S.P.M.

PREVENTIVE & SOCIAL MEDICINE MAN & MEDICINE

1. The first country to socialize medicine completel was (PGI 89, UPSC 87) a) Germay b) Britain !c) Russia d) Cuba e) Hungary Ref: Park 19th/e p. 9 & 18th/e p. 9 Provision of free medical care to the people at government expense is known as (UPSC 99) !a) State medicine b) Social theraphy c) Social medicine d) Preventive medicine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 9 & 18th/e p. 9 Epidemiology of cholera in England was classified by (BURDWAN 2K) !a) John Snow b) Winslow c) Chadwick d) Howard huges Ref: Park 19th/e p. 5 & 18th/e p. 5 The concept of Social medicine was first introduced by (Kerala 2K) !a) Neumann and Virchow b) Robert Grotjahn c) John Ryle d) Rene sand e) Crew Ref: Park 19th/e p. 7 & 18th/e p. 7 The term Social Medicine was first introduced by (UPSC 01) a) John Snow b) David Morley !c) Jules Guerin d) C.E.A. Winslow Ref: Park 19th/e p. 42 & 18th/e p. 42 Consider the following (UPSC 04) 1) Disease control phase 2) Health promotional phase 3) Social engineering phase 4) Health for all phase The correct sequence of distinct phases demarcated in the history of public health is !a) 1,2,3,4 b) 2,3,4,1 c) 2,1,3,4 d) 1,4,2,3 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 9-10 & 18th/e p. 7 & 8 Contribution of Germany to public health (PGI June 05) a) Germ theory b) Pasteurization c) Quarantine ship d) Social medicine !e) Compulsory sickness benefit Ref: Park 19th/e p. 9 & 18th/e p. 9 Road - to health chart was given by (MAHE 07) a) John Snow !b) David Morley c) Koch d) Henrey Ducant Ref: Park 19th/e p. 435

CONCEPT OF HEALTH & DISEASE

9. The manner in which a disease behaves in a community is determined by (AIIMS 80, AMU 86) a) Infectiousness of disease b) Density of aggregation of population c) Standard of hygiene d) Size of reservoir of infection e) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 33-34 & 18th/e p. 32-33 Which of the following is tertiary level of prevention (AI 88) a) Heath promotion b) Specificprotecitoin c) Early diagnosis and treatment d) Disability limiation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 38 & 18th/e p. 37 Pap smear is an example of (AI 88) a) Primary level of prevention b) Secondary level of prevention c) Teritary level of prevention, d) None of the above [Ref: Park 19th/e p.38 & 18th/e p. 37] Screening test is secondly level of protection All are morbidity indicators except (AI 91) a) Period of stay in hospital b) Doctor : population ratio c) Attendance at out patient department d) Notification rates Ref: Park 19th/e p. 24 & 18th/e p. 23 The best method of promoting healthy life style in children (AI 91) a) Primordial prevention b) Propagated epidemic c) Modern epidemic d) Continuous epidemic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37 & 18th/e p. 37 Living standard of people is best assessed by (TN 91) a) Infant mortality rate b) Maternal mortality rate c) Physical quality of life index d) Death rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 16 & 18th/e p. 16

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Prophylactic adminstration of Vitamin A in a child is (Jipmer 93) a) Health promotion b) Treatment !c) Specific protection d) Rehabilitation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 39 & 18th/e p. 38 Physical quality of life index in India is (Jipmer 80, Delhi 93) a) 31 !b) 43 c) 50 d) 61 Ref: Still searching Objective of the health services include each of the following except (Jipmer 78, UPSC 86) a) Delivery of curative care only b) Health promotion c) Prevention, control or eradication of disease d) Treatment and rehabilitation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 28 & 18th/e p. 27-28 Screening for carcinoma cervix is (UPSC 86, 88, 89, Delhi 83; All MS 83) a) Health promotion b) Specific protection c) Early diagnosis and treatment d) Disability limitation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 38 & 18th/e p. 37 Incultation of healthy life style is type of (UP 96) a) Primary prevention b) Secondary prevention c) Tertiary prevention d) Primordial prevention Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37 & 18th/e p. 37 Human Development index (HDI) includes (UPSC 97, PGMCET 07) a) Life expectancy gross national productand per capita income b) Education, social status and life expectancy c) Per capita income, education and life expectancy d) Education, life expectancy and purchasing power Ref: Park 19th/e p. 16 & 18th/e p. 16 Human suffering index in India is (Kerala 97) a) 67 b) 50 c) 80 !d) 70 Ref: Still searching Prevention of emergence of risk factor is (UPSC) a) Primordial prevention
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b) Primary prevention c) Secondary prevention d) Tertiary prevention Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37 & 18th/e p. 37 Chemoprophylaxsis is prevention (AIIHPH 98) a) Primordial !b) Primary c) Secondary d) Tertiary Ref: Park 19th/e p. 38 & 18th/e p. 37 Sullivans index indicates (MAHE 98) a) Life free of disability b) Pregnancy rate per HWY c) Hook worm eggs/gm of stool d) Standard of living Ref: Park 19th/e p. 24 & 18th/e p. 24 Provision of carotene- rich diet in order to prevent xerophthalmia is (UPSC 99) a) Health promotion b) Specific ptotection c) Early diagnosis and treatment d) Rehabilitation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 39 & 18th/e p. 38 Primordial prevention is the (UPSC 99) a) Prevention of diseases amongthe hilldwelling and tribal people b) Prolongation of human life span to the maximum extent c) Promotion of health, well being and efficiency d) Prevention of diseases through modification of their risk factors [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37 & 18th/e p. 37] (It is exactly prevention of emergence of risk factors) The measure used to express the global burden of disease, i.e. how a healthy life is affected by disease is (Karnat 99) a) Disability-Adjusted life year b) Case fatality rate c) Life expectancy d) Age- specific incidence rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 24 & 18th/e p. 24 Which one of the following branches of Sociology studies the relationship between organism and environment (UPSC 2K) a) Ergonomics b) Social physiology !c) Ecology d) Social pathology Ref: Park 19th/e p. 20 & 18th/e p. 19 What is the actual intention of doing sentinel surveillance (AIIMS 2K) a) To know the total number of cases

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b) For health planning c) To know the natural history of the disease d) To prevent the disease Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37 & 18th/e p. 36 One of the following is not true of International Classification of Disease (Kerala 2 K) a) It is revised once in 10 years b) It was devised by UNICEF c) The 10th revision consists of 21 major chapters d) It is accepted for National and International use e) It provides the basis for use in other health fields Ref: Park 19th/e p. 45 & 18th/e p. 44 Sullivans index measures (MAHE 2001) a) Mortality b) Morbidly c) Infectivity !d) Disability Ref: Park 19th/e p. 24 & 18th/e p. 24 Optimal healthy life includes (PGI 2002) a) Moderate physical exercise b) Athletic involvement c) Sufficient nutrition d) Mental peace e) Blood & urine examination at least twice a year Ref: Oxford public health 3rd/e p. 398 The value of Human Development Index in India is (Jipmer 03) a) 0.500 !b) 0.545 c) 0.505 d) 0.540 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 17 & 18th/e p. 17 Most important component of level of living is (Kerala 04) !a) Health b) Education c) Occupation d) Housing Ref: Park 19th/e p. 21 & 18th/e p. 21 The following statement is true for the physical Quality of life index (SGPGI 05) a) It consolidates intant mortality, literacy & life expectancy at age one b) Its a measure of the inputs c) Not comparable d) Highest in UP Ref: Park 19th/e p. 16 & 18th/e p. 16 Following index measures average achievements in basic dimensions of human development (COMEDK 05) a) Human poverty index b) Human development index
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c) Gender empowerment index d) Life expectancy at birth Ref: Park 19th/e p. 16 & 18th/e p. 16 Dependency ratio includes (PGI June 05) !a) 0-5 yrs age !b) 6-14 yrs age c) 15-45 yrs age !d) >65yrs Ref: Park 19th/e p. 383 & 18th/e p. 352, 353 Which of the following is primordial prevention for NCD (non communicable disease (PGI June 05) a) Salt restriction in high NCD area b) Smoking cessation in high NCE area c) Preservation of traditional diet in low NCD area d) Early diagnosis & treatement e) Excercise in high NCD area Ref: Park 19th/e p. 307 & 18th/e p. 291 True regarding secular trends (MAHE 05) a) Changes in disease pattern in terms of months b) Changes in disease pattern seasonally c) Changes in disease pattern over a short period of timer d) Changes in disease patttern over a long period of time Ref: Park 19th/e p. 61 & 18th/e p. 60 Following are true about Kerala except (MAHA 05) a) Birth rate 29/100 b) Per capita annual income Rs. 2594 c) Life expectancy 66.6 years d) Famale literacy rate 65% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 388, 384, 22 & 18th/ e p. 354 The current concept of health promotion and the related activities lead to (MAHA 05, Karnataka 95) a) Better treatment of problem b) Critical awareness and life style changes c) Adoption or prophylactic services d) Betfef health services usage Ref: Park 19th/e p. 38-39 & 18th/e p. 38 A sub-centre caters the needs of .......... population (MAHE 05) a) 30000 b) 15000 !c) 5000 d) 10000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 752 & 18th/e p. 696 Human Development index is measured by all except (AIIMS May 05, MAHE 05, Aiims 04) a) Under five mortality

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b) Life.expectancy at birth c) Literacy d) Per capita income Ref: Park 19th/e p. 16 & 18th/e p. 16 Physical quality of life index is measured by all except (AI 06, MAHE 05, AI 07, MAHE 07, AP 96) a) Infant mortality b) Life expectancy at age one c) Latency d) Per capita income Ref: Park 19th/e p. 16 & 18th/e p. 16 Host related biological properties of a disease agent are the following except (UPSC - 2006) a) Virulence b) Infectivity c) Pathogenicity !d) Communicability Ref: Park 19th/e p. 33 & 18th/e p 32 All the following indicators are used to measure disability rates in a community except (Karnataka - PG MEE 2006) a) Suillivans index b) Human poverty index c) Health adjusted life expectancy d) Disability adjusted life year Ref: Park 19th/e p. 24 & 18th/e p 23 Following is false about international classification of disease (PGMCET 07) a) Done every 10 years b) Contains 15 major chapters c) Is conducted by the WHO d) Is denoted as ICD-10 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 45 Benzathine Pencillin prophylaxis for rheumatic fever comes under (MAHE 07) a) Primary prevention b) Primordial prevention c) Secondary prevention d) Tertiary prevention Ref: Park 19th/e p. 318 Which of the following is an example of disability limitation (Aiims May 07) a) Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization b) Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position d) Providing campers for walking Ref: Park 18th/e p. 39 Sullivan inded fe an index for (MAHE 07) !a) Life free of disability
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b) Life expectancy c) Earning capagity d) Population index Ref: Park 19th/e p. 24 Prevention of disease by immunization comes under which categoru (MAHE 07) a) Primordial prevention !b) Primary prevention c) Secondary prevention d) Tertiary prevention Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37, 38 Under which level of prevention should sentinel surveillance be,categorised (UPSC-II 08) a) Primordial invention b) Primary prevention !c) Secondary Wevention d) Tertiary prevention Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37, 38 DALY is (UP 08) a) Disease - Adjusted Life year b) Disability Adjusted Life year c) Disease Associated Life year d) Disability Associated Life year Ref: Park 19th/e p. 24 Iceberg phenomenon differentiates (AI 08) a) Apparent & inapparent b) Symptomatic & asymptomatic c) Cases & carriers d) Diagnosed and undiagnosed Ref: Park 19th/e p. 36; 18th/e p. 35 PQLI included are (PGI June 08) !a) Literacy !b) Infant mortality c) Income d) Life expectancy at birth Ref: Park 19th/e p. 16 Prognosis of a disease can be given by (Manipal 08) a) Secondary attack rate b) Incubation period c) Latency d) Serial interval Ref: Park 19th/e p. 93, 94 Which of the following is not included in Human developmental index? (APPG 08) a) Infant mortality rate b) Percapita income c) Life expectancy at birth d) Education Ref: Park 19th/e p. 16

EPIDEMIOLOGY GENERAL
58. Chemoprophylaxis is used in all except (AIIMS 97) a) Malaria !b) Typhoid c) Meningococcal meningitis d) Pertussis Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 106 table (38) & 18th/e p. 105 table (38) In salmonellosis, isolation is recommended till (AIIMS 98) a) 3 consecutive stool cultures are negative b) Fever subsides c) Widal reaction d) 72 hrs after chloramphenicol therapy Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 103 table (34) & 18th/e p. 102 table (34) Isolation period for mumps is (Kerala 94) a) Until fever subsides b) Until pain subsides c) Until swelling subsides d) Until headache subsides Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 103 table (34) & 18th/e p. 129 & 102 table 34 The type of trasmission involved in the case of plague in rat flea (C.U.P.G.E.E. 96, Karnataka 94) !a) Propagative b) Cyclo propagative c) Cyclo- Developmental d) None Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 92 & 18th/ e p. 90-91 Cyclopropagative life cycle is seen in (AIIMS 97) !a) Malaria b) Plague c) Filaria d) Yellow fever Ref: SPM Park 19th/ep. 92 & 18th/ e p. 90-91 Seasonal trends is shown by (JIPMER 99) !a) Varicella !b) Polimyelitis c) Malaria !d) Measles Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 60 & 18th/e p. 60 Bacteria is not shed in (MP 98) a) Carrier state !b) Latent infection c) Incubation period d) Subclinical infection Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 90 & 18th/e p. 88 Life long immunity is seen in all of the following except (PGI 93)
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a) Pertussis b) Mumps c) Rubella !d) Plague Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p.140 for a, 132 for b, 130 for c, 247 for d & 18th/e p. 137 for a, p. 130 for b, p. 128 for c, p. 234 for d Type of biological transmission of malarial parasite is (AI 88) a) Cyclodevelopmental b) Deveopmental c) Propagative !d) Cyclopropagative Ref: Park 19th/e p.92 & 18th/e p. 90,91 Carriers are not an important source of transmission in (AI 89, Aiims 84, Delhi 84) a) Typhoid b) Poliomyelitis c) Diphtheria !d) Measles [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 127 & 18th/e p. 725] (The only source of infection is a case of measles, carriers are not known to occur in measles) Epidemic occuring every 3 years is called (TN 86) a) Secular trend b) Annual disease !c) Cyclical trend d) Pandemic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60-61 & 18th/e p. 60 Relative Risk can be obtained from (AI 90) a) Case study !b) Cohort study c) Case control studyd) Experimental study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 72 CHERNOBYL tragedy is an example of (AI 91) a) Point source epidemic b) Propagated epidemic c) Modern epidemic d) Continuous epidemic No need for ref Study of a person who has already contracted the diseases (Kerala 91) !a) Case control b) Cohort c) Control cohort d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 66 & 18th/e p. 65 Which is false about cohort study (JIPMER 92) a) Incidence can be measured b) Used to study chronic diseases c) Expensive d) Always prospective Ref: Park 19th/e p. 70-71 & 18th/e p. 69-70 & 73 All are true of Randomised controlled

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trial except (AIIMS 92) a) Groups are representative of the population b) Bias may arise during evaluvation c) Both study and control groups should be comparaple !d) In a single blind trial the doctor does not known of group allocation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 77-78 & 18th/e p. 75-76 See Assesmentfor option b All are true of standardised mortality ratio except (AIIMS 92) a) Expressed as rate per year b) Can be adjusted for age c) Can be used for events other than death d) Ratio of observed deaths to expected deaths [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 55 & 18th/e p. 54] It is possible to use SMR if the event of interest is occurence of disease rather than death Which is not an explanation for cyclic trend of diseases (JIPMER 93) a) Herd immunity variations b) Environmental conditions c) Build up of susceptibles d) Antigenic variations Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60-61 & 18th/e p. 60 Relative risk could show an association between (JIPMER 93) a) Smoking and lung cancer b) OCP and pregnancy c) Efficacy of 2 drugs d) Altitude and endemic goitre Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 72 In an epidemic first to be done is (PGI 81, AMC 92) a) Identity the cases b) Confirm the diagnosis c) Identify the prone people d) Identify the causative factors Ref: Park 19th/e p. 111 & 18th/e p. 108 Secondary attack rate is calculated from (AIIMS 81, UPSC 84) a) Minimum Incubation period b) Maximum Incubation Period c) Average Incubation Period d) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 94 & 18th/e p. 93 Diseases which are imported into a country in which they do not otherwise occur is (JIPMER 81, PGI 84, PGMCET 07)

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Exotic b) Epizootic c) Endemic d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 88 & 18th/e p. 86 The biological transmission in the case of filaria is (UPSC 85, 88) a) Cyclopropagative !b) Cyclo-developmental c) Propagative d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 92 & 18th/e p. 90-91 The cycle of yellow fever virus in aedes is (JIPMER 79, UPSC 91) a) Propagative b) Cyclopropagative c) Cyclodevelopmental d) Any of the above [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 92, 236 & 18th/e p. 90 & 226] Virus merely multiplies in the mosquito without any change inform The total number of micro-organisms contained with in or upon the surface of the item prior to its bein; disinfected or sterilized is referred to as (JIPMER 81, AIIMS 82) a) The bioload or bioburden b) The microbiologic profile c) Both d) Neither Ref: Still searching Keeping the frequency of illness within acceptable limits is best described as disease (PGI 79, JIPMER 81) !a) Control b) Prevention c) Eradication d) Survei 1 lance e) Treatment Ref: Park 19th/e p. 102 & 18th/e p. 100 A useful index to measure the lethality of an acute infectious diseases is (PGI 81, AIIMS 88, Aiims 04, AI 05) a) Attack rate b) Incidence rate !c) Case fatality rate d) None of these Ref: Park 19th/e p. 53 & 18th/e p. 52 The restoration of body function is known as (AIIMS 81, PGI 84) a) Vocational rehabilitation b) Medical rehabilitation c) Social rehabilitaion d) None of these Ref: Park 19th/e p. 40 & 18th/e p. 39 Time interval between invasion of the infection agent and appearance of first sign

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or symptom (PGI 81, AMC 87, 89) a) Serial interval b) Incubation period c) Quarantine d) Period of infectivety Ref: Park 19th/e p. 93 & 18th/e p. 91 In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 population, 20 cases have occurred and 5 died. Case fatality rate is (JIPMER 81, UPSC 85) a) 1% b) 0.25% c) 5% !d) 25% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 53 & 18th/e p. 52 Vertical transmission is by (AMC 88, Delhi 87) a) Mosquitoes b) Direct contact c) Droplet !d) Placenta Ref: Park 19th/e p. 91 & 18th/e p. 90 If a new drug is invented which prevent the mortality from a disease but does not effect a cure then which of the following is true (KARN 94) a) Incidence will increase b) Incidence will decrease c) Prevalence will decrease d) Prevalence will increase Ref: Park 19th/e p. 56 & 18th/e p. 55 Double blind study means (Kerala 94) a) Observer is blind about the study b) Person or group being observed are blind about the studt c) Both observer and observed group is blind d) Interpreters and analysers are blind about the study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 78 & 18th/e p. 77 Randomisation is useful to eliminate (Kerala 94) a) Observer bias !b) Confounding factors c) Patient bias d) Sampling bias Ref: Park 19th/e p. 77 & 18th/e p. 76 Eradication is possible in all of the following disease except (Kerala 94) a) Measles b) Polio !c) Tuberculosis d) Dracunculosis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89 & 18th/e p. 87 Modern epidemiology refers to (JIPMER 95) a) Study of incidence of disease b) Study of health services c) Study of prevalence of disease d) Study of morbidity of disease
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Ref: Still searching 94. Checking for sputum AFB comes under (AI 95) a) Primary prevention ! b) Secondary prevention c) Tertiary prevention d) Quarternary prevention Ref: Park 19th/e p. 38 & 18th/e p. 37 95. Case control study is used for (AI 95, TN 91) ! a) Finding a rare cause ! b) Finding multiple risk factors c) Finding incidence rate d) Finding morbidity rates Ref: Park 19th/e p. 69 table (13) & 18th/e p. 68 & 73 96. In a stable situation (UPSC 96) a) Incidence = prevalence / Duration ! b) Prevalence = Incidence x Duration c) Incidence = Prevalence + Duration d) Prevalence = Incidence + Duration Ref: Park 19th/e p. 57 & 18th/e p. 56 97. All of following are advantages of case control study except AI 96) a) Cheaper b) Less time consuming c) Possible to study many diseases ! d) Less chances of bias Ref: Park 19th/e p. 69 table (13) & 18th/ e p. 68 table (13) 98. While analysing a data, allocation into similar groups is done to ensure (AI 96) !a) Comparability b) Accuracy c) Validity d) Sensitivity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 67, see matching, 18th/ e p. 66 99. When launching a study, many respondents are invited, some of whom fail to come, this is called (AI 96) a) Response bias !b) Volunteer bias c) Selection bias d) Berkesonian bias Ref: Still searching 100. Descriptive Epidemiology is study in relation to a) Time b) Place c) Person !d)All Ref: Park 19th/e p. 58 & 18th/e p. 57 101. In a population of 5000, incidence of disease is 100 in 1 year duration of disease studied for is 2 years calculate Prevalance (UP 96) a) 20/1000 !b) 40/1000 c) 80/1000 d) 400/1000

[Ref: Park 19th/e p. 57 & 18th/e p. 56] (Incidece = 20/1000, Prevalence = 40/1000) 102. False about longitudinal studies is (UP 96) a) Identifies risk factor b) Used to study natural history of disease ! c) Incidence cant be measured d) All Ref: Park 19th/e p. 65 & 18th/e p. 64 103. The association between disease & risk factor in a case control study is studied by (AIIMS 96, MP 2K) a) Relative role b) Attributable role c) Population attributable role ! d) Odds ratio Ref: Park 19th/e p. 68 & 18th/e p. 67 104. In control of communicable diseases, the period of quarantine in respect of a disease is determined by (Karnat 96) ! a) Incubation period b) Infectivity period c) Duration of illness d) Carrier state Ref: Park 19th/e p. 104 & 18th/e p. 102 105. All are true about cohort studies except (AP 96) a) Prospective ! b) Useful for rare diseases c) Necessary for incidence d) Costly Ref: Park 19th/e p. 74 table (22) & 18th/ e p. 73 table (22) 106. Prevalence is a (AIIMS 97) a) Rate !b) Ratio c) Proportion d) Mode Ref: Park 19th/e p. 57 & 18th/e p. 55 107. Case control study, All can be measured except (AI 97) !a) Relativerisk !b) Incidence c) Odds ratio d) Cause & effect relation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 69 table (13) & 18th/ e p. 68 table 13 108. Best method to compare vital statistics of two populations (AI 97) a) Crude death rate b) Age specific death rate ! c) Age Standardized death rate d) Multivariatie mortality rate Ref: Park 19th/e p.54 & 18th/e p.53 109. Healthy carries are present in all except (AIIMS 96)
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a) Typhoid b) Cholera c) Diphtheria !d) Pertussis [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90, 139 & 18th/e p. 88, 137] There is no evidence that pertusis infection is ever subclinical The ratio of development of disease in those exposed minus unexposed is expressed as (AIIMS 96) a) Relative risk !b) Attributable risk c) Linear risk d) Contributable risk Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 72 About common source epidemic all are true except (AIIMS 96) a) Acute onset b) Large no, of cases occuring at the same time c) Children most affected d) Abrupt end [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60 & 18th/e p. 58-59] Any age group can be affected. At the end of the year 1990, the population of primary health centre was 30,000 and there were 120 cases of pulmonary tuberculosis. At the end of the year 1991, the population was 30,600 and 30 new cases were detected and 2 cases had died. Based on this data all of the following rates can be calculated except (UPSC 96) a) Incidence b) Prevalence c) Case fatality !d) Proportional mortality Ref: Park 19th/e p. 55, 56 & 18th/e p. 55, 56 Which disease does not occur as seasonal variation (JIPMER 98) a) Measles b) Rubella c) Gastroenteritis d) Cerebral meningitis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60, p. 130 for b & 18th/ e p.60, p. 128 for b Disease rate is (JIPMER 98) a) Risk of susceptibility b) Usually expressed a percentage c) Time period in a calendar year d) Disease occurrence in a specified time period Ref: Park 19th/e p. 51, 56 & 18th/e p. 49-55 see definition of rate All are types of epidemiological studies except (JIPMER 98) a) Descriptive b) Experimental c) Analytical d) Case control [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 58 & 18th/e p. 57]

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Case control is a type of analytical studies True of case control studies (JIPMER 98) a) It proceeds from cause to effect b) Odds ratio can be calculated c) Incidence can be calculated d) Needs many patients Ref: Park 19th/e p. 69 table (13) & 18th/ e p. 68 table 13 Standardized mortality rate is (Kerala 97) a) Standardized for age b) Standardized for disease c) Standardized for regions d) Standardized for a particular time period Ref: Park 19th/e p. 54 & 18th/e p. 52-53 Serial interval measures (Kerala 97) a) Incubation period of disease b) Sensitivity c) Specificity d) Positive predictive value Ref: Park 19th/e p. 94 & 18th/e p. 92 In a cohort study non smokers are found having Ca lung it indicates (AI 98) a) Smoking does not cause lung cancer b) Multifactorial cause of Ca lung c) Smoking is the only cause of lung cancer d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 70, 71, 72 & 18th/e p. 69, 70, 71 Reservoir of hookworm (AP 97) !a) Human being b) Soil c) Faeces d) Monkeys Ref: Park 19th/e p. 203 & 18th/e p. 195 Sub clinical illness is not seen in (AIIHPH 98) !a) Measles b) Polio c) Hepatitis d) Typhoid Ref: Park 19th/e p. 127 & 18th/e p. 125 Case control study is (AIIHPH 98) a) Prospective !b) Retrospective c) Cross sectional d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 66 & 18th/e p. 65 Chronic carrier state is not seen in all except (AIIHPH 98) a) Poliomyelitis b) Measles !c) Malaria d) Tetanus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90 & 18th/e p. 89 Drug of choice in chemoprophylaxis of contact if meningococcal meningitis (AIIHPH 98) a) Penicillin b) Chloramphenieol !c) Sulphadiazine d) Erythromycin Ref: Park 19th/e p. 106 table (38) & 18th/

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e p. 104 table (38) First case in an epidemic is called (AIIHPH 98) a) Index case !b) Primary case c) First case d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p.90 & 18th/e p.88 In the context of epidemiology, a set of questions constructed in such a manner that it takes into account all the important epidemiological factors of a given disease (UPSC 99) a) Health model b) Epidemiological triad c) Epidemiological surveillance d) Mathematical model [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89 & 18th/e p. 87] see defmation of surveillance An important measure of the communicability of adisease is (UPSC 2K) a) Case fatality rate b) Disease specific mortality rate c) Infection rate d) Secondary attack rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 94 & 18th/e p. 92 Bias is unlikely to invalidate cohort studies used to assess risk of exposure because (UPSC 2K) a) Data collection is prospective b) Large number of subjects is usually included c) Exposure is usually determined prior to disexae occurrence d) Actual relative risk can be determined [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 71, 72, 74 & 18th/ e p.70, 71, 73] (See the last point of disadvantages) A village has a total of 100 under-five children. The coverage with measles vaccine in this age group is 60%. Following the occurrence of a measles case in a child after a visit outside, twenty six children developed measles. The secondary attack rate of measles is (UPSC 2K) a) 25% b) 40% c) 50% !d) 65% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 94 & 18th/e p. 93 A study of carcinoma developing among betel-nut chewers revealed the following data Developed No Total carcinoma carcinoma

Betel-nut chewer 100 9900 10,000 Non chewer 5 4995 5000 Find the relative risk (AIIMS 99) !a) 10 b) 20 c) 1 d) 40 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 72 131. If the incidence of the disease in females is 3 times as in males, but the prevalence is equal in males and females, what is the inference (AIIMS 99) a) Less duration of the disease in males ! b) Mortality more in females ! c) Mortality less in males d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 56, 57 & 18th/e p. 55, 56 132. Denominator in crude death rate is (MP 2K) ! a) Mid year population b) Mid year females 15-44 years c) Mid year married females 15-44 years d) Mid year males 15-44 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 52 & 18th/e p. 51 133. Toxoid is prepared from (AI 2K) !a) Exotoxin b) Endotoxin c) Both d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 98 & 18th/e p. 96 134. In the International death certificate one of the following is not true (Kerala 2K) ! a) Part I of the certificate deals with the immediate cause only b) Part 1 of the certificate deals with the immediate cause and also the underlying cause c) Part 11 records significantly associated diseases d) The certificate has been recommended by the WHO for international news e) In part 1 the underlying cause of death is recorded on line C Ref: Park 19th/e p. 52 & 18th/e p. 51 135. Incidence is best measured by (AIIMS 2K) a) Cross sectional study !b) Cohort study c) Case control study d) Double blind study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 71, 72 136. Disease which is close to be eradicated in India (MAHE 2001) !a) Diphtheria !b) Measles !c) Polio d) Guinea worm disease [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89 & 18th/e p. 87]
10

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Guineaworm disease has already been eradicated Chemoprophylaxis is done for all except (AI 2002) a) Cholera !b) Taeniasis c) Malaria d) Leprosy Ref: Park 19th/e p. 106, 254 & 18th/e p. 104, 242 Attributable risk means (JIPMER 2002) a) Strength of association b) Temporal relation c) Causal relation d) Potential for prevention Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 72 Features of point source epidemic (PGI 2002) !a) Rapid rise !b) Rapid fall c) Slow rise d) Gradually falls !e) No secondary waves Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60 & 18th/e p. 58 Epidemiological studies is carried for a period of (Jipmer 03) a) Incubation period b) Twice the incubation period c) Four times the incubation period d) Half the incubation period Ref: Still searching Non - Bias study is (Jipmer 03) a) Case control study b) Cohort study c) Randomized controlled trials d) Unrandomized trials Ref: Park 19th/e p. 78 & 18th/e p. 76 No sub - clinical infection exists in (Jipmer 03) a) Polio b) Mumps !c) Chicken pox d) Hepatitis A Ref: Park 19th /e p. 89 & 18th/e p. 88 Isolation is not carried out in one of the following (Jipmer 03) a) Plague b) Cholera !c) AIDS d) Chicken pox Ref: Park 19th/e p. 103 & 18th/e p. 101, 102 The changes occuring in the disease frequency over many years is called (Karnataka 03) a) Cyclic trend b) Seasonal trend !c) Secular trend d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 61 & 18th/e p. 60 Iceberg phenomena is not seen in (Orissa 04) !a) Measles b)AIDS

146.

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c) Polio d) Rubella Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89 & 18th/e p. 88 A case control study is not characterized by (UPSC 04) a) Cases with the disease are compared to controls without the disease b) Assessment of past exposure may be biased c) Definition of cases may be difficult d) Incidence rates may be computed directly Ref: Park 19th /e p. 69 table (13), 74 table (22), 18th/e p. 68, 73 In the context of epidemiology, the following are important criteria for making casual inferences except (UPSC 04) a) Strength of association b) Consistency of association c) Coherence of association d) Predictive value Ref: Park 19th/e p. 84, 119-120 & 18th/e p. 117 & p. 82 A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990 - 1995. This is an example of (All India 04) a) Cross - sectional study b) Retrospective cohort study c) Concurrent cohort study d) Case - control study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 71 & 18th/e p. 70 Generation time in epidemiology is defined as (Karnataka 04) a) The interval between marriage and the birth of first child b) The interval of time between the receipt of infection by host and maximal infectivity of the host c) The interval of time between primary case and secondary cases d) Interval of time between invasion by infectious agent and appearance of first sign or symptom of the disease in question Ref: Park 19th/e p. 94 & 18th/e p. 92 If a new effetive treatment is initiated and ail other factors remain the same; which of the following is most likely to happen? (AIIMS 04) a) Incidence will not change b) Prevalence will not change
11

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c) Neither incidence nor prevalence will change d) Incidence and prevalence both will change Ref: Park 19th/e p. 56-57 & 18th/e p. 55-56 All are true of attack rate except (Kerala 04) a) It is type of prevalence rate b) Expressed as percentage c) Used when population is exposed to risk for a limited period of time d) Reflects extent of epidemic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 56 & 18th/e p. 55 Which of the following is not true about non randomized trial? (Kerala 04) a) Approach of comparability high b) Degree of comparability high c) The experiment can serve as its own control or can utilize a natural control d) Several trials may be needed before evaluation is considered conclusive Ref: Park 19th/e p. 80-81 & 18th/e p. 79 Death rates of two countries are best compared by (MAHE 03) a) Crude death rate b) Proportional crude death rate c) Standardized mortality rate d) Age specific death rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 54 & 18th/e p. 53 For diseases like tuberculosis and leprosy, the most effective mode of intervention is (SGPGI 05, AI 92, Kerala 94, AI 96) a) Health education b) Early diagnosis and treatment c) Specific protection d) Life style changes Ref: Park 19th/e p. 39 & 18th/e p. 38 In infections disease epidemiology, serial interval is defined as the (SGPGI 05, UPSC 99) a) Gap between the onset of the primary and secondary cases b) Time between receipt of infection by a host and the maximal infectivity c) Time during which the infectious agent is transferred from one person to another Ref: Park 19th/e p. 94 & 18th/e p.92 Factor which is associated both with exposure and disease is called (COMEDK 05) !a) Confounding factor b) Risk factor c) Proximal risk factor d) Case

157.

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Ref: Park 19th/e p. 67 & 18th/e p. 66 The person, animal, object or substance from which an infectious substance passes or is disseminated by host is called (COMEDK 05) a) Reservoir !b) Source c) Carrier d) Homologous reservoir Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89 & 18th/e p. 87 Relative risk of a disease measures which of the following (Karnat 05) a) Strength of association between suspected cause and effect b) Biological plausibility between suspected cause and effect c) Temporal relationship between suspected cause and effect d) Specificity of association between suspected cause and effect Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 72 Case fatality rate is a method of measuring (Karnat 05) a) Infectivity b) Pathogenecity !c) Virulence d) Average duration of disease Ref: Park 19th/e p.53 & 18th/e p.52 Carrier stage seen in (PGI June 05) !a) Polio !b) Cholera !c) Pertusis d) Plague e) Tetanus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90 & 18th/e p. 88 Pandemics are caused by (PGI June 05) a) Hepatitis - B !b) Influenza-A c) Influenza - B d) Influenza-C [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 133 & 18th/e p. 130] All known Pandemics are caused by Influenza A A village with a population of 10,000 has a birth-rate of 36/1000 population. In one year there has been 5 maternal deaths. The MMR in this village is (J & K 05) a) 0.5 b) 5 !c) 7.2 d) 13.8 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 444 & 18th/e p. 412 Incidence is defined as (MAHE 05, AI 89) a) Number of new cases occurring in a defined population b) Total cases (new+old) occurring in a defmed population c)Number of exposed developing the disease in a defined population d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 56 & 18th/e p. 55 The following set of words can be used
12

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169.

synonymously in epidemiology (APPGE 05) a) Source and Reservoir b) Index and primary case c) Latent infection and subclinical infection d) Serial interval and incubation period Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89 for a, 90 for b & c, 93, 94 for d & 18th/e p. 489, 87 for a , 88 for b & c, 92 & 91 for d Sentinel surveillance, is done for identifying (Orissa 05) !a) Missed cases b) Subclinical cases c) Index cases d) Prodromal infection cases Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37 & 18th/e p. 36 In an investigation to study the effect of smoking on renal cell cancer, it is observed that 30 of the 50 patients were smokers as compared to 10 out of 50 control subjects. The odds ratio of renal cancer associated with smoking will be (AIIMS Nov 05) a) 3.0 b)0.33 !c) 6.0 d)0.16 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 68 & 18th/e p. 67 It is probable that physician have a higher index of suspicion for tuberculosis in children without BCG scar that those with BCG scar. If this is so and an association is found between Tuberculosis and not having BCC scar, the association may be due to (AIIMS Nov 05) a) Selection bias !b) Interviewer bias c) Surveillance bias d) Non-response bias Ref: Park 19th/e p. 68-69 & 18th/e p. 67 In a study 400 smokers and 600 non-smokers wenre followed up over a period of 10 years to find out the incidence of hypertension. The following table summarizes the data at the end of the study Hypertension Yes No Total Smoking Yes 120 280 400 Non-smoking No 30 570 600 Total 150 850 1000 The risk ratio in this study is (AIIMS NOV 05) a) 0.06 b) 0.60 !c) 6.0 d) 60.0 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 72 Of the different epidemiological study designs available to test the association

170.
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between risk factor and disease, the best design is of (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Case-control study b) Ecological study c) Cohort study d) Cross-sectional study Ref: Internet Infant mortality does not include (AI 05) a) Early neonatal mortality b) Perinatal mortality c) Post neonatal mortality d) Late neonatal mortality Ref: Park 19th/e p. 449 & 18th/e p. 415 Endemic Diseasemeans that a disease (AI 05) a) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy b) Is constantly present in a given population group c) Exhibits seasonal pattern d) Is prevalent among animals Ref: Park 19th/e p. 87 & 18th/e p. 86 A bacterium can divide every 20 minutes. Beginning with a single individual, how many bacteria will be there in the population if there is exponential growth for 3 hours (AIIMS May 05) a) 18 b) 440 !c) 512 d) 1024 [2" where n = no of life cycles] If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies (AIIMS May 05) a) Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable b) Diseases non-fetal c) Calculation of prevalence and incidence is wrong d) Nothing can be said, as they are independent Ref: Park 19th/e p. 57 & 18th/e p. 56 The following is true about prevalence and incidence (AIIMS May 05) a) Both are rates b) Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not c) Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not d) Both are not rates Ref: Park 79th/e p. 56 & 18th/e p. 55 The rate adjusted to allow for the age distribution of the population is (AIIMS May 05, AIIMS 03) a) Perinatal mortality rate
13

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180.

b) Crude mortality rate c) Fertility rate d) Age standardized mortality rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 54 & 18th/e p. 53 Which of the following is characteristic of a single exposure common vehicle outbreak (AIIMS May 05) a) Frequent secondary cases b) Severity increases with increasing age c) Explosive d) Cases occure continuously beyond the longest incubation period Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60 & 18th/e p. 59 Which one of the following statements regarding pre-post clinical trial is most appropriate (AIIMS May 05) a) They cannot be randomized b) They are useful in studies involving mortality c) They use the patient as his or her own control d) They are usually easier to interpret than the comparable parallel clinical trial Ref: Park 19th/e p. 81-82 & 18th/e p. 80 Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true (AI 05) a) Influence of smoking is independent of the risk factors for CHD b) Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD c) Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD d) Influence of smoking is directly related to number of ckgarettes smoked per day Ref: Park 19th/e p. 305 & 18th/e p. 289 In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease. The results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are also follows. Disease Test result Present Absent + 180 400 20 400 What is the percent prevalence of disease (AI 05) a) 020 b) 2 c) 18 !d) 20 Ref: Park 19th/ep. 57 & 18th/e p. 55 All the statements are true about standardization except (AI 06)

181.

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a) Standardization allows comparison to be made between two different populations b) The national population is always taken as the standard population c) For direct standardization, age Specific rates of the study population are applied to that of the standard population d) For indirect standardization, age specific rates of the standard population are applied to that of the study population Ref: Park 19th/e p. 54 & population 18th/ e p.53, 54 The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to (AI 06, UPSC 04) a) Achieve comparability between study and control groups b) Avoid observer bias c) Avoid subject bias d) Avoid observer and subject bias Ref: Park 19th/e p. 78 & 18th/e p. 77 All the following are ture in a randomized control trial (RCT) except (AI 06) a) Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar b) Investigators bias is minimized by double blinding c) The sample size required depends on the hypothesis d) The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p. 648; Methods in biostatistics Mahajan 6th/e p. 90 In what form is the example of deprofessionalization of medicine widely seen in India (UPSC 2006) a) Quack practitioners b) Primary health care practices c) Irrational use of antibiotics d) Non-ethical practices by doctors Ref: Park 19th/e p. 10 & 18th/e p 10 In which one of the following does the host factor show bimodal incidence curve ? (UPSC 2006) a) Kaposis sarcoma b) Osteosarcoma !c) Hodgkins lymphoma d) Lung cancer Ref: Park 19th/e p. 63 & 18th/e p 62 The pattern of disease in a community described in terms of the important factors which influence its occurrence is known as
14

(UPSC 2006) a) Epidemiology b) Confounding factors c) Iceberg of disease d) Community diagnosis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 44 & 18th/e p 43 Which one of the following is the correct statement ? In a study of relationship between obesity and cardiovascular diseases, increased cholesterol and hyperglycemia are ? (UPSC 2006) !a) Confounders b) Intervening variable c) Direct causes d) Independent variables Ref: Park 19th/e p. 67 & 18th/e p.66 The term Disease Control describes ongoing operations aimed at reducing the following except the (UPSC 2006) a) Incidence of disease b) Financial burden to the community c) Virulence of the disease agent d) Disease duration Ref: Park 19th/e p. 36 & 18th/e p 35 Purpose of sentinel surveillance is (COMED 2006) a) To know total number of cases b) Health planning c) Prevention of disease d) To know natural history of disease Ref: Park 19th/e p. 37 & 18th/e p 36 Which one of the following intervention studies on coronary artery disease did not observe significient changes in mortality or risk factors sine the control group was not properly chosen (UPSC 07) a) Stanford - Three Community Study b) The North Kerelia Project c) Multiple Risk Factor intervention Trial d) Lipid Research Clinic Study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 308; 18th/e p. 292 Which of the following is used to compare the death rates of two different populations (PGMCET 07) a) Crude death rate b) Age specific death rate c) Age standardized death rate d) Proportional mortality rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 53, 54 A disease whose etiology is not known, the first step in the formation of hypothesis will be (PGMCET 07) a) Cross sectional study

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b) Descriptive epidemiology c) Case control study d) Cohort study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 58 Goitre is prevalent at higher altitude, is an example of (PGMCET 07) a) Direct association !b) Indirect association c) Causal association d) Temporal association Ref: Park 19th/e p. 82 Which one of the following is not a special incidence rate (UPSC 07) a) Attack rate b) Secondary attack rate c) Hospital admission rate d) Standardized mortality rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 56; 18th/e p. 55 Latent infection occurs in the following except (UPSC 07) !a) Mumps b) Herpes simplex c) Brill-zinsser disease d) Ancylostomiasis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90; 18th/e p. 88 What is Berkesonian bias (UPSC 07) !a) Mis-classification bias b) Recall bias c) Selection bias d) Non-response bias Ref: Park 19th/e p. 69 An epidemiological hypothesis should specify the following except (UPSC 07) a) Population b) Time response relationship c) Geographical trends d) Expected outcome Ref: Park 19th/e p. 65; 18th/e p. 64 According to the concept of iceberge phenomena of disease, all of the following statements about the submerged portion of the ice berg are true except (Comed 07) a) It includes sub-clinical cases b) It includes carriers c) It constitutes undiagnosed reservoir of infection d) Diagnosis can be made with available techniques Ref: Park 19th/e p. 36 The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period
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of time it called (Comed 07) a) Periodprevalence b) Point prevalence c) Prevalence !d) Incidence Ref: Park 19th/e p. 56 Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of (Comed 08, AI 99, Jipmer 93) a) Point source epidemic b) Continuous epidemic c) Propagated epidemic d) Slow epidemic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60 Time required for development of parasite from the gametocyte to sporozite stage is mosquito is called as (Comed 08) a) Extrinsic incubation period b) Intrinsic incubation period c) Generation time d) Median incubation period Ref: Park 19th/e p. 212 Case-control study is a type of (Comed 08} a) Descriptive epidemiologiccil study b) Analytical study c) Longidutinal study d) Experimental epidemiological study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 65 85% of lung cancer among smokers was due to their smoking. This is an example of (AI 07, Aiims Nov 05) !a) Attributable risk b) Relative risk c) Odds ratio d) Population attributable risk Ref: Park 19th/e p. 73 All of the following statements are true for Herd immunity except (AI 07) a) Herd structure is constant b) It is mostly due to subclinical infection c) Can be acquired by immunisation d) Spread of epidemic is influenced by it Ref: Park 19th/e p. 96, 97 Chronic carrier state is seen in all except (AI 07) !a) Measles b)Diptheria c) Typhoid d)Gonorrhea Ref: Park 19th/e p. 127, 90, 136 Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in (AI 07) a) Causes of death b) Numerators !c) Age distributions d) Denominators Ref: Park 19h/e p. 54

206. The major purpose of Randomization in clinical trials is to (AI 07, 06) a) Facilitate double blinding b) Help ensure that the study subjects are representative of general population !c) Ensure that the groups are comparable on baseline characteristics !d) Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment Ref: Park 19th/e p. 76 207. Which of the following is not an accepted method of randomization (Aiims May 07) a) Computer drawn randomization ! b) Odd/even day hospital admission c) Lottery d) Random number table Ref: Park 19th/e p 77; Website - emedicine 208. Cyclic trends are seen in which of the following (MAHE 07) !b) Measles a) Rabies c) Cholera d) Hepatitis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60 209. Which of the following carriers recieved source of infection from other carriers is called (UP 07) a) Incubatory carrier b) Convulescent carrier c) Healthy carrier d) Chronic carrier Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90 210. Which of the following estimating the burden of a disease in the community is (UP 07, Karnataka 05) a) Disease specific mortality ! b) Proportional mortality rate c) Maternal mortality rate d) Child mortality rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 53, 54 211. Vertical transmission is seen in (UP 07) !a) Herpes simplex b) Leprosy c) Tetanus d) Whooping cough Ref: Park 19th/e p. 91 212, Following are examples of human dead end disease except (UP 07) a) Bubonic plague b) Japanies ecephalitis c) Hydatid disease !d) Leishmaniasis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 257 213. In an epidemiological study, the first case which comes to the attention of the investigator is (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Reference case !b) Index case c) Primary case d) Secondary case

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Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90 Which of the following increases the prevalence of the disease (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Immigration of healthy people b) Increase in cure rates c) Decrease in the number of new cases d) Increase in duration of disease Ref: Park 19th/e p. 56, 57 Match List -1 with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists (UPSC-II 08) List I (Type of Inefection Transmission) a) Fomite transmission b) Cyclo-developmental c) Cyclo-propagative d) Vertical transmission List II (Example) 1. Rubella 2. Malaria 3. Filariasis 4. Typhoid Codes : a) a b c d 1 2 3 4 b) a b c d 1 2 4 3 !c) a b c d 4 3 2 1 d) a b c d 4 3 1 2 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 92, 93 Which of the following is a characteristic of a point source epidemic ? (UPSC-II 08) a) Herd immunity regulates spread of cases b) Person to person transmission is seen c) Secondary wave of cases is always seen d) All cases develop within one incubation period Ref: Park 19th/e p. 59, 60 While investigating an epidemic, search for more cases is continued till what period ? (UPSC-II 08) a) Twice the incubation period of the disease since occurrence of the last case b) Thrice the incubation period of the disease since occurrence of the case c) The longest incubation period for the disease d) Incubation period for the disease plus two standard deviations Ref: Park 19th/e p. 110-112 Case control study - estimate (UP 08) a) Only odds ratio

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b) Odds ratio and attributable risk c) Relative risk, attributable risk, population attributable risk d) Incidence, Relative risk, and attributable risk Ref: Park 19th/e p. 74 Which of the following is not a criteria suggesting casuality in non communicable diseases ? (AI 08) a) Strength of association b) Dose response relationship c) Specificity of association d) Lack of temporal association Ref: Park 19th/e p. 83, 84; 18th/e p. 82 In a study in UK, an association was found between sale of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of (Aiims May 08) !a) Ecological study b) Cohort study c) Case reference study d) Experimental study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 58 www.ucel.ac.uk.rlos/ specs/rlo_observational_study.doc; http:// cancersupportivecare. com/epidemiology, html; Repeat Nov 06 Disease highly transmitted during incubation period is !a) Pertussis b) Cholera !c) Measles d) Brucellosis e) Chickenpox Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90 Incubatory career seen in (PGI June 08) a) Cholera b) Bubonic plague !c) Mumps !d) Measles !e) Influenza Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90 John Snows discovery of cholera is an example of (Manipal 08) a) Natural experiments b) Spot map study c) Randomized trial d) Short study Ref: Park 19th/e p. 62 Suspected cause preceding the observed effect is an example for (Manipal 08) a) Temporal association b) Specificity of association c) Strength of association d) Biological plausibility Ref: Park 19th/e p. 84
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225. All are example for randomised control trials except (Manipal 08) ! a) Natural experiments b) Clinical trials c) Risk factor trials d) Preventive trials Ref: Park 19th/e p. 78, 79 226. What is not true about point source epidemic ? (APPG 08) ! a) Plateau phase b) No secondary waves c) Explosive epidemic d) Only one peak Ref: Park 19th/e p. 60 & 18th/e p. 58

IMMUNITY
227. Contraindication in pregnancy is (AIIMS 97) a) Hepatitis B vaccine !b) Typhoid vaccine !c) Influenza vaccine d) Tuberculin Testing Ref: Park 19th/e p.19th/ e p.194 & 18th/ e p.190; Harrison 15th/e p.789 for c 228. Immunoglobulin administration is life saving in one of the following conditions (Kerala 90) !a) Rabies !b) Clostridium Welchi infection c) Poliomyelitis d) Typhoid Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 232 & 18th/e p. 96 table (29), & p. 220 229. Antisera is prepared form (AIIMS 80, Delhi 87) a) Guinea pig b) Rabbit c) Rat !d) Horse Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 99 & 18th/e p.98 230. Which vaccine need not be given to boys (UPSC 87, 88) a) Mumps b) German measles c) Measles !d) Small pox [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 129 for c p. 131 for b p. 132 for c p. 123-124 for d & 18th/e p. 130 for a, p. 129 for b, p. 126, 127 for c p. 121, 122 for d] Note : Has already being eradicated 231. The most effective vaccine is (JIPMER 91) a) TT b) OPV c) B.C.G !d) MEASLES Ref: Park 19th/e p. 262-263 for a, p. 170 for b p. 161 for c p. 129 for d & 18th/

232.

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e p. 250-251 for a, 164-165 for b, 158 for c, 127 for d Which vaccine is contra indicated pregnancy (AI 93) a) Cholera vaccine b) Typhoid vaccine c) Meningococcal vaccine d) Polio vaccine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 142 & 18th/e p. 139 Which of the following vaccine (s) should not be given to an immunodeficient patient (DNB 99) a) Influenza vaccine b) Rubella vaccine c) Pneumococcal vaccine d) Trivalent oral polio vaccine [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 18th/e p.96 table (29)] Live vaccines are contraindicated in immunodeficient patients Which is a live attenuated vaccine (PGI 93) !b) BCG a) Rabies c) Hepatitis B d) Cholera Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 18th/e p. 96 table 29 Sensitivity test is mandatory in (PGI 85) !a) Gas gangrene b) Typhoid !c) Diptheria d) Staphylococcal septicemia Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 102 & 18th/e p. 100-101 Secondary response is mediated by (UP 96) !a) Ig G b) Ig M c) Ig E d) Ig A [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 95 & 18th/e p. 94] But both IgM & IgG are produced in secondary response. Secondary immune reaction is differentiated from primary by (PGI 96) a) Increases in time lag b) Decrease peak level of immunoglobulins c) Increases peak level of immunoglobulins d) Initial negative phase Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 95 & 18th/e p. 94 When an antigen is administered for the first time to animal or a human being who has never been exposed to it, the first antibody to develop (UPSC 99) a) Ig G type !b) Ig M type c) Ig A type d) Ig E type

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Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 95 & 18th/e p. 94 Binary exposure to an antigen results in sudden increasse in (TN 90) a) Ig A b) Ig D !c) Ig G d) Ig M Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 95 fig 19 & 18th/ e p. 94 fig (19) Vaccine in the UPI which aims at preventing blindness is (AIIMS 99) !a) Measles b) Rubella c) DPT d) Polio [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128 see complication & 18th/e p. 126] Many children develop acute def. of Vit A Universal programme of immunisation includes (AIIMS 86, AI 88) a) BOG b) Polio c) DPT d) MMR Meningococal vaccine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 105 & 363 & 18th/ e p.103 & p.342 All are live vaccines except (AI 98) a) 17-D b) Rubella !c) Salk d) Measles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 18th/ e p. 96 Herd immunity is not useful in (AIIHPH 98) a) Diphtheria !b) Tetanus c) Smallpox d) Mumps Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97 & 18th/e p. 95 Which of the following is given as live oral vaccine (ROHTAK 97) a) B.C.G b) Measles !c) Typhoid d) Rabies e) Hepatitis [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 197 & 18th/e p. 189} B.C.G ! Intra dermally Measles Single subcutaneous Rabies Deep subcutaneous Hepatitis Killed itramuscular Active and passive immunity is given simultaneously for all except (AIIMS 98) a) Hepatitis B b) Tetanus !c) Measles d) Rabies [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 129 & 18th/e p. 127] In Measles the combined active and passive immunization is sometimes done, but is usually not very effective The peripheral workers in a primary health centre return one day late; after an

247.

248.

249.

250.

251.

252.

253.

immunisation session. The primary health centre is locked. The vaccine carrier still contains a few unopened vials of DPT vaccine and sufficient ice. The workers are to (UPSC 2K) a) Return the vaccine vials to the refrigerator in the morning of the next day b) Get the health centre opned the same evening and keep the vaccine vials in the refrigerator c) Discard the vaccine vials d) Retain the vaccine in the ice box Ref: Park 19th/e p. 101 & 18th/e p. 98-99 After administrating live vaccine, immunoglobulins are given after (UPSC 2002) a) 1 week b) 2 weeks c) 10 weeks !d) 12 weeks Ref: Park 19th/e p. 99 & 18th/e p. 97 Vaccine which can be stored at 10 C temperature (AIIHPH 2001) !a) Polio !b) Measles c) BOG d)DPT Ref: Park 19th/e p. 99 & 18th/e p. 99 The dose of OPV, given at birth, in case of institutional deliveries is (AIIHPH 2001) !a) Zero dose OPV b) Initial dose c) Primary dose d) First dose Ref: Park 19th/e p. 105 table (36) & 19th/ e p. 103 Going from India to Europe, vaccination is now required of (PGI 81, UPSC 92) a) Cholera !b) Yellow fever c) Hepatitis d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 237 & 18th/e p. 227 Which of the following vaccine was introduced most recently (AIIMS 80, BHU 90) a) Mumps b) Pertussis c) Measles !d) Rubella Ref: Park 19th/e p. 98 & 18th/e p. 96 Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in (AIIMS 79, UPSC 91) a) Chilled tray b) Freezer c) Tray below the freezer d) Shelves in the door Ref: Park 19th/e p. 99 & 18th/e p. 99 Which vaccine is most effective (AI 89) a) Cholera b) Typhoid !c) Yellow fever d) Chicken pox

254.

255.
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256.

257.

258.

259.

260.
19

[Ref: Park 19th/e p. 194 for a p. 197 for b, p. 237 for c, p. 126 for d & 18th/e p. 182 for a, p. 189 for b, p. 226 for c p. 124 for d] Cholera 50% (3 months), Typhoid Killed 70-85% Live oral 95% Yellow fever 100% (life long) Chickenpox 90% Commonly used vaccines include (PGI 87) a) Human normal immunoglobulin b) Anti snake venom c) Anti rabies vaccine !d) OPV Ref: Park 19th/e p. 105 table (36) & 18th/ e p. 103 table (36) Live attenuated vaccines are (PGI 87, AP 85, Kerala 87) a) OPV b) Hepatitis c) Japanese B encephalitis d) Chicken pox [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 971.(29) p. 126 for d & 18th/e p. 96, p. 124 for] In J. E. three types of vaccine are used one of which is live Vaccine which must be stored in the freezer compartment of a fridge is/are (PGI 85) a) BOG !b) OPV !c) Measles d) Small pox e) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 99 & 18th/e p. 99 Chemoprophylaxis should be given for all except (AI 91) a) Acute bacterial conjunctivitis b) Cholera c) Diphtheria d) Typhoid Ref: Park 19th/e p. 106 table (38) & 18th/ e p. 104 table (38) Vaccine which requires most stringent condition for storage (Kerala 91) a) DPT !b) OPV c) BCG d) TT Ref: Park 19th/e p. 99 & 18th/e p. 99 All are live vaccine except (AIIMS 92) a) Measles b) BCG c) OPV !d) Hepatitis B Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 18th/ e p. 96 table (29) Ring vaccination is

261.

262.

263.

264.

265.

266.
! !

(AIIMS 80, Delhi 93, MAHE 05) a) Given by a ring shaped machine b) Given to produced a ring lesion c) Given around 100 yards of a ease detected d) Given around a mile of a case Ref: Park 19th/e p. 103 & 18th/e p. 101 Vaccine which is given earliest (AIIMS 81, PGI 90) !a) BCG !b) OPV c) MMR d) DPT e) DT Ref: Park 19th/e p. 105 table (36) & 18th/ e p. 103 Live attenuated vaccine used in man is (PGI 81, Delhi 84, 88) !a) Influenza b) Rabies !c) Yellow fever d) Japanese-B encephalitis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 18th/ e p. 96 table (29) Killed bacterial vaccine (PGI 78, Delhi 89) a) BOG b) Diptheria !c) Pertussis d) Toxoid Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 18th/ e p. 96 Which of the following is a live vaccine (PGI 83) !a) BOG !b) Cholera !c) Typhoid !d) MMR Ref: Park 19th/ep. 97 table (29), 194 for b, 197 for c & 18th/e p. 96] Typhoid vaccine is of two types live and oral, but the vaccine commonly used is killed vaccine Most convalescing patient develop specfic virus-neutralizing antibodies (AIIMS 80, PGI 86) a) During 1st week of convalescence b) In 2-4 weeks c) After first month d) Between 6-12 months e) Not at all [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 105 table (35) & 18th/ e p. 103 table (35)] In Yellow fever vaccine immunity develops after 10-12 days Vaccines-incorrect combination is (PGI 04) a) Measles - Jeryll Lyn strain b) Mumps - schwartz c) Chichenpox - oka d) OPV-sabin e) Rubella - Copenhagen
20

267.

268.

269.

270.

271.

[Ref: Park 19th/e p. 129 for a, p. 132 for b, p. 126 for c 170 for d & 18th/e p. 127 for a, p. 130 for b, p. 124 for c, p. 164 for d] Mumps - Jeryl Lynn strain (O.P. Ghai 6th/ e p. 195) Measles - Edmonston Zagred vaccine Moraten Schwartz (O.P. Ghai 6th/e p. 195) Rubella - HPV 77, Cendehill and RA 27/3 (O.P. Ghai 6th/e p. 195) Chicken Pox - OKA Stain Oral Polio (Live) - Sabin Frozen DPT vaccine should be (UPSC 04) a) Shaken thoroughly before use b) Allowed to melt before use c) Discarded d) Brought to room temperature before use [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 99 & 18th/e p. 99] When these vaccines arefreezed they get spoiled The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except (All India 04) a) Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect b) Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant effect c) Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenicity d) Presence of H. influenza type B component increases its immunogenicity Ref: CMDT 2003 p. 1262; Harrison 15th/e p. 781; Nelson 16th/e p. 829-837; Park 19th/ e p. 137-138 Five clean practices under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except (All India 04) a) Clean surface for delivery b) Clean hand of the attendant c) New blade for cutting the cord d) Clean airway Ref: Park 19th/e p. 263 & 18th/e p. 251 Freeze dried vaccines are all except (Jipmer 05) a) BCG !b) DPT c) Measles d) Yellow fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 161 for a, 137 for b, 128 for c, 236 for d & 18th/e p. 157 for a, 135 for b, 126 forc, 227 for d The following are live attenuated vacciness, except (SGPGI 05) a) BCG b) Oral typhoid c) Measles !d) Pertussis

272.

273.

274.

275.

276.

277.

278.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 18th/ e p. 96 Which vaccine is given by subcutaneous route (HPU 05, Aiims 95) a) BCG !b) Measles c) Rabies d) DPT Ref: Park 19th/e p. 129 & 18th/e p. 127 & Harrison 15th/e p. 587, 786 All of the following are true about the Herd Immunity for infectious diseases except (AI 05) a) It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals b) It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase c) It is affected by the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts. d) In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual Ref: Park 19th/e p. 96-97 & 18th/e p. 95 Live vaccine includes (PGI June 06) !b) BCG a) Pertussis !c) Yellow fever !d) Mumps e) Hepatitis B Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97 table (29) & 18th/ e p. 96 During pregnancy, vaccination can be given against all these diseases except (UPSC 2006) a) Hepatitis b) Typhoid !c) Mumps d) Hepatitis B Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97 & 18th/e p 96 Which of the following vaccine should not be given during pregnancy ? (APPG 2006) a) HBV !b) Measles, mumps, rubella c) Typhoid d) Cholera Ref: Park 19th/e p. 132 & 18th/e p 129 Which of the following vaccine is not included in EPI schedule (AI 07) a) DPT !b) MMR c) BCG d) OPV Ref: Park 19th/e p. 106, 105, 363, 364 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched (UPSC-II 08) Vaccines Type a) Yellow fever Killed b) Rubella Killed c) Diphtheria Live !d) Mumps Live Ref: Park 19th/e p. 97
21

279. Congenital passive immunity is NOT found in (UP 08) a) Polio b) Mumps !c) Rubella d) Measles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 96, 168 280. Which of the following statements regarding live vaccines is false (AI 08) ! a) Two live vaccines cannot be administered simultaneously b) Booster doses are not required when live vaccines are administered c) Single dose gives life long immunity d) Live vaccine contains both major and minor antigens Ref: Park 18th/e p. 95, 96

DISINFECTION
281. Choleric stools is best disinfected by (AI 89) a) Phenol !b) Bleaching powder c) Formal dehyde !d) Cresol Ref: Park 19th/e p. 193 & 18th/e p. 182 282. The amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect choleric stools, is (AI 89) !a) 50 gm/lit b) 75 gm/lit c) 90 gm/lit . d) 100 gm/lit Ref: Park 19th/e p. 110 table (39) & 18th/ e p. 108 table (39) 283. Sharp instruments may be sterilized with (Jipmer 80, Orissa 90) !a) Radiation b) Lysol !c) Hot air d) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 108 & 18th/e p. 106 & 107 284. Which of the following is most powerful chemical disinfectant (JIPMER 81, AMC 87) a) Phenol !b) Lysol c) Dettol d) Pot. Permanganate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 109 & 18th/e p. 107 285. All of following are false about bleaching powder except (AI 96) a) ContainsJZO % available chlorine b) 20 % solution used for disinfection of faeces ! c) Unstable compound on storage d) Not used for disinfection of feces & urine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 109 & 15th/e p. 107 286. Sharp instruments like needles, syringes, scalpels hospital waste products are thrown in (SGPGI 05, Jipmer 05) a) Yellow bag b) Red bag !c) Blue bag d) Black bag

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 648 & 18th/e p. 599 287. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts (AI 05) !a) Yellow b) Black c) Red d) Blue Ref: Park 19th/e p. 648 & 18th/e p. 599 288. Which one of the following is an ideal example of precurrent disinfection (UPSC 07) a) Boiling infected clothing for 30 minutes ! b) Pasteurization of milk c) Autoclaving of infected gloves and syringes d) Disinfection of urine and sputum of patients with 5% cresol Ref: Park 19th/e p. 108

289. Disinfectants used for blood spills (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Phenol b) Glutaraldehyde !d) Sodium hypochlorite c) Ethanol

SCREENING FOR DISEASE

290. It is found that the risk of Ca Cx is 5 times increased in females with multiple sex partners than with monogamy, calculate the attributable risk (AIIMS 01) !a) 80% b) 20% c) 5% d) 10% Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 73 & 18th/e p. 72 291. True positives as a percentage of all positive is (Jipmer 91) a) Specificity !b) Predictive value c) Sensitivity d) All [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119-120 & 18th/e p. 117 & 118] True positive as a percentage of total diseased is sensitivity 292. Which is most economical and best screening (PGI 78, UPSC 88) a) Mass screening ! b) High risk screening c) Multiphasic screening d) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p.117 & 18th/e p. 115 293. Screening test is not useful when (KERALA 94) a) Incidence of the disease is high in the community
22

b) Incidence is low in the community c) Early detection leads to favourable outcome d) The disease has a lead time Ref: Park 19th/e p. 117 & 109 & 18th/ e p.115 294. The criteria for validity of a screening test are (AIIMS 96) a) Accuracy b) Predictability !c) Sensitivity & Specificity d) Cost effectiveness Ref: Park 19th/e p. 118 & 18th/e p. 116, 117 295. Sensitivity means the ability to detect (AI 97) a) True negative !b) True positive c) False negative d) False positive Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119 & 18th/e p. 117 296. Specificity measures (KERALA 97, MAHE 05) !a) True negative c) True positives b) False positives d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119 & 18th/e p. 117 297. Diagnostic accuracy of a test is determined by (MAHE 98) a) Sensitivity b) Specificity !c) Predictive value d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119 & 18th/e p. 117 298. Predictive value is (AI 99) !a) TP / TP + FP 100 b) TP / TP + TN 100 c) TP / TP + FN 100 d) FP / TP + FP 100 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119-120 & 18th/e p. 117 299. Screening in children has been proved cost-effective for all of the following Conditions except (Orissa 99) !a) Tuberculosis b) Vision impairment c) Hypertension d) Vitamin A deficiency Ref: NMS SPM p. 69 300. A test is done in community A and B, more false positives were found in community A. The inference is that (AIIMS 99) a) Invalid test ! b) Prevalence less in A c) Prevalence less B d) Prevalence is more in A Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119-120 & 18th/ep. 117 & 118 301. Calculated positive predictive value of ELISA test for HIV with sensitivity 99%, specificity 99%, prevalence of HIV in population
!

302.
!

303.

304.

305.

306.

307.

5/1000 (AIIMS 2001) a) 10 b) 70 !c) 33 d) 99 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 120 & 18th/e p. 118 True negative means (JIPMER 2002) a) Sensitivity b) Specificity c) Positive predictive value d) Negative predictive value Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119 & 18th/e p. 118 The time interval between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means is (Kerala 04) a) Incubation period !b) Lead time c) Serial interval d) Latent period [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 116 & 18th/e p. 113, 114] An epidemic is defined now as 2 or more local cases caused by the same virus type in any 4 week period Evaluation of screening test is by (MAHE 05) a) Sensitivity b) Specificity c) Predictive value !d) All the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 117-118 & 18th/e p. 116 True positivity is indicated by (MAHA 05) !a) Sensitivity b) Specificity c) Predictive value d) Validity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119 & 18th/e p. 117 The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by (AI 05) a) Sensitivity b) Specificity c) Positive predictivity !d) Negative predictivity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 120 & 18th/e p. 117; Simple biostatistics by A. Indrayan & L. Satyanarayan 15th/e p. 57 In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease and the results of a neSv diagnostic test on that disease are given below (AI 06) Disease Test result Present Absent + 180 400 20 400 Which of the following is the positive predictive value of diagnostic test in that population ? a) 45 !b) 31 c) 95 d) 50
23

308.

309.

310.
!

311.

312.
!

313.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119 & 18th/e p. 117 Study the following table carefully and answer the following question (AI 06, Aiims Nov 05) Disease Test result Present Absent + 40 225 10 225 What is the sensitivity of diagnostic test ? a) 45 b) 20 !c) 80 d) 50 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119 & 18th/e p. 117 If biochemical test gives the same reading of r given sample on repeated testing, it is inferred that the measurement is (HP 2006) !a) Precise b) Accurate c) Specific d) Sensitive Denominator of positive predictive value is (PGMCET 01) a) True positve + False positive b) True positive + False negative c) False positive + True negative d) False positive + False negative Ref: Park 19th /e p. 118 Which one of the following will be affected by inter-observer variation in epidemiological studies (UPSC 07) a) Sensitivity b) Predictive value of the positive test c) Specificity d) Reliability Ref: Park 19th/e p. 118; 18th/e p. 115 Validity of an indicator means (Comed 07) a) It should actually measure what it is supposed to measure b) The answer should be same if measured by different persons in similar circumstances c) Indicators should reflect changes in the situation concerned d) Indicators should have ability to obtain data needed Ref: Park 19th/e p. 118 You have diagnosed a Patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know (AI 07) a) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test b) Incidence of SLE and the predictive value of each test

314.

315.

316.

317.

318.

319.

c) Incidence and prevalence of SLE d) Relative risk of SLE in the patient Ref: Harrison 16th/e p. 9 Best method to compare new test and gold standard test (Aiims May 07) a) Correlation study b) Regressive study c) Bland and Altman analysis d) Kolmogorov-Smirnov test Ref: various websites In which of the following disease, the overall survival is increased by screening procedure (Aiims May 07) a) Prostate Ca b) Lung Cancer !c) Colon Ca d) Ovarian Ca Ref: Schwartz 8th/e p. 1088 L-J chart is used for monitoring (Aiims May 07) !a) Accuracy !b) Precision c) Sensitivity d) Specificity Ref: Websites : www.medialabinc.net/ keyword-details.asp? keyword =LEVEYJENNING&courseid= 1026; http:// en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Levey-Jennings_chart Active search for disease in an apparently healthy individual is k/a (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Monitoring b) Case finding !c) Screening d) Sentinel surveillance Ref: Park 19th/e p. 115 High false positive cases in a community signify that disease has (UP 08) a) High prevalence & Low incidence b) High incidence & Low prevalence c) Low prevalence & Low incidence d) High incidence & High prevalence Ref: Park 19th/e p. 120 Specificity of a screeniag test measures (Aiims May 08) a) True positives b) False positives c) False negatives !d) True negatives Ref: Park 19th/e p. 119; 18th/e p. 117

322.

323.

324.
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325.

326.

327.

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES GENERAL

320. White disease is synonymous with (PGI 88) a) T.B. !b) AIDS c) Syphilis d) Herpes Ref: Still set-arching 321. Commonest cause of diarrhoea in children is (PGI 86) !a) Rota virus (3) b) Norwalk virus
24

328.

c) Adenovirus d)Giardiasis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 183, table (3) & 18th/e p. 184 table (3) Elimination of reservoir is possible in (PGI 89) !a) Measles b) Rabies !c) Dracunculosis !d) Polio Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89 & 18th/e p. 224 Cluster testing is used in the detection of (JIPMER 92) !a) STD b) Diabetes c) Measles d) Cancer Ref: Park 19th/e p. 281 & 18th/e p. 267 Chandlers index is based on (AI 93) a) No. of eggs/gm of soil b) No. of eggs/gm of stool c) No. of eggs/100 gm of stool d) No. of eggs/100 gm of soil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 203 & 18th/e p. 195 Which of the following is not found in India (Jipmer 93) a) West Nile Fever b) Sleeping Sickness c) Scrub Typhus d) Japanese encephalitis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 238 table (1), p. 251 & 18th/e p. 228 t.(1), p. 240; Chatterjeepamsitology 12th/e p. 42 for b Longest incubation period, among the following is of (BIHAR 89, DELHI 92) a) Malaria b) Hepatitis !c) Leprosy d)Filaria Ref: Park 19th/e p. 214 for a p 174-181 for b p. 268 for cp.222 for d & 18th/e p. 206 for a, p. 168-175 for b, p. 755 for c p. 213 for d Which of the following diseases gives life long immunity after an attack (AIIMS 80, Delhi 93) a) Typhoid !b) Mumps c) Tetanus d) Diphtheria Ref: Park 19th/e p. 132 & 18th/e p. 129-130 English disease is a term used for (PGI 81, AMC 86) a) Chagas disease b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Chronic bronchitis d) Bronchiectasis [Ref: Dorlands medical dictionary 28th/ e p. 481] Correct answer is Rickets.

329. Poverty disease is a term used for (JIPMER 79, DNB 91) a) Ankylostomiasis b) Chagas disease !c) Cholera d) Malaria Ref: Still searching 330. Which of the following disease has shortest incubation period (PGI 81, ROHTAK 87) a) Malaria !b) Anthrax c) Donovanosis d) Tetanus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 214 for a p. 259 for d & 18th/e p. 206 for a, p. 250 for d; Ananthnarayan 6th/e p. 226 for b p. 373 for c 331. For which of the following disease is the usual antibody source equine (AIIMS 81, PGI 80) !a) Tetanus, diptheria b) Infective hepatitis c) Measles d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 99 & 18th/e p. 96 332. If convulsions are present, which vaccine should not be given (JIPMER 80,81, PGI 90, Aiims Nov 07) !a) DPT b) Oral Polio c) BCG d) Tetanus toxoid e) Measles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 138 & 18th/e p. 135 333. For international quarantine, India is important because of (PGI 87, AIIMS 82) a) Cholera !b) Yellow fever c) Plague d) Relapsing fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 237 & 18th/e p. 227 334. Chandlers endemic index in used in (JIPMER 80, AMC 86) a) Typhoid ! b) Hook worm infestation c) Urban TB patients d) Diabetics Ref: Park 19th/e p. 203 & 18th/e p. 195 335. Incubation period of amoebiasis is (AIIMS 80, DNB 91) a) 1-2 weeks b) 2-3 weeks !c) 3-4 weeks d) 4-6 weeks [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 201 & 18th/e p. 193] 2-4 weeks or longer 336. Only human beings are the reservoirs for (DELHI 84, AIIMS 88) !a) Measles b) Influenza !c) Salmonella d) Rabies Ref: Park 19th/e p. 127 for a p. 133 for b, p. 195 for c, p. 227 for d & 18th/e p. 125 for a, 131 for b, p. 187 for c, p. 217
25

337.

338.

339.

340.

341.
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342.

for d Vomiting occurs in group of children in the night, who had a meal at noon. The causative agent for food poisoing is most likely to be (Kerala 97) a) Salmonella b) Botulism !c) Staphylococcus d) Viral gastroenteritis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 198 & 19th/e p. 190 & 191 The maximum efficiency of transmission of AIDS by sexual route is (DELHI 96) a) 18% b) 40% c) 49% !d) 90% Ref: Still searching All show iceberg phenomenon e\cept (JIPMER 98) a) Influenza b) Polio c) Hepatitis !d) Chicken pox Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89-90, see subclinical cases, & 18th/e p. 88 Beatuex index is for (ROTHAK 98) !a) Aedes Aegyptii b) Anopheles c) Culex d) Hookworm e) Mansonoides Ref: Still searching Which of the following diseases is found in India (JIPMER 91) a) West Nile fever b) Murray Valley encephalitis c) Yellow fever d) Colorado thick fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 238 table (1) & 18th/e p. 228 table (1) All arboviral disease are seen in India except (AI97) a) Japanfes encephalitis b) KFD c) West Nile fever !d) Yellow fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 238 table (1) & 18th/e p. 228 table (1)

SMALL POX
343. The last case of small pox was reported in the world (PGI 84) !a) 1977 b) 1978 c) 1979 d) 1982 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 123 & 18th/e p. 121 344. Last case of small pox came from (AIIHPH 2001) !a) Somalia b) Ethiopia c) India d) Bangladesh Ref: Park 19th/e p. 123 & 18th/e p. 121

CHICKEN POX
345. Which of the following is true of chicken pox (AI 89) ! a) Virus not found in scab b) Virus can be grown on the chick embryo c) Caused by RNA virus d) Does not cross the placenta! barrier Ref: Park 19th/e p. 125 & 18th/e p. 122-123 346. Which is not a complication of chicken pox (AIIMS 86, VPSC 85) !a) Pancreatitis b) Pneumonia c) Encephalitis d) Thrombocytopenia [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 126 & 18th/e p. 124] M.C. complication of varicella infection Secondary bacterial superinfection of skin Most serious complication of varicella Pneumonia 352.

353.

354.

MEASLES
347. Rash of measles occurs on the ......... day (Karnataka 89) a) First b) Second c) Third !d) Fourth Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 128 & 18th/e p. 126 348. If a mother has had measles, her newborn baby is immune to this disease for (AIIMS 83) !a) 4 to 6 months b) 6 to 12 months c) 1 to 3 years d) 3 to 6 years Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 127 & 18th/e p. 125 349. True about measles vaccine is that it is (AMU 95) a) Thermolabile b) Thermostable !c) Both d) None [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 128 & 18th/ e p. 126] Heat stable vaccine have been developed 350. The diluent used for measles vaccine should be stored at (UPSC 2K) a) 2C temperature b) 2C to 8 temperature C temperature ! c) +2C to +8C temperature d) Room temperature Ref: SPMPark 19th/e p. 129 & 18th/e p. 127 351. Which of the following is not true for measles vaccine (AI 89) ! a) Spread of virus from vaccine to contracts b) Single dose gives 95% protection c)Aiims Nov 07)immunity develops 10 to 12 days after vaccination d) None of the above
!

!
355.

356.

357.

358.
26

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128-129 & 18th/e p. 125-126 Reconstituted measles vaccine is used within ...... hours (AI 88) a) 1/2 !b) 1 c) 2 d) 8 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 129 & 18th/e p. 127 Number of doses of measles vaccine required to immunise the target population in an town of 5000 with a birth rate of 30/1000 in one year is (JIPMER 92) a) 270 b)320 c) 370 d)420 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128-129 & 18th/e p. 126-127] Correct answer is 150 All are true about measles except (PGI 81, AIIMS 92) a) Incubation period is 10-14 days b) Sec. attack rate 30% c) More severe in malnourished d) Subclinical infection can occur [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 127-128 & 18th/e p. 125-126] There is some evidence to suggest that subclinical cases occur more often than thought Isolation is not needed for measles due to (JIPMER 95) a) There are healthy carriers b) Carriers are convalascents c) The infectivity in diseased is low d) There are incubatory carriers Ref: Park 19th/e p. 90 & 18th/e p. 88 All of following are true about measles except (AI 96) a) Maximum incidence in 6m-3 year age gmup b) Best age for immunization is 9-12 months c) Secondary attack rate is 30% d) I.P. = 7-14 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 127-128 & 18th/e p. 125-126 Measles vaccine given to contact of measles case exerts protective effect within (Delhi 96) a) 1 day b) 3 days !c) 7 days d) 10 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 129 & 18th/e p. 127 Efficiency of measles vaccine (JIPMER 2002) a) 55% b)75%

359.

360.

361.

362.

363.

364.

c) 85% d)100% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 129 & 18th/e p. 127] Correct answer is 95% In an area not covered by measles immunization, the attack rate of measles is (UPSC 04) a) 70% b) 80% !c) 90% d) 100% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 126 & 18th/e p. 124 ] If the disease is introduced into a virgin community more than 90% of that community will be affected Which of the following statements is true about the epidemiological determinants of measles (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Measles virus survives outside the human body for 5 days. b) Carriers are important sources of infection. c) Secondary attack rate is less than that of rubella d) Incidence of measles is more in males than females [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 127-128 & 18th/e p. 125-126] Note : As secondary attack rate > rubella A child was immunized at 6 months of age because of epidemic of measles. Now next step would be (PGMCET 01) a) Administer vaccine as soon as he completes 9 months b) Administer vaccine after 4 weeks c) Administer along with DPT d) Nothing to be done Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128 Koplik spots is a feature of (Comed 07) a) Rubella !b) Meseals c) Tetanus d) Mumps Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128 SSPE (subacute sclerosing panencephalitis) is associated with (Comed 08, Delhi 96) a) Mumps b) Chickenpox c) Herpes !d) Measles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128 Which of the following is the Least common complication of measles (Aiims May 07, AI 07) a) Diarrhoea b) Pneumonia c) Otitis media !d) SSPE Ref: Park 18th/e p. 126; CMDT 2006 p. 1363

365. Incubation period of measles is (MAHE 07) a) 1-2 months !b) 10-14 days c) 20-22 days d) 1-2 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128 366. What is the period of infectivity in measles ? (UPSC 08) a) From 7 days before to 7 days after the rash ! b) From 3 days before to 5 days after the rash c) From 9 days before to 12 days after the rash d) From 5 days before to 9 days after the rash Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128; Ghal 6th/e p. 256 367. Measles vaccine at a primary health centre should be stored at which temperature ? (UPSC-I 08) a) 20C b) 0C !c) +2C to 8C d) Any temperature not exceeding room temperature Ref: Park 19th/e p. 128 368. Which of the following is not true about measles ? (AI 08) a) High secondary attack rate b) Only one strain causes infection ! c) Not infectious in prodromal stage ! d) Infection confers lifelong immunity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 126; Ananthnarayanan 7th/e p.517

RUBELLA
369. Rubella vaccinatin is contraindicated in all except (JIPMER 02) a) Patient on immunosuppressant b) Girl with Leukemia ! c) Girls between 11-14 years d) Pregnancy [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 130 & 18th/ e p. 129} For option a & b all live vaccine are contraindicated in Immuno compromised state 370. If rubella occurs in 9-10 weeks of pregnancy what is the chance of transmission to the fetus (JIPMER 99) a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 131 table (1) & 18th/e p. 129 table (1)] Rate of transmission of infection during first trimester is 90%
27

371. Risk of the damage of fetus by maternal rubella is maximum if mother gets infected in (AIIMS NOV 05) ! a) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy b) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy c) 21-25 weeks of pregnancy d) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy Ref: Park 19th/e p. 131 table (1) & 18th/e p. 128-129 372. All of the following statements are true about Congenital Rubella except (AI 05) a) It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth b) It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist from more than 6 months c) Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract ! d) Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects Ref: Dutta 6th/e p. 299 373. Under eradication of congenital rubella syndrome program the first priority group for rubella vaccination is (AI 07) ! a) All non pregnant women of age 15 to 34 b) All adolescent non pregnant girls 15 to 24 years of age c) All female children at one year d) All non pregnant women Ref: Park 19th/e p. 131

! !

a) Split-virus vaccine b) Neuraminidase c) Live attennuated vaccine d) Killed vaccine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 135

DIPHTHERIA
378. The most infectious variety of diptheria is (UPSC 2K) ! a) Anterior nasal diptheria b) Posterior nasal diptheria c) Faucial diptheria d) Laryngeal diptheria [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 136 & 18th/ e p. 133 ] Nasal diphtheria is the mildest form of disease however nasal carries are most infections 379. The type of Diphtheria with highest mortality is (JIPMER 2K) a) Pharyngeal b) Nasal !c) Laryngeal d) Conjuntival [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 136 & 18th/e p. 134] Nasal diphtheria is the mildest from disease 380. Commonest age group for diptheria is (PGI 86) a) 1-2 Years !b) 2-5 Years c) 2-7 Years d) 2-9 Years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 136 & 18th/e p. 133 381. The adjuvant used in DPT is (Kerala 91) !a) Aluminium b) Manganese c) Silica d) Magnesium Ref: Park 19th/e p. 138 & 18th/e p. 135 382. Ideal temperature for DPT storage (Jipmer 91) a) Room temperature !b) 4 to 8C c) 0 to 20C d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 138 & 18th/e p. 135 383. The infectivity of a patient with diphtheria is (AIIMS 91) a) Till cough subsides b) Till patient is febrile c) Life long ! d) For 15 days after infection Ref: Park 19th/e p. 136 & 18th/e p. 133 384. Management of non Immunised diphtheria contacts include all except (AIIMS 92) a) Prophylactic pencillin b) Single dose of Toxoid c) Daily throat examinations d) Throat swab culture

INFLUENZA
374. All are features of Influenza epidemic except (AIIMS 92) a) Large number of Subclinical cases ! b) Long incubation period c) Absence of cross immunity d) Sudden outburst Ref: Park 19th/e p. 134 & 18th/e p. 130 375. Live vaccine of influenza is given (PGI 80, DNB 91) a) S/C b) I/M !c) Intranasally d) Orally Ref: Park 19th/e p. 135 & 18th/e p. 132 376. True about epidemology of influenza (PGI June 05) a) Asymptomatic seen rarely b) Incubation period 10-12 hrs c) Pandemic rare d) Extra human reserviour not seen ! e) All ages sex are equally affected Ref: Park 19th/e p. 133 & 18th/e p. 131 377. Newer Influenza vaccine (PGI June 08)

28

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 137 & 18th/e p. 135 385. A herd immunity of over - % is considered necessary to prevent epidemic spread of diphtheria (PGI 80, AIIMS 77) a) 50% b)55% c) 60% !d)70% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 138, see host factor last line & 18th/e p. 735 386. Which of the following is not a part of control measures for diphtheria ? (UPSC-II 08) a) Treatment of ca^es with erythromycin ! b) Treatment of carriers with antitoxin c) Isolation of cases d) Regular immunization of under-fives Ref: Park 19th/e p. 137

(AIIMS Nov 05) !a) 7-14 days b) 3-5 days c) 21 -25 days d) Less then 3 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 140 & 18th/e p. 137

MENINGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS
391. Regarding meningococcemia all are true except (AIIMS 98) a) Common in dry and cold months ! b) Acquired mainly from clinical cases c) Chemorprophylaxis done for close contacts d) Vaccine not given < 2 yrs of age Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 141-142 & 18th/e p. 138, 139 392. Vaccines are available against group Meningococcus (JIPMER 88) a) A b) B c) C !d) A & C Ref: Park 19th/e p. 142 & 18th/e p. 139 393. Which of the following is true about meningococcal Meningitis (AI 91) a) Case fatality less than 10% in untreated cases b) Cases are the main source of infection c) Rifampicin is the drug of choice !! d) Treatment in the first 2 days can save the life of 95% cases [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 141-142 & 18th/e p. 138] Carrriers are the main Source of infection Case fatality Treated 10% Untreated 80% D.O.C. Cases Penicillin, Contacts Rifampicin 394. Average incubation period for meningococcal meningitis is (AIIMS 81, PGI 81) a) 90 days b) 25 days c) 10 days !d) 5 days e) 60 days [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 141 & 18th/e p. 138] Varies from 2-10 days 395. With reference to meningococcal meningitis, which one of the following statement is not correct (UPSC 07) ! a) Fatality in untreated cases is 60 percent b) Disease spreads mainly by droplet infection c) Treatment of cases has no significant

PERTUSSIS
387. Infective period of whooping cough last for weeks after onset of paroxysmal stage (AIIMS 91) a) 1 b)2 !c)3 d)6 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 139 & 18th/e p. 137 388. 3 year old sister of a neonate is suffering from pertussis, which has been documented by isolation and culture of the organism. Most appropriate statement regarding this clinical situation is (MAHE 98) a) If mother received pertussis vaccine, the neonate is protected b) Hyperimmune globulin is indicated for the neonate ! c) Erythromycin prophylaxis is indicated in the neonate d) DPT vaccine is recommended for the elder child Ref: Park 19th/e p. 140 & 18th/e p. 137 389. Which of the following statements is true regarding pertussis (MAHE 05) a) Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000 b) Vaccine efficacy is more than 95% ! c) Erythromycin prevents spread of disease between children d) The degree of polymorphonuclear leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough Ref: Park 19th/e p. 138 for a, 140 for b, or c & 18th/e p. 136, 138 for a, 137 for b & c 390. The usual incubation period for pertusis is

29

effect on epidemiological pattern of disease d) Mass chemoprophylaxis causes immediate drop in the incidence rate of cases Ref: Park 19th/e p. 141 & 18th/e p. 13-8-39

ACUTE RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS

396. A10-day old neonate is brought by her mother to the OPD with complaints of sneezing. On examination, the respiratory rate is 40/minute and conducted sounds are heard on auscultation. There are no intercoastal retraction. The neonate should be treated with (UPSC 98) ! a) Normal saline nose drops b) Oral antihistamines c) Oral antibiotics d) Parenteral antibiotics [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 146 table (5) & 18th/e p. 143] 40 breath/minute of 10 days child is normal finding 397. Most indicative sign of pneumonia in one year old child with cough and fever is (JIPMER 95) a) Intercostal retracion and fever b) Grunting and resp. rate more than 60 ! c) Temperature 39.5 and 60 resp. rate d) None of the above Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 146 table (5) & 18th/e p. 143 398. Not a indication for admission in pneumonia (AI 97) !a) Fever of 39c b) Cyanosis c) Chest retracion d) Not feeding well Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 146 table (5), p. 136, table (5) & 18th/e p. 143 399. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg, and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from (AI 05) !a) Very severe disease b) Severe Pneumonia c) Pneumonia d) No Pneumonia Ref: Park 19th/e p. 145-146 & 18th/e p. 142, 143

T.B.
30

400. Delayed hypersensitivity in skin tests, is assessed by (AIIMS 92) a) Erythema b) Bulla c) Necrosis !d) Induration Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 153 see Mantoux test & 18th/e p. 150 401. Not true about tuberculin test (All India 95) ! a) Specific ! b) 10 mm suggests disease c) Absence of reaction d) INH converts positive to negative Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 153-154 & 18th/ e p. 150 402. Mantoux test reading of less than 5mm indicates (JIPMER 91) a) Tuberculous Infections b) Disseminated TB ! c) Susceptibility to TB d) Immunity to TB Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 153 & 18th/e p.l50 403. The local lesion in BCG is maximum in (Kerala 89) a) 2 days b) 7 days !c) 28 days d) 1 year Ref: S.P.M. Park 19th/e p. 161 & 18th/ e p.l58 404. T-cell functions are assesed by (JIPMER 92) a) Phagocytic index b) T-cell count ! c) Migration inhibition test d) Immunoglobulin index Ref: SPM 19th/e p. 271, see tests for cell mediate Immunity & 18th/e p. 258 405. Tuberculin test is read after (UPSC 85) a) 48 hrs. ! b) 72 hrs. c) 96 hrs. d) 24 hrs. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 153 & 18th/e p. 150 406. In tuberculin testing induration of ......... is considered positive (UPSC 85) a) 5 mm or more b) 7 mm or more !c) 10 mm or more d) 15 mm or more Ref: Park 19th/e p. 153 & 18th/e p. 150 407. Diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is best confirmed by (UPSC 85, 88 AI 88) ! a) Sputum examination b) Mass miniature radiography c) Tuberculin testing d) History alone Ref: Park 19th/e p.l54 & 18th/e p. 757 408. The most frequently used combination of anti tuberculous drugs in India is (AIIMS 85)

409.

410.

411.

412.
! ! !

413.

414.

415.

a) INH + Ethambutol !b) INH + Thiacetazone c) INS + PAS d) Streptomycin Ref: Park 19th/e p. 157 & 18th/e p. 153 BCG is not given to patient with (AIIMS 85) a) Generalised Eczema b) Infective dermatosis c) Hypogammaglobulinaemia d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 162 & 18th/e p. 158 In the administration of BCG vaccine, the diluent is (AI 88) a) Glycerin b) Glycerol !c) Normal saline d) Distilled water Ref: Park 19th/e p.161 & 18th/e p. 157 The best method to prevent pulmonary tuberculosis is (AI 90) a) Case isolation !b) Treatment of cases c) BCG vacination d) Chemoprophylaxis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 104 & 18th/e p. 102 Regarding prevelance of tuberculosis ail are correct except (Kerala 90) a) Death occurs one in 500,000 population b) 40 % of cases occur in children c) 0.4 % children are 10 years age d) Non-specific sensitivity is highly prevalant Ref: Park 19th/e p. 150 table (2), 148 table (3) & 18th/e p. 147, 148 table (2) and table (3) Prevalance of tuberculosis infection is determined by (AIIMS 91) a) Sputum examination !b) Mantoux c) Clinical examination d) MMR Ref: Park 19th/e p. 151 & 18th/e p. 148 All the following are correct regarding BCG vaccination reactions except (AIIMS 92) a) Ulceration with crust b) Heals within 6-12 weeks c) Maximum size of papule is reached at 5 weeks d) Suppurative lymphadenitis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 161 & 15th/e p. 158 A person with tuberculosis on domiciliary treatment is expected to do all except (AIIMS 92) a) Dispose sputum safely b) Use separate vessels c) Collect drugs regularly
31

416.

417.
!

418.

419.
!

420.

421.

422.

423.

d) Report to PHC if new symptoms arise [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 153, 157 & 18th/e p. 150, 152] T.B. is not transmitted byfomites such as dishes and other articles Main aim of Tuberculosis treatment is (JIPMER 93) a) Radiological cure b) Contact tracing c) Bacteriological cure d) To prevent complications Ref: Park 19th/e p. 156 & 18th/e p. 151 Infection pool of tuberculosis is denoted by (UPSC 86, 88 DEHLI 92) a) Prevevalence of sputum +ve cases b) Prevalence of X-ray + ve cases c) Clinically +ve cases d) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 151 & 18th/e p. 148 0.1 ml of BCG contains ......... mg moist weight (PGI 81, DNB 89) a) 0.050 b) 0.025 !d) 0.100 c) 0.075 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 161 & 18th/e p. 157] For vaccination the usual strength is .1 mg in .1 ml volume BCG Vaccine is administered to children (AIIMS 81, BHU 86) a) Intradermally b) Subcutaneously c) Intramuscularly d) Orally Ref: Park 19th/e p. 161 & 18th/e p. 157 The direct BCG vaccination in India is given upto age of (AIIMS 81, DNB 92) a) 10 year b) 15 year !c) 20 year d) 25 year Ref: Still searching A positive mantoux test indicates that the child (JIPMER 80, 81, PGI 88) a) Is suffering from active TB b) Has had BCG vaccination recently c) Has had tuberculosis infection d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 153-154 & 18th/e p. 150 Short term antitubercular therapy is given to minimise (AIIMS 79, Delhi 88) !a) Resistance b)Toxicity c) Relapse d) Cost Ref: Park 19th/e p. 157 & 18th/e p. 153 Effectivity of BCG vaccine is (JIPMER 81, Delhi 85, 87)

424.

425.

426.

427.

428.

429.

439.

431.

80% b) 60% c)40% d) Less than 40% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 161 & 18th/e p. 158] Its range is 0-80% The best method of assessing the preventive measure in control of TB (JIPMER 95) a) Presence of carriers b) Presence of diseased persons c) Presence of infection d) Presence of suspect cases Ref: Park 19th/e p. 151 & 18th/e p. 148 Drug of choice for mycobacterium Bovis (JIPMER 95) a) Streptomycin !b) Rifampicin c) Ethambutol d) INH Ref: Park 19th/e p.l56 & 18th/e p. 152 For Montoux test, the standard dose of tuberculin used in India is (UPSC 96) a) 0.5 TU !b) 1.0 TU c) 5.0 TU d) 10.0 TU Ref: Park 19th/e p. 153 & 18th/e p. 150 A case in TB is defined as (AP 96) a) X-ray positive b) Culture positive c) Sputum AFB positive d) Tuberculosis positive Ref: Park 19th/e p. 154 & 18th/e p. 151 Prevalence of open cases of TB in India (AIIMS 98) !a) 0.4% b) 0.01% c) 0.5% d) 1% Ref: Park 19th/e p.151 & 18th/e p. 148 A patient of T.B. was put on A.T.T. for 5 months. Sputum examination is positive for AFB. The lickely cause is (AIIMS 99) a) Defaulter b)Relaplse !c) Treatment failure d) Absente Ref: Park 19th/e p. 152 & 18th/e p. 149 Mantoux is seen in (CMC Vellore) a) Immunocompromised !b) Chicken pox c) Malnourished d) Measles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 154 & 18th/e p. 150, Ghai 5th/e p. 202 According to WHO, screening for TB should be done if (PGI 2002) a) Persistent cough for 1 -2 weeks b) Persistent cough for 3-4 weeks c) Intermittent fever d) Chest pain

!a)

432.

433.

434.

435.

436.

437.
!

438.

e) Haemoptysis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 154 & 18th/e p. 151 Single most important test for case detection of TB is (TN 03) a) X - ray !b) Sputum microscopy c) Tuberculin test d) MMR Ref: Park 19th/e p. 154 & 18th/e p. 151 Under the revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, schedule of treatment for category I patients is (UPSC 04) !a) 2(HRZE)3 + 4(HR)3 b) 2(HRZE)3 + 4(HRE)3 c) 2(HRZES)3 + 1(HRZE)3 + 5(HRE)3 d) 2(HRZ)3 + 4(HR)3 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 158 table (5) & 18th/ e p. 155 In India, maximum cases of Tuberculosis in AIDS patient are due to (Bihar 03) !a) M. tuberculosis b) M. avium intracellular c) M. Serofulaceum d) M. akari Ref: Park 19th/e p. 165 & 18th/e p. 160 Minimum TB Resistance is seen with which drug (Jharkand 03) !b) Rifampicin a) Isoniazid c) Streptomycin d) None [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 163 & 18th/ep. 159] Isoniazid <20%, Rifampicin <1% Streptomycin 10% If after 2 months of conventional antituberculous therapy, sputum smear examination is negative but culture is positive, it indicates (APPGE 05) a) Treatment failure b) Transitional resistance c) Resistant tuberculosis d) Category-Il failure Ref: Park 19th/e p. 163 & 18th/e p. 159 Sputum posiiivity in T.B. is (Jipmer 05) a) More sensitive than specific b) More specific than sensitive c) More sensitive as well as specific d) Non sensitive or specific Ref: Park 19th/e p. 155 & 18th/e p. 151 If the objective of the investigator is to assess the incidence of tuberculosis infection in a community, the most appropriate methodology would be to (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Identify all individuals with positive

32

tuberculin test b) Perform sputum examination of chest symtomatics ! c) Identify new converters to Tuberculin test d) Screen all under-five children with Tuberculin test Ref: Park 19th/e p. 154 & 18th/e p. 148 439. DOTS indicates (Karnataka - PG MEE 2006) a) Short term treatment under supervision b) Short term treatment without c) Long term treatment with supervision d) Long term treatment without supervision Ref: Park 19th/e p. 157, 354 & 18th/e p. 136, 336 TB pericarditis would be included in which category of RNTCP (PGMCET 07) !a) Category I b) Category II c) Category III d) Category IV Ref: Park 19th/e p. 158 If a new sputum smear positive patient of tuberculosis continues to be smear positive at the end of intensive phase of category I treatment under DOTS, further management of this patient would be to (UPSC 07) a) Start category I treatment again b) Treathim as failure and start category II treatment under DOTS c) Continue the intensive.phase or treatment for one more month d) Start continuation phase under category I Ref: Park 19th/e p. 158; 18th/e p. 155 Under DOTS chemotherapy, which one of the following is not a correct dose for an adult weighing up to 60 kg (UPSC 07) a) Rifampicin 600 mg b) Isoniazid 600 mg c) Pyrazinamide 1500 mg d) Ethambutol 1200 mg Ref: Park 19th/e p.158 A patient with tubercular pleural effusion falls under category of WHO grading of TB (Comed 07) !a) I b) II !c) III d) IV Ref: Park 19th/e p. 158; KDT 6th/e p. 747, 748] Note: U/L pleural effusion Catagory III B/L pleural effusion Catagory I
33

440.

441.

444. What is the standard dose of PPD for Mantoux test (Comed 07) !a) 5 TU b) 10 TU c) 15 TU d) 20 TU Ref: Park 19th/e p. 153 445. Which is true of BCG vaccination (AI 07, Aiims May 05) a) Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG b) The site of injection should be cleaned with spirit c) Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination ! d) WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production Ref: Ghai 6th/e p. 192; Park 19th/e p. 160, 161 446. Case finding in RNTCP is based on (AI 07) a) Sputum culture !b) Sputum microscopy c) X -ray chest d) Mantoux test / PCR Ref: Park 19th/e p. 354, 154, 155 447. Which one of the following antitubuercular drugs is active against dormant bacilli (DPGEE 08) a) Streptomycin b) Isoniazid !d) Rifampicin c) Pyrazinamide Ref: Park 19th/e p. 156

POLIO
448. Tonsillectomy and IM injections should be avoided during polio epidemic because (UPSC 2002) a) It is painful b) It may lead to high grade fever ! c) Risk of paralytic poliomyelitis increases d) Risk of septicaemia Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 168 & 18th/e p.l63 449. Death in poliomyelitis is usually due to (AI 92) a) Hypertension !b) Repiratory Paralysis c) Aspiration d)Arrythmias Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 169 & 18th/e p. 164 450. Polio virus in OPV results in the production of (TN 89) !a)IgA b) IgG c) IgD d) IgM Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 170 & 18th/e p. 164 451. Vaccine associated paralytic polio is due to virus in OPV (CMC 86) a) Type 1 b) Type 2 !c) Type 3 d) Types Ref: Park 19th/e p. 170 & 18th/e p. 165

442.

443.

452. Salk vaccine is a (PGI 88) a) Live vaccine b) Live attenuated vaccine !c) Killed vaccine d)Toxoid Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169 & 18th/e p. 164 453. The characteristics of polio vaccine are all except (PGI 86) a) Maintenance of cold chain ! b) 100% immunisation c) Killed vaccine is effective in India d) 5 doses of OPV given Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169-170 & 18th/e p. 164-165 454. All are true regarding killed polio vaccine except (AI 90) a) Produces circulatory antibody b) Does not require stringent refrigeration ! c) Immunity against paralytic and wild strains d) Not effective in an epidemic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169 & 18th/e p. 164 455. All are true about SALK vaccine except (AI 91) a) It prevents paralysis b) Oral polio can be given as booster ! c) It is contraindicated in immunocompromis patients d) Easily transported Ref: Park 19th/e p.l69, 18th/e p. 164 456. Concentration of Type 3 Virus in OPV is (JIPMER 92) a) 20,000 TCID 50 b) 50,000 TCID 50 c) 150,OOOTCID 50 !d) 300,000 TCID 50 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 170 & 18th/e p. 164 457. The epidemiological trend of Poliomyelitis are all except (JIPMER 93) a) Affects higher age groups b) Increasing in Tropics ! c) Increasing upper limb paralysis d) Sporadic to epidemic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 168 & 18th/e p. 163 458. All are true of polio epidemic except (PGI 79, AIIMS 92) a) Curve rises and falls slowly ! b) All cases occur within 7-14 days c) Transmission by faeco-oral route d) Slow transmission in areas with good herd immunity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 167, 59, 60 & 18th/ e p.162 & p. 58, 59
34

459. Which of the following type of polio is commonest (AIIMS 80, AMU 90) !a) Inapparent b) Abortive c) Nonparalytic d) Paralytic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169 & 18th/e p. 163 460. Wrong about polio patient who had paralysis (PGI 79, Delhi 87) a) Can transmit it by nasal discharge ! b) Cannot be given vaccine c) Subclinical infection common d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169 & 18th/e p. 163-164 461. All are features of inactivated polio vacccine (IPV) except (AIIMS 97) ! a) Contraindicated in AIDS b) 4 Primary doses c) OPV can be used to boost immunisation by IPV d) No gut immunity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169 & 18th/e p. 164 462. Pulse polio in India is given (CUPGEE 99) !a) Below 5 yrs. b) Below 4 yrs. c) Below 1 yrs. d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 172 & 18th/e p. 166 463. Pulse polio immunisation is done in India in Dec-Jan because of (AMC 99). ! a) Administrative convenience b) Easiness of maintaining cold chain c) As a tradition d) All of the above e) None of the above Ref: Still searching 464. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid paralysis, the age group that is included is below (JIPMER 2K) a) 5 years b) 12 years c) 8 years !d) 16 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 172 & 18th/e p. 166 465. The most predominant type of polio virus during epidemics is (Orissa 98) !a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Combined infection of II & III Ref: Park 19th/e p. 168 & 18th/e p. 163 466. Vaccine Vial Monitors (VVM) have been extensively used in the Pulse Polio Programme to assess the effectiveness of cold chain. According to the guidelines, the following changes in the VVM is an indication for discarding the vaccines (Karn 03) a) Inner square is higher than outer circle

467.

468.

469.

470.
!

471.

472.

b) Outer square is higher than inner circle c) Inner square is same colour as that of outer circle d) Inner square is darker than outer circle Ref: Park 19th/e p.172 & 18th/e p.167 Criteria for defining polio epidemic are all except (Kerala 04) a) 2 or more cases b) Cases should occur in same locality c) Caused by same virus type d) Cases occurring during 6 month period Ref: Park 19th/e p. 171 & 18th/e p. 166 For every clinical case of poliomyelitis subclinical cases are (AMU 05, PGI 89) a) 500 in children and 75 in adults b) 500 in children and 25 in adults c) 250 in children and 25 in adults d) 1000 in children and 75 in adults Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169 & 18th/e p. 163 Under the National Polio Eradication Programme, a case of Acute Flaccid Paralysis is confirmed as polio, under the following circumstances except (MAHE 05) a) If a case is lost to follow up b) If a case could not be confirmed because the patient died before that c) If a wild strain of polio virus is isolated from stool d) If a patient develops paralysis within 30 days diagnosis of AFP Which of the following is a characteristic of poliomyelitis (ICS 05) a) Initial febrile illness followed by development of asymmetrical paralysis b) Symmetrical muscle weakness with frequent paraesthesia but normal reflexes c) Ascending motor paralysis with preservation of reflexes and sensation d) Pain in the affected limb with sensorimotor deficit Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169 & 18th/e p. 163 A country is certified for Polio eradication, if there is no virologically confirmed diagnosed case of polio for the last ....... years (MAHE 05) a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 !d) 5 Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regar4ds to pulse polio immunization programme ? (Karnataka - PG MEE 2006)
35

473.
!

474.

475.

476.

477.

a) PP1 aims at eradication of poliomyemilitis in India b) Wild virus is replaced by vaccine virus c) PPI aims at single dose administration of OIPV on a single day d) It can be extended to even previously fully immunized children of 0-5 years of age group Ref: Park 19th/e p. 172 & 18th/e p 166 All are true about SALK vaccine except (MAHE 07) a) OPV cannot be given as booster dose b) Injections during epidemic can cause paralysis c) Induces circulating antibody but no local immunity d) Does not prevent multiplication of wild virus in gut Ref: Park 19th/e p. 170 Pulse Polio immunization was introduced in (MAHE 07) !a) 1995 b) 2000 c) 1999 d) 2001 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 172 False about Pulse polio immunization is (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Mop up immunization is done in restricted geographical areas b) It is carried out in all children less than 5 yrs of age c) Mopping up is done in areas where wild polio virus is found d) AFP surveillance is done in all children < 5 years of age Ref: Park 19th/e p. 166; O.P. Ghai 6th/ e p.536 Consider the following statements (UPSC-II 08) 1. Poliovirus is a retrovirus 2. Man is the only reservoir of Poliovirus Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only !b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ref: Ghai 6th/e p. 210; Park 19th/e p. 168 All are true regarding Acute flaccid paralysis in National polio Eradication programme except (UP 08) a) Acute flaccid paralysis in a child < 15 years of age b) All cases of AFP should be reported

irrespective of diagnosis wrthin 6 months of onset stool Two specimens collected within 14 c) days of paralysis onset and at least 24 hours apart ! d) 30 days follow up examination 478. Which of the following is an example of disability limitation ? (Aiims May 08) a) Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization b) Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP ! c) Resting affected limbs in neutral position d) Providing calipers for walking Ref: Park 19th/e p. 38-40; 18th/e p.39 479. All are true about SALK vaccine except (Manipal 08) ! a) OPV cannot be given as booster dose b) Injections during epidemic can cause paralysis c) Induces circulating antibody but no local immunity d) Does not prevent multiplication of wild virus in gut Ref: Park 19th/e p. 169 480. Pulse Polio immunization was introduced in (Manipal 08) !a) 1995 b)1999 c) 2000 d)2001 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 172

(UP 08) a) HBs Ag b) Anti-HBs !c) Anti HBc d) HBe Ag Ref: Park 19th/e p. 77

CHOLERA
485. Drug of choice for cholera prophylaxis is (Kerala 96) !a) Oxytetracyclin b) Chloramphenico c) Erythromycin d) None of the above Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 193 & 18th/e p. 182 486. The function of glucose in ORS (PGI 96) ! a) Increase Na+ absorption by Co-transport b) Gives sweet taste to ORS c) Increase osmolality of ORS d) Increase Na+K+ pump activity Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 185 & 18th/e p. 180 487. EITor vibrio may be differentiated from classical vibrio by fact that EITor vibrio (CMC 86) a) Agglutinate chicken and sheep erythrocytess b) Resistant to classical phage IV c) Resistant to polymyxin B-5 unit disc d) VP reaction and hemolytic test do not give consistent reaction ! " ! e) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 190 & 18th/e p. 177 488. Chemoprophylaxis for cholera is administrating (AI 88) ! a) Doxycycline 300 mg once b) Metrogyl 400 mg 3 tablets c) Vancomycin 1 mg stat. d) Kannamycin 500 mg stat. [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 193 & 18th/e p. 182] D.O.C. Tetracydine, Alternative Tetracycline 489. Which is not essential in a cholera epidemic (AI 89) a) Notification b) Oral rehydration therapy and tetracycline c) Chlorination of well every week ! d) Isolation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 192-194 & 18th/e p. 179-183 490. Oral rehydration fluid does not contain (PGI 86) a) Sodium chloride !b) Calcium lactate c) Bicarbonate d) Glucose Ref: Park 19th/e p. 185 & 18th/e p. 180 491. The best method to treat diarrhoea in a
36

HEPATITIS
481. In acute hepatitis B infection, the earliest abnormality detected is (AIIMS 83) a) Raised serum transaminases b) Antibodies to hepatitis B Antigen ! c) Detection of surface antigen d) Anorexia and lassitude Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 177 fig. (2) & 18th/ e p.171 fig 3 482. Maximum maternal mortality is seen in (PGI 86) a) Hepatitis B !b) Hepatitis E c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis D Ref: Park 19th/e p. 180 & 18th/e p. 174 483. Most common cause of epidemic of infective hepatitis is (Orissa R) a) HAV b)HBV c) HCV !d)HEV Ref: Park 19th/e p. 180 & 18th/e p. 174 484. Epidemiologica markers of Hepatitis-B is

492.
!

493.
!

494.

495.

496.

497.
! ! ! !

498.

child is (PGI 86) a) IV fluids !b)ORS c) Antibiotics d) Bowel binders Ref: Park 19th/e p. 185 & 18th/e p. 179 & 180 Cholera is vehicle borne because (AI 91) a) Control the cholera by controlling a vehicle b) Organism is isolated form the vehicle c) Source cannot be traced d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 91-92 & 18th/e p. 90 Which is not essential in case of cholera epidemic (AI 92} a) Weekly chlorination b) Notification c) Vaccination of individuals d) Treatment with ORS and tetracycline [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 192-194 & 18th/e p. 179-183, 530] During cholera epidemic there is daily p. 500 chlorination In a cholera epidemic, the information is to be given upto level of (DEHL185, AMC 92) !a) Health ministry b) DGFAMS c) Hospital d) CMO and IMO [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 192 & 18th/e p.l79] Under the international health regulations cholera is notifiable to WHO within 24 hrs of its occurence by the national government. Certificate to cholera vaccination is valid after ........... days (PGI 80, AMU 92) a) 5 !b)10 c)20 d)50 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 104 table (35) & 18th/ e p. 103 table (35) The drug of choice in cholera is (KARN 94) !a) Tetracycline b) Sulphadiazine c) Ampicillin d) Streptomycin Ref: Park 19th/e p. 193 & 18th/e p. 182 Regarding cholera vaccine all are correct except that (Assam 95) a) It is given at intervals of 6 months b) Long lasting immunity c) Not useful in epidemics d) Not given orally [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 194 & 18th/e p. 182] Note : New cholera vaccine has been developed. Best emergency sanitary measure to control cholera is (AIIMS 96)

499.

500.

501.

502.

503.

504.

505.

506.

a) Desinfection of stool b) Mass vaccination c) Provision of chlorinated water d) Chemoprophylaxis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 193 & 18th/e p. 182 The quantity of sodium chloride in an ORS packet for making on one litre of oral rehydration fluid (KARNAT 98) a) 3.5 g !b) 2.6 g c) 1.5 g d) 20.0 g Ref: Park 19th/e p. 185 & 18th/e p. 179-180 Commonest strain of cholera in India is (AIIHPH 2001) !a) Ogawa b) Inaba c) Hikojima d)NAG Ref: Park 19th/e p. 190 & 18th/e p. 176 A contact carrier in cholera has the following characteristic (Karnataka 02) a) Gall bladder is infected b) Stools are not positive for cholera vibrio c) Does not play any role in spread of infection d) Duration of carrier state is less than 10 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 190 & 18th/e p.177 ORS contains how much potassium (SGPGI 05, AI 92) !a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 10 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 185 & 18th/e p. 72; KDT 5th/e p. 618 A freshly prepared oral rehydration solution should not be used after (COMEDK 05) a) 4 hrs b) 6 hrs c) 12 hrs !d) 24 hrs Ref: Park 19th/e p. 186 & 18th/e p. 180 The drug of choice for treating cholera in pregnant woman is (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Tetracycline b) Doxycycline !c) Furazolidone d)Cotrimoxa/ole Ref: Park 19th/e p. 193 table (3) & 18th/ e p. 181 Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of (AI 05) a) Tetracycline b) Co-trimoxazole !c) Doxycycline d) Furazolidone Ref: Park 19th/e p. 193 table (3) & 18th/ e p. 181 Which of the following is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of cholera (AIIMS May 05)

37

b) Doxycycline c) Furazolidone d) Co-trimoxazole Ref: Park 19th/e p. 193 & 18th/e p. 182 507. Consider the following statements (UPSC 07) The features of cholera that differentiate it from food posisoning are 1. Onset with purging 2. No nausea or retching 3. No tensesmus 4. Leukocytosis Which of the statments given above are correct a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only !d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 199; 18th/e p. 191

!a) Tetracycline

TYPHOID
508. In Acetone killed Typhoid vaccine the immunity Lasts for (PGI 89) a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 2 years !d) 3 years Ref: Omitted from 19th/e & 18th/e p. 189, 197 509. Highest incidence of typhoid fever is reported in the age group (years) (PGI 80, DNB 90) !a) 10-12 b) 20-30 c) 30-40 d) 40-60 Ref: Park 19th/e p.195 & 18th/e p. 188 510. Bivalent vaccine of typhoid contains (AIIMS 81, Delhi 83) ! a) S. Typhi + S. Paratyphi A (3) b) S. Typhi + S. Parathphi B c) S. Paratyphi A+B d) S. Paratyphi B+C Ref: Omitted from 19th/e & 18th/e p. 189 511. In typhoid a permanent carrier is one who excretes bacilli for more than (Delhi 96) a) 3 months b) 6 months !c) 1 year d) 3 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 195 see chronic carrior & 18th/e p. 187 512. Typhoid vaccine efficacy is (CMC-Vellore) !a) 85% b) 50% c) 95% d) 100% Ref: Omitted from 19th/e & 18th/e p.189 513. Case fatality rate of typhoid is (AIIHPH 2K) !a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 195 & 18th/e p.187

514. The most practical way of treating typoid carrier is (St. Johns 02) a) Cholecystectomy !b) Chemotherapy c) Vaccination d) Isolation [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 197 & 18th/e p. 189] Best method Surgery (Cholecystectomy 80% cure rate) Most Practical Chemotherapy 70%, cure rate 515. Duration of immunity after typhoid vaccination is for (St. Johns 02) !a) 3 years b) 5 years c) 7 years d) 6 months [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 197 & 18th/e p. 189} Killedacetone 2 doses gives protection for 3-4 years 516. All are true about Typhoid except (Jipmer 04) a) Incubation period 10-14 years b) Most common among males c) Carrier are treated by ampicillin ! d) Highest incidence occur in 30 - 40 years age group Ref: Park 19th/e p. 195 for a, b, d, p.197 for c & 18th/e p.188 for a 187 for b & d, p.189 for c ! 517. The oral typhoid vaccine (Ty 21 a) in India contains (UPSC-II 08) a) Killed salmonellatyphi only ! b) Live attenuated salmonella typhi only c) Killed salmonella typhi and salmonellaparatyphi A d) Live attenuated salmonella typhi and salmonella paratyphi A Ref: Park 19th/e p. 197 518. Typhoid oral vaccine is given (UP 08) !a) 1, 3, 5 days b) 1, 2, 3 days c) 1, 2, 4 days d) 1, 7, 14 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 197

HOOK-WORM
519. The total number of hookworm cases in India is estimated to be (Delhi 96) a) 40 million !b) 200 million c) 400 million d) 100 million Ref: Park 19th/e p: 203 & 18th/e p.l95

DENGUE
520. In India, human infections has been reported with dengue virus type (AP 91) a) Types 1 and 2 b) Types 1 and 3 c) Types 2 and 4 d) Type 1 only
38

4 types Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 207 & 18th/e p. 199 521. Dengue virus appears to have a direct man mosquito-man cycle in India. The mechanism of dengue virus survival in the inter epidemic period is (UPSC) a) Non-human reservoir b) Dormant or latent phase in man ! c) Transovarian transmission of the virus d) Poor housekeeping by the public Ref: Park 19th/e p. 207 & 18th/e p. 199 522. Dengue haemorrhagic fever is diagnosed by (UPSC 2K) a) Acute onset of high fever, presence of petechie, epistaxis and platelet count > 2 lakh b) Acute onset of high fever, positive tourniquet test, epistaxis or malena and platelet count > 1.5 lakh c) Acute onset of high fever lasting 2 to 7 days, associated with hemorrhagic manisfestations e.g. hemoptysis and platelet count less than 1.5 lakhs ! d) Acute onset of high fever, positive tourniquet test, bleeding gum and platelet count less than 1.0 lakh Ref: Park 19th/e p. 207-208 & 18th/e p. 199, 200

!e) All

528.

529.

530.

531.

MALARIA
523. The longest incubation period is seen in which type of malaria (UPSC 87) a) P. vivax !b) P. malariae c) P. ovale d) P. falciparum Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 214 & 18th/e p. 206 524. Types of malaria not seen in India (PGI 88) !a) Ovale b) Falciparum c) Vivax d) Malariae Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 211 & 18th/e p. 203 525. A patient with history of having malariarecently has presented with acute red eye. The cause could be (AIIMS 99) a) Endophthalmitis b) Acute anterior uveitis c) Conjunctivitis !d) Viral keratitis [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 215 & 18th/ e p. 206] Febrile Herpes is common in malaria 526. Doseofchloroquineat 4-8 year (AI 89) a) 150mg. !b) 300mg. c) 450 mg. d) 600 mg. Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 216 & 18th/e p. 208 527. The malaria eradication programme of Govt
39

532.

533.

534.

535.

of India using insecticides aims to reduce the lifespan of mosquitoes to less than (Delhi 86) a) 1 day b) 3 days c) 6 days !d) 10 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 214 & 18th/e p.206 Person with ........... are resistant to P. Vivax infection (UPSC 88) a) Thaiassemia b) Sickle cell anemia c) Hemoglobin F !d) Duffy negative RBC Ref: Park 19th/e p. 213 & 18th/e p.205 In an area having annual parasite index of less than 2, the following is to be done (PGI 89) a) Passive surveillance only b) 2 rounds of DDT yearly c) Entomological surveillance d) All positive cases blood smear to be done monthly Ref: Park 19th/e p. 347 & 18th/e p.330, 331 Resistant malaria has not been reported from (PGI 89) a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat !c) Punjab . d) Rajasthan Ref: Park 19th/e p. 210 & 18th/e p.203 The most sensitive index of recent transmission in malaria endemic area is (AIIMS 91) a) Parasite rate b) Parasite density rate c) Spleen rate !d) Infant parasite rate Ref: Prk 19th/e p. 215 & 18th/e p.207 Under NMEPforareas with API morethan 2 and vector refractory to DDT, the recommendation is (AIIMS 93) a) Malathion 3 rounds/year b) HCH-1 round/year c) HCH-2 rounds/year d) HCH-3 rounds/year Ref: Park 19th/e p. 347 & 18th/e p.330, 331 First line drug for falciparum malaria is (DNB 92) !a) Chloroquine b) Primaquine c) Quinine d) Tetracycline Ref: Park 19th/e p. 216 & 18th/e p.208 A person leaving an endemic area for malaria needs prophylaxixfor (PGI 81, UPSC 89) a) 3 days b) 5 days c) I week !d) 4 weeks Ref: Park 19th/e p. 217 & 18th/e p.210 Incubation period of plasmodium vivax is (Delhi 85, UPSC 86) a) 5-7 days b) 7-10 days

536.

537.

538.

539.

540.

541.

542.

10-1.4 days d) 15-30 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 214 & 18th/e p.206 In which type of malaria recurrence does not occur (PGI 78, SNB 90) a) P. ovale malaria b) P.vivax malaria c) P.falciparum malaria d) P.malariae malaria Ref: Park 19th/e p. 211-213 & 18th/e p. 203, see 75 parasite Chatterjee The infective agent of malarial parasite is (KARN 94) a) Gametocyte b) Schizonts c) Trophozoites !d) Sporozoites Ref: Park 19th/e p. 212, fig. (1) & 18th/e p. 204 fig (1) The expected reduction in API by 2000 AD in Inda is (KARNAT 96) a) 2/1000 b) 1/1000 !c) 0.1/1000 d) 0.5/1000 Ref: Still searching Urban malaria is spread by (AIIMS 97, KARN 94) a) Anopheles Stephens b) Anopheles culcifacies c) Culex fatigans d) Mansonides Ref: Park 19th/e p. 210 & 18th/e p.203 & 205 Annual blood smear examination rate is an indie of (JIPMER 98) a) Disease rate (Prevalence) b) Operational efficiency c) % of transmission of malaria d) Infectivity rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 216 & 18th/e p.207 Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillence now (JIPMER 2K) a) ABER b) Infant parasite rate c) Annual parasite incidence d) Slide positivity rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 215 & 18th/e p.207 For a person visiting chloroquine resistant malaria, endemic area, the best prophylaxis is (AIIMS 2001) a) Chloroquine b) Chloroquine & daily proguanil c) Sulphadoxine& pyrimethamine d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 218 table (4) & 18th/e p.
40

!c)

543.

544.

545.

546.

547.

548.

549.

209 table (4) The current Global strategy for malaria control is called (KARNATAKA 2001) a) Modified plan of operation b) Malaria Eradication Programme c) Malaria Control Programme d) Roll back Malaria Ref: Park 19th/e p. 219 & 18th/e p.202 Roll back Malaria program is (Jipmer 04) a) Encourage the development of more effective and new anti malarial drugs and vaccines b) Encourage the proper and expanded use of insecticide treated mosquito nets c) Training of village health workers and mother on early and appropriate treatment of malaria d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 219 & 18th/e p. 202 The scientist who demonstrated that Malaria is transmitted by anopheles mosquito (J & K 05) a) Bruce b) Jenner !d) Ross c) Robert koch Ref: Paniker Parasitology 5th/e p. Most sensitive malariogenic index (MAHE 05, AI 97) a) Parasite density index b) Proportional case rate c) Spleen rate d) Infant parasite rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 215 & 18th/e p. 207 What is the size of ideal mosquito net ? (PUNJAB 2006) a) 0.575 mm in one dimension b) 0.0475 mm in any dimension c) 0.475 mm in one dimension and 0.575 in other dimension d) 0.575 in both dimensions Ref: Park 19th/e p. 628 & 18th/e p. 598 Which one of the following is not a strategy under Roll Back Malaria (UPSC 07) a) Strengthening of health system b) Use of insecticide treated bed nets c) Anti-larval measures d) Development of new antimalaria drugs Ref: Park 19th/e p.219 & 18th/e p. 202 Which one of the following is an indicator of operational efficiency for Malaria Control Programme in India (UPSC-II 08) a) API (Annual Parasite Incidence)

b) ABER (Annual Blood Examination Rate) c) API (Annual Falciparum Incidence) d) SPR (Slide Positively Rate) Ref: Park 19th/e p. 215, 216 550. For radical treatment of malaria, primaquine is given in dosage of (DPGEE 08) a) 15 mg per day for 3 days b) 10 mg per day for 7 days ! c) 15 mg per day for 5 days d) 5 mg per day for 10 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 216
!

FILARIA
551. Areas heavily infected with filariasis are all except (UPSC 88) a) Uttar pradesh b) Bihar c) Tamilnadu d) Orissa !e) Punjab Ref: Park 19th/e p. 220 & 18th/e p.211 552. Maximum density of microfilariasis in blood is reported to be between (UPSC 85, AI 88) a) 9 pm to 11pm !b) 11 pm to 2 am c) 8 pm to 10 pm d) 2 am to 5 am Ref: Park 19th/e p. 221 see periodicity & 18th/e p.212 553. Microfilaria endemicity index is (AI 91) ! a) % of persons showing MF in blood and diseased individual b) % of persons showing MF in blood only c) Number of MF in the blood d) Average no. persons with positive slides Ref: Park 19th/e p. 223-224 & 18th/e p.214 554. The most effective means of filariasis control will be (AIIMS 80, UPSC 87) a) Mass hetrazen therapy b) Insecticidal measures against culex mosquitoes c) Provision of underground drainage ! d) Personal prophylaxis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 225 & 18th/e p.216 555. All are true statement about filaria except (AIIMS 97) a) Extrinsic incubation period of 10-14 days ! b) Man is the intermediate host c) Adults live in the lymphatics of host d) No multiplication in the mosquito Ref: Park 19th/e p. 221 & 18th/e p.212 556. Incubation period for filariasis is (TN 03) a) 1-8 months !b) 8-16 months c) 16-24 months d) > 24 months Ref: Park 19th/e p. 222 & 18th/e p. 213
41

557. Prepatent period in lymphatic filariasis is defined as the time interval between inoculation of infective larvae and (UPSC-II 08) a) Blockage of lymphatics ! b) First appearance of detectable microfilaria c) Development of lymphoedema d) Development of adult worm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 222 558. Life cycle of filaria is (Aiims May 08) !a) Cyclodevelopmental b) Cyclopropagative c) Propagative d) Transovarian Ref: Park 19th/e p. 92, 623; 18th/e p. 90-91, 574-575

RABIES
559. In human dioploid cells rabies vaccine the schedule of immunisation is (AI 98, 96, UPSC 07) a) 0,3,4,14,30,0 b) 0,5,14,30,900 !c) 0,3,7,14,30,90 d) 0,37,14,30,70 Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 233 & 18th/e p.223 560. Which ARV has been recommended by WHO as the most effective (TN 95) a) Duck cell vaccine ! b) Chick fibroblast vaccine c) HDCV d) Sheep brain vaccine [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 229 & 18th/e p. 219] WHO has recommended that cultures of HDC should be replaced by animal cell line & chick embryo fibro blast is one of them. 561. The best vaccine for rabies in human is (UPSC 85, AI 88, Kerala 89) a) Sheep brain vaccine b) Inactivated duck embryo vaccine ! c) Human diploid cell vaccine d) Inactivated chick embryo vaccine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 229 & 18th/e p.219 562. Which of the following is ture about rabies (AI 91) a) Live attenuated vaccine is available ! b) Diagnosed by demostration of antigen by immunofloreseence c) Many serotypes are present d) It has no envelop Ref: Park 19th/e p. 228 for b, 227 for c, 229 for a & 18th/e p. 219 for b p. 219 for c, p. 217 for a; Micro Ananthnarayanp. 498 for d

563. Which is not essential in Rabies prevention (AI 92, 89) ! a) Early diagnosis and treatment b) Licensing of all domestic dogs c) Restraint of dogs in public places d) Vaccination of dogs Ref: Park 19th/e p. 229, 234 & 18th/e p. 219, 224, 225 564. In India,Rabies free zone is (AIIMS 79, DELHI 93) a) Goa !b)Lakshadeep c) Sikkim d) Nagaland Ref: Park 19th/e p. 227 & 18th/e p.217 565. In the case of dogbite the biting animal should be observed for at least (KARN. 96) a) 5 days !b) 10 days c) 15 days d) 3 weeks Ref: Park 19th/e p. 230 table(l) & 18th/ e p.220 table (1) 566. In the Rabies vaccine schedule of 0,3,7,14,30,90,0 means (AIIHPH 2001) a) Day of dogbite ! b) Day of first injection c) Day of symptom onset d) Day of dog death Ref: Park 19th/e p. 233 & 18th/e p. 223 567. What is the correct recommended schedule (on days) for post - exposure treatment of person who have been vaccinated for rabies previously with HDC !a) 0,3 and 7 b) 0,3,7 and 14 c) 0,3,7, 14 and 28 !d) 0 and 3 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 234 & 18th/e p. 224] " If the bite is severe and the antibody litre is unknown 3 dose on 0, 3 & 7 " If the bite is not severe and the litre > .5 IV/ ml Only 2 dose 0 to 3 568. Usual time for symptoms to appear in Rabid animal (Manipal 04) a) 2 days b) 7 days !c) 10 days d) 1 month Ref: Park 19th/e p. 234 & 18th/e p. 224 569. For the treatment of case of class HI dog bite, all of the following are correct except (AI 05) a) Give Immunoglobulins for passive immunity b) GiveARV ! c) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage d) Immediately wash wound with soap and

water Ref: Park 19th/e p. 229, 230, 232, 233 & coverage 18th/e p. 220 570. Anti rabies vaccine is prepared from (COMED 06, UPSC 01) a) Wild virus b) Live attenuated virus c) Street virus !d) Fixed virus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 227 & 18th/e p 217 571. A patients present with dogs bite in the palm, fingers and oozing of blood on the neck regions, belongs to which class, of the exposures (UP 08) a) Class I b) Class II !c) Class III d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 231

YELLOW FEVER
572. Quarrantine period of yellow fever is (JIPMER 86, AI 88) a) 4 days !b) 6 days c) 8 days d) 10 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 237 & 18th/e p.227 573. Yellow fever is caused by (UPSC 88) !a) Flavivirus b) Alpha virus c) Sindbis d) Chikungunaya virus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 235 & 18th/e p. 225 ! 574. The international quarantine period for yellow fever as approved by the Government of India is (UPSC 97) !a) 6 days b) 9 days c) 10 days d) 12 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 237 & 18th/e p. 227 575. According to the International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of yellow fever if the Aedes aegyti index remains below (AI 04) !a) 1% b)5% c) 8% d) 10% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 237 & 18th/e p. 227 576. Yellow fever is absent in India because (Comed 08) a) Climatic conditions are not favourable ! b) Virus is not present c) Vector mosquito is absent d) Population is immune Ref: Park 19th/e p. 237

JAPANESE ENCEPHALITIS
577. Which of the following statements about Japanese Encephalitis is false (AI 89) a) C. Tritaeniorynchus is the vector
42

578.

579.

580.

581.
!

582.

583.

584.
!

b) Epidemic in Karanataka c) Pigs are intermediate host d) Herons are primary hosts [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 239 & 18th/e p. 228] Pigs are primary host. Major deterrant to eradication of Japanese encephalitis is (Jipmer 93) a) No effective vaccine b) Breeding place of vector c) large no. of inapparent infections d) Numerous animal hosts Ref: Park 19th/e p. 239 & & 18th/e p. 229 False statement about Japanese encephalitis (AI 97) a) Human are incidental host b) Birds are involved in life cycle c) Pigs manifest disease d) Transmitted by culex Ref: Park 19th/e p. 239 & 18th/e p. 228 All are true about J.E. except (M.P. 97) a) Transmitted by culex mosquito b) Death occur in 9 days c) Mortality 80 to 90% d) Prodromal symptoms at 9lh day [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 239 & 18th/e p. 229, 228] Case futility rate- 20-40% All the true about J.E. except (M.P. 97) a) Mortality 10% b) Man to man transmission is not reported c) Culicine mosquito is Zoophilic d) Sub clinical infection present Ref: Park 19th/e p. 239 & 18th/e p. 228-229 When vaccine of J.E. is given immunity develops in (MP 97) a) 5 days b) 15 days !c) 30 days d) 90 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 239 & 18th/e p.229 The breeding ground for the vectors of Japanese B virus is (UPSC 04) !a) Paddy field b) Mixed garbage c) Cooler water d) Stale food Ref: Park 19th/e p. 239 & 18th/e p. 228 Example for AMPLIFIER HOST (MAHE 05) a) PiginJE b) Dog in hydatid disease c) Cattle in mad cow disease d) Rat in plague Ref: Park 19th/e p. 239 & 18th/e p. 228

585. Transmitting agent of KFD is (PGI 86) a) Flea b) Mite !c) Tick d) Louse Ref: Park 19th/e p. 240 & 18th/e p.229 586. KFD is transmitted by (Kerala 94) !a) Soft tick b) Mosquito !c) Hard tick d) Body louse Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 635 & 18th/e p. 574 587. Kyanasur forest disease is transmitted by (TN 02) !a) Haema physalis spinigera b) Culex vishnui c) Aedes d) Anopheles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 240 & 18th/e p. 229 588. Agent in KFD (MAHE 05) !a) Soft tick !b) Hard tick c) Louse d) Bug Ref: Park 19th/e p. 635 & 18th/e p. 229, 574 table 3

PLAGUE
589. Plague epidemic is controlled by (JIPMER 95) ! a) Killing fleas ! b) Isolation of patients ! c) Antibiotic prophylaxis d) Mass migration Ref: SPM 19th/e p. 247, 248 & 18th/e p. 236, 237 590. Causative organism of bubonic plague is (UPSC 88) !a) Yersinia pestis b) Rattus rattus c) X-cheopis d) X-astia Ref: Park 19th/e p. 245 & 18th/e p.233 591. The following rodent is the natural reservoir of plague (KARN 94) a) Mus musculus !b) Tatera indica c) Rattus Rattus d) Rattus norvegicus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 245 & 18th/e p. 234 592. The longest and shortest incubation period of plegue is 7 days and 2 days respectively. The time necessary to declare an area free of plague is (AI 95) a) 2 days b) 9 days !c) 14 days d) 20 days Ref: Still searching 593. In an epidemic of plague, within 48 hours of application of insecticides by spraying the X cheopis index should fall to (Delhi 96) a) 1 !b) 0
43

K.F.D.

c) 2 d) 5 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 248 & 18th/e p.236 594. After two doses of vaccination against plague, the immunity will last for (UPSC 96) !a) Six months b) One year c) Eighteen months d) Twenty-four months Ref: Park 19th/e p. 248 & 18th/e p.237 595. In total flea index true is (MP 98) a) Average all Xenopsella cheopis per rat ! b) Average number of all fleas of all species per rat c) Average number of all fleas in a burrow d) Average number of all fleas in all species of rats to per burrow Ref: Park 19th/e p. 245 & 18th/e p. 234 596. Which is most dangerous for transmitting plague (Orissa R) !b) Partial blocked flea a) Blocked flea c) Both d) Unblocked flea Ref: Park 19th/e p. 245 & 18th/e p.234 597. Most contagious plague is (TN 03) a) Bubonic plague b) Septicemic plague !c) Pneumonic plague d) Wild plague Ref: Park 19th/e p. 245 & 18th/e p.236 598. The public health measures recommended for an immediate control of an outbreak of plague are all the following, except (J & K 05) ! a) Isolation of contacts b) Chemophylaxis of contacts c) Surveillance ! d) Vaccination [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 247-248 & 18th/e p. 236-237] Note : Isolation of case is recommended (not of contacts). Vaccination should be only for preventions, not the control of human plague. 599. What is the best indicator for a potential explosiveness of plague outbreak ? (UPSC 2006) ! a) Total flea index b) Cheopis index c) Specific percentage of fleas d) Burrrow index Ref: Park 19th/e p. 633 & 18th/e p 585 600. What is the average number of fleas of each species per rodent called (UPSC 07)
44

a) General Flea index b) Specific Flea index c) Incidence of Flea Species d) Flea infestation Rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 633; 18th/e p. 585, 234

RICKETTSIAL DISEASES
601. Trench fever is caused by (UPSC 88) !a) R.Quintana b) R. prowazakii c) R.Akari d)R.Typhi Ref: Park 19th/e p. 251 table (I) & 18th/e p. 239 table (I) 602. Trench fever is transmitted by (PGI 86) a) Flea !b) Louse c) Tick d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 251 table (1) & 18th/e p. 239 table (I) 603. Rickettsial pox is transmitted by (PGI 86) a) Flea !b) Mite c) Tick d) Mosquito Ref: Park 19th/e p. 251 table (1) & 18th/e p. 239 table (1) 604. Endemic typhus is transmitted by (PGI 86) !a) Flea b) Mite c) Tick d) louse Ref: Park 19th/e p. 251 table (1) & 18th/e p. 239 table (1) 605. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by (PGI 86) a) Flea b) Mite c) Tick !d) Louse Ref: Park 19th/e p. 251 table (1) & 18th/e p. 239 table (1) 606. Rocky mountain spotted fever is transmitted by (PGI 86) a) Flea b)Mite !c) Tick d) Louse Ref: Park 19th/e p. 251 table (1) & 18th/e p. 239 table (I) 607. Which one of the following ricketsial diseases is transmmited by louse (KERALA 95) a) Murine typhus b) Rockey mountain spotted fever c) Q-fever d) Endemic typhus [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 251 table (1) & 18th/e p. 239 table (1)] Louse transmits epidemic typhus and Trench fever 608. Which of the following is not transmitted by Arthropod (PGMCET 01)

a) Q fever b) Rickettsial pox c) Rocky mountain spotted fever d) Relapsing fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 259 609. Consider the following disease (UPSC 07) 1. Trench fever 2. Q fever 3. Weils diseasj 4. Brill-Zinsseruisease Which of the above is/are caused by rickettsial infection a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only !c) 1,2 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 251, 253 610. True about endemic typhus (AI 07) a) Man is the only reservoir of infection ! b) Flea is a vector of the disease c) A rash developing into an eschar is characterstic of the disease d) Culture is the diagnostic modality Ref: Park 19th/e p. 252; Also see Ananthnarayan, Harrison 611. Disease not transmitted by Lice is (Aiims May 07, Ai 07) a) Relapsmg fever b) Trench fever !c) Q-fever d) Epidemic typhus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622, 632
!

615.

! !

616.

!
617.

KALA-AZAR
612. Kala-azar in India is caused by (AP 96) a) P. papatasi b) P. serpenti !c) P. argentipes d) Oncocercus Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 257 & 18th/e p. 245 613. The most important reservoir of Leishmaniasis in India is (JIPMER 2002) a) Dogs b) Rodents ! c) Case of acute visceral leishmaniasis d) Case of postkalazar dermal leishmaniasis [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 256 & 18th/ e p.245] Indian Kala-azar is thought to be a non zoonotic infection with man as the sole reservoir 614. Not true about Kala-Azar is (UPSC 91, Delhi 89, 86) a) Sandfly is the vector b) Man is the only reservoir in India ! c) Aldehyde test is diagnostic ! d) Man has flagellar stage of organism
45

618.

[Ref: Park 19th/e p. 256, 257 & 18th/e p. 245, 246] Aldehyde test is good for surveillance, not for diagnosis There is variety of animal reservoirs for Kala - Azar but in India Kala - Azar is considered to be a non zoonotic infection with man as sole reservoir Life cycle is completed in two different hosts Vertebrate Amastigote without flagella Insect Promastigatoe with flagella Correct about Kala-Azar in India (Delhi 84,87,89) a) Monkeys are the only reservoir b) No extrahuman reservoir c) Sandfly is the vector d) Tetracycline is the treatment [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 256 & 18th/e p. 245] There are no drugs for personal prophylaxis In Kala-Azar aldehyde test becomes positive after (PGI 79, AMU 87) a) 3 weeks b) 6 weeks !d) 12 weeks c) 9 weeks [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 257 & 18th/e p. 246] The test usually becomes positive 2-3 months after onset of disease and reverts to negative 6 months after cure Reservoir of Indian Kala Azar is (AIIMS 03) !a) Man b) Rodent c) Canine d) Equine [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 256 & 18th/e p. 245] Indian kalaAzar is a non zoonotic infections, this assumption larger ly based on absence of evidence Which one of the following is a caharaceristic of epidemiology of leishmaniasis in India (PGI 79, AMU 87) a) It does no occur at high altitudes b) Incubation period is 3-8 days c) Females are more affected d) It is not a fatal disease Ref: Park 19th/e p. 256, 57

TRACHOMA
619. Lowest incidence of trachoma is in (JIPMER 86, UPSC 88, PGI 87, AIIMS 87, AMU 95) a) Punjab b) Rajasthan c) Uttar Pradesh !d) Orissa Ref: Still searching

620. The mass treatment of trachoma is undertaken if the prevalence in community is (DELHI 96) a) 3% b) 10% !c) 5% d) 6% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 259 & 18th/e p. 248 621. In a trachoma survey of a community, the incidence of inflammatory trachoma was 2% and incidence of cicatrical trachoma was 2% which of the following statement is true? a) Problem is still there in the community b) Problem was Prevalent is Past but now under control c) Problem was not Prevalent but now Prevalent Problem was Prevalent ! d) Problem was prevalent in Past & still prevalent Ref: Amit & Ashis AIIMS June 1999 Q. No. 43

626.
!

627.

628.

TETANUS
622. In child survival and safe motherhood programme which is not advised as a provision in conduct of delivery (AIIMS 94) a) Clean room b) Clean tie !c) Clean perineum d) Clean cord Ref: Park 19th/e p. 263 & 18th/e p. 251 623. Following procedures except one prevents neonatal tetanus, adviced by family welfare programme (AI 91) ! a) Giving TT vaccine between age group 1015 years girls b) Immunise pregnant mothers during 16-36 weeks only c) Trained dais conducting deliveries d) Single dose of TT to mothers who already received immunisation in previous pregnancy Ref: Park 19th/e p. 263 & 18th/e p. 251 624. Number of doses of Tetanus toxoid required to immunise all pregnant women in a population of 1000 with birth rate of 30/ 1000 in one year is (JIPMER 92) a) 40 !b) 60 c) 270 d) 300 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 263 & 18th/e p. 251 625. The exotoxin produced by tetanus bacilli mainly affects the following areas of nervous system except (AIIMS 81, UPSC 87) ! a) Parasympathetic nervous system b) Spinal cord
46

629.

630.

631.

c) Sympathetic nervous system d) Brain Ref: Park 19th/e p. 261 & 18th/e p. 250 Best preventive measure against tetanus neonatorum (Jipmer 95) a) Active immunization of mother b) Passive immunization of child c) Active immunization of child d) Passive immunization of mother Ref: Park 19th/e p. 263 & 241 & 18th/ e p.251 To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, incidence of neonatal tetanus per 1000 live births should be reduced to less than (UPSC 96) !a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.5 d) 1.0 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 261 & 18th/e p.249 A person has received complete immunization against tetanus 10 years ago; he now presents with a clean wound without any lacerations from an injury sustained 2.5 hours ago. He should now be given (MAHE 05) a) Full course of tetanus toxoid b) Single dose of tetanus toxoid c) Human tet globulin d) Human tet globulin and single does of toxoid Ref: Park 19th/e p. 263 fig (1) & 18th/ e p. 259 What is the tetanus toxoid vaccine requirement of a 40 year old person with clean injury and history of one dose of tetanus toxoid 4 months back ? (UPSC 2006) a) Nothing b) Toxoid one dose c) Toxoid two dosages d) Toxoid one dose + Human tetanus immunoglobulin Ref: Park 19th/e p. 263 fig (1) & 18th/ e p 252 The active immunity offered by Tetanus toxoid is effective in nearly (HP 2006) a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% !d) 100% of the patients A full course of immunization against, Tetanus with 3 doses of Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years (Comed 08)

5 b)10 c) 15 d) 20 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 262 632. Strategies for prevention of Neonatal Tetanus include all of the following except (AI 07) a) 5 clean practices ! b) Giving penicillin to all the new borns c) 2 doses of TT to all pregnant women d) Immunizing all married women Ref: Park l9"/e p. 263

!a)

LEPROSY
433. Mitsuda reaction in lepromin test indicates (Kerala 87, AI 88) a) Hypersensitivity to antigen ! b) Strong immunity c) Weak immunity d) Does not indicate anything [Ref: SPM 19th/e p. 271 & 18th/e p. 258: Micro Ananthnarayan 6th/e p. 345] Mitsuda reaction is a measure of cell mediated immunity 434. Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansens disease is a) Pain !b) Touch c) Vibration d) Temperature [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 264 see b point & Behl 8th/e p. 222, 223 & 18th/e p. 252] 1 Earliest sensation to be affected is light touch 2 According to Behl sensations of pain and temperature are lost earlier than touch and pressure 435. The most sensitive parameter to assess the drug effectiveness in the skin smears of leprosy patients is (Karn 94) a) Bacteriological index ! b) Morphological index c) Granuloma index d) None of the above [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 270 & 18th/ e p. 257] Bacteriological index is the only objective way of monitoring the benefit of the treatment 436. Slit smear negative leprosy is (AI 97) !a) Neuritic type !b) Tuberculoid type !c) Indeterminate type d) Lepra reaction Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 269 & 18th/e p. 256
47

437. According to WHO latest treatment of leprosy is (PGI 96) a) 2 yrs. or negative slit smear negative which ever is longer for multibacillary b) Life long treatment ! c) Six months treatment for paucibacillary d) Not specified [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 274 & 18th/ e p. 261] Now the Recommeded treatment of multibacillary leprosy is for 12 months (lyr) 638. The most rapidly bactericidal drug for M-Leprae is (PGI 78) a) Dapsone b) Clofazimine c) Ethionamide !d)Rifampicin Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 273 & 18th/e p.260 639. In the National Leprosy Eradication programme, mass surverys are done if the prevalence is (AI 88) a) 1/1000 b) 2/1000 !d) 10/1000 c) 6/1000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 272 & 18th/e p.259 640. All are true about bacteriological index in diagnosing leprosy except (AI 91) a) Smear taken from multiple sites are used ! b) 2 plus means demonstration of bacilli from two different sites c) Minimum of 7 sites are examined d) BI less than 2 is pauci bacilliary Ref: Park 19th/e p. 270 & 18th/e p.257 641. Leprosy with incidence rate less than 10 is seen in (AI 91) a) Andhra Pradesh b) Tamil nadu c) Orissa d) Maharastra Ref: Park 19th/e - table omitted & 18th/e p. 253 table (1) 642. Lepromin test is highly positive in (AIIMS 91) a) LL !b) TT c) BB d) Indeterminate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 271 & 18th/e p.258 643. Boderline tuberculoid type of leprosy is best treated by (AI 92) a) Dapsone b) Dapsone + Clofazimine c) Clofazimine !d) Dapsone + Rifampicin Ref: Park 19th/e p. 274 & 18th/e p.261 644. Most sensitive index of transmission in leprosy is (AIIMS 92) !a) Incidence b) Detection rate c) Disability rate d) Prevalence

645.

646.

647.

648.

649.

650.

651.

652.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 277 & 18th/e p.264 Which is the WHO regimen for paucibacillary leprosy (AIIMS 92) a) Dapsone o.d X 6 months b) Dapsone o.d + Rifampicin once a month X 2 years c) Dapsone o.d + Rifampicin once a month X 6 months d) Dapsone o.d + Rifampicin o. m. + Clafazamine od X 2 years Ref: Park 19th/e p.274, 18th/e p. 261 The duration of treatment in pauci-bacillary leprosy is (JIPMER 80, 81) !a) 6 months b) 9 months c) 1 years d) Till symptoms subside Ref: Park 19th/e p. 274 & 18th/e p.261 Suppression of cell mediated immunity is seen in (JIPMER 81, Delhi 86) a) Tuberculoid leprosy b) Lepromatous leprosy c) Indeterminate leprosy d) Lepromatous leprosy Ref: Park 19th/e p. 271 & 18th/e p. 258 Which of the following states has the highest prevalence of leprosy (Kerala 94) a) Karnataka !b) Orissa c) Tamil Nadu d) Andhra Pradesh [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 266 & 18th/e p. 253] Acc. to latest studty Chhatisgarh > Delhi > Chandigarh The total number of leprosy cases in India is estimated to be (Delhi 96) a) 4.7 million !b) 1.7 million c) 5 million d) 8 million Ref: Park 19th/e p. 265 & 18th/e p.253 In multibacillary leprosy, the bacillary index more than or equal to (Delhi 96) a) 1 !b)2 c) 3 d)4 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 270 & 18th/e p. 257 In multibacillary leprosy the follow up examination after adequate treatment should be done yearly for (Delhi 96) a) 3 years b) 3 years !c) 5 years d) 10 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 275 & 18th/e p.262 The multidrug regimen under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme for the treatment of all multibacillary leprosy would include (UPSC 97) a) Clofazimine, thiacetazone and dapsone
48

653.

654.

655.

656.

657.

b) Clofazimine, rifarnpicin and dapsone c) Ethionamide, rifampicin and dapsone d) Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone Ref: Park 19th/e p. 274 & 18th/e p.261 Which one of the following is/are used as operational indicators in antileprosy activity (UPSC 02) a) Incidence b) Incidence and prevalence c) Relapse rate and case detection ratio d) Incidence case detection ratio Ref: Park 19th/e p. 277 & 18th/e p. 264 Which is true regarding leprosy in India? (PGI 04) a) Estimated 10 million cases b) Prevalence = 3.7/1000 c) MDT- 99% coverage d) Eradicated in Orissa e) Vaccine being,developed in Bihar [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 265, 266 & 18th/e p. 253, 254] In March 2004, the Prevalence rate is 2.3 case/1000 Which one of the following statements about leprosy is true? (UPSC 04) a) Group surveys for case detection are carried out when prevalence of leprosy is less than 1 per 1000 b) For determining the bacteriological index, ++ in a smear indicates 2 bacilli in every field c) Minimum duration of treatment forpaucibacillary cases is for 9 months d) Minimum duration of treatment for multibacillary case is for 12 months Ref: Park 19th/e p. 272 for a, p. 270 for b, p. 274 for c & d & 18th/e p. 259 for a, p. 257 for b, p. 261 for c & d True about ROM therapy is (MAHE 05) a) For single lesion b) Minocycline is used c) Single dose is given ! d) All the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 273 & 18th/e p. 250; K.D.T 5th/e p. 714 Adequate treatment for multibacillary leprosy is for (MAHE 05) a) 2 years b) 5 years c) 10 years d) 7 years [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 274 & 18th/e p. 261; K.D.T 5tg/e p. 713] Answer is one year.

658. The incubation period of leprosy is (Comed 07) a) 2-4 days b) 2-4 weeks c) 2-4 months !d) 2-4 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 268 659. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true (Aiims May 07, AI 07) a) It is negative in most children in first 6 months of life ! b) It is a diagnostic test c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive Ref: Park 18th/e p. 258 660. WHO recommended modern single drug therapy in paucibacillary leprosy is (UP 07) a) Rifampicin, clofazimine, Dapsone ! b) Rifampicin, Dapsone c) Rifampicin, clofazimine d) Clofazimine, Dapsone Ref: Park 19th/e p. 274 661. True about leprosy in India (PGI June 07) ! a) Prevalence decreasing in past decade b) Incidence highest in 1 -5 yrs age group c) Highly pathogenic ! d) Highly communicable Ref: Park 19th/e p. 266, 267 662. In management of leprosy two years duration is recommended for which of the following ? (UPSC-II 08) a) Treatment of multibacillary cases b) Treatment of paucibacillary cases c) Surveillance after treatment in multibacillary cases ! d) Surveillance after treatment in paucibacillary cases Ref: Park 19th/e p. 274-275 663. In lepromatous leprosy the single drug dapsone is continue for (UP 08) a) 9 days b) 90 days !c) 1 years d) 10 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 274 664. Dharmendras index and Joplings classification deals with (AI 08) a) TB !b) Leprosy c) Syphilis d) Polio Ref: Park 19th/e p. 269

S.T.D.
49

665. Which of the following is not a STD (AP 85, UPSC 86) a) Hepatitis B b) Amoebiasis c) Scabies d) Herpes simplex type 1 Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 278 table (1) & 18th/e p. 265 666. The commonest venereal disease in India is (AIIMS 78, TN 91) !a) Gonorrhoea b) Syphilis c) Chancroid d)LGV Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 279 & 254 & 18th/ e p. 265, 266 667. Incubation period of AIDS can be around (PGI 79, AIIMS 89) a) 1 -7 days b) 1 -7 weeks !c) 3 months-10 years d) Any of the above [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 290 & 18th/ e p. 275] It is from a few months to 6 yrs. 668. AIDS virus attacks the (AIIMS 81, UPSC 91) !b) Helper T cells a) B lymphocytes c) Macrophages d) Suppressor T cells Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 289 & 18th/e p. 274 669. Which is a noveneral form of treponemal infection (TN 95) !a) Yaws !b)Pinta c) Syphilis d)GV Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 283 & 18th/e p. 269 670. Which of the following is an example of a non venereal disease (CUPGEE 96) !a) Endemic syphilis b) Gonorrhoea c) Chancroid d)LGV Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 283 & 18th/e p. 269 671. Commonest trophozoite infection by sexual intercourse (Orissa 99) a) Entamoeba histolytica ! b) Trichomonas vaginalis c) Trepanomapalidium d) Giardiaintestinales [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 279 & 18th/ e p. 266] Trichomoniasis has an estimated annual incidence of 140 million but it is of much less public health importance 672. Commonest STD in India is (PGI 81, DNB 91) a) Syphilis !b) Gonorrhoea c) AIDS d) Herpes

[Ref: Park 19th/e p. 279 & 18th/e p. 266] Most common S.T.D is chlamydia. 673. All are major criteria for AIDS except (AP 96) a) 10% weight loss b) Diarrhoea for 1 month !c) Cough for 1 month d) Fever for 1 month Ref: Park 19th/e p. 291 & 18th/e p.277 674. Mortality for AIDS (Orissa R) a) 50% b)90% c) 90% !d)100% Ref: No need for Ref: 675. In the heterosexual transmission (from infective to non infective partner) of Human Immuno-eficiency Virus infection (HIV) (Karnataka 03, NIMS 96) ! a) There is a greater risk of transmission from man to a woman b) There is greater risk of transmission from woman to man c) Risk is equal either ways d) HIV infection is not transmission by heterosexual act Ref: Park 19th/e p.289 & 18th/e p.275 676. The highest number of AIDS cases in India have occurred in the age group of (Karnat 05) a) 0.14 years b) 15-29 years !c) 30-44 years d) Above 45 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 287 table (4) & 18th/e p. 273 table 4 677. A known HIV positive patient is admitted in an isolation ward after an abdominal surgery following an accident. The resident doctor who changed his dressing the next day found it to be soaked in blood. Which of the following would be the right method of choice of descarding the dressing (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Pour 1% hypochloric on the dressing material and send it for incineration in a appropriate bag b) Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing material and send it for incineration in a appropriate bag ! c) Put the dressing material directly in an appropriate bag and send for incineration d) Pour 2% Lysol on the dressing material and send it for incineration in a
50

appropriate bag Ref: Park 19th/e p. 648 & send for incineration 18th/e p. 599 678. The following are the signs and symptoms included in the syndromic approach of sexually transmitted diseases except (Karnataka - PG MEE 2006) a) Genital ulcers b) Urethral discharge in males ! c) Dysuria in women d) Vaginal discharge Ref: Park 19th/e p. 281 table (3) & 18th/ e p. 265; Harrison 16th/e p. 764 table (115.2) 679. In STD cases, a patient is asked to name other persons is his socio sexual group, then they are investigated. This is a example of (PGMCET 07) a) Screening !b) Contact tracing c) Mass screening d) High risk screening Ref: Park 19th/e p. 281; 18th/e p. 267 680. Which of the following statements about Yaws is not true? (AI 08) ! a) Spread by sexual transmission b) Caused by T. pertenue c) Has cross immunity with syphilis d) Cannot be differentiated serologically from T. pallidum Ref: Ananthnarayanan 7th/e p. 385; Park 19th/e p. 283; Harrison 17th/e p. 1048

MISCELLANEOUS
681. Maternal antibodies are present against all diseases except (PGI 85) a) Tetanus b) Polio c) Measles d) Mumps !e) Pertussis Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 139 & 18th/e p. 137 682. Saddle back type of temperature is seen in (BHU 87) a) Brucellosis !b) Dengue fever c) Viral fever d) Enteric fever Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 207 & 18th/e p. 199 683. Infective diarrhoea is caused by (TN 97) !a) Rotavirus !b) Calcivirus c) Flavivirus !d) Enterovirus Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 183 table (2) & 18th/e p. 184 table (3) 684. Infantile diarrhoea can be caused by all except (AI 89) a) Rota virus !b) Reo virus c) Adeno virus d)Calcivirus

685.

686.

687.

688.

689.

690.

691.

Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 183 table (2) & 18th/e p. 184 table (3) Lymphocyte transformation is a sensitive test most useful in identification of (PGI 79, AIIMS 81, 84) a) Drug reaction !b) Contact dermatitis c) Pollen allergy d) Food allergy [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 271 & 18th/ e p. 258] Lymphocytic transformation is for cell medical immunity & contact dermatitis is a cell mediated (type IV) reaction Patients on antacid therapy are more susceptable to infections with (PGI 81) !a) Salmonella b) Pseudomonas c) Ecoli d) Amoeba [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 195 & 18th/ e p.188] Among the factors that contribute to resistance to S. typhi are gastric acidity and local intestinal immunity Commonest cause of food poisoning (AIIMS 86) !b) Salmonella a) Clostridia c) Campylobacter d) Staphylococcus e) Chemical [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 249 & 18th/e p. 190, & p. 238] Human salmonellosis represents 60-80 % of food borne disease The following viruses, except one have been associated with diarrhoeal disease (AIIMS 86) a) Adenovirus !b) Parvovirus c) Calicivirus d) Rotavirus Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 183 table (2) & 18th/e p.184 table (3) Causes of diarrhoea in India (PGI 88) a) Rota virus b) Vibrio c) Giardia d) Cryptosporidia Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 183 table (3) & 18th/e p. 184 table (4) Which viral infection always causes clinical disease in human beingss (Kerala 96) a) Rubella b) Poliomyelitis !c) Measles d) Chicken pox e) Rabies Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 127 & 18th/e p. 125 Transovarian transmission of infection occurs in (UPSC 96) a) Fleas !b) Ticks !c) Mosquitoes d) Sandfly

692.

693.
!

694.

695.

696.

697.

698.

699.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 252 for b. p. 235 for c & 18th/e p. 241, p.226 for c see Indian Tick typhus The Negri bodies are seen in (AIIMS 81, AP 90) a) Viral hepatitis b) Japanese encephalitis c) Poliomyelitis !d) Rabies Ref: Park 19th/e p. 227 & 18th/e p.219 Guinea worm eradication was achieved by (AI 88) a) Discontinuation of the use of step well b) Chlorination of water c) Boiling of water for drinking d) Chemotherapy Ref: Park 19th/e p. 205, 570 & & 18th/e p. 197, p. 523 Incubation period for mumps is (AI 89) !a) 18 days b) 14 days c) 10 days d) 5 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 132 & 18th/e p. 130 Hardly-weinberg law is related to (JIPMER 98) !a) Population genetics b) Health economics c) Social medicine d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 680 & 18th/e p. 628 Post exposure active immunization can be done for (AI 99) !a) Rabies !b) Measles c) Chloera d) Yellow fever [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 129 for b, 234 for a & 18th/e p.221, p. 127] 18th/e p. 127 See the heading contact The drug used by health workers in the management of acute respiratory infection (KARN 99) !a) Cotrimoxazole b) Chloramphenicol c) Benzyl penicillin d)Gentamycin Ref: Park 19th/e p. 146 & 18th/e p. 143 How many guinea worm cases were identified in the year 1999 (AIIMS 2K) !a) 0 b) 9 c) 2000 d) 4000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 205 & 18th/e p. 197 All are viral hemorrhagic fevers except (UPSC 02) a) Ebola virus b) Marburgs Disease !c) West nile fever d) Ckickengunya fever Ref: Park 18th/e p. 218, p. 230 for c, p. 282 for a; Harrison 15th/e p. 1162 table (198.4)

51

700. Chandlers index is 225. What is the interpretation (UPSC 02) ! a) Potential danger to community b) No danger c) Minor public health problem d) Major public health problem Ref: Park 19th/e p. 203 & 18th/e p. 195 701. Maternal antibodies do not occur for (AIIHBH 01) a) Polio b) Diptheria !c) Whooping cough d) Tetanus Ref:. Park 19th/e p. 139 & 18th/e p. 137 702. Trans ovarian transmission of the disease is seen in (TN 02) a) Viral encephalitis !b) Yellow fever c) Plague d) Japanese encephalitis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 235 & 18th/e p. 226 703. Incidence of amoebiasis in India is (St. Johns 03) a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d)25% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 200; 18th/e p. 192] Prevalence rate is 15% 704. Mass treatment strategy is for treating (Jipmer 03) !b)Filariasis a) Plague c) Cholera d) Diphtheria Ref: Park 19th/e p. 224 & 18th/e p.214, 215 705. Match List I wit List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists (UPSC 07) List I List II (Type of vaccine) (Example) A. Purified protein 1. Acellular pertussis A. antigen vaccine B. Subunit 2. Hib vaccine C. Conjugated 3. Hepatitis A vaccine A. capsular A. polysaccharide D. Inactivated 4. Influenza vaccine A. whole cell Code: a) A B C D 1 4 2 3 b) A B C D 1 2 4 3 !c) A B C D 3 4 2 1 d) A B C D
52

706.

707.

708.

709.

710.

711.

3 2 4 1 Ref: O.P. Ghai 6th/e p. 194, 197, 199 With statement to the epidemiology of severe Acute Respiratory syndrome (SARS), which one of the following statements is not correct (UPSC 07) a) Patient is most infectious during the first five days of illness b) No evidence of mother to child transmission is observed c) Children are rarely affected d) No evidence of child to child transmission is observed Ref: Park 19th/e p. 148 & 18th/e p. 145 The earliest case of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) was reported in (Comed 07) !a) China b) Singapore c) Vietnam d) Toronto Ref: Park 19th/e p. 148 Brucella is transmitted by all except (Aiims May 07) a) Aerosol transmission b) Ingestion of raw milk c) Man to man d) Contact with aborted fetuses Ref: Park 19th/e p. 242 & 18th/e p. 231 Incubation period of Mumps (PGMCET 07) a) 4-5 days b) 7-15 days !c) 12-24 days d) 50 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 132 Consider the following statements (UPSC-I 08) 1. Globally, diarrhoea kills more people than tuberculosis or malaria 2. Globally, diarrhoea is the second biggest killer of children Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only !c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 183 Consider the following pairs (UPSC-II 08) Disease Incubation period 1. Poliomyelitis 3- 5 days 2. Typhoid 10- 14 days 3. Yellow fever 8- 12 days Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched !a) 2 only b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1 only

712.

713.

714.

715.

716.

717.

718.

719.

720.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 168, 195, 236 All arezoonoticdisease EXCEPT (UP 08) a) Brucellosis b) Leptospirosis !c) Scabies d) Rabies Ref: Park 19th/e p. 642 In Measles, infective period is (UP 08) a) 3 days before and 4 days after the appearance of rash b) 4 days before and 3 days after the appearance of rash c) 4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash d) 5 days before and 4 days after the appearance of rash Ref: Park 19th/e p.127 Which one of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy (AI 08) !a) MMR b) Rabies. c) Hep B d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p.97 All of the following are zoonosis Except (AI 08) a) Plague b) Japanese Encephalitis (JE) c) HIV d) Tuberculosis (TB) Ref: Park 19th/e p. 642, 88 Soil forms an important reservoir fol all of the following infections, Except (AI 08) !a) Brucellosis b) Coccoidiomycosis c) Anthrax d) Tetanus Ref: Jawetz 24th/e p. 205, 206, 208, 285, 635; Harrison 17th/e p. 973 Isolation is strictly recommended for (AI 08) a) Mumps b) Measles c) Hepatitis A !d) Pneumonic plague Ref: Park 19th/e p. 101, 102 Disease eradicated from India is/are (PGI June 08) !a) Small pox b) Guinea worm disease c) Yaws d) Measles e) Polio Ref: Park 19th/e p. 89 Zoonosis is/are (PGI June 08) !a) Anthrax !b) Brucella !c) Leptospirosis !d) Chagas disease !e) Tularemia Ref: Park 19th/e p. 642; Harrison 17th/ e p. 976 Post exposure immunization is given in (DPGEE 08)
53

!a) Rabies

b) Pertussis c) Measles d) Yellow fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 229

NON COMMUNICABLE DISEASE

721. The commonest cancer of adult man in India is (AI 91) a) Calling b) Cacolon c) Ca stomach !d) Aerodigestive Ca Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 319 & 18th/e p. 303 722. Commonest carcinoma in men in tropical countries (AI 97) a) Ca rectum !b)Ca oral cavity c) Ca testis d) Ca bladder Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 319 & 18th/e p. 303, 304 723. The commonest cause of death in the sophisticated world (TN 98) !a) Ischemic heart disease b) Accidents c) Infectious disease d) None of the above Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 303 & 18th/e p. 287 724. The prevelance of diabetes mellitus in India is (TN 95) !a) 2-5 % b) 5 % c) 5-10% d) 10-15% Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 329 table (3) & 18th/e p. 313 725. Commonest cause of stroke in our country !a) Thrombosis b) Embolism c) Haemorrhage d) Infarction Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 314; 18th/e p. 298 726. Morbid obesity causes death due to (PGI 88) ! a) CVS complication b) Pickwickian syndrome c) Hypothyroid crisis d) Cushing syndrome Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 335 & 18th/e p. 318, 319 727. Commonest among diseases with Mendelian inheritance is (AI 99) ! a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive c) X-linked recessive d) X-dominant Ref: Park 19th/e p. 677 table (1) & 18th/e p. 625 table (1) 728. A person is obese if he is overweight by...% above the accepted standards (UPSC 85, 86, JIPMER 80,86)

729.
!

730.

731.

732.

733.
!

734.

735.

a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 334 table (2) Corpulence Index means (AI 91) a) Measurement of copper level in the serum b) Measurement of obesity c) Mearurement of Iron loss in faeces d) Pressure difference between various chamber of the heart Ref: Park 19th/e p. 334 & 18th/e p. 318 Prevalenceof blindness in India is (AIIMS 91) a) 0.1% b)0.2% c) 0.5% !d) 1% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 361 & 18th/e p. 340] The national survey of blindness shows an estimated 1.1% prevalence of blindness in general population. Country with highest accident rate is (PGI 79, UPSC 87) !b) India a) Pakistan c) Japan d) USA Ref: Park 19th/e p. 341 & 18th/e p. 324 Which is the least common cause of heart disease in India (PGI 79, AMC 87) a) Rheumatic b) Hypertensive c) Ischaemic !d) Congenital Ref: Park 19th/e p. 316 for a, p. 311 for b, p. 305 for c & 18th/e p. 300 for a, p. 295 for b, p. 289 for c The chosen method for measurement of obesity is (PGI 80, AIIMS 83) a) Skinfold thickness b) Body electrolyte count c) Height - weight- sex charts d) Basal oxygen consumption Ref: Park 19th/e p. 335 & 18th/e p. 318 The commonest heart disease In India is (UPSC 84, 86, AMC 84, 87, Kerala 94) a) Congenital b) Rheumatic c) Hypertensive d) None of the above [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 316 for b, 311 for c] Rheumatic heart disease accounts for 33-50% of all cardiac cases Of the following , which is a usual apporach or technique for obtaining chronic disease morbidity information (JIPMER 79, PGI 83) a) Physicians reports b) Case registries c) Immunization records
54

736.

737.

738.

739.

740.

741.
!

d) Household surveys !e) Screening programmers Ref: Park 17th/e p. 273 Primordial prevention in myocardial infarction are all except (ALL INDIA 97) a) Maintenance of normal body weight b) Change in life style c) Change in Nutritional habits d) Screening for hypertension Ref: Park 19th/e p. 313 & 18th/e p. 289, 290 Percentage of blindness due to cataract in India (CHANDIGARH DEC 96) a) 55 !b)60 c) 75 d)80 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 337 table (3) & 18th/e p. 321 table (3)] Percentage of people due to blindness is 62.3% All of the following are the well established modifiable risk factors of coronary heart disease except (UPSC) a) Cigarette smoking b) Drinking beverages c) High blood pressure d) Elevated serum cholesterol Ref: Park 19th/e p. 305 table (2) 18th/e p. 289 table (2) WHO criteria for diagnosis of diabetes is (MP 98) a) Venous blood fasting sugar 140 to 200 mg/100ml b) Venous blood fasting sugar 120 to 180 mg/100 ml c) Venous blood fasting sugar 120 to 200 mg/100ml d) Venous blood fasting sugar 140 to 180 mg/100 ml Ref: Park 19th/e p. 328 table (2) & 18th/e p. 311 table (2) Which one of the following sets of components of cigarette smoke is a casual agent of coronary artery disease (UPSC 99) a) Tar and nicotine b) Nicotine and carbon monoxide and tar c) Corbon monooxide and Tar d) Tar, nicotine and corbonmonooxide Ref: Park 19th/e p. 305 & 18th/e p. 289 Fates statement about myocardial infarction in India is that (AI 99) a) The mean age of patients is a decade older than that of Westerners

742.

743.

744.

745.

746.

747.

b) Smoking predisposition is seen c) Diabetes mellitus predisposing to MI is seen d) Seen more in males Ref: Park 19th/e p. 305 & 18th/e p. 289 Which one of the following is the most sensitive and specific screening test to detect breast cancer (UPSC 2K, Kerala 01, 91) a) Regular X-ray b) Self breast examination c) Mammography d) Regular biopsy Ref: Park 19th/e p. 323 & 18th/e p. 307 Beer consumption is associated with (AIIHPH 2K) a) Carcinoma cervix b) Carcinoma liver !c) Carcinoma rectum d) Carcinoma colon Ref: Park 19th/e p. 320 & 18th/e p. 304 Prevalence of RHD in children in India (BURDWAN 2K) !a) 3/1000 b) 6/1000 c) 8/1000 d) 10/100 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 316 & 18th/e p. 300 One of the following is not true of Ponderal index (Kerala 2K) a) It is measure of obesity b) Is height & weight independent c) Is height & weight dependent d) Age independent e) Used for measurnment of body weight in adults Ref: Park 19th/e p. 334 Taking the definition of blindness as visual activity less than 3/60 in the better eye, the number of blind persons per 100, 000 population in India is estimated to be (AIIMS 03) a) 500 !b) 700 c) 1000 d) 1500 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 337 table (2) & 18th/e p. 320 table (2) For every 100.000 population, the highest prevalence of blindness in the world is seen in (AIIMS 04) a) Sub-Sahara Africa b) South Asia c) Eastern Europe d) Latin America Ref: Priniciple and practice of community
55

748.

749.

750.

751.

752.

753.

754.

755.

opthalmology by CVS Murthy/Sanjeev Gupta and Damodar Bachani p. 29-30 The term Tracking of blood pressure refers to (Kerala 04) a) 24 hr BP monitoring b) Identifying children at risk of developing hypertension at future date c) Pictorial representation of BP d) BP control with nifedipine Ref: Park 19th/e p.312 & 18th/e p.281 Most common type of accident occurring in India is (Orissa 05) !a) Road traffic b) Railway c) Industrial d) Domestic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 341 & 18th/e p. 325 According to WHO, blindness is defined as a visual acuity of the better eye, less than (AIlMS Nov 05, AI 91) a) 6/60 b)5/60 !d)3/60 c)4/60 Ref: Park 19th/e p..336 & 18th/e p. 319 The most common cause of blindness in India is (AIIMS NOV 05) !a) Cataract b) Trachoma c) Refractive errors d) Vitamin A deficiency Ref: Park 19th/e p, 337 table (3) & 18th/ e p. 321 The most common cancer, affecting Indian urban women in Delhi, Munibai and Chennai, is (AI 05) a) Cervical Cancer b) Ovarian Cancer !c) Breast Cancer d) Uterine Cancer Ref: Park 19th/e p. 319 & 18th/e p. 303 What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm (AI 05) a) 27 !b) 30 c) 33 d) 36 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 314 & 18th/e p. 317 Under the WHO Vision 2020 programme, the SAFE strategy is adopted for which of the following diseases (AI 05, Aiims 07) !a) Trachoma . b) Glaucoma c) Diabetic retinopathy d) Onchocerciasis Ref: WHO manual The most common cancer, affecting both male and females of the world, is (AIIMS May 05, Delhi 89, UPSC 87) a) Cancer of the pancreas b) Buccal mucosa cancer

756.

757.

758.

759.

760.

761.

762.

c) Lung cancer d) Colo-rectal cancer Ref: Park 19th/e p. 318 & 18th/e p. 302; API 7th/e p. 991 Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart disease ? (AI 06) !a) Apolipoproteins b) VLDL c) HDL d) Total lipoproteins Ref: Park 19th/e p. 306 & 18th/e p. 290 According to the world Health Organization, the definition of blindness is (AI 06) a) Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with available correction b) Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with available correction c) Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with best correction d) Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with best correction Ref: Park 18th/e p. 319; Parsons 19th/ e p. 583 As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence of blindness in India (at visual acuity < 6/60 in better eye) (AI 06) !b) 1.49% a) 1.38% c) 1.72% d) 1.8% Ref: Parsons 19th/e p. 583; Khurana 3rd/ e p. 583 The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is (AI 06) !a) Cataract b) Conjunctivitis c) Refractive error d) Trachoma Ref:B.M.C. Medicine 2006, 4:7 Which one of the following is the correct statement ? The body mass index is used as an indicator of obesity and is calculated as a ratio of the body weight to ? (UPSC 2006) a) Height b) Square root of height !c) Square of height d) Cube of height Ref: Park 19th/e p. 334 & 18th/e p 318 46 years old female in Eye OPD presents with right eye vision 6/60 and left eye vision as 3/60 (HP 2006) a) Socially blind b) Low vision !c) Economically blind d) Normal vision Ref: Gupta Mahajan 3rd/e p. 322 The visual acuity needed as cut-off for differentiating normal from abnormal

763.

764.

765.

# 766.

767.

768.

769.

children in the school vision screening programme in India is (HP 2006) a) 6/6 !b)6/9 c)6/12 d)6/90 Ref: Gupta Mahajan 3rd/e p. 327 All of the following is true regarding blindness except (Manipal 2006) a) There is estimated 45 million people blind world wide b) 20% of cases blindness in India is due to cataract c) Most common cause of blindness in India is cataract d) Visual acuity less than 3/60 is blindness Ref: Park 19th/e p. 337 & 18th/e p.319, 320 A women with Body Mass index of 20 is (UPSC 07) a) Undernourished !b) Normal c) Overweight d) Obese Ref: Park 19th/e p. 334 The WHO definition for blindness is the inability of counting fingers in daylight at a minimum distance of (UPSC 07) a) 3 feet b) 6 feet !c) 3 metres d) 6 metres Ref: Park 19th/e p. 336 The non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension is (Comed 07) a) Obesity !b) Age c) Salt intake d) Environment stress Ref: Park 19th/e p. 312 Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, the goal is to reduce the prevalence of blindness to a level of (Comed 08, MAHE 98, TN 98) a) 0.1% !b)0.3% c) 0.5% d)1% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 338 All are common cause of blindness in children in India except (AI 07) a) Malnutrition b) Ophthalmia neonatorum c) Glaucoma !d) Congenital dacryocystitis Ref: Parsons 20th/e p. 532; Basak 2nd/e p. 369-70; Nelson 16th/e p. 1054; Sharma ophthalmology p. 338 BMF to classify obesity should by (AI 07) a) 20 !b) 30 c) 40 d) 50 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 333, 334

56

770. Body mass index is also known as (UP 07) a) Borcas index b) Corpulence inded !c) Quetelets index d) Lorentzs formula Ref: Park 19th/e p. 334 771. Under NPCB, screening of school children is first done by (AIIMS Nov 07) ! a) School teachers b) Village health guide c) Ophthalmologic assistant d) Medical officer Ref: Gupta & Mahajan 3rd/e p. 327 772. What is the health indicator obtained by dividing body height (in centimetres) by cube root of body weight (in kilograms) (UPSC-II 08) a) Quetelets Index b) Broca Index !c) Ponderal Index d) Corpulence Index Ref: Park 19th/e p. 334 773. Most common occupational cancer in India (AI 08) !a) Skin cancer b) Lung cancer c) Bladder cancer d) Brain cancer Ref: Park 19th/e p. 663; 18th/e p. 611 774. Vision 2020 includes all of the following except (Aiims May 08) a) Onchocerciasis ! b) Epidemic conjunctivitis c) Cataract d) Trachoma Ref: Khurana Ophthalmology 4th/e p. 446; Parsons 20th/e p. 528; Park 19th/e p. 362 775. In which of the following disease, the overall survival is increased by screening procedure (Aiims May 08) a) Prostate Ca b) Lung Cancer !c) Colon Ca d) Ovarian Ca Ref: Schwartz 8th/e p. 1088 776. Occupational cancer involve following organs except (Aiims May 08) a) Lung !b) Breast c) Bladder d) Liver Ref: Park 19th/e p. 663; 18th/e p. 611; bmj.com/cgi/content/full/313/7057, 615; http://www. mflohc. mb. ca/ fact_sheets_folder/cancers, %20 occupation 777. Which of the following can be prevented by screening (PGI June 08) !a) Ca cervix !b) Ca Breast !c) Ca Prostate d) Ca lung !e) Ca colon Ref: Harrison 17th/e p. 490-491; Internet
57

778. Assessment of obesity is by following measurement except (DPGEE 08) a) Broca inded !b)Snllivans index c) Quetelets index d) Corpulence index Ref: Park 19th/e p. 334-335, 24

HEALTH PROGRAMME
779. The schedule universal programme of immunisation in a child begins at birth and end at (AI 88) a) 3rd year b) 4th year c) 5th year d) 10 year Ref: Park 19th/e p. 363; 18th/e p. 103 & 343 780. A total number of ........ tablets of iron with folk acid is given to a pregnant women by the Health worker (Jipmer 88) a) 70 b)90 !c) 100 d)150 e)200 Ref: Park Table emitted from 19th/e & 18th/ e p. 346 table (5) see source 781. Expanded programme of immunisation includes all except (PGI 86) a) BCG !b) Cholera !c) Mumps !d) Rubella Ref: Park 19th/e p. 363 & 18th/e p.342 782. A peripheral Health institution under the distric TB centre is termed as PH 1-T if it has (AI 89) a) Radiology facility b) Microscopyfacility ! c) Radiology and microscopy facility d) Referral facility Ref: Still searching 783. Which is true regarding universal programme of immunisation (TN 91) a) One dose BCG, 3 doses of DPT, 3 dose of OPV and 1 dose of MMR ! b) Should be given on time ! c) Must be potent d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 363 & 18th/e p. 342 784. True statement regarding objectives of Sterilisation beds programme is (All India 93, PGl 79) a) To have 2000 beds by 1987 b) To provide Rs. 1OOO/- per bed ! c) To provide Steriilisation facilities to hospitals where they are not available d) Voluntary agencies not included in the provision of facilities

785.

786.
! !

787.

788.

789.
! ! !

790.
!

791.

Ref: Still searching The objectives of minimum needs programme does not include (AI 93) a) Integration of health, water and sanitation b) Urban area given priority c) 1 PHC for 30,000 population d) Link mid-day meal programme to Sanitation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 377 & 18th/e p.348 Which is not true of malaria Eradication programme (All India 93) a) Started in 1953 b) Modified plan started in 1970 c) Incidence was 2 million cases in 1958 d) Incidence decreased to 50,000 in 1961 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 346 & 18th/e p. 329] National malaria control programme 1953 National malar a eradication programme 1958 The Govt. of India has decided to provide potable water to the entire rural population by (JlPMER 78, Orissa 91) !a) 1990 b)1991 c) 1995 d) 2000 AD Ref: Park 19th/e p. 376 & 18th/e p.347 National programme are now organised for the following in India except (AIIMS 78, DNB 89) a) Filariasis b) Leprosy !c) Smallpox d)Trachoma Ref: Park 19th/e p. 350, 349, 360 & 18th/e p. 331, 332, 248 Strategies in National Leprosy Control programme (AIIMS 79, PGl 90) a) Early detection of cases b) Short course multi drug therapy c) Rehabilitation d) Chemoprophylaxis with dapsone e) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 350 & 18th/e p.332 District TB Control programme is mainly concerned with (UPSC 86, 88 AMC 87) a) Finding out new cases b) Finding out resistant cases c) Detecting cases and treatment d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 352, 353 & 18th/e p. 334, 335 Not included in Expanded programme of immuniation (Jipmer 80, Delhi 87)

792.

! !

793.

794.

!
!

795.

796.

797.

b) Tetanus c) Tuberculosis d) Polio Ref: Park 19th/e p. 363 & 18th/e p.342 In NMEP recommendation for areas with API 2 are all except (All India 95) a) Presumptive treatment b) Epidemiological investigation of all cases c) Following up every case for one year, monthly blood smears d) DDT spraying twice a year [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 347 & 18th/e p. 329, 330} Entomology assessment is done not epidemiological In safe motherhood schemes, (CSSM) major thrust area is (Karn 95) a) Promotion of reproductive health b) Elimination of maternal morbidity c) Fertility regulation d) To provide essential prenatal, Natal and postnatal services Ref: Park 19th/e p. 368 & 18th/e p.344 Goal of National turberculosis control programme is (Kerala 96) a) To eradicate TB b) To decrease the transmission of TB c) To treat all sputum +ve patients d) To decrease the incidence of TB to such a low level that is no longer a major public health problem e) BCG vaccination of all infants Ref: Park 19th/e p. 352 & 18th/e p. 334 Important step in national TB control programme are all except (AIIMS 97) a) Treatment of sputum positive cases b) Treatment of contacts c) BCG vaccination d) Isolation of sputum positive cases Ref: Park 19th/e p. 352 & 313 & 18th/ e p. 334 ProSilem village is all EXCEPT (Jipmer 98) a) Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from community b) Water is more than depth of 15m c) There is excess of Na+, K+, F+ salts d) Risk of Guinea worm infection Ref: Park 19th/e p. 376 & 18th/e p.347 SET centres are established if prevalence % leprosy is (MAHE 98, UPSC 88, PGI 81) a) 0.5-1/1000 !b) 1-5 c) 5-10 d) 10

!a) Influenza

58

798.

799.

800.

801.

802.

803.

804.

Ref: Park 15th/e p. 303 Which one of the following strategies is aimed at AIDS control in India (UPSC 99) a) Detection and treatment of AIDS cases in the community b) Detection and isolation of HIV infected persons in the community c) Immunoprophylaxis of the risk groups !d) Community education behavioral change Ref: Park 19th/e p. 357 & 18th/e p.337 As per WHO, leprosy is a public health problem if prevalence is (AIIMS 98) a) 0.1% !b) 0.01% c) 0.5% d) 1% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 350 & 18th/e p. 332 AIDS was first detected in India in the year (Karnat 99) a) 1975 b) 1981 !c) 1986 d) 1991 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 357 & 18th/e p. 338} See the heading HIV surveillance The National Diabetes Control Programme in India includes all the following activities except (UPSC 2K) a) Primary prevention of diabetes through genetic testing and genetic counselling b) Identification of high risk subject at an early stage, and imparting appropriate health education c) Early diagnosis and management of cases d) Prevention arrest or slowing of metabolic and cardiovascular complications of the disease Ref: Park 19th/e p.374 & 18th/e p.347 In India TB to be labelled as under control the incidence should be less than .......... per thousand (AMC 2K) a) .1 b) 1 c) 5 !d) 10 Ref: Still searching Cancer control programme was launched in (Orissa R) !a) 1976 b)1986 c) 1970 d)1992 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 373 & 18th/e p.346 The eye condition for which the world bank assistance was provided to the national Programme for Control of Blindness (1994-2001) is (AIIMS 03) !a) Cataract b) Refractive errors c) Trachoma d) Vitamin A deficiency

805.

806.

807.

808.

809.

810.

811.

Ref: Khurana Ophthalmology 2nd/e p. 428 Iodised salt was first started in which country? (Jharkand 03) !a) India b) UK c) Switzerland d) Germany Ref: Park 19th/e p. 362 & 18th/e p. 342 National Guinea worm Eradication Programme was launched in (Kerala 04) a) 1972-73 b) 1975-76 c) 1980-81 !d) 1983-84 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 372 & 18th/e p. 346 Which of the following is not true about National AIDS Control Programme (Kerala 04) a) Sentinel surveillance methodology has been adopted b) Community based screening for prevalence of HIV taken up c) Early diagnosis and treatment of STD is one of major strategy to control spread of HIV d) Formulating guidelines for blood banks, blood donors & dialysis units Ref: Park 19th/e p. 358-359 for a, c & d & 18th/e p. 337-338 for a, c & d Antimalarial month is (AMU 05) a) April b) May !d) June c) September [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 350 & 18th/e p. 332] National leprosy control programme 1955 In Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme the silent features are to achieve (Jipmer 05) a) Cure rate 85% & diagnosis 85% !b) Cure rate 85% & diagnosis rate 80% c) Cure rate 80% & diagnosis 85% d) Cure rate 80% & diagnosis rate 80% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 353, 164 & 18th/e p. 160, 335] Cure rate 85% & diagnosis rate 80% National Leprosy Eradication Programme was started in (J & K 05) a) 1949 b) 1955 c) 1973 !d) 1983 According to the World Health Report 2000, Indias health expenditure is (AI 06) a) 4.8% of G.D.P. !b) 5.2% of G.D.P. c) 6.8% of G.D.P. d) 7% of G.D.P. Ref: Http/www.who.int/whr/2000/en/ whr00_en.pdf

59

812. In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India (AI 06, 05) !a) 1994 b) 1996 c) 2000 d) 2002 Ref: Organ Retrieval in Medicolegal Cases; Journal of the Academy of Hospital Administration Vol. 16, No. 2; http: //www. indialawinfo.com/bareacts/transplant.html 813. Features of RNTCP A/E (PGI June 06) a) Active case findings b) Involvement of NGO !c) Sputum - 2 times Ref: Park 18th/e p. 155, 335 814. 3 by 5 initiative in AIDS control programme is (PGMCET 01) !a) Providing 3 million people treatment by end of 2005 b) Providing treatment to 3 out of 5 patients c) Reducirig incidence of AIDS by 3% by 2005 d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 286 815. Inder Reproductiv and child Health (RCH) programme, which one of the following interventions is done only in selected districts (UPSC 07) a) Medical termination of pregnancy at PHC level b) High quality of training at all levels c) Screening and treatment of RTI at district level !d) Transport facility for referral of pregnant women during emergency Ref: Park 19th/e p. 367; 18th/e p. 344 816. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP) (UPSC 07) a) Multibacillary leprosy treatment is recommended for one year !b) Skin smear examination is done for classification into paucibacillary and multibacillary c) Special Action Project for Elimination of leprosy is for rural areas d) Surveillance for two years for a treated case of paucibacillary leprosy to be carried out Ref: Park 19th/e p.270 817. Under National Cancer control Programme, neology wings were sanctioned to
60

(UPSC 07) a) Regional Cancer institutes b) District Hospitals !c) Medical college Hospitals d) Voluntary Agenecies treating cancer patients Ref: Park 19th/e p. 373; 18th/e p. 346 What is the index for measuring operational efficiency of the Malaria Control Programme (UPSC 07) a) Annual parasite index b) Anuual blood examination rate c) Slide positive rate d) Infant parasite rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 216; 18th/e p. 207 Which one of the following is not a target disease under Vision 2020 : The Right to Sight (UPSC 07) a) Refractive error b) Trachoma c) Corneal blindness d) Diabetic retinopathy Ref: Park 19th/e p. 362; 18th/e p. 341 The Millennium Development Goals (MDG) is to be achieved by the year (Comed 07) a) 2010 !b)2015 c) 2020 d)2030 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 743 On SAFE strategy false is (AI 07) !a) Screening b) Antibiotics c) Facial hygiene d) Environmental modification Ref: Parsons 19th/e p. 595; Nema 4th/e p. 118; Khurana 3rd/e p. 432 Vision 2020 The right to sight includes all except (Aiims May 07) a) Trachoma !b) Epidemic conjunctivitis c) Cataract d) Onchocerciasis Ref: Khurana Ophthalmology 4th/e p. 446; Parsons 20th/e p. 528; Park 19th/e p. 362 Which of the following is a novel feature of RNTCP (Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme) (UPSC-II 08) a) Achieving 80% BCG coverage b) Achieving 85% detection rate c) Achieving 70% cure rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 353, 356-357 As per RCH, the community health centre is a (AI 08) a) First referral unit b) Secondary referral unit

818.

819.

820.

821.

822.

823.

824.
!

c) Teritary referral unit d) Not a referral unit Ref: Guidelines on operationalizing First Referral Units - Ministry of Health and Family welfare, Govt of India 825. In National Water Supply & Sanitation programme a problem village is defined as all except a) Distance of safe water is greater than 1.6 km b) Water is exposed to the risk of cholera c) Water source has excess iron & heavy metals ! d) Water infested with Guniea worm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 376; 18th/e p. 347 826. Asha scheme is associated with (Manipal 08) a) ICDS ! b) Rural health mission c) 20 points programme d) Minimum needs programme Ref: Park 19th/e p. 364

831.

832.

833.
!

DEMOGRAPHY & FAMILY PLANING

827. Basal body temperature increases at the time of ovulation by about (AIIMS 84) !a) 0.5 degree fahrenheit b) 0.5 degree fahrenheit c) 1.5 degree fahrenheit d) 2 degree fahrenheit e) None of the above Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 404 & 18th/e p. 373 828. The failure of oral contraceptive is mostly due to (AI 91) a) Defective combination b) Less oral absorption !c) Improper usage d) Ineffectiveness [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 399 & 18th/ e p. 368] See effectiveness 829. Absolute contra indications for intra uterine (IUD) insertion include all of the following except (KARN 94) a) Pelvic inflammatory disease b) Abnormal uterine bleeding c) Carcinoma cervix ! d) Diabetes mellitus Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 395 & 18th/e p. 364 830. Commonest complication of IUCD is (AI 95)
61

834.

835.
!

836.

b)Pain c) Malignancy d) Ectopic pregnancy Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 396 & 18th/e p. 365 Absolute contra indication for IUD are all except (AI 97) a) Pregnancy b) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding c) Pelvic infalmmatory disease d) Uterine malformation Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 395 & 19th/e p. 364 Spermicideactsby (AIIMS 98) a) Release of acrosomal enzymes b) Lysis of cell membrane c) Glucose uptake inhibition d) Vaginal enzyme alteration [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 393 & 18th/ e p. 363] The commonly used modern spermicides are Surface - active agents and inhibit oxygen uptake and kills sperms. Which advice is not given to a patient who has undergone vasectomy (AIIMS 92) a) Bed rest b) Semen analysis after 3 months c) Avoiding sexual contact for 3 months d) Scrotal support [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 405 & 18th/e p. 374, 375] The patient must avoid cycling or lifting heavy weights for 15 days, however there is no need for complete bed rest. National Health Policy was formulated in (Jipmer 91) a) 1985 !b) 1982 c) 1976 d)1972 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 411 & 18th/e p. 380 National Health Policy is based on (All India 95) a) Primary health care b) Equitable distribution of health resources c) Subsidised health care d) Socialised medicine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 411 & 18th/e p. 380 The proportion of children in the age group of 0-6 years, (who are the beneficiaries of integrated Child Development Services Scheme), in the population is about (Karnat 99) a) 6% !b) 13% c) 20% d) 27% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 382 table (8) & 18th/e p.

!a) Bleeding

837.

838.

839.

840.
!

841.

842.

843.

844.

352 table (8) In what stage of demographic cycle is India today (AIIMS 87, Jipmer 86, Kerala 87, UPSC 88, PGMCET 07) a) Low stationary b) High stationary c) Early expanding d) Late expanding Ref: Park 19th/e p. 379 & 18th/e p.349 Multi load device contains (PGI 87) a) Zinc !b) Copper c) Progesterone d) Silver Ref: Park 19th/e p. 394 & 18th/e p.363 The number of condoms needed for protection for one year is (AIIMS 86) a) 50 !b)72 c) 100 d)175 e) 200 Ref: Park Omitted from 19th/e & 18th/ e p.362 Copper T is ideally inserted at (AIIMS 86) a) Just before menstruation b) Menstruation !c) Just after menstruation d) On the 14th day [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 395 & 18th/e p.365] Most propitious time is during or just after mensturation Copper T 200 needs to be replaced after (AIIMS 86) a) 1 year b) 2 year !c) 3 year d) 5 year Ref: Dutta 6th/e p. 576; Park 19th/e p. 395 The growth rate of India is (PGI 85) a) 55% b) 3% c) 2.4% d) 2.2% !e) 2% [Ref: Park 17th/e p. 335] In 1991 2.77, In 2001 1.93 The highest per capita income in India is (PGI 84) a) Kerala b) Punjab !c) Haryana d)Goa Ref: Still searching Male contraceptive pill contains (Kerala 89) a) Bromocryptine b) Cyporoheptadime c) Cyproterone acetate d) Mandellic acid [Ref: Still searching] Male contraceptive contain gossypal

845. The MTP act was passed in (Kerala 89) a) 1949 b) 1962 !c) 1971 d)1974 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 402 & 18th/e p.371 846. If an eligible couple on an average has 3.3 children, then the birth rate will be (AI 89) a) 18/1000 b) 22/1000 !c) 25/1000 d) 28/1000 Ref: Still searching 847. Mortality experiences is taken into consideration when defining (AI 89) a) General fertility rate b) Total fertility rate ! c) Net reproduction rate d) Gross reproduction rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387 & 18th/e p.357 848. Population count is taken on (PGI 89) a) 1st January b) 1st March !c) 1st July d) 1st August Ref: Park 19th/e p. 51 & 18th/e p.50 849. The crude birth rate is to be brought down to ........... By 2000AD (AIIMS 89) !b) 21 a) 20 c) 22 d) 25 [Ref: Parkl 19th/e p. 388 & 18th/e p. 358] " In 2002 the birth rate is 25/1000 ! " Currently the national health goal in to attain a birth rate of 21 and death rate of 9/ 1000 by 2007. This would lead to annual growth rate of 1.2 850. Multi load device refers to (Jipmer 90) a) First generation IUCD ! b) Second generation IUCD c) Oral contraceptive pills d) Barrier contraceptives Ref: Park 19th/e p. 394 & 18th/e p. 363 851. Mini pill contains (Jipmer 90) ! a) Only progesterone in small quantity b) Progesterone and estrogen in small quantity c) Estrogen in small quantity and progestrone in large quantity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 398 & 18th/e p.367 852. The MTP act defines the following (Jipmer 90) a) Who should do termination of pregnancy b) Where it should be done c) When it should be done ! d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 402-403 & 18th/e p. 371 & 372
62

853. Demographic gap means (AI 90) ! a) Difference between birth and death rates b) Difference between age specific birth and rates c) Difference in sex ratio d) Difference in child: women ratio Ref: Oxford public health 3rd/e p. 508 854. Declining death rate and more declining birth rate the stage is (AI 91) a) Late expanding b) Early expanding c) High stationary !d) Declining Ref: Park 19th/e p. 379 & 18th/e p. 349 855. ILCD acts by (Jipmer 91) a) Killing spermatozoa ! b) Aseptic Inflammation of endometrium c) Increasing cervical mucus d) Preventing the fertilization of ova Ref: Park 19th/e p. 394 & 18th/e p. 364 856. Under the national population policy, family size should be brought down to (Jipmer 91) !b) 2.3 a) 1 c) 32 d) 4.2 Ref: Park 16th/e p. 618 table (1) 857. If the gross reproductive rate of a community is 3,3, the birth rate will be (AIIMS 91) a) 20/1000 b) 25/1000 !c) 40/1000 d) 50/1000 Ref: Still searching 858. Annual growth rate target for 2000, AD (AI 92, 89) a) 0.5% b) 1% !c) 1.2% d)1.6% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 388 & 18th/e p. 358] The growth rate to be achieved in 2007 7.2% 859. Mala-N contains (AIIMS 92) !a) Ethinyl estradiol 30 meg b) Norgesterol 50 meg c) Ethinyl estradiol 50 meg d) Progesterone 10 mg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 398 & 18th/e p. 367 860. Which is not true of Annual Growth Rate in India (AIIMS 92) a) An annual growth rate of 1.2% is essential by 2000 AD ! b) Current rate is 2.9% c) Prior to 1921, growth rate was low d) Net gain in birth over death, lead to increase in the rate [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 388 & 18th/e p. 358] After 1921 (great divide) death rate delined

861.

862.

863.

864.
!

! !

865.

866.
!

867.
63

more steply than birth rate. Current growth rate = 1.93 (2001) The target is to achieve growth rate of 1.2% by 2007 A.D. The Incorrect Statement regarding couple protection rate is (All India 93) a) 50-60% of births per year are birth order 3 or more b) To achieve NRR of 1, C.PR should be 60% c) CPRwas37%in!987 !d) CPR of 60% is equivalent to 3 children per couple Ref: Park 19th/e p. 391 & 18th/e p. 360 In latest Indian census, population density is ........... per sq.km (Delhi 93) a) 152 b) 204 c) 267 d) 31 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 383 & 18th/e p. 329] 324 In 2001 the population density is In 2004 the population density is 363 Consent from guardian/husband for MTP is required if (JIPMER 79, UPSC 93) a) Female is below 28 years of age b) Female is below 23 years of age c) Female is below 17 years of age d) Female is a divorcee [Ref: Park 18th/e p.348] The written consent of the parrent is necessary if women is 18 years of age Fertility rate can be reduced by following method (AIIMS 81, PGI 89) a) Spacing of pregnancies b) Early marriages c) Female literacy d) Compulsory sterilisation Ref: Park 19th/ep. 389 & 18th/e p 359 The family planning programme started in (AIIMS 79, PGI 83) a) 1947 b)1950 !c) 1952 d)1960 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 410 & 18th/e p. 379 Zero population growth rate is seen in (JIPMER 80, 81, AIIMS 83) a) Sweden and GDR b) USA & USSR c) France and Japan d) No Ref: Park 19th/e p. 379 & 18th/e p. 325 On an average failure rate in the couples using condom is about (PGI 80, AIIMS 86)

868.

869.

870.

871.

872.

873.

874.

875.

0-5 percent b) 10-20 percent c) 3 0-40 percent d) 50 percent or more [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 392 & 18th/e p. 362] Failure rate is 14 HWY and 3 HWY when used correctly and consistently Sperms is immobile in cervical fluid is because of (PGI 83, Delhi 87) a) Vaginal or other factor b) Elevated progesterone levels c) Abnormal sperms d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 393 & 18th/e p. 364 Best method for spacing is (PGI 80, Delhi 87) a) Condom b) Pessary !c) IUCD d) Tubectomy [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 392, 395 & 18th/e p. 361-362} Tubectomy is not a method of spacing it is the terminal method of sterlization Family welfare programmes goal is to reach couple protection rate of (PGI 79, Kerala 88, Jipmer 98) a) 20% b) 40% !d) 60% c) 50% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 391 & 18th/e p. 361 The most effective family planning method is (Karri 94) !a) Vasectomy b) Tubectomy c) Copper T d) Oral pills Ref: Park 19th/e p. 405 & 18th/e p. 374 The risk of pregnancy in IUCD acceptors is highest in (Karn 94) !a) 1st year b) 2nd year c) 3rd year d) 4th year Ref: Still searching Growth rate of 1 .S%-2% is (All India 95) a) Slow b) Moderate !c) Very rapid d) Explosive Ref: Park 19th/e p. 381 table (5) & 18th/e p. 351 table (5) Total fertility rate is a reflection of (All India 96, Aiims 92) a) Population turnover b) Completed family size c) Number of live births d) Average number of children born to married females Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387 & 18th/e p. 356-357 In child-woman ratio, the denominator is (AI 96)
64

!a)

876.

877.

878.
!

879.

880.

881.

a) Mid year population of all women b) Mid year population of women in 15-44 age group c) Mid year population of married women in 15-44 age group d) Total number of live births Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387 & 18th/e p. 333 In the demographic study of population, a country with low birth rate & a low death rate is in following phase (Delhi 96) a) 1st phase b) 2nd phase c) 3rd phase !d) 4th phase Ref: Park 19th/e p. 379 & 18th/e p. 349 The proportion of school age children in Indias population is approximately (Karnat 96) a) 15% !b) 25% c) 40% d) 50% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 414 & 18th/ep.383, 405] 1. Percentage of children below 15 years is 40% (p.359) 2. Percentage of preschool childeren 12% 3. Percentage of school age children is 28% Male to Female ratio is (AP 96) a) Males for 1000 population b) Females for 1000 males c) Males for 1000 females d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 382 & 18th/e p. 352 In couple protection rate with a score of one is given to (All India 97) a) 72 condoms used per year b) 12 cycles of Oral Contraceptives c) IUCD Insertion d) Vasectomy Ref: Still searching Best index to assess recent fertility pattern is (AIIMS 96) a) General fertility rate b) Pregnancy rate c) Age specific fertility rate d) Net reproduction rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387 & 18th/e p. 357 Family size means (AIIMS 96) a) Number of members in family b) No. of daughter born to a female c) No. of daughters that will be born by a female as per prevailing mortality rate d) No. of children borne by a female at prevailing mortality rates Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387 & 18th/e p. 329

882. Condom provides protection against AIDS because of (UPSC 97) a) Spermicidal action b) Agglutination of spermatozoa c) Inhibition of sperm action ! d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 392 & 18th/e p. 362 883. Best method of contraception in a commercial sex worker (JIPMER 98) a) IUCD b) OCP c) Permanent sterilization !d) Barrier methods [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 392 & 18th/e p. 362} Barrier method provide protection against S.T.D 884. In Demography estimated family sized is given by (AIIMS 97) a) NRR b) GFR !c) TFR d) GMFR Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387 & 18th/e p.356, 357 885. The Denominator in general fertility rate is (AIIMS 97, AI 89) a) Live births b) Mid year population ! c) Reproductive women in the age group 15-45 d) Married women in the age group 15-45 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387 & 18th/e p. 356, 357 886. The couple protection rate at present in India is (Kerala 97) a) 38.1 b) 43.5 !c) 45.1 d) 55.1 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 391 & 18th/e p. 360] On 31st March 2000 the couple protection rate is 46.2% 887. Calender method was described by (AIIHPH 98) a) Bitings !b) Ogino c) Wallace d) Ogive Ref: Park 19th/e p. 403 & 18th/e p. 372 888. Most widely practised method of family planning by eligible couples in India is (MAHE 98) a) IUCD b) OC Pill c) Sterilization !d) Nirodh Ref: Park 19th/e p. 391 & 18th/e p. 360 889. The Pearl index indicates the number of accidental pregnancies per (UPSC 99) a) 1000 population b) 100 live births c) 100 women in the age group of 15 to 44

890.

891.

892.

893.

894.

895.

896.

years d) 100 women years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 406 &18th/e p. 375 Life expectancy for the year 2000 is set for (TN 99) a) 54 b) 59 c) 61 !d) 64 Ref: Park 16th/e p. 618 A Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) of one by AD 2000 would help to achieve stabilization of population in about 50 years. For this purpose, the Couple Protection Rate by AD 2000 should be atleast (UPSC 99, Jipmer 2K) a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% !d) 60% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 391 & 18th/e p. 360 In census literacy rate is assessed by (Jipmer 2K) a) Attended literacy classes for one year b) Ability to write signature c) Ability to read and write d) Ability to read newspapers Ref: Park 19th/e p. 384 & 18th/e p. 354 DMPA is an injectible contraceptive given every (UPSC 2K) a) Three weeks b) Two months !c) Three months d) Two years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 400 & 18th/e p. 370 First 5 year plan in India started at (Burdwan 2K) a) 1950 !b) 1951 c) 1952 d) 1953 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 411 & 18th/e p. 380 Which one of the following is a rare complication of the use of hormonal contraceptives (Kerala 2K) a) Contraceptive failure b) Cardiovascular effects c) Carcinogenesis d) Metabolic effects e) Liver disorders Ref: Park 19th/e p. 399-400 & 18th/e p. 369 & 368 People living in developing countries (Manipal 04) a) 90% !b) 80% c) 70% d) 60% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 379'& 18th/e p. 349] About 3/4th of the world population lives in developing countries

65

897. Contraceptive efficacy expressed as (Jipmer 04) a) 100 women months b) 1000 women years !c) 100 women years d) 10 women years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 406 & 18th/e p. 375 898. 100 women, followed up for 20 months, with OCPs, 5 became pregnant, Calculate the Pearl Index (Bihar 03) a) 100 b) 200 !c) 300 d) 400 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 406 & 18th/e p. 375 899. WHO defines adolescent age between (AI 05) !a) 10-19 years of age b) 10-14 years of age c) 10-25 years of age d) 9-14 years of age [Ref: Ghai 6th/e p. 66 900. Crude death rate is an indicator that shows relationship between (Jipmer 05) ! a) Population & total mortality b) Population & proportional mortality c) Population & age-specific mortality d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 23, 52 & 18th/e p. 23, 51 901. Crude birth rate denominator is (SGPGI 05) a) Total no of live births in that; ear b) 1000 live births c) Total numbers of births ! d) Mid year population Ref: Park 19th/e p. 386 & 18th/e p. 356 902. IMR ........ target in National health policy2010" (MAHE 05) !a) 30/1000 live birth c) 5/1000 live birth b) 61/1000 live birth d) 50/1000 live birth Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 table (1) & 18th/ e p. 670 903. Present General fertility rates (MAHE 05) a) 108 b) 118 c) 128 d) 138 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 388 According to table (17) & 18th/e p. 358 904. % of 60-64 years population in India (MAHE 05) a) 6.6 M/6.4 F b) 4.5 M/4.2 F c) 2.6 M/3.3 F !d) 2.6 M/3.0 F Ref: Park 19th/e p. 382 & 18th/e p. 352 905. The following does not suggest deficiency in

under five care in the community (APPGE 05) a) Infant mortality rate b) 1-4 year mortality ! c) Neonatal tetanus d) Deaths due to diarrheal disease between 1 -5 years Ref: Park 18th/e p. 423 table 21 906. Persna is a method of (Orissa 05) ! a) Natural contraceptive b) Hormonal contraceptive c) Barrier contraceptive d) IUCD [Ref: Gyane & Obs Recent 14th/e p. by stud p. 150] PERSNA " Natural family planning enters the age of technology. This is basically a microcomputer attached to a micro laboratory. " It is based on measurement of levels of leutenizing hormone and oestrogen - 3 glucuronide (E.,G) in early morningurine. " The woman is required to insert test sticks dipped in her urine " The device then calculates the likely date of ovulation.well in advance and allows for sperm survival. " She is thus shown green light days when conception is unlikely and red light days when conception may well occur. " With perfect use failure rates are in the region of 6/100 woman years. " However more typical user failure rates are much higher. " Persna has advantage for couples who wish to use natural family planning in that it takes away much of the subjectvity of the symptothermal method and its greater predictive accuracy results in fewer abstinence days (8 on average, compared to 12) however the best use failure rate is still high compared to other methods and it should therefore, be viewed as most suitable for couples spacing rather then preventinga pregnancy. 907. Mmplanon contains (Orissa 05) !a) Desonorgestrol b) Ethinyl estradiol c) L-norgestrol d)None [Ref: Gyane & Obs Recent 14th/e p. by stud p. 147]
66

908.

909.

910.

911.
! !

912.

913.

is a single rod implant. " This single rod offers a significant advantage in that it is considerably easier to both insert and remove. " The rod is supplied in a sterile disposable applicator and insertion does not require a skin incision. Removal using a pop out technique is facilitated by the rigidity of the capsule. National Family Health Survey has successfully completed (AIIMS May 05) a) One round b) Two rounds !c) Three rounds d) Four rounds Ref: www nfhsindia.org The carrying capacity of any given population is determined by its (AIIMS May 05) a) Population growth rte b) Birth rate c) Death rate !d) Limiting resource Ref: Internet www. carrying capacity.org Indian (economic) real G DP growth for the year 2003 is (AI 06) a) 6.0 b) 6.5 !c) 7.8 d) 10.5 Ref: http://www.domain-b.com/economy/ generat/2006/20060202_growth.html National Health Policy for 2010 includes (PGI June 06) a) IMR < 30/1000 b) Control of communicable diseases c) MMR < 200/100000 d) Registration of birth & deaths - 80% e) 80% couple protection rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 391 & 18th/e p. 361 In 2001 census, which one of the following denominators was used for calculating the literacy rate (UPSC 2006, AI 93) a) Population 5 years of age and above b) Population 7 years of age and above c) Population 10 years of age and above d) People who can read and write irrespective of age Ref: Park 19th/e p. 384 & 18th/e p 354 Declining death rate in India is attributed to (Manipal 2006) a) Absence of natural checks b) Mass control of disease e.g. small pox, plague, cholera c) Extensive use of chemotherapeutic,
67

" Implanon

914.

915.

916.

917.

918.

919.

920.

921.

antibiotics and insecticides d) All the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 52 & 18th/e p, 5, 52 Life span of female according to 2001 census (Manipal 2006) !a) 64 b) 61 c) 57 d) 58 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 385 & 18th/e p 355] Females is year 2001 is 66.90 Census is conducted in every ........... years in India (Karnataka - PGE MEE 2006, Jipmer 81, UPSC 85) a) 25 b) 15 !c) 10 d) 20 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693 & 18th/e p 639 Pepulation growth is said to be explosive when growth rate is (PGMCET 07, MAHE 01) a) <0.5 b) 0.5-1 !d) >2 c) 1-1.5 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 381 With a birthrate of 30 per thousand, in a subcentre of 5000 population, what would be the number of pregnant women (UPSC 07) !a) 150 b) 155 c) 160 d) 165 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 386; 18th/e p. 356 Among the following, which one is the absolute contraindication for combined oral contraceptive pills (UPSC 07) a) Diabetes mellitus b) Migraine c) Previous history of thrombo-embolism d) Heart dsease Ref: Park 19th/e p. 400 The life expectancy in India as per 2001 census is (Comed 07) a) 55 years !b) 63 years c) 70 years d) 75 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 385 Maternal mortality rate in India is close to (Comed 07, KARN 94) a) 1 per 1000 live births b) 3-4 per 1000 live births c) 8 per 1000 live births d) 10 per 1000 live births Ref: Park 19th/e p. 446 The objective of National Population Policy 2000 is to bring Total Fertility Rate to replacement levels by the year (Comed 08)

922.

923.

924.

925.

926.

927.

928.

929.

a) 2005 !b) 2010 c) 2015 d) 2020 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 391 Which IUCD acts for 10 yrs (Aiims May 07) a) Cu-T 200B b) Nova-T !c) Cu-T 380A d) Multiload-250 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 393-397; Berck & Novaks Gynecology 14th/e p. 260-263; Dutta 6th/e p.538 MTP Act of 1971 provides for termination of pregnancy till how many weeks of pregnancy (MAHE 07, UPSC 85) a) 12 weeks b) 16 weeks !c) 20 weeks d) 24 weeks Ref: Park 19th/e p. 402 Conventional contraceptives are (MAHE 07) a) lUCDs !b) Coitus iterruptus c) Condom Ref: Park 19th/e p. 403 Which countries have a higher growth rate than India (PGI June 07) !b) Nepal a) Myanmar c) Sri lanka !d) Bangladesh Ref: Park 19th/e p. 380 As per Census - 2001, which one among the following states has shown the highest growth rate of population during 1991-2001 ? (UPSC-I 08) a) Tripura !b) Nagaland c) Orissa d) Rajasthan Ref: www.en.wikipedia.org As per the National Population Policy 2000, the medium-term objective is to bring the total Fertility rate to replacement level by which year ? (UPSC-I 08) a) 2008 !b)2010 c) 2012 d)2014 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 391 In which one among the following countries is life expectancy at birth the highest ? (UPSC-I 08) !a) China b) India c) Sri Lanka d) Nepal Ref: Human Development Report 2007-08 Consider the following pairs (UPSC-II 08) Contraceptive method 1. Condoms 2. Copper T 3. Oral Pills Pregnancy Rate 2-14 per 100 woman-years Less than one per 100 woman-years
68

930.

931.

932.

933.

934. !a)

1-5 per 100 woman-years Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 only !c) 1 and 3 d) 3 only Ref: Park 19th/e p. 395 Use of combined pill is contraindicated in women with any of the following conditions except (UPSC-II 08) a) Lactation !b) Diabetes c) Thromboembolism d) Tuberculosis Ref: Williams Obstetrics 22nd/e p. 731-734 The completed family size may be estimated by (AI 08) a) Birth rate b) Death rate c) Total fertility rate d) Age specific fertility rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387; 18th/e p. 353 KAP studies in India were first used to study (AI 08) a) HIV b) Malaria !c) Family p lann ing d) Cancer cervix Ref: Studies in Family plannin in India by Rao 2003 p. 3, 145; Family planning bySenanayake 1993 p. 427 Which of the following is not a barrier method ? (APPG 08) !a) Centchroman b) Today c) Barrier d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 393 Not used in Health planning ? (APPG 08) Increasing demands for resources b) Analysis of health situation c) Assessment of Resources d) Fixing priorities Ref: Park 19th/e p. 407-410, 391, 392

M.C.H. PROBLEMS
935. 15-50% of maternal deaths in India can be averted by (JIPMER 95) a) Appropriate Saging of delivery ! b) Correction of anemia c) Anti malarial and tetanus prophylaxis ! d) Preventing puerperal haemorrhage Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 446 & 18th/e p. 413 936. Most rare cause of maternal mortality is (AIIMS 98) a) Abortion b)Anaemia !c) Toxaemia d) Hemorrhage Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 446 & 18th/e p. 413

937. Most common cause of death in children <5 yrs age (PGI 2K) a) Respiratory infection !b) Diarrhoea c) Prematurity d) Accidents Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 439 & 18th/e p. 407 938. Which is a high risk neonate (PCI 89) ! a) Less than 1500 gm b) Previous neonatal death c) Less than 37 weeks d) All Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 436 & 18th/e p.395 939. General Incidence of Congenital anomalies in newborns is (Jipmer 93) a) 1% !b) 3% c) 11% d) 15% [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 458 & 18th/e p.423, 424] World wide incidence 30-70/1000 India 2.5% 940. The composition of breast milk, per 100 ml (PGI 79, UPSC 84) a) 67 calories, 3.5 protein, 3.5g fat and 4.5g carbohydrate b) 67 calories, 1.2g protein, 4g fat and 4.5g carbohydrate ! c) 67 clories, 1.2g proteins, 4g fat and 7g carbohydrate d) 100 calories, 3.5g protein, 4g fat and 7g carbohydrate e) 100 calories, 3.5g protein, 3.5g fat and 4.5g carbohydrate Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p.429 & 18th/e p.398 941. A low birth weight baby is by definition (CUPGEE 96) ! a) Less than the 10th percentaile of the expected weight b) Less than the 15th percentaile of the expected weight c) Less than the 5h percentaile of the expected weight d) Less than the 20th percentaile of the expected weight [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 426-427 & 18th/e p. 395, 396] See small for date babies 942. All are high risk babies except (All India 97) a) Working mother ! b) Weight loss in 2 consecutive months ! c) Weight of child 70-80% of standard d) Death of two siblings in first two years of life

943.

944.
!

945.

946.

947.

948.

949.

Ref: S.P.M. Park 19th/e p. 436 & 18th/ e p. 395 The earliest indicator of PEM is (PGI 85) a) Hair changes b) Edema c) Underweight for age d) Restlessness Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 433, read W.H.O. growth chart & 18th/e p. 403 Which one is wrong about human milk (JIPMER 98) a) Gives energy of 67 K cal/1 b) Carbohydrate forms 40% of total energy c) Fats forms > 50% of total energy d) Proteins form 33% of total energy Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 429 & 18th/e p. 397, 398 The maximum number of death in children occur in following age group (Delhi 96) a) 2-5 years b) 1 -2 years !c) first 7 days d) 6 months-12 months Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 423 & 18th/e p. 391 A two year old child was brought to the OPD by his parents with complaints of not eating anything. On examination her weight is 11.5 kg (50th percentile of normal) and height 75 percentile of normal. Man agement is (AIIMS 99) a) Advise multivitamin tonic b) Force to eat c) Investigate for UTI d) Ask parents to stop worrying [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 436 & 18th/e p.403, 404] 50th percentile of reference weight is normal The ratio of casein to albumiuni in human milk is (UPSC 87) a) 2:1 b) 1:2 !c) 1:1 d) 7:1 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 430 table (6) & 18th/e p. 398 table (6)] Casein & lactalbumine. The average daily output of breast milk in an Indain women during first 6 month (PGI 84, AIIMS 84) a) 400 cc b) 500 cc !c) 600 cc d) 700 cc Ref: Park 19th/e p. 429 & 18th/e p. 397 Targeted infant mortality rate for 2000 AD (AIIMS 87, PGI 86) a) 50 !b) 60 c) 70 d) 80 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 table (1) & 18th/

69

950.

951.

952.

953.

954.

955.
! ! !

956.

e p. 670] The recent goal is to achieve MR of 30/100 by 2010 The dose of iron and folic acid given as a supplement is (AIIMS 86) a) 200 mg. and 500 nig b) 60 mg and 500 ug c) 200 mg. and 500 ug d) 200 mg and 1 mg. [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 419 & 18th/e p. 388] Recent books say that the dose of iron has been raised from 60-100 mg while the dose of Folic acid remains same. Which state has the lowest infant mortality rate (UPSC 86) !a) Kerala b) Tamil Nadu c) Bengal d) Madhya Pradesh Ref: Park 19th/e p. 450 table (18) & 18th/ e p. 418 table (16) Infant mortality rate in india at present is (UPSC 86) a) 120 b) 114 c) 112 d) 108 e) 106 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 453 table (21) & 18th/e p. 417] In India the infant mortality rate in 2004 58 (IMR world 54 The average birth weight in India is (AIIMS 85) a) 2.5 kg. !b) 2.8 kg. c) 3. 00 kg. d) 3.2 kg. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 427-428 & 18th/e p. 396 The percentage of women in the reproductive age group is (AI 89) a) 15% !b) 22% c) 30% d) 40% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 414 & 18th/e p. 382] Exact value is 19% Small for date babies are prevented by (PGI 86) a) Spacing of baby b) Antenatal care c) Nutritional supplement d) Immunisations Ref: Park 19th/e p. 428 & 18th/e p. 395, 396 The school health programme came into vogue in (PGI 83) a) 1946 b) 1948 c) 1950 !d) 1960 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 463 last line & 18th/

957.

958.
!

959.
!

960.

961.

962.

963.
! !

70

e p. 425 Low birth weight means a weight of less than (PGI 83) a) 2.8 kg. b) 2.7 kg. !c) 2.5 kg d) 2.3 kg. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 427 & 18th/e p. 395, 396 All are true of infant mortality rate except (AIIMS 89) a) 95 per 1 000 1 i ve birth b) Neonatal death is 50% c) 90% of death is under 5 years d) Has improved with socioeconomic improvement [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 454-455 & 18th/e p. 417, 418] IMR 2004, World average 54/1000, India 58/1000 Denominator of perinatal mortality is (AIIMS 89) a) Live birth b) Still birth c) Live and still birth d) Live birth minus still birth Ref: Park 19th/e p. 449 & 18th/e p. 415 Numerator for neonatal mortality is (AI 90) a) All infant death upto 28 days b) All infants less than or equal to 7 days c) All infants under one year d) All infant deaths between 28 days to one year Ref: Park 19th/e p. 451 & 18th/e p. 416, 417 MCH care is assessed by (TN 91) a) Death rate b) Birth rate !c) Maternal mortality rate d) Anemia in mother Ref: Park 19th/e p. 444 & 18th/e p. 412 Percentage of elemental Iron in Ferrous Sulphate (Hydrated) (Jipmer 92) a) 20% !b) 33% c) 60% d) 82% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 510 & 18th/e p. 465] 180 mg ferrous sulphate contain 60 mg of elemended Iron Which is not true about Growth chart used in India (AIIMS 92) a) There are three curves b) Top most Curve corresponds to 50th percentile of standard c) Second Curve corresponds to 80% of that standard d) Children with normal weight fall above

964.

965.

966.

967.
!

968.

the line [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 437 & 18th/e p. 404, 405] " First curve corresponds to 80 % " In Growth chart recommended by Government of India there are 4 curves 1) Topmost curve corresponds to 80% of the median 2) The lower lines represent 70%, 60% and 50% of standard 3) Child with normal weight fall above the line Breast feeding should be started ............. of birth (JIPMER 91, Delhi 93) !a) Within 1 hour b) 1-2 hours c) 2-3 hours d) 12-24 hours [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 444 & 18th/e p. 411 see baby friendly hospital] Breastfeeding should be started within an hour of birth in normal delivery and within 4 hrs in cesarean section. Road to health card has 2 reference points, which are (AIIMS 80, Delhi 93) a) 30th percentile for boys and 3rd percentile for girls b) 50lh percentile for boys and 3rd percentile for girls c) 50th percentile for boys and 5th percentile for girls d) 80th percentile for boys and 10th percentile for girls Ref: Park 19th/e p. 435-436 & 18th/e p. 403 By 2000 A.D. India has to reduce the birth of infants weighting below 2.5 kg to (PGI 80, AMC 86, 92) !a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 427 & 18th/e p. 396 Small for date in comparison to premature birth has (AIIMS 80, UPSC 92) a) Low birth weight b) More congenital anomalies c) More chance of mental retardation d) Less survival chances Ref: Park 19th/e p. 427 & 18th/e p. 395 Per capita space for students is a class room should not be less than .......... sq. feet (PGI 80, AMU 92) a) 5 !b)10 c) 20 d) 50 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 465 & 18th/e p. 426
71

969. Boys over 16 years who are too difficult to be handled in a certified school or have misbehaved there are sent to a (AIIMS 81, UPSC 83) a) Remand home !b) Borstal c) Foster home d) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 472 & 18th/e p. 432 970. In school health services the most important functionary should be (PGI 79, AIIMS 86) !a) School teacher b) Health worker c) Medical officer d) Health assistant Ref: Park 19th/e p. 464 & 18th/e p. 425 971. Which of the following statements may be used accurately in support of bottle feeding over breast feeding (PGI 79, AIIMS 86) a) Superior provision of vitamin D and C in bottle formula milk b) Breast milk frequency of insufficient quantity c) Fewer infections with bottle milk d) Presence of more easily metabolised proteins in bottle milk [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 429 & 18th/e p. 397, see also nelson pedia 157-158] Vit C & D are less in quantities 972. Infantile deaths is taken only below (PGI 79, AMC 84, 87) a) 7 days b) 1 month !c) 1 year d) 2 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 452 & 18th/e p. 417 973. Child guidance clinic is helpful for (JIPMER 81, PGI 88) ! a) Bed wetting problem b) Impaired hearing c) Eye squint d) Celebral palsy Ref: Park 19th/e p. 472 & 18th/e p. 433 974. The peak period for social attachment in humans is of what age (JIPMER 79, AIIMS 83) !a) 7 months b) 1 year c) 18 months d) 2 years e) 3 years Ref: Still searching 975. In a country, socio economic progress is best indicated by (PGI 80, UPSC 90, 88) a) Gross net production ! b) Infant mortality rate c) Annual per capita income of the family d) Death rate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 452 & 18th/e p. 417

976. Which country had introduced school health services for the first time (Karn 94) a) France b) Russia c) United States of America !d) India Ref: Park 19th/e p. 463 & 18th/e p. 425 977. Weaning foods are given to infants from (Karn 94, Delhi 91, PGI 81,92)) a) 3rd months !b) 6 months c) 9 months d) 12 months Ref: Park 19th/e p. 430 & 18th/e p. 397 978. At 28 Wk. gestation, weight of the fetus is (Assam 95) a) 500 g !b) 1000 g c) 1500 g d) 2000 g Ref: Park 19th/e p. 449 & 18th/e p. 415 979. The growth monitoring of a child at Anganwadi is meant for (Karn 95) a) Detection of healthy babies b) Diagnosis of growth retardation ! c) Providing appropriate nutritional supplement d) Estimation of malnutriton problem Ref: Park 19th/e p. 473-474 & 18th/e p. 433 980. The criteria for an infant to be at risk to under nourishment is (Karn 95) a) Birth weight of 3 kgs b) Birth weight of 2.8 kgs ! c) Birth weight of 2.5 kgs d) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 427 & 18th/e p. 395 981. Maternal mortality refers to maternal deaths from causes related to or aggravated by pregnancy and its management during (UPSC) a) Pregnancy, child birth or first seven days after delivery b) Child birth or first fourteen days after delivery c) First 28 days after delivery ! d) Pregnancy, child birth or first 42 days after delivery Ref: Park 19th/e p. 444 & 18th/e p. 412 982. Low birth - weight babies are at a higher risk of dying in the first week because (UPSC 99) ! a) Congenital anomaly, birth injury and infections b) Birth injury, convulsions and asphyxia c) Convulsions, congenital anomaly and hypothermia
72

983.

984.

985.

986.
! ! !

987.

988.

989.

990.

d) Hypothermia, asphyxia and infections Ref: Park 19th/e p. 428 & 18th/e p. 396 Regarding BABY- FRIENDLY UNICEF PLAN, all are true except (AIIMS 98, AI 09) a) Mother and child are left together 24 hours a day b) Feeding on demand c) No food/water given other than breast milk d) Feeding started within 4 hours of birth Ref: Park 19th/e p. 444 & 18th/e p. 411 The ICDS scheme includes children upto ....... years of age (AMC 99) !a) 6 b) 10 c) 4 d) 8 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 474 & 18th/e p. 433 ICDS package does not include (AMC 99) a) Nutrition b) Immunisation c) Health check up !d) Formal education [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 474 & 18th/e p. 433] It is non formal education The most effective step in MCH is (AMC 99) a) Maternal health promotion b) Child health promotion c) School health promotion d) Non formal education of the mother Ref: Park 19th/e p. 474 & 18th/e p. 433 One of the following is not true of Child Guidance Clinic (Kerala.2K) a) First started in Chicago b) It is team work job c) It is basically meant for children who do not fully adjust to their environment d) Originally designed to deal with juvenilei deliquency e) It is intented for service to the children in orphanages Ref: Park 19th/e p. 472, 18th/e p.432 Absolute growth is maximally seen in (AIIMS 2001) a) 0-1 year age group !b) 1-4 years c) 5-10 years d) 14-16 years [Ref: Park 19th/e p.431 & 18th/e p. 401] 1. In first year it is 25 cm 2. In 1-4 years it is 12 + 9 + 7 28 cm Road to health card top line is (DNB 2001} a) 3rd percentile !b) 50th percentile c) 80th percentile d) 97th percentile Ref: Park 19th/e p. 435 & 18th/e p. 403 According to school health services recommendations, a school should have (J & K 01)

991.

992.

993.

994.

995.

996.

997.

a) 1 urinal/60 children and 1 privy for 100 children b) 1 urinal/80 children and 1 privy for 150 children c) 1 urinal/100 children and 1 privy for 100 children d) 1 urinal/100 children and 1 privy for 200 children Ref: Park 19th/e p. 465 & 18th/e p. 426 A 14 year old boy having lost his father a year ago, is caught shoplifting. The boy will be sent to (UPSC 01) a) An orphanage b) An anganwari c) A prison !d) A remand home Ref: Park 19th/e p. 473 & 18th/e p. 432 Infants constitute what % of population? (Orissa 04) a) 2 !b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 422 & 18th/e p. 391] Infants constiture 2.92% of the population Homes where children are placed under the care of doctors and psychiatrists are called (UPSC 004) a) Foster homes b) Borstals !c) Remand homes d) Child guidance clinics Ref: Park 19th/e p. 473 & 18th/e p. 432 All of the following are common causes of maternal mortality in India except (SGPGI 05} a) Haemorrhage b) Anaemia !c) Eclampsia d) Sepsis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 447 fig (8) & 18th/e p. 414 fig 9 The number of abortions performed divided by the number of live births in the same period is known as (ICS 05) a) Abortion rate b) Abortion incidence c) Abortion prevalence !d) abortion ratio Ref: Park 19th/e p. 387 & 18th/e p. 357 Antenatal support is NOT delivered by (APPGE 05) a) Anganwadi worker b) Female Health worker c) Health supervisor female d) Traditional birth Attendant Ref: Park 19th/e p. 475, 753 & 18th/e p. 696 & 434 Spectrum of IDD does NOT include
73

998.
!

999.

1000.

1001.

1002.

(APPGE 05) a) Still births !b) Hyperactivity c) Deafness d) Delayed development Ref: Park 19th/e p. 494 table (16) & 18th/e p. 451 table 75 Deficit in weight for height in a 3 year old child indicates (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Acute malnutrition b) Chronic malnutrition c) Concomittant acute and chronic d) Under weight Ref: Park 19th/e p. 434 & 18th/e p. 401-402 In the WHO recommended EPI Cluster sampling for assessing primary immunization coverage, the age group of children to be surveyed is (Aiims Nov 05) a) 0-12 months b) 6-12 months c) 9-12 months !d) 12-23 months Ref: Health policies and programme in India 4th/e p. 45 According to a joint study Healthcare in India: The Road Ahead done by CII and Mekin Sey and Company in 2002, Indias executing bed population rate is (AIIMS NOV 05) !b) 1.5:1000 a) 2:1000 c) 9:1000 d) 2.5:1000 Ref:Internet All of the following statements are true about the childhood mortality rates in India except (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Almost 3/5th of infant mortality rate (IMR) occurs in neonatal period b) Almost 3/4lh of the under-five mortality occurs in the first five years c) About one in ten children die before they reach the age of five years. d) Neonatal mortality is higher among female children as compared to males Ref: Park 19th/e p. 451, 452, 458 & 18th/e p. 419, 417, 418 A 24 years old primigravida wt = 57 kg, Hb 11.0 gm% visits an antenatal clinic during 2nd trimester of pregnancy seeking advice on dietary intake. She should be advised (AIIMS Nov 05, AI 06) a) Additional intake of 300 K.cal b) Additional intake of 500 K.cal c) Additional intake of 650 K.cal d) No extra K.cal Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 506 table (32) &

1103.

1004.

1005.

1006.

18th/e p. 461 The most common cause of meternal mortality in India is (AIIMS May 05) a) Toxaemias . b) Puerperal sepsis !c) Hemorrhage d) Abortion Ref: Park 19th/e p. 447 & 18th/e p. 414 Viruses documented to cause fetal damage (PGI June 06) a) Hepatitis B !b) Varicella c) Measles !d) Parvovirus Ref: Harrsion 16th/e p. 1043, 1055 According to Indian Scientists, the cut off for low birth weight in India is (PGMCET 01) a) 2.2 kg b) 2.5 kg c) 2.7 kg !d) 2 kg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 428 Yearly data pertaining to deliveries and their outcome in a community is as follows (UPSC 07) Total number of births : 12600 Total number of stillbirths : 114 Total number of death i) During first week after birth : 410 ii) During second to fourth weeks : 280 after birth Which one of the following formulae is used to calculate perinatal mortality rate a)
!b)

114 $ 410 $ 280 %1000 12600

c) d)

114 $ 410 % 1000 12600 & 114

114 $ 410 $ 280 %1000 12600 & 114 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 449; 18th/e p. 415 1007. The criteria for at risk infant include the following except (UPSC 07) a) Artificial feeding !b) Grade II malnutrition c) Working mother d) Birth order 4 and more Ref: Park 19th/e p. 426; 18th/e p. 395 1008. Comprehensive emergency obstetric care does not include (Aiims May 07) a) Manual removal of placenta ! b) Hysterectomy c) Blood transfusion d) Ceasarean section

Ref: www.tn.gov.in/workshop/6HD%20and%20Health-SEC.PPT; http:// www. unfpa. org/mothers/obstetric. htm 1009. True about ASH A are all except (Aiims May 07) a) One per 1000 rural population b) Mobiliser of antenatal care c) Female voluntary worker ! d) Skilled birth attendant Ref: Park 19th/e p. 365 1010. All of the following are included as causes of maternal death except (MAHE 07) a) Following abortion b) During lactation 1 st month (Puerperal) ! c) During lactation 8th month d) During the last trimester due to APH Ref: Park 19th/e p. 444 1011. Ideal desk recommended for a shool child is (UP 07, 01, PGI 80, UPSC 93) a) Plus desk ! b) Minus desk c) Zero desk d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 465 1012. Maternal mortality rate is (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Maternal death/100 births 114 $ 410 b) Maternal death/100 live births % 1000 12600 c) Maternal death/1000 births ! d) Maternal death/1000 live births Ref: Park 19th/e p. 444 1013. You were posted at a PHC catering to a population of 1,20,000. In the year 2006, a total number of 2500 liver born babies were delivered. Number of children dying under one year of age during 2006 was 150. What is the infant mortality rate of this population ? (UPSC-I 08) !a) 60 b) 70 c) 80 d) 90 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 452 1014. Under the National Maternity Benefit scheme, what is the financial assistance given per birth for the first two births to all pregnant women who attain 19 years of age and belong to BPL households ? (UPSC-I 08) !a) Rs. 500 b) Rs. 1,000 c) Rs. 1,500 d) Rs. 2,000 Ref: rural.nic. in/book 00-01/ch-7 1015. Among the cause of maternal mortality, which one of the following is the correct
74

descending order due to which the maternal deaths occur in India? (UPSC-II 08) a) Haemorrhage, obstructed labour, abortion, sepsis b) Obstructed labour, haemorrhage, abortion, sepsis c) Sepsis, obstructed labour, abortion, haemorrhage ! d) Haemorrhage, sepsis, abortion, obstructed labour Ref: Park 19th/e p. 447 1016. Which one of the following is categorised as a high risk pregnancy ? (UPSC-II 08) a) Birth order 3 b) Maternal height 150 cm !c) Twins pregnancy d) Blood group AB +ve Ref: Park 19th/e p. 417 1017. The most common cause of maternal mortality in India is (AI 08) !a) Obstetric hemorrhage b) Anemia c) Abortion d) Obstructed labour Ref: Ministry of Health and Family welfare; Annual Report 2006-07 1018. Integrated management of childhood illness (IMCI) intiative was taken to prevent morbidity and mortality from all of the following except (AI 08) a) Malaria b) Malnutrition c) Otitis Media !d) Neonatal tetanus Ref: Park 18th/e p. 345; Ghai 6th/e p. 690-701 1019. In India, the cause for maximum maternal mortality is (Aiims May 08) a) Anemia !b) Hemorrhage c) Abortion d) Sepsis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 446-447; 18th/e p. 413-414 1020. Most common causes of perinatal mortality ? (APPG 08) a) Birth injury b) Intra uterine infection ! c) Birth asphyxia d) LBW Ref: Park 19th/e p. 450, 421

NUTRITION & HEALTH GENERAL

1021. Aflatoxin causes (Kerala 94)
75

a) Lathyrism ! b) Hepatoma c) Cholangio carcinoma d) Botulism Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 524 & 18th/e p. 479 1022. Commonest malnutrition in India (PGI 96) a) Protein deficiency b) Calorie deficiency c) Vitamin A deficiency ! d) Iron deficiency Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 509 & 18th/e p. 465 1023. In a 70 kg human the amount of sodium (Na+) present in human body is 105 gm. then what should be the level/quantity of potassium (K+) (AIIMS 81, Bihar 90) a) 105 gin b) 205 gm !c) 245 gm d) 5 gm only Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 492 & 18th/e p.449 1024. From which of the following ,the highest percentage of iron is absorbed (AIIMS 83) a) Spinach b) Soyabean !c) Mutton d) Egg Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 492 & 18th/e p.449 1025. Highest amount of iron is seen in (PGI 86) a) Milk b) Meat . c) spinach !d) jaggery Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 & 18th/e p. 456 1026. Theleveloflodisationofsaltin India is (AIIMS 85) a) 1 in 200 b) 1 in 20,000 !c) 1 in 30,000 d) 1 in 40,000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 511 & 18th/e p. 466 1027. Deflouridation of water is done by ...... technique (PGI 84, AP 85) !a) Nalgonda b)Kasauli c) Nagpur d) Hyderabad Ref: Park 19th/e p. 512 & 18th/e p. 467 1028. The toxin in kesari dhal is known as (PGI 84, AP 85) ! a) Betaoxalyl aminoalanine b) Beta oxyl amino aginine c) Alpha Oxayl amino alanine d) Beