JEE MAIN EXAMINATION - 2014

QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS

PAPER CODE - E
Fastest Growing Institute of Kota (Raj.)
FOR JEE Advanced (IIT-JEE) | JEE Main (AIEEE) | CBSE | SAT | NTSE | OLYMPIADS
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 1)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
[PHYSICS] Code - E
1. The current voltage relation of diode is given
by I = (e
1000V/T
1) mA, where the applied voltage V
is in volts and the temperature T is in degree Kelvin.
If a student makes an error measuring 0.01 V while
measuring the current of 5 mA at 300 K, what will
be the error in the value of current in mA?
(1) 0.2 mA (2) 0.02 mA
(3) 0.5 mA (4) 0.05 mA
Sol. 1
I =
|
|
.
|

\
|
1 e
T
V 1000
mA
T
V 1000
e
= I + 1
log (I + 1) =
T
V 1000
1 I
1
+
dI =
1000
T
dv
dI =
300
1000
(5 + 1) mA 0.01
= 0.2 mA
2. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown
vertically upwards with a speed u. The time taken
by the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that
taken by it to reach the highest point of its path.
The relation between H, u and n is :
(1) 2 gH = n
2
u
2
(2) g H = (n 2)
2
u
2
(3) 2 g H = nu
2
(n 2) (4) g H = (n 2)u
2
Sol. 3
H = ut 1/2 g t
2
t' = u/g
Given t = nt'
H = u |
|
.
|

\
|
g
nu
1/2 g
2
g
nu
|
|
.
|

\
|
H =
g
nu
2
1/2
g
u n
2 2
u
H
H =
g
nu
2
(1
2
1
n)
2Hg = nu
2
(2 n)
2Hg = nu
2
(n 2)
3. A mass 'm' is supported by a massless string
wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass m
and radius R. If the string does not slip on the
cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall on
release ?
(1)
3
g 2
(2)
2
g
(3)
6
g 5
(4) g
Sol. 2
mg T = ma .....(1)
TR = Io
TR = mR
2

a
R
T = ma ......(2)
T
m
mg ma = ma
a = g/2
4. A block of mass m is placed on a surface
with a vertical cross section given by y =
3
x
6
. If the
coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height
above the ground at which the block can be placed
without slipping is :
(1)
1
6
m (2)
2
3
m
(3)
1
3
m (4)
1
2
m
Sol. 1
m
f
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 2)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
y =
6
x
3
dx
dy
=
6
x 3
2
=
2
x
2
f = mg cos u = mg sin u
= tan u
0.5 =
2
x
2
x = 1
y =
6
x
3
=
6
1
m
5. When a rubber-band is stretched by a
distance x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude
F = ax + bx
2
where a and b are constants. The work
done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by
L is :
(1) aL
2
+ bL
3
(2)
1
2
(aL
2
+ bL
3
)
(3)
2 3
aL bL
2 3
+
(4)
2 3
1 aL bL
2 2 3
| |
+
|
\ .
Sol. 3
W =
}
Fdx
W =
}
Fdx
(ax + bx
2
) dx
W =
L
0
3 2
3
bx
2
ax
(
(

+
W =
(
(

+
3
bL
2
aL
3 2
6. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible
string of length is suspended from a vertical
support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with
an angular speed e rad/s about the vertical. About
the point of suspension :
(1) Angular momentum is conserved.
(2) Angular momentum changes in magnitude but
not in direction.
(3) Angular momentum changes in direction but not
in magnitude.
(4) Angular momentum changes both in direction
and magnitude.
Sol. 3
L

vector rotates in direction but magnitude

remains constant.
7. Four particles, each of mass M and
equidistant from each other, move along a circle of
radius R under the action of their mutual gravitiational
attraction. The speed of each particle is :
(1)
GM
R
(2)
GM
2 2
R
(3) ( )
GM
1 2 2
R
+ (4) ( )
1 GM
1 2 2
2 R
+
Sol. 4
(2) (1)
(3) (4)
r
r
mv
2
= F
14
+ F
24
+ F
34
=
2
2
r 4
Gm
+
2
2
r 2
Gm

2
=
2
2
r 2
Gm

|
.
|

\
|
+ 2
2
1
2
mv
r
=
2
2
r 2
Gm

|
|
.
|

\
|
+
2
2 2 1
v =
Gm
(1 2 2)
4r
+
v =
2
1
) 2 2 1 (
r
Gm
+
8. The pressure that has to be applied to the
ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its length
constant when its temperature is raised by 100C is
(For steel Young's modulus is 2 10
11
N m
2
and coef-
ficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 10
5
K
1
)
(1) 2.2 10
8
Pa (2) 2.2 10
9
Pa
(3) 2.2 10
7
Pa (4) 2.2 10
6
Pa
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 3)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
Sol. 1
y = 2 10
11
l
f
= l
0
(1 + oAt)
At = 100 C
o = 1.1 10
5
k
1
l
f
l
0
= oAt
Al = 1.1 10
5
100
= 1.1 10
3
y =
3
p
1.1 10

2 10
11
=
3
p
1.1 10

p = 2 1.1 10
11
10
3
p = 2.2 10
8
Pa
9. There is a circular tube in a vertical plane.
Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d
1
and
d
2
are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 90
angle at centre. Radius joining their interface makes
an angle o with vertical. Ratio
1
2
d
d
is :
(1)
1 sin
1 sin
+ o
o
(2)
1 cos
1 cos
+ o
o
(3)
1 tan
1 tan
+ o
o
(4)
1 sin
1 cos
+ o
o
Sol. 3
o
o
R
Rsino
Rcoso
RRcoso
R-Rsino
R o
R
R R sin o = d
1
(R R sin o) + d
2
(R sin o + R cos o)
d
1
(1 sin o) = d
1
(1 cos o) + d
2
(sin o + cos o)
d
1
d
1
sin o = d
1
d
1
cos o + d
2
(sin o + cod o)
d
1
(cos o sin o) = d
2
(sin o + cos o)
2
1
d
d
=
o o
o + o
sin cos
cos sin
=
o
o +
tan 1
tan 1
10. On heating water, bubbles being formed at
the bottom of the vessel detatch and rise. Take the
bubbles to be spheres of radius R and making a cir-
cular contact of radius r with the bottom of the
vessel. If r << R, and the surface tension of the
water is T, value of r just before bubbles detatch is:
(density of water is
W
)
(1)
2 W
g
R
3T

