) 674. (B) Project B 675. (A) Identify risk which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project 676. (A) Cost-plus-incentive-fee 677. (B) $700,700 678. (C) The seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the item 679. (A) 200 days 680. (A) Portfolio management 681. (D) Customer 682. (C) Experiencing delays in career advancement as a direct result of absence from her department 683. (A) upon completion of the project, she can return to her department 684. (A) the average number of losing tickets in a week 685. (D) Constraints that impact the project

686. (B) To help ensure that work is done in the appropriate sequence 687. (D) To accommodate the sponsor 688. (B) Procedures used to document and control product or service characteristics 689. (D) To consider all the key stakeholders needs when identifying requirements and scope 690. (A) Discuss with the customer and sponsor the ramifications of having the WBS not reflect the true work of the project 691. (C) Decomposition, templates, rolling wave planning, and expert judgement 692. (B) Reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources 693. (B) 64 694. (C) If the longest paths are the same length, there can be multiple critical paths and the more critical paths there are on the project, the greater the increase of risk to the project 695. (D) The activity-on-node method may have four predecessor types, while the activity-on-arrow method may only have one predecessor type 696. (B) Company-wide software licensing fees 697. (D) Fees to marketing company to create a get started kit for new intranet 698. (D) Variable 699. (D) Fixed formula progress reporting 700. (B) the less known, the wider the range 701. (A) A violation of the seven Run rule 702. (B) Detailed project improvement plan 703. (A) 99.73% 704. (D) Greater than seven 705. (B) The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles which may create quality issues 706. (B) Theory X environment 707. (B) Organisation theory, organisation charts and position descriptions, and networking 708. (C) 26 Channels

709. (C) Communication management plan 710. (C) Communication Skills commonly used by management 711. (C) Communication management plan 712. (B) Risk Analysis diagrams 713. (A) The risk breakdown structure used in the identity risks processes and the risk probabilities and impact rating matrix used in the performance Qualitative risk analysis process 714. (D) $7,000 715. (C) To analyze the project environment 716. (A) External, internal, technology, personnel 717. (B) The seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the item 718. (C) Request for proposals (RFP) 719. (C) Fixed-price because the price will be locked in 720. (D) 250 days 721. (A) Direct and manage project execution 722. (D) Perform Quality Assurance 723. (A) Auditing the quality requirements and control measurements to ensure appropriate standards are used 724. (C) Quality audit 725. (B) Quality audits 726. (B) Increased team performance 727. (A) Executing 728. (B) Team development 729. (A) Problem solving 730. (B) Resource histogram 731. (C) Conduct procurements 732. (D) Bidders conference 733. (C) Opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bids of other sellers 734.( D) Conduct procurements

735. (A) the project manager 736. (B) Direct and manage project execution 737. (C) Quality Audit 738. (B) Verify that the quality plan will help achieve the desired results 739. (A) Quality Audits 740. (A) Ground Rules 741. (B) during execution 742. (A) Team development 743. (B) Mentoring 745. (A) performance reviews 746.(A) Conduct procurements 747. (D) conduct procurements 748. (D) project management plan and performance reports 749. (D) Direct and manage project execution 750.(A) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the perform Quality assurance process 751. (A) auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used 752. (D) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance 753. (A) They can be fed into the perform quality assurance process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of perform quality control 754. (A) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support 755. (C) Reporting this problem to senior management with a solution of replacing this team member 756. (A) Team-building activities, co-location, training, ground rules, interpersonal skills, and recognition and reward 757. (B) Project management plan, resource calendars, and project staff assignments 758. (A) the project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus 759. (A) Project management plan and performance reports 760. (B) Criteria around which the provider of services can refer to the work

761. (C) Opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bid of other sellers 762. (D) Offering services at a low cost, but raising the cost at signing 763. (B) Work results 764. (A) The five main process groups are initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing 765. (B) The project baseline 766. (B) The project manager and the project management team 767. (B) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used 768. (B) Perform Quality assurance 769. (B) Updated should occur as validation data from the perform Quality assurance process 770(.A) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance 771. (C) Pre-assignment, acquisition, virtual teams, and negotiation 772. (D) Conflict will likely occur as team members become familiar with each other 773. (A) Increased team performance 774. (B) Acquire project Team 775. (B) The report contains information related to recent project occurrences 776. C. Performance reports and project management plan 777. (A) considering, capacity, acceptance, offer, legal purpose 778. (C) to prepare the vendor for proposal creation by providing clarification of potential issues and answering each vendors question in the presence of all the vendors 779. (B) The conference provides an opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bids of other sellers 780. (D) Control schedule 781. (B) to control unnecessary change 782. (A) Initiating, planning, Executing, monitor and controlling, closing 783. (A) Controlling unnecessary change 784. (D) Support the project and resolve resource and other conflicts 785. (A) Procurement to document and control product or service characteristics

786. (C) Meet with the sponsor and find out what their concerns are 787. (A) Change control meetings 788. (D) to control gold plating 789. (A) Verify scope 790. (B) Control gold plating 791. (C) At the end of every phase on the project

792. (D) Control scope 793. (C) Meet with the team to determine the impact 794. (B) 0.89 795. (C) -$55.00 796. (D) Flowcharting 797. (A) Check list 798. (B) Run chart 799. (A) Pareto diagram 800. (A) Quality control data 801. (D) Resource histogram 802. (C) Performance reviews 803. (C) Performance reviews 804. (C) Forecast report 805. (A) Issue log 806. (B) Status report 807. (D) Progress report 808. (C) Earned value report 809. (C) Implementing a risk response if the risk event occurs 810. (A) Scatter diagram 811. (A) Change requests 812. (A) Fix the problem with a workaround

813. (D) Determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for any new risks that could occur 814. (B) Monitoring and Controlling 815. (B) Contract administrator 816. (C) Administer procurements 817. (A) Controlling unnecessary change 818. (A) Control schedule 819. (A) to control unnecessary change 820. (A) Corrective Action 821. (D) Stakeholder management 822. (D) Evaluate the impact to the project and let the customer know the options and impact of the change 823. (D) Change Requests 824. (D) Scope verification is the process of comparing what the project created to the scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps ensure the results of the project will function as intended 825. (D) Meet with the team to determine the impact 826 (A) Scope verification 827. (B) Scope verification 828. (D) Control scope 829. (A) BDGH, 21 days 830. (B) Negative twelve weeks 831. (D) One day 832. (D) A violation of the seven Run Rule 833. (C) Inspection 834. (B) Pareto diagram 835. (C) Smoothing 836. (C) Resource Histogram 837. (B) Resource Histogram 838. (A) Work results

839. (A) Status report 840. (C) Forecast report 841. (A) Progress report 842. (C) Progress report 843. (D) Fix the problem 844. (B) Determining the validity of the document risks and looking for any new risks that could occur 845. (B) Implementing a risk response plan if the risk event occurs 846. (A) Administer procurement 847. (B) Contact Administrator 848. (A) 0.937 849. (D) -$168.09 850. (B) -$55.00 851. (D) $970.00 852. (A) $1633.09 853. (D) to check for variances from the plan and make appropriate adjustments when variances are encountered 854. (D) Controlling unnecessary change 855. (C) Senior management 856. (A) Weekly progress reports for stakeholders 857.(C) Evaluate the impact of the persons absence on the project and communicate to senior management 858. (C) At key interface points where the various work packages come together 859. (A) A schedule, not a project management plan 860. (C) The system must accommodate the need to send the right information to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner 861. (C) To control change by approval of needed changes and rejection of unneeded changes to the project 862. (A) The control scope process 863. (C) Review the scope and determine why it did not satisfy the customer

864. (A) Requirements documentation, project management plan, requirements traceability matrix, validated deliverables 865. (B) Completing product requirements 866. (C) Plus three weeks 867. (B) Bottom-up estimating, project management software, expert judgment, published estimating date, and alternative analysis 868. (D) Scope, time and cost 869. (C) Schedule performance index (SPI) 870. (C) Project A 871. (D) 0.88 872. (A) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are 873. (D) none of the answers 874. (A) Verify scope and perform Quality control 875. (A) to evaluate project activities which have the potential to create defects and assess the defects which are creating quality issues 876. (C) The report contains information related to the present overall state of the project 877. (A) Information distribution tools and communication methods 878. (B) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting 879. (A) the report contains information related to future project occurrences 880. (C) Approved corrective actions, resolved issues, and approved change requests 881.(D)implementing a risk response if the risk event occurs 882. (C) Risk breakdown structure 883. (C) Fix the problem 884. (B) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost 885. (C) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem 886. (C) $200,000.00 887. (C) Control schedule 888. (D) Controlling unnecessary change

889. (A) to control unnecessary change 890. (C) To control change by approval of needed changes and rejection of unneeded changes to the project 891. (B) Meet with the sponsor about her concerns 892. (A) Approved changes 893. (C) To control gold plating 894. (A) Implement change control to incorporate the new work 895. (B) Project B 896. (D) after each deliverable is complete 897. (A) Collect, measure, and interpret the information 898. (C) Consider removing resources from this activity for no more than two days if the critical path will benefit 899. (A) Project schedule, project management plan, and work performance information 900. (A) Some activities may be fast tracked 901. (A) Tell senior management the project is two weeks behind with a contingency plan 902. (A) A cause and effect diagram (also known as ishikawa and fishbone) helps to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project 903. (C) Verify scope and perform Quality control 904. (A) Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances 905. (C) The company is gold plating which is not a good practice because it violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is finalized in the project charter 906. (B) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner 907. (C) The project managers degree and prior work experience were in systems engineering 908. (C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus 909. (B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project

910. (B) Resolved issues, approved change requests, and approved corrective actions 911. (D) Forecasting methods, communication methods, variance analysis, and reporting systems 912. (C) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem 913. (B) Information related to the present overall state of the project? 914. (A) Information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences 915. (B) Fix the problem 916. (B) Secondary risk 917. (D) Monitor and control risk which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them 918. (D) Risk owner 919. (A) the contract administrator for the company 920. (B) Any agreement to modify the contract should be created and added as an attachment to the contract 921. (D) -$65.00 922. (D) 0.84 923. (C) 30%/70% rule 924. (A) Control costs 925. (A) -$55.00 926. (D) Close procurements 927. (D) Close procurements 928. (B) Formal acceptance 929. (B) Release of resources 930. (A) Lessons learned 931. (B) Close procurements comes before close project or phase 932. (A) Project product 933. (D) Close procurements will come before close project or phase 934. (A) Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, and what decisions were made?

935. (A) Closing the project or phase 936. (B) All the answers 937. (B) for each contract, the contract, the approved changes, and the formal acceptance 938. (D) Close procurements comes before close project or phase 939. (C) Validation of the contract terms and conditions and formal acceptance 940. (D) Documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, and what decisions were made 941. (C) The point at which the verify scope process is completed, the project is cancelled, or project funds are depleted 942. (A) closing the project 943. (B) Lessons learned from prior projects 944. (C) $105,830.33 945. (B) Validation of the contract terms and conditions and formal acceptance 946. (D) Scope Baseline 947. (B) Project Document updates 948. (B) Activity cost estimates 949. (B) Cost Aggregation 950. (D) Requirements Traceability Matrix 951. (D) $41,667 952. (C) $25,000 953. (B) $1,450 954. (D) $26,923 955. (B) 1.5 956. (D) 125 channels 957. (A) 465 958. (D) 300 channels 959. (A) 91 960. (C) 465 channels

961. (B) $37,620 US 962. (A) 67 days 963. (A) 17 days 964. (A) 13 days 965. (A) 10 months 966. (B) 13 months 967. (D) 56 months 968. (B) 12 months 969. (D) 21 970. (C) 9.67 971. (B) 1.33 972. (A) 2 973. (A) 1.33 974. (B) $300,000.00 975. (D) $139,705.88 976. (A) $50,000.00 977. (D) $174.00 978. (A) $2,166.67 979. (B) $174.00 980. (B) $2,566.67 981. (A) $36,000 to $84,000 982. (B) Project Z 983. (B) $225,000 to $525,000 984. (A) Project Y 985. (B) $125,000 to $500,000 986. (A) $62,500 to %250,000 987. (C) $157,500 to $201,250 988. (C) Project Y

989. (C) Project Z 990. (A) Project X 991. (B) $68,530 US 992. (D) $53,900 US 993. (A) $44,750 US 994. (B) $57,900 US 995. (C) $75,200 US 996. (B) $850.00 997. (A) $250.00 998. (B) $1,150.00 999. (B) $5,625.00 1000. (C) $5,775.00 1001. (B) Co-location 1002. (B) Stake holders risk tolerance 1003. (A) Identify stakeholders and collect requirements 1004. (A) Project management plan 1005. (A) senior management 1006. (A) Approved changes 1007. (B) A change in the market for which the work of the project is intended 1008. (D) Collect, measure, and interpret the information 1009. (D) The project baseline 1010. (B) At the end of every phase on the project 1011. (D) Requirements traceability matrix, requirements management plan, requirements documentation 1012. (C) Activity sequencing of WBS components requires parallel or concurrent dependencies 1013. (B) The activity-on-arrow method may only have one predecessor type and the activity-on-node method may have 4 predecessor types 1014. (B) shows who is to perform work in certain areas of the project

1015. (A) Define Activities and activity list 1016. (A) 2.79 1017. (B) Activity list, resource calendars, project scope statement, activity resource requirements 1018. (A) Milestone chart 1019. (B) Activity list, Network diagrams, and Gantt charts 1020. (D) BDE, 14 days 1021. (B) Scope, time, and cost 1022. (B) Not enough information 1023. (D) Schedule performance index 1024. (C) Schedule performance index (SPI) 1025. (D) 30%/70% rule 1026. (A) Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances 1027. (C) Minimizing proactive quality spending 1028. (C) Definition of quality 1029. (A) the pare to diagram is a cumulative history of issues prioritized by frequency 1030. (B) Conflict as they become familiar with each other 1031. (D) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support 1032. (A) an effective employee in a discipline will become an effective employee in another discipline 1033. (A) the project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus 1034. (D) Acquisition, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams 1035. (A) Stakeholder analysis and expert judgement 1036.(A) Information related to the present overall state of the project 1037. (B) Communications requirements analysis, communication technology, communication methods, and communication models 1038. (B) Informal, unofficial, internal, vertical communication 1039. (A) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem

1040. (D) Plan risk response which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions 1041. (A) A probability and impact matrix 1042. (D) External, internal, technology, personnel 1043. (D) Entering a relatively untested market in the hope of significant reward 1044. (C) Answers and (B) 1045. (C) Your Company has excessive capacity for the work 1046. (A) Request for comments (RFC) 1047. (A) A purpose for the contract 1048. (A) Request for proposals (RFP) 1049. (D) Making the product internally 1050. (C) Alert management and follow its direction on the situation 1051. (D) Analyze and discuss lessons learned with the team 1052. (C) Do team-building while the members co-locate to one site during planning phase 1053. (B) She will be able to focus on the project without the distraction of departmental work 1054. (D) An initiative that has a specific purpose, creates specific results, has a definite start and end date, and is temporary 1055. (D) Functional management 1056. (C) Memorializing all project related meetings 1057. (D) Ground rules, team-building activities, co-location, recognition and reward, interpersonal skills, and training 1058. (A) The key output of the develop human resource plan is the human resource plan 1059. (D) Conflict will likely occur as team members become familiar with each other 1060. (C) The project manager presents the most productive team member with a reserved parking place near the entrance for one month 1061. (C) They are all equal unless otherwise stated in the charter 1062. (B) All of the answers

1063. (C) The contract Administrator for the company 1064. (A) Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity purchases 1065. (A) A mechanism that insures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing 1066. (A) Request for comments (RFC) 1067. (C) Culture differences 1068. (D) Tell the vendor that the scope of the project has been fulfilled, the project is closed and you are no longer available 1069. (D) Meet with the team and brainstorm how to create a workaround for this problem 1070. (B) Report status accurately and timely 1071. (A) The pareto diagram provides a cumulative history of issues prioritized by frequency 1072. (B) Population testing, because of the number of parts in the scanning system 1073. (D) Sample testing, because the cost of population testing is prohibitive 1074. (D) Greater than seven 1075. (B) To analyze the project environment 1076. (C) Addressing pure risk 1077. (D) A possible positive or negative event 1078. (A) Bill of materials, a listing of the components, assemblies, and subassemblies used to build the product 1079. (B) It is used for estimating activities, cost, and resources 1080. (C) Meet with the team to determine the impact such a change will have on the project 1081. (C) Stakeholder registers which contains a list of stakeholders and their needs 1082. (C) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of the project 1083. (C) Performance reports and project management plan 1084. (D) The project functionality required by the primary customer

1085. (C) Unofficial, informal, internal, vertical communication 1086. (B) 0.84 1087. (A) $1277.5 1088. (D) Schedule performance index (SPI) 1089. (C) Estimate to complete 1090. (D) Fixed formula progress reporting 1091. (D) Business unit competency 1092. (A) Clearly defined goals and objectives for the PMO 1093. (A) A structure that can have characteristics of matrix, projectized, and functional structures 1094. (D) Project manager 1095. (D) The process of putting personnel closer together to improve teambuilding and project communication 1096. (C) defines the scope statement 1097. (B) Bill of materials, a listing of the components, assemblies, and subassemblies used to build the product 1098. (D) Communication breakdown structure 1099. (A) Breaking down work where the bottom levels of the WBS represent work packages 1100. (D) Earned value management (EVM) 1101. (A) Company-wide software licensing fees 1102. (D) Chart of accounts 1103. (B) The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner 1104. (A) Conflict will likely occur as team members become familiar with each other 1105. (B) The project manager requires each team leader to deliver a 5-10 minute presentation to complement the discussion topic for the weekly project meetings 1106. (B) Acquire project team 1107. (D) A risk trigger is an indicator that a risk event could occur

1108. (D) Risk register, budget, various management plans, schedule, and change management plan 1109. (B) It is used to model events which must to take place within an interval that has a minimum and maximum value 1110. (A) Closing the project or phase 1111. (A) A greater emphasis on successful integration of the various pieces of the project 1112. (B) Closing the project or phase 1113. (D) Constraints that impact the project 1114. (A) Direct and manage project execution 1115. (D) It takes a great amount of time to create 1116.(C)The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram 1117. (B) One day 1118. (D) the order in which the project activities will occur 1119. (A) Plus two weeks 1120. (B) Decreased warranty support 1121. (D) B and C 1122. (D) Total Quality management 1123. (D) clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria 1124. (C) Information related to recent project occurrences 1125. (D) Medium, specifically the technique that dictates the format of a message 1126. (B) Contact the vendor and discuss this problem 1127. (A) the software package should be outsourced because the company doesnt have excessive capacity for the work 1128. (B) Lack of career path for contract administrators 1129. (B) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendors standard of productivity is aligned to that of the buyer 1130. (A) the seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the item 1131. (A) Inform PMI of this possible violation

1132. (C) The signer agrees to limit discussions of the project to designated personnel 1133. (A) Conflicting goals of the sponsors 1134. (B) The project manager and the project management team 1135. (D) to help ensure that work is done in the appropriate sequence 1136. (D) they are all equal unless otherwise stated in the charter 1137. (D) plus three weeks 1138. (C) The need for concrete to cure an additional day because of the weather before painting the parking lines 1139. (D) Late finish-early finish (LF-EF) or late start-early start (LS-ES) 1140. (C) Closing the project or phase 1141. (D) A violation of the seven run rule 1142. (C) Common cause variations should be addressed through long-term process improvements 1143. (B) The pareto diagram provides a cumulative history of issues prioritized by frequency 1144. (A) A proactive to eliminate defects and potential defects from the process 1145. (C) Ideally, zero with supplies obtained only when the product is being built 1146. (D) 23 channels 1147. (B) 45 channels 1148. (B) Approved corrective actions, resolved issues, and approved change requests 1149. (C) Opportunity for vendors to inquire about the bids of other sellers 1150. (D) Close procurements comes before close project or phase 1151. (B) Firm fixed-price and cost-plus percentage of cost 1152. (A) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing 1153. (A) Functional management 1154. (A) To control unnecessary change 1155. (A) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing 1156. (C) It has duration of zero (0)

1157. (A) Work packages and activity lists 1158. (C) after each deliverables is completed 1159. (C) The decomposition of the work of the project 1160. (A) Chart of accounts 1161. (D) Sunk cost 1162. (B) 30%/70% rule 1163. (A) Bottom-up estimating 1164. (B) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support 1165.(A) Team-building activities, co-location, training, ground rules, interpersonal skills, and recognition and reward 1166. (C) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices 1167. 1168. D. Risk urgency assessment 1169. D. Earned monetary value (EMV) 1170. 1171. D. Remain on the project, but help another project manager negotiate the contract 1172. A. Ask for a schedule to see what the timeliness are for each installation 1173. B. Report to senior management this activity 1174. D. Help team member gain knowledge and experience in project management 1175. A. Meet with the team and brainstorm how to create a workaround for this problem 1176. D. Functional management 1177. D. Clearly defined goals and objectives for the PMO 1178. D. Project management office 1179. D. Progressive elaboration 1180. B. Controlling unnecessary change 1181.

1182. B. To control change by approval of needed changes and rejection of unneeded changes to the project 1183. (B) All of the answers 1184. (D) Project management plan and performance reports 1185. (C) To ensure that all servers at distribution centres are less than two years old 1186. (D) Not enough information 1187. (A) Bill of materials 1188. (D) After the sponsor defines what they want the project to create 1189 (A) Project scope statement updates 1190. (D) The order in which the project activities will occur 1191. (C) BDE, 14 days 1192. (C) It has a greater degree of accuracy because of the details at which it was created 1193. (A) 32 months 1194. (B) Sending the team to communication training 1195. (B) Schedule performance index (SPI) 1196. (D) The company is gold plating which is not a good practice because it violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is finalized in the project charter 1197. (B) Zero Defects 1198. (B) At key interface points where the various work packages come together 1199. (B) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used 1200. (A) 95.46% 1201. (C) Acquire project team 1202. (B) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support 1203. (A) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices 1204. (B) Form, storm, norm, perform, and adjourn

1205. (C) Communications requirements analysis, communication technology, communication methods, and communication models 1206. (D) information to relate to future project occurrences 1207. (C) Resolved issues, approved change requests, approved corrective actions 1208. (D) Communication methods, interpersonal skills, and management skills 1209. (C) Approximately 90% 1210. (D) A probability and impact matrix 1211. (D) It can be either a negative or positive event 1212. (B) External, internal, technology, personnel 1213. (B) Fix the problem with a workaround 1214. (D) Capacity, consideration, offer, legal purpose, acceptance 1215. (D) Fixed-price-economic-price-adjust 1216. (A) A mechanism that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing 1217. (C) Provide senior management with information how moving work to another country helps their companies 1218. (A) Contact PMI and cooperate with the investigation 1219. (B) Set of procurements, tools and techniques, and methodologies available for use in managing a project 1220. (D) she will be able to focus on the project without the distraction of departmental work 1221.(A) The average number of losing lottery tickets in a week 1222. (C) Increasing the rose bouquet production in anticipation of mothers day demand 1223. (D) Acquire project team 1224. (A) $800,000 US 1225. (B) Compiling lessons learned 1226. (B) Fixed-price-economic-price-adjust 1227. (B) Offering to pay the sellers asking price, and then lowering the price at signing 1228. (C) The local city authority

1229. (A) Fishbone diagram 1230. (C) Common cause variations should be addressed through long-term process improvements 1231. (D) Collect requirements, define scope, create WBS, verify scope, and control scope 1232. (D) Buy-in from the team doing the work 1233.(B) Shows who is to perform work in certain areas of the project 1234. (B) Review with the project manager how this statue was produced 1235. (D) Why is the project being done o what is the business need? 1236. (C) Unofficial, informal, internal, vertical communication 1237. (D) Company-wise software licensing fees 1238. (B) Chart of accounts 1239. (B) Procedures used to document and control product or service characteristics 1240. (C) Project management plan and performance reports 1241. (C) The system must accommodate the need to send the right information to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner 1242. (D) Negative five weeks 1243. (B) One day 1244. (D) Define activities and activity list 1245. (C) Analogous 1246. (B) Auditing the quality processes to ensure appropriate standards are used 1247. (D) The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfil requirements 1248. (D) A violation of the seven Run Rule 1249. (D) Conformance or non-conformance 1250. (B) Baseline measurements 1251. (D) Medium, specifically the technique that dictates the format of a message

1252. (C) The report contains information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences 1253. (D) Change requests, organizational process assets updates, and project management plan updates 1254. (D) The project manager plans to buy from the vendor 1255. (B) Fifteen days 1256. (B) Provides guidance for validating that the work of the contract is complete 1257. (B) Proposals that use fixed-price 1258. (A) $512,000.00 1259. (B) Project manager 1260. (B) Being away from the group might make career advancement in the department more difficult 1261. (B) Portfolio management 1262. (A) Controlling unnecessary change 1263. (C) Project management office 1264. (D) Breaking work down to a realistic level (Work packages being the lowest level) 1265. (C) Quality breakdown structure 1266. (A) At the end of every phase on the project 1267. (C) Breaking down work where the bottom levels of the WBS represents work packages 1268. (B) Collect, measure, and interpret the information 1269. (A) 32 months 1270. (D) Determine Budget 1271. (A) -50% to +50% 1272. (A) Team-building activities, co-location, training, ground rules, interpersonal skills, and recognition and reward 1273. (C) Someone who is impacted by the project 1274. (B) Theory X environment 1275. (C) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event will occur

1276. (A) Insurable risk 1277. (A) Fix the problem 1278. (A) Triggers 1279. (B) Telling senior management that you will consider the project once it has a charter 1280. (A) Order a copy from the company or an authorized reseller 1281. (B) Lessons learned 1282. (A) Business unit competency 1283. (D) Experiencing delays in career advancement as a direct result of absence from her department 1284. (C) Project management office 1285. (D) Fluctuations of targeted markets 1286. (C) Upon completion of the project, she can return to her department 1287. (A) Discuss with the customer and sponsor the ramifications of having the WBS not reflect the true work of the project 1288. (A) Discus with the customer and sponsor the ramifications of having the WBS not reflect the true work of the project 1289. (D) Verify that all key stakeholders have provided their input 1290. (D) Accelerated Depreciation 1291. (C) EAC AC 1292. (C) Estimate costs 1293. (D) The project manager presents the most productive team member with a reserved parking place near the entrance for one month 1294. (D) Influencing skills, leadership skills, and effective decision making skills 1295. (B) Maslows hierarchy 1296. (A) the project manager has internet access blocked for those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality 1297. (D) Resource calendars, project staff assignments, and project management plan 1298. (D) Addressing pure risk

1299. (D) Risk register, budget, various management plans, schedule, and change management plan 1300. (B) Project A 1301. (C) The average speed on a street in a day 1302. (C) Resolve resource and other conflicts 1303. (B) The project manager 1304. (D) A project that utilizes all group across a company 1305. (A) Projectized management office 1306. (D) Stakeholder risk tolerance 1307. (B) Project manager 1308. (B) Matrix 1309. (A) Co-location 1310. (A) having a home to go to when the project is complete 1311. (D) Focusing most product development on a specific market segment 1312. (D) 4 GB capacity for a DVD 1313. (D) Operations management 1314. (A) the average speed on a highway in a week 1315. (B) to control unnecessary change 1316. (A) Plan-Do-Check-Act 1317. (D) Increasing output to meet unusually high customer demand 1318. (D) Being away from the group might make career advancement in the department more difficult 1319. (B) Progressive elaboration 1320. (D) Strategic planning 1321. (A) Identify stakeholders and collect requirements 1322. (C) Project charter, stakeholder register, stakeholder management plan 1323. (A) Controlling unnecessary change 1324. (C) All the answers 1325. (C) The project expeditor has limited or no decision-making ability

1326. (A) Project manager 1327. (C) Project management plan 1328. (D) Project management office 1329. (D) Senior management 1330. (D) The project management life cycle is the project management piece of the project and the project life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project 1331. (C) Managing related or similar projects in a coordinated way 1332. (B) Functional management 1333. (D) they are all of equal importance unless stated otherwise 1334. (B) Optimization for a single focus on the project 1335. (D) Business unit competency 1336. (C) To provide subject matter experts or services 1337. (A) Project management office 1338. (D) A project that utilizes all groups across a company 1339. (C) The project expeditor has limited or no decision-making ability 1340. (A) to control resources 1341. (D) Plan-Do-Check-Act 1342. (A) Product life cycle 1343. (D) Co-location 1344. (D) Supports the project and resolves resource and other conflict 1345. (A) Optimization for a single focus on the project 1346. (C) All the answers 1347. (B) The average speed on a street in a day 1348. (C) Information Distribution plan 1349. (D) Corrective Action 1350. (C) They are all of equal importance unless otherwise 1351. (A) having a home to go to when the project is complete 1352. (C) 700MB capacity for a CD-ROM

1353. (B) The sponsor 1354. (B) The charter and project planning 1355. (C) Project management plan 1356. (C) Being away from the group and on a project that might make it more difficult to get promoted 1357. (B) Control schedule 1358. (D) Project product 1359. (C) Managing of related or similar projects in a coordinated way 1360. (A) Controlling unnecessary change 1361. (C) Strategic planning 1362. (A) Charter 1363. (B) The project manager 1364. (A) to control unnecessary change 1365. (B) Archives 1366. (C) What impact the new project is expected to have on your biggest project 1367. (A) Budget management plan 1368. (D) Contract Audit 1369. (A) Lessons leaned 1370. (D) Stakeholder management 1371. (C) Close procurements 1372. (D) Change requests 1373. (B) Evaluate the impact to the project and let the customer know the options and impact of the change 1374. (B) evaluates the impact of the person not being on the project and communicates to senior management 1375. (A) All the answers 1376. (B) Project management information system (PMIS) 1377. (D) Network diagram 1378. (C) Formal acceptance

1379. (A) A thorough change control system to ensure the project produces the desired results 1380.(A) Meet with the sponsor and find out what their concerns are 1381. (D) To control Gold plating 1382. (B) The baseline 1383. (C) Closure 1384. (D) It has duration of zero (0) 1385. (C) Direct and manage project execution 1386. (D) Sponsor 1387. (D) To control gold plating 1388. (B) The sponsor pays for the project and could own the work of the project when it is complete 1389. (B) Project manager and the project management team 1390. (C) A change in the project 1391. (D) To ensure that all servers at distribution centres are less than two years old 1392. (A) The budget management plan 1393. (A) Direct and manage project execution 1394. (A) A Project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement 1395. (B) He really wants a schedule, not a project, management plan 1396. (D) Approved changes 1397.