(2)
2 W
g
R
6T

(3)
2 W
g
R
T

(4)
2 W
3 g
R
T

Sol.
R
T
r
3
4
tR
3

w
g = AP (tr
2
) + T (2tr) sin u
3
4
tR
2

w
g =
R
T 2
(tr
2
) + T (2tr)
R
r
3
4
tR
3

w
g =
R
T 4
tr
2
r = R
2

T 3
g
w

11. Three rods of Copper, Brass and Steel are

welded together to form a Y - shaped structure.
Area of cross - section of each rod = 4 cm
2
. End of
copper rod is maintained at 100C where as ends of
brass and steel are kept at 0C. Lengths of the
copper, brass and steel rods are 46, 13 and 12 cms
respectively. The rods are thermally insulated from
surroundings except at ends. Thermal conductivities
of copper, brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12
CGS units respectively. Rate of heat flow through
copper rod is :
(1) 1.2 cal/s (2) 2.4 cal/s
(3) 4.8 cal/s (4) 6.0 cal/s
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 4)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
Sol. 3
100
0C
Cu
46cm
k=0.92
Br
13 cm
k=0.26
T
st, 12 cm
k = 0.12
0C
By Kirchoff law
1
R
100 T
+
2
T 0
R

+
3
T 0
R

= 0

) 46 (
100 T
(0.92) +
13
T
(0.26) +
12
T
(0.12) = 0
50
100 T
+
50
T
+
100
T
= 0
2T 200 + 2T + T = 0
T = 40
Cu
dQ
dt
| |
|
\ .
=
46
) 40 100 (
(0.92)(4) = 4.8 cal/s
12. One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a
cyclic process ABC as shown in figure. The process
BC is adiabatic. The temperature at A, B and C are
400 K, 800 K and 600 K respectively. Choose the
correct statement :
(1) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic
process is 250 R.
(2) The change in internal energy in the process CA
is 700 R.
(3) The change in internal energy in the process AB
is 350 R.
(4) The change in internal energy in the process BC
is 500 R.
Sol. 4
C
600
800
B
A
400
P
V
(1) dU
AB
= n c
v
dT
= 1
2
R 5
(400)
= 1000 R
(2) dU
BC
= n c
v
dT
= 1
2
R 5
(200)
= 500 R
(3) dU
ABCA
= 0
(4) dU
CA
= 1
2
R 5
(200)
= 500 R
13. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in
such a way that a length of 8 cm extends above
the mercury level. The open end of the tube is then
closed and sealed and the tube is raised vertically
up by additional 46 cm. What will be length of the
air column above mercury in the tube now?
(Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
(1) 16 cm (2) 22 cm
(3) 38 cm (4) 6 cm
Sol. 1
8cm
P
0
76 8 = p
gas
76 8

= p
gas
76 8

+ (54 ) = 76
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Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
54 = 76
8
1
| |

|
\ .

= 76
8 | |
|
\ .

54
2
= 76 608

2
+ 22 608 = 0
=
2
22 (22) 4 808
2
+
=
2
54 22 +
= 16 cm
14. A particle moves with simple harmonic
motion in a straight line. In first t s, after starting
from rest it travels a distance a, and in nest t s it
travels 2a, in same direction, then :
(1) Amplitude of motion is 3a
(2) Time period of oscillations is 8t
(3) Amplitude of motion is 4a
(4) Time period of oscillations is 6t
Sol. 4

a

3a
A A cos (et) = a ....(1)
A A cos (2et) = 3a
2A (1 cos
2
et) = 3a ...(2)
Divide (2) By (1)
2 (1 + cos et) = 3
cos et = 1/2
et = t/3
T
2t
t = t/3
T = 6t
15. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one
end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations
of air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below
1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4
Sol. 3
f =
L 4
V
=
2
10 85 4
340

= 100 Hz
100 H, 300 Hz, 500 Hz, 700 Hz, 900 Hz, 1100 Hz = 6
16. Assume that an electric field
2

E 30x i =

exists in space. Then the potential difference

V
A
V
O
, where V
O
is the potential at the origin and
V
A
the potential at x = 2 m is :
(1) 120 J (2) 120 J
(3) 80 J (4) 80 J
Sol. 3
dv =
}
dr . E

V
A
V
0
= }

2
0
2
dx x 30
=
2
0
3
3
x
30
(
(

= [10x
3
]
= 10 [8 0]
V
A
V
0
= 80 J
17. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two
circular plates separated by a distance of 5 mm and
with a dielectric of dielectric constant 2.2 between
them. When the electric field in the dielectric is
3 10
4
V/m, the change density of the positive
plate will be close to :
(1) 6 10
7
C/m
2
(2) 3 10
7
C/m
2
(3) 3 10
4
C/m
2
(4) 6 10
4
C/m
2
Sol. 1
Q = cv
Q =
d
A .
r 0
c c
V
o =
A
Q
o =
0 r
.
d
c c
V
= c
0
c
r
.E
= 8.85 10
12
2.2 3 10
4
= 58.41 10
8
_ ~ 6 10
7
c/m
2
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 6)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
18. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40
W, 5 bulbs 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of 1
kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The
minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building
will be :
(1) 8 A (2) 10 A
(3) 12 A (4) 14 A
Sol. 3
P =
R
V
2
R
1
=
40
) 200 (
2
Total current
=
1
R
V
15 +
2
R
V
5 +
3
R
V
5 +
4
R
V
1
R = V
2
/P
=
220
15 40 +
+
220
5 100 +
+
220
5 80 +
+
220
1000
= 11.3626 A
Minimum value is 12 A.
19. A conducor lies al ong the z-axis at
1.5 s z < 1.5 m and carries a fixed current of 10.0
A in
z
a direction (see figure). For a field
B

= 3.0 10
4
e
0.2x

y
a T, find the power required to
move the conductor at constant speed to x = 2.0
m, y = 0 m in 5 10
3
s. Assume parallel motion
along the x-axis.
(1) 1.57 W (2) 2.97 W
(3) 14.85 W (4) 29.7 W
Sol. 2
w =
}

dx e 10 3 3 10
x 2 . 0 4
= 4. 5 10
2
(1 e
0.4
)
P =
T
w
= 2.97
20. The coercivity of a small magent where the
ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 10
3
A m
1
.
The current required to be passed in a solenoid of
length 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the
magnet gets demagnetized when inside the sole-
noid, is :
(1) 30 mA (2) 60 mA
(3) 3 A (4) 6 A
Sol. 3
Coercivity
0
B

= 3 10
3
A/m
B =
0
(3 10
3
) =
0
nI
=
0

|
.
|

\
|
1 . 0
100
I
I =
100
1 . 0 10 3
3

= 3 A
21. In the circuit shown here, the point 'C' is
kept connected to point 'A' till the current flowing
through the circuit becomes constant. Afterward,
suddenly, point 'C' is disconnected from point 'A' and
connected to point 'B' at time t = 0. Ratio of the
voltage across resistance and the inductor at
t = L/R will be equal to :
(1)
e
1 e
(2) 1 (3) 1 (4)
1 e
e

Sol. 3
When BC are joined only
L & R are in circuit
R
+
+

L
Applying KVL, V
R
+ V
L
= 0
V
R
= V
L

L
R
V
V
= 1
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 7)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
22. During the propagation of electromagnetic
waves in a medium :
(1) Electric energy density is double of the
magnetic energy density.
(2) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic
energy density.
(3) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic
energy density.
(4) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are
zero.
Sol. 3
In an EM wave
1/2 c
0
E
2
=
0
2
2
B

Both are equal.

23. A thin convex lens made from crown grass
|
.
|

\
|
=
2
3
has focal length f. When it is measured in
two different liquids having refractive indices
3
4
and
3
5
, it has the focal length f
1
and f
2
respectively..
The correct relation between the focal lengths is :
(1) f
1
= f
2
< f
(2) f
1
> f and f
2
becomes negative
(3) f
2
> f and f
1
becomes negative
(4) f
1
and f
2
both become negative
Sol. 2
Since 4/3 < 3/2 thus f
1
> f
since 5/3 > 3/2 thus f
2
changes sign
24. A green light is incident from the water to
the air - water interface at the critical angle (u).
Select the correct statement.
(3) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is
more than that of green light will come out to the
air medium.
(4) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out
of the water at various angles to the normal.
(1) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out
of the water at an angle of 90 to the normal.
(2) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is
less than that of green light will come out to the air
medium.
Sol. 2
Green

1
f > f
green
<
green
>
green
T.I.R
25. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light
with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization
are seen through a polaroid. From the position when
the beam A has maximum intensity (and beam B has
zero intensity), a rotation of polaroid through 30
makes two beams appear equally bright. If the initial
intensities of the two beams are I
A
and I
B
respectively, then
A
B
I
I
equals :
(1) 3 (2)
3
2
(3) 1 (4)
1
3
Sol. 4
I
A
cos
2
30 = I
B
cos
2
60
B
A
I
I
=

30 cos
60 cos
2
2
=
2
2
) 2 / 3 (
) 2 / 1 (
=
4 / 3
4 / 1
= 1/3
26. The radiation corresponding to 3 2
transition of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface
to produce photoelectrons. These electrons are made
to enter a magnetic field of 3 10
4
T. If the radius
of the largest circular path followed by these
electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function of the metal
is close to :
(1) 1.8 eV (2) 1.1 eV
(3) 0.8 eV (4) 1.6 eV
Sol. 2
r =
qB
mv
v =
m
qBr
=
19 4 3
31
1.6 10 3 10 10 10
9.1 10

= 5.27 10
5
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Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
KE
max
= 1/2 mv
2
= 1/2 9.1 10
31
(5.27 10
5
)
2
=
19
21
10 6 . 1
10 36 . 126

= 78.975 10
2
= 0.78 eV
E = 13.6
(
(

2
2
2
1
n
1
n
1
= 13.6 (

9
1
4
1
= 1.88 ev
1.88 = 0.78 + |
| = 1.1 eV
27. Hydrogen (
1
H
1
), Deuterium (
1
H
2
), singly
ionised Helium (
2
He
4
)
+
and doubly ionised lithium
(
3
Li
6
)
++
all have one electron around the nucleus.
Consider an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1.
If the wave lengths of emitted radiation are
1
,
2
,

3
and
4
respectively then approximately which one
of the following is correct?
(1) 4
1
= 2
2
= 2
3
=
4
(2)
1
= 2
2
= 2
3
=
4
(3)
1
=
2
= 4
3
= 9
4
(4)
1
= 2
2
= 3
3
= 4
4
Sol. 3

hc
= Rc z
2

(
(

2
2
2
1
n
1
n
1

1
z
2
1
1

(1)
2
,
2
1

(1)
2
,
3
1

(2)
2
,
4
1

(3)
2

1
:
2
:
3
:
4
= 1 : 1 :
4
1
:
9
1
28. The forward biased diode connection is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Sol. 1
+2V
(High)
(Low)
2V
Forward biased
29. Match List-I (Electromagnetic wave type)
with List-II (Its association/application) and select
the correct option from the choices given below the
lists :
(a) Infrared waves (i)
To treat muscular
strain
(b) Radio waves (ii) For broadcasting
(c) X-rays (iii)
To detect fracture
of bones
(d) Ultraviolet rays (iv)
Absorbed by the
ozone layer of the
atmosphere
List-I List-II
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Sol. 4
Knowledge based
30. A student measured the length of a rod and
wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use to
measure it?
(1) A meter scale
(2) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in ver-
nier scale matches with 9 division in main scale and
main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm.
(3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circu-
lar scale and pitch as 1 mm.
(4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular
scale and pitch as 1 mm.
Sol. 2
The vernier calliper has least count
10
cm 1 . 0
= 0.01 cm
Also 3.50 cm has smallest reading
0.01 cm
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Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
31. The correct set of four quantum numbers for
the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z =
37) is ?
(1) 5, 0, 0, + 1/2
(2) 5, 0, 1, + 1/2
(3) 5, 1, 1 + 1/2
(4) 5, 1, 0, + 1/2
Sol. (1)
32. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der waals
equation at low pressure can be written as ?
(1) Z = 1
RT
Pb
(2) Z = 1
VRT
a
(3) Z = 1 +
Pb
RT
(4) Z = 1 +
RT
Pb
Sol. (2)
According to vander waals equation for
one mole gas
2
a
P (V b) RT
V
| |
+ =
|
\ .
at low pressure volume will be high
b can be neglected,
so,
2
a
P (V) RT
V
| |
+ =
|
\ .

a
PV RT
V
+ =
Z =
PV
RT
= 1
a
VRT
33. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lat-
tice. If 'a' is its edge length then which of
the following expressions is correct ?
(1)
Cs Cl
r r 3a
+
+ =
(2)
Cs Cl
r r 3a
+
+ =
(3)
Cs Cl
3
r r a
2
+
+ =
(4)
Cs Cl
3a
r r
2
+
+ =
Sol. 3
Cl

forms SC
Cs
+
goes to centre of the cube

3a
r r
2
+
+ =
34. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an
organic compound was digested by kjeldahl
method and the evolved ammonia was ab-
sorbed in 60 mL of
10
M
sulphuric acid. The
unreacted acid required 20 mL of
10
M
sodium
hydroxide for complete neutralization. The
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is ?
(1) 3 % (2) 10 %(3) 6 % (4) 5 %
Sol. (2)
1.4 gm NH
3

2 4
M M
60mL H SO 20mL NaOH
10 10
+
Lets Assume x % N
x
1.4
1 20 1 60
100
1 2
14 10 1000 10 1000

+ =
14 100
x (0.0120.002)
1.4

=
= 10 %
35. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electro-
lyte is 50 O. The specific conductance of
the solution is 1.4 S m
1
. The resistance of
0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280
O. The molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution
of the electrolyte in S m
2
mol
1
is ?
(1) 5 10
4
(2) 5 10
2
(3) 5 10
3
(4) 5 10
3
Sol. 1
R =
a

50 =
1
1.4 a

1
70m
a

=

R =
a

[CHEMISTRY]
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 10)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
280 =
1
70
k
k = 0.25 Sm
1
= 0.25 10
2
O
1
- cm
1
m
1000
c
k
A =
=
2
1000 0.25 10
0.5

= 5 O
1
-cm
2
mole
1
= 5 10
4
S-m
2
mol
1
36. For complete combustion of ethanol,
C
2
H
5
OH(l) + 3O
2
(g) 2CO
2
(g) + 3H
2
O(l),
the amount of heat produced as measured in
bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol
1
at 25C.
Assuming ideality the Enthalpy of combustion,
A
C
H, for the reaction will be :
(R = 8.314 kJ mol
1
)
(1) 1366.95 kJ mol
1
(2) 1350.50 kJ mol
1
(3) 1460.50 kJ mol
1
(4) 1361.95 kJ mol
1
Sol. (1)
AH = AU + An
g
RT
= 1364.47 + (1) 8.314 10
3
298
= 1364.47 2.47
= 1366.95 kJ mol
1
37. the equivalent conductance of NaCl at con-
centration C and at infinite dilution are
C
and

respectively. The correct relationship

between
C
and

is given as ?
(where the constant B is positive)
(1)
C
=

+ (B) C
(2)
C
=

+ (B)
C
(3)
C
=

(B)
C
(4)
C
=

(B) C
Sol. (3)

c
=

C B
38. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M
C
2
H
5
OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg
3
(PO
4
)
2
(aq), 0.250
M KBr(aq) and 0.125 M Na
3
PO
4
(aq) at 25C.
Which statement is true about these solu-
tions, assuming all salts to be strong elec-
trolytes?
(1) they all the have the same osmotic pres-
sure
(2) 0.500 M C
2
H
5
OH(aq) has the highest os-
motic pressure.
(3) 0.125 M Na
3
PO
4
(aq) has the highest os-
motic pressure.
(4) 0.100 M Mg
3
(PO
4
)
2
(aq) has the highest
osmotic pressure.
Sol. 1
i ic
0.5 M C
2
H
5
OH (aq.) 1 0.5
0.10 M Mg
3
(PO
4
)
2
5 0.5
0.25 M KBr 2 0.5
0.125 M Na
3
PO
4
4 0.5
All have same colligative prop.
39. For the reaction SO
2(s)
+
2
1
O
2
(g) SO
3(g)
,
if K
p
= K
C
(RT)
x
where the symbols have usual
meaning then the value of x is: (assuming
ideality) ?
(1) 1/2
(2) 1/2
(3) 1
(4) 1
Sol. (2)
SO
2
(g)
2
1
O (g)
2
+ SO
3
(g)
Kp = K
c
(RT)
Ang
An
g
= 1 (1 +
2
1
) =
2
1

Kp = K
c
(RT)
1/2
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 11)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
40. For the non-stoichiometre reaction 2A + B
C + D, the following kinetic data were ob-
tained in three separate expreiments, all at
298 K
3
3
3
10 4 . 2 M 1 . 0 M 2 . 0
10 2 . 1 M 2 . 0 M 1 . 0
10 2 . 1 M 1 . 0 M 1 . 0
) S L mol (
C of formation
of rate Initial
) B (
ion Concentrat
Initial
) A (
ion Concentrat
Initial

the rate law for the formation of C is

(1)
dt
dc
= k[A] [B]
2
(2)
dt
dc
= k[A]
2
[B]
(3)
dt
dc
= k[A] [B]
(4)
dt
dc
= k[A]
Sol. (4)
2A + B C + D
(1) & (3) [A]
1
(1) & (2) [B]
r = k[A]
1
41. Among the following oxoacids, the correct
decreasing order of acid strength is :
(1) HOCl > HClO
2
> HClO
3
> HClO
4
(2) HClO
2
> HClO
4
> HClO
3
> HOCl
(3) HClO
4
> HClO
3
> HClO
2
> HOCl
(4) HClO
4
> HOCl > HClO
2
> HClO
3
Sol. (3)
42. The metal that connnot be obtained by elec-
trolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is
(1) Cu
(2) Ca
(3) Ag
(4) Cr
Sol. 2
2
2 2
H o /H
Ca / Ca
E E
+
>
Ca is more electro +ve so aqueous solu-
tions cannot be use.
43. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M
3+
with four monodentate ligands L
1
, L
2
, L
3
and
L
4
absorb wavelengths in the region of red,
green, yellow and blue, respectively. The in-
creasing order of ligand strength of the four
ligands is ?
(1) L
3
< L
2
< L
4
< L
1
(2) L
1
< L
3
< L
2
< L
4
(3) L
4
< L
3
< L
2
< L
1
(4) L
1
< L
2
< L
4
< L
3
Sol. (2)
(a) According to spectro chemical series
more absorption frequency stronger the
ligand
V I B G Y O R
E
L
1
< L
3
< L
2
< L
4
44. Which one of the following properties is not
shown by NO?
(1) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
(2) It's bond order is 2.5
(3) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen
dioxide
(4) It is a neutral oxide
Sol. (1)
(1) NO + 1/2 O
2


NO
2
(2) bond Order of NO is 2.5
(3) It is paramagnetic in gaseous state
(4) It is neutral oxide
45. In which of the following reactions H
2
O
2
acts
as a reducing agent?
(a) H
2
O
2
+ 2H
+
+ 2e

2H
2
O
(b) H
2
O
2
2e

O
2
+ 2H
+
(c) H
2
O
2
+ 2e

2OH

(d) H
2
O
2
+ 2OH

2e

O
2
+ 2H
2
O
(1) (a), (c)
(2) (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (b), (d)
Sol. 4
As a reducing agent
0
1
2
2 2
H O O 2e

+
(b) & (d)
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 12)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
46. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI
3
,
is ?
(1) It contains Cs
3+
and I

ions.
(2) It contains Cs
+
and I
3

ions.
(3) It is a covalent molecule.
(4) It contains Cs
+
, I

and lattice I
2
mol-
ecule.
Sol. (2)
47. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen
in a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The
ratio of number of their molecule is :
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 7 : 32
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 16
Sol. (2)
O
2
: N
2
mass 1 : 4
Moles
32
1
:
28
4
7 : 32
48. Given below are the half - cell reactions
Mn
2+
+ 2e

Mn : E = 1.18 V
2(Mn
3
+ e

Mn
2+
) : E = + 1.51 V
The E for 3Mn
2+
Mn + 2Mn
3+
will be
(1) 2.69 V ; the reaction will not occur
(2) 0.33 V ; the reaction will occur
(3) 0.33 V ; the reaction will not occur
(4) 2.69 V ; the reaction will occur
Sol. (1)
Mn
2+
+ 2e

Mn ; E
=
1.18 V
2Mn
3+
+ 2e

2Mn
2+
; E = +1.51 V
(1) (2)
Mn
2+
+ 2e

+ 2Mn
2+
2Mn
3+
+ 2e
1
+ Mn
E
=
1.18 1.51 ( n is same)
E = 2.69 V
(3) The reaction will nor occur
49. Which series of reactions correctly represents
chemical relations related to iron and its com-
pound ?
(1) Fe
Cl ,heat
2 FeCl
3

heat, air
FeCl
2
Zn
Fe
(2) Fe
dil H SO
2 4 FeSO
4

H SO
2 4, 2
O
Fe(SO
4
)
3

heat
Fe
(3) Fe
O heat
2, FeO
dil H SO
2 4 FeSO
4
heat
Fe
(4) Fe
O heat
2, Fe
3
O
4

CO, 600C
FeO
CO, 700C
Fe
Sol. (4)
This reaction is used in blast furnace.
50. The equation which is balanced and repre-
sents the correct product(s) is?
(1)[Mg(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
+ (EDTA)
4

excess NaOH
[Mg(EDTA)]
2+
+ 6H
2
O
(2) [CoCl(NH
3
)
5
]
+
+ 5H
+
CO
2+
+ 5NH
4
+
+ Cl

(3) Li
2
O + 2KCl 2LiCl + K
2
O
(4) CuSO
4
+ 4KCN K
2
[Cu(CN)
4
] + K
2
SO
4
Sol. (2)
In this reaction H
+
ion attacks ammonia mol-
ecule and hence decomposes the complex
which results information of amonia
51. In S
N
2 reactions, the correct order of reac-
tivity for the following compounds ?
CH
3
Cl, CH
3
CH
2
Cl, (CH
3
)
2
CHCl and (CH
3
)
3
CCl is
(1) CH
3
CH
2
Cl > CH
3
Cl > (CH
3
)
2
CHCl > (CH
3
)
3
CCl
(2) CH
3
Cl > (CH
3
)
2
CHCl > CH
3
CH
2
Cl > (CH
3
)
3
CCl
(3) (CH
3
)
2
CHCl > CH
3
CH
2
Cl > CH
3
Cl > (CH
3
)
3
CCl
(4) CH
3
Cl> CH
3
CH
2
Cl > (CH
3
)
2
CHCl > (CH
3
)
3
CCl
Sol. (2)
S
N
2
Reactivity of SN
2

1
Steric hindrance
Order of reactivity towards S
N
2.
CH
3
Cl > CH
3
CH
2
Cl > (CH
3
)
2
CHCl > (CH
3
)
3
CCl
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 13)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
52. On heating an aliphatic primary amine with
chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydrox-
ide, the organic compound formed is :
(1) An alkyl cyanide
(2) An alkanediol
(3) An alkanol
(4) An alkyl isocyanide
Sol. (4)
RNH
2
+ CHCl
3
+KOH

A
RNC
1-amine chloroform Alkyl isocyanide
it is carbyl amine reaction or isocyanide test.
53. The most suitable reagent for the conversion
of R CH
2
OH R CHO is :
(1) CrO
3
(2) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(3) KMnO
4
(4) PCC (Pyridininum Chlorochromate)
Sol. (4)
RCH
2
OH
PCC (pyridinium chloro chromate) is mild
oxidising agent.
54. The major organic compound formed by the
reaction of 1,1,1-trichloroethane with silver
powder is ?
(1) Acetylene (2) 2 - Butene
(3) 2 Butyne (4) Ethene
Sol. (3)

CH
3
CCCH
3
+ 6AgCl
2-butyne
55. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO
2
un-
der pressure at 125 C yields a product which
on acetylation produces C ?
ONa
+ CO
2
B C
125 H
+
5 Atm Ac O
2
The major product C would be;
(1)
COOH
OCOCH
3
(2)
OCOCH
3
COOH
(3)
COOCH
3
OH
(4)
OH
COCH
3
COCH
3
Sol. (1)

56. Considering the basic strength of amines in
aqueous solution, which one has the small-
est pK
b
value?
(1) (CH
3
)
2
NH (2) C
6
H
5
NH
2
(3) (CH
3
)
3
N (4) CH
3
NH
2
Sol. (1)
Delocalised lone pair electrons.
(least Basic)
Order of basic strength in aqueous solution
2 > 1 >3 amine > aniline.
Basic strength K
b

b
pk
1
(CH
3
)
2
NH is most basic so it has smallest pK
b
.
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 14)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
57. For which of the following molecule signifi-
cant = 0 ?
(a)
Cl
Cl
(b)
CN
CN
(c)
OH
OH
(d)
SH
SH
(1) Only (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) Only (a)
(4) (c) and (d)
Sol. (4)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
58. Which one is classified as a condensation
polymer ?
(1) Dacron (2) Acrylonitrile
(3) Teflon (4) Neoprene
Sol. (1)
Terylene or Dacron
(Dacron)
Other than dacron are addition polymers.
59. Which one of the following bases is not
present in DNA?
(1) Quinoline (2) Thymine
(3) Cytosine (4) Adenine
Sol. (1)
(Quinoline)
Quinoline is not present into DNA.
Cytosin, Thymine and Adenine are present in
DNA.
60. In the reaction,
CH
3
COOH
LiAlH
4 A
PCl
5 B
Alc. KOH
C,
the product C is ?
(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Acetyl chloride
(3) Ethylene
(4) Acetylene
Sol. (3)
CH
3
CH
2
OH
CH
3
CH
2
Cl
CH
2
=CH
2
(Ethylene)
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 15)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
[MATHEMATICS]
SECTION A
Single Correct
61. If X = {4
n
3n 1) : n e N} and
Y = {9 (n 1) : n e N}, where N is the set of
natural numbers, then X Y is equal to :
(1) X (2) Y
(3) N (4) Y X
Sol. [2]
x : 4
n
3n 1
x : (1 + 3)
n
3n 1
x : 1 + 3n +
n
C
2
3
2
+
n
C
3
3
3
+ ........ 3n1
x : 9 {
n
C
2
+
n
C
3
3 + ......} ...(1)
& y : 9 (n 1) ...(2)
From (1) & (2) multiply of 9 Hence
X Y Y =
62. If z is a complex number such that |z| > 2,
then the minimum value of
2
1
z +
:
(1) is strictly greater than
2
5
(2) is strictly greater than
2
3
but less than
2
5
(3) is equal to
2
5
(4) lies in the interval (1, 2)
Sol. [4]
|z| > 2
1 1 1
| z | z | z |
2 2 2
s + s +
min
1 3
Z
2 2
+ =
63. If a e R and the equation
3(x [x])
2
+ 2(x [x]) + a
2
= 0
(where [x] denotes the greatest integer s x)
has no integral solution, then all possible
values of a lie in the interval :
(1) (2, 1)
(2) (, 2) (2, )
(3) (1, 0) (0, 1) (4) (1, 2)
Sol. [3]
x [x] = {x} = t e [0, 1)
3t
2
+ 2t + a
2
= 0
a
2
= 3t
2
2t e [0, 1)
Since eqn cannot have integral
root : t = 0
a
2
e (0, 1)
a e (1, 0) (0, 1)
64. Let o and | be the roots of equation
px
2
+ qx + r = 0, p = 0. If p, q, r are in A.P.
and
o
1
+
|
1
= 4, then the value of |o || is:
(1)
9
34
(2)
9
13 2
(3)
9
61
(4)
9
17 2
Sol. [2]
Given o + | =
q
p
o| =
r
p
p, q, r A. P. , then
q p = r q 2q r p = + ...(1)
again
1 1
4 + =
o |
o + |
o|
= 4
q 4r = ...(2)
(1) & (2) gives
8r = r + p
p 9r = ...(3)
Now, |o || =
2
( ) 4 o + | o|
=
2
q 4pr
|p|

=
2 2
16r 36r
| 9r |
+
=
52 2 13
9 9
=
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 16)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
65. If o, | = 0, and f(n) = o
n
+ |
n
and
) 4 ( f 1 ) 3 ( f 1 ) 2 ( f 1
) 3 ( f 1 ) 2 ( f 1 ) 1 ( f 1
) 2 ( f 1 ) 1 ( f 1 3
+ + +
+ + +
+ +
= K(1 o)
2
(1 |)
2
(o |)
2
, then K is equal
to :
(1) 1 (2) 1
(3) o| (4)
o|
1
Sol. [1]
f(n) = o
n
+ |
n
3
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1
1 1 1
2 2
2 2 3
2 2 3 3 4 4
+ + + o + | + o + |
+ o + | + o + | + o + |
+ o + | + o + | + o + |
=
2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1
1 1
2
2
o o o |
| | o |
= (1 o)
2
(o |)
2
(| 1)
2
k 1 =
66. If A is an 3 3 non - singular matrix such
that AA' = A'A and B = A
1
A', then BB' equals:
(1) B
1
(2) (B
1
)'
(3) I + B (4) I
Sol. [4]
AA' = A'A
B = A
1
A'
B' = A(A
1
)'
B . B' = A
1
(A' A) (A
1
)'
= A
1
(A A') (A
1
)
1
= (A
1
A) (A') (A')
1
= I
67. If the coefficients of x
3
and x
4
in the
expansion of (1 + ax + bx
2
) (1 2x)
18
in
powers of x are both zero, then (a, b) is
equal to :
(1)
|
.
|

\
|
3
272
, 14
(2)
|
.
|

\
|
3
272
, 16
(3)
|
.
|

\
|
3
251
, 16
(4)
|
.
|

\
|
3
251
, 14
Sol. [2]
(1 + ax + bx
2
) (1 2x)
18
coeff. of x
3
=
18
C
3
(2)
3
+ a.
18
C
2

(2)
2
+ b .
18
C
1
(2)
1
= 6528 a612 36b 0 + =
coeff. of x
4
=
18
C
4
(2)
4
+ a .
18
C
3
(2)
3
+ b
18
C
2
(2)
2
= 48960 a.( 6528) b612 0 + + =
We get (16,
272
3
)
68. If (10)
9
+ 2(11)
1
(10)
8
+ 3(11)
2
(10)
7
+.....
... + 10(11)
9
= k(10)
9
, then k is equal to
(1) 100 (2) 110
(3)
10
121
(4)
100
441
Sol. [1]
10
9
+ 2.11
1
10
8
+ 3.11
2
10
7
---- + 10.11
9
S = 10
9
(1+2
1
11
10
| |
|
\ .
+ 3.
2
11
10
| |
|
\ .
+ ..... + 10
9
11
10
| |
|
\ .
)
S
1
11
10
| |
|
\ .
= 10
9
(
1
11
10
| |
|
\ .
+ 2
2
11
10
| |
|
\ .
+ 3
3
11
10
| |
|
\ .
+.......10
10
11
10
| |
|
\ .
)

11
s 1
10
| |

|
\ .
=10
9

1 2 9 10
1 1 11 1 1 11
1 1 0
1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0
| |
| | | | | | | |
| + + + +
| | | |
|
\ . \ . \ . \ .
\ .
= 10
9

10
10
11
1 1
11 10
10
11 10
1
10
| |
| |
|
|
| | \ . |

|
|
\ .
|
|
\ .
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 17)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
S
10 10
9
1 11 11
10 1 10 10
10 10 10
| | | |
| | | | | |
| | =
| | |
| |
\ . \ . \ .
\ . \ .
= 10
9
10
10 10
11 11
1
10 10
| |
| | | |
|
| |
|
\ . \ .
\ .
S .
1
10

= 10
9
(10) S = 100. 10
9
So K = 100
69. Three positive numbers form an increasing
G.P. If the middle term in this G.P. is doubled,
the new numbers are in A.P. Then the common
ratio of the G.P. is :
(1) 2
3
(2) 2 +
3
(3)
2
+
3
(4) 3 +
2
Sol. [2]
a, ar, ar
2
in GP
a, 2ar, ar
2
in AP
2ar =
2
a ar
2
+
4r = 1 + r
2
r
2
4r + 1 = 0
r =
4 16 4
2

r =
4 2 3
2

r =
2 3
so r = 2 +
3
as In GP
70.
2
2
0 x
x
) x cos sin(
Lim
t

is equal to :
(1) t (2) t
(3)
2
t
(4) 1
Sol. [2]
2
x 0
sin( c' x)
lim
x

t t
2
2 2
x 0
sin( c x) (1 cx)
lim (1 cx)
( c x) x

( t t (
t +
( (
t t

= 1 . t .
1
2
. 2
= t
71. If g is the inverse of a function f and
f'(x) =
5
x 1
1
+
, then g'(x) is equal to :
(1)
5
)} x ( g { 1
1
+
(2) 1 + {g(x)}
5
(3) 1 + x
5
(4) 5x
4
Sol. [2]
f(g(x)) = x
f'(g(x)) g'(x) = 1
g'(x) =
1
f '(g(x))
g'(x) =
5
1
1
1 (g(x)) +
1 + (g(x))
5
72. If f and g are differentiable functions in [0,
1] satisfying f(0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0 and
f(1) = 6, then for some c e ]0, 1[ :
(1) f'(c) = g'(c)
(2) f'(c) = 2g'(c)
(3) 2f'(c) = g'(c)
(4) 2f'(c) = 3g'(c)
Sol. [2]
2g'(c) = f'(c)
= 2
g(1) g(0) f(1) f(0)
1 0 1 0
| | | |
=
| |

\ . \ .
= 2
2 0 6 2
1 1
| | | |
=
| |
\ . \ .
4 = 4
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 18)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
73. If x = 1 and x = 2 are extreme points of
f(x) = o log |x| + |x
2
+ x then :
(1) o = 2, | =
2
1
(2) o = 2, | =
2
1
(3) o = 6, | =
2
1
(4) o = 6, | =
2
1
Sol. [1]
f'(x) = 2 x 1
x
o
+ | +
at x = 1, 2 f'(x) = 0
o 2| + 1 = 0 ....(1)
2
o
+ 4| + 1 = 0 .... (2)
o = 2, | =
1
2

74. The integral dx e

x
1
x 1
x
1
x
}
+
|
.
|

\
|
+ is equal
to:
(1) (x + 1) c e
x
1
x
+
+
(2) x c e
x
1
x
+
+
(3) (x 1) c e
x
1
x
+
+
(4) x c e
x
1
x
+
+
Sol. [4]
1 1
x x
x x
1
e x e dx
x
+ + | |
| |
+
|
|
|
\ .
\ .
} ...(1)
1
x
x
e
+
= f(x)
1
x
x
e
+
2
1
1
x
| |

|
\ .
dx = f'(x)

1 1
x+ x+
x x
2
f(x)
xf '(x)
1
e x.e 1 dx
x
| |
|
| |
+ |
|
\ . |
|
\ .
}

x f(x) = x .
1
x+
x
e
+ C
75. The integral }
t
+
0
2
dx
2
x
sin 4
2
x
sin 4 1
equals :
(1) 4
3
4 (2) 4
3
4
3
t
(3) t 4 (4)
3
2t
4 4
3
Sol. [2]
0
x
1 2sin dx
2
t
| |

|
\ .
}
=
3
0
x
1 2sin dx
2
t
| |

|
\ .
}

3
x
1 2sin dx
2
t
t
| |

|
\ .
}
=
3
0
3
x x
x 4cos x 4cos
2 2
t
t
t
| | | |
+ +
| |
\ . \ .
=
4cos 0 4
3 6
t t
+ 4cos 4cos
2 3 6
t t t | |
t +
|
\ .
=
4 3 4
3
t
+
76. The area of the region described by
A = {(x, y) : x
2
+ y
2
s 1 and y
2
s 1 x} is :
(1)
2
t

3
2
(2)
2
t
+
3
2
(3)
2
t
+
3
4
(4)
2
t

3
4
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 19)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
Sol. [3]
A
1
= 2
1
0
1 x dx
}
A
1
= 2
0
2
1
2t dt
}
A
1
= 4 .
1
3
4
Area
2 3
t
= +
77. Let the population of rabbits surviving at a
time t be governed by the differential equation
dt
) t ( dp
=
2
1
p(t) 200.
If p(0) = 100, then p(t) equals :
(1) 600 500 e
t/2
(2) 400 300 e
t/2
(3) 400 300 e
t/2
(4) 300 200 e
t/2
Sol. [3]
2dp(t)
dt
p(t) 400
=

} }
2 log|p(t) 400| = t + c ...(1)
t = 0, p = 100
2 log (300) = C
From (1)
2log|p(t) 400| = t + 2 log (300)
|p(t) 400| = e
t/2
. e
log(300)
t / 2
p(t) 400 e (300) =
78. Let PS be the median of the triangle with
vertices P(2, 2), Q(6, 1) and R(7, 3). The
equation of the line passing through (1, 1)
and parallel to PS is :
(1) 4x + 7y + 3 = 0 (2) 2x 9y 11 = 0
(3) 4x 7y 11 = 0 (4) 2x + 9y + 7 = 0
Sol. [4]
Slope of PS
m =
2 1 1
13 9
2
2 2

=

m =
2
9

Eq
n
of line
y + 1 =
2
9

(x 1)
9y + 9 = 2x + 2
2x + 9y + 7 = 0
79. Let a, b, c and d be non-zero numbers. If
the point of intersection of the lines
4ax + 2ay + c = 0 and 5bx + 2by + d = 0 lies
in the fourth quadrant and is equidistant from
the two axes then :
(1) 3bc 2ad = 0 (2) 3bc + 2ad = 0
(3) 2bc 3ad = 0 (4) 2bc + 3ad = 0
Sol. [1]
4ax + 2ay + c = 0
5bx + 2by + d = 0
let intersection
point be (o, o)
4ao 2ao + c = 0
o =
c
2a
....(1)
5bo 2bo + d = 0
o =
d
3b
....(2)

c d
2a 3b
=
3bc 2ad =
3bc 2ad = 0
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 20)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
80. The locus of the foot of perpendicular drawn
from the centre of the ellipse x
2
+ 3y
2
= 6 on
any tangent to it is :
(1) (x
2
+ y
2
)
2
= 6x
2
+ 2y
2
(2) (x
2
+ y
2
)
2
= 6x
2
2y
2
(3) (x
2
y
2
)
2
= 6x
2
+ 2y
2
(4) (x
2
y
2
)
2
= 6x
2
2y
2
Sol. [1]
Ellipse
2 2
x y
1
6 2
+ =
If foot of
r
is (h,k) then equation
of line xh + ky = k
2
+ h
2
is y =
h
k
| |
|
\ .
x +
2 2
k h
k
| |
+
|
|
\ .
Now if this tangent then condition of tan-
gency
c
2
= a
2
m
2 +
b
2
2 2
k h
k
| |
+
|
|
\ .
=
2
h
6
k
| |
|
\ .
+ 2
( )
2
2 2
2
k h
k
+
=
2
2
6h
2
k
+
(k
2
+ h
2
)
2
= 6h
2
+ 2k
2
(x
2
+ y
2
)
2
= 6x
2
+ 2y
2
81. Let C be the circle with centre at (1, 1) and
radius = 1. If T is the circle centred at (0,
y), passing through origin and touching the
circle C externally, then the radius of T is
equal to :
(1)
2
1
(2)
4
1
(3)
2
3
(4)
2
3
Sol. [2]
C
1
C = 1 + y
(1 0)
2
+ (1 y)
2
= (1 + y)
2
1 + 1 2y + y = 1 + y
2
+ 2y
4y = 1
1
y
4
=
82. The slope of the line touching both the
parabolas y
2
= 4x and x
2
= 32y is :
(1)
8
1
(2)
3
2
(3)
2
1
(4)
2
3
Sol. [3]
y
2
= 4x, x
2
= 32y
Equation of Tangent, Equation of Tangent
y = mx +
1
m
, y = mx + 8m
2
1
m
= 8m
2
m =
1
2
83. The image of the line
3
1 x
=
1
3 y
=
5
4 z

in the plane 2x y + z + 3 = 0 is the line :

(1)
3
3 x
=
1
5 y +
=
5
2 z

(2)
3
3 x

=
1
5 y

+
=
5
2 z
(3)
3
3 x +
=
1
5 y
=
5
2 z

(4)
3
3 x

+
=
1
5 y

=
5
2 z +
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 21)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
Sol. [3]
x 1 y 3 z 4
3 1 5

= =

( ) 2 3 4 3
x 1 y 3 z 4
2
2 1 1 4 1 1
+ +

= = =
+ +
x 1 y 3 z 4
2
2 1 1

= = =

x= 1 4, y = 3 + 2, z = 4 2
P' (3, 5 ,2)
Line is || to the plane
Equation of image line
x 3 y 5 z 2
3 1 5
+
= =

84. The angle between the lines whose direction

cosines satisfy the equations + m + n = 0
and
2
= m
2
+ n
2
is :
(1)
6
t
(2)
2
t
(3)
3
t
(4)
4
t
Sol. [3]
l + m + n = 0
l
2
m
2
n
2
= 0
(m + n)
2
m
2
n
2
= 0
mn = 0
m = 0 or n = 0
1.l + 1.m + 1.n = 0, 1.l + 1.m + 1.n = 0
0.l + 1.m + 0.n = 0, 0.l + 0.m + 1.n = 0
l m n
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 0 1
= =
,
l m n
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 0 0 0
= =
l m n
1 0 1
= =

or
l m n
1 1 0
= =

Cos u =
1 0 0
2 2
| | + +

|
\ .
Cos u =
1
2
u =
3
t
85. If
a b b c c a
(




=
2
a b c
(

then is
equal to :
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
Sol. [2]
Clearly = 1
86. Let A and B be two events such that
) B A ( P =
6
1
, P (A B) =
4
1
and
P(
A
) =
4
1
, where
A
stands for the
complement of the event A. Then the events
A and B are :
(1) independent but not equally likely
(2) independent and equally likely
(3) mutually exclusive and independent.
(4) equally likely but not independent
Sol. [1]
1
P(A B)
6
=
1
P(A B)
4
=
1
P(A)
4
=
clearly P(A)=
3
4
and P(A B) =
5
6
P(A) + P(B) P(A B) =
5
6
3
4
+ P(B)
1 5
4 6
=
P(B) =
5 3 1
6 4 4
+ =
1
3
P(A B) =
1
4
JEE MAIN Examination(2014) (Code - E) (Page # 22)
Rank Booster Test Series [JEE Advanced]
12th & 13th Students Start from 9 April. 2014
P(A) . P(B) =
3 1 1
4 3 4
= so independent
P(A) = P(B) so not equally likely
so option (3)
87. The variance of first 50 even natural numbers
is :
(1) 437 (2)
4
437
(3)
4
833
(4) 833
Sol. [4]
( ) 50 51 101
V 4
6 50

( ) 50 51 50 51
4
50 50 4

= 17 [202 153]
= 17 49
= 833
88. Let f
k
(x) =
k
1
(sin
k
x + cos
k
x) where x e R
and k > 1. Then f
4
(x) f
6
(x) equals :
(1)
4
1
(2)
12
1
(3)
6
1
(4)
3
1
Sol. [2]
f
4
(x) f
6
(x) =
1
4
(sin
4
x + cos
4
x)
1
6
(sin
6
x + cos
6
x)
=
1
4
(1 2sin
2
x cos
2
x)
1
6
(1 3 sin
2
x cos
2
x)
=
1 1 3 2 1
4 6 12 12

= =
89. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole
20 m high and its elevation from a point O on
the ground is 45. It flies off horizontally
straight away from the point O. After one
second, the elevation of the bird from O is
reduced to 30. Then the speed (in m/s) of
the bird is :
(1) 20
2
(2) 20(
3
1)
(3) 40(
2
1) (4) 40(
3

2
)
Sol. [2]
tan30 =
20 1
x 20 3
=
+
x + 20 = 20
3
x = 20( 3 1)
90. The statement ~ (P ~q) is :
(1) a tautology
(2) a fallacy
(3) equivalent to p q
(4) equivalent to ~p q
Sol. [3]
( ) p q ~ q p ~ q ~ p ~ q
T T F F T
T F T T F
F T F T F
F F T F T
p q
T
F
F
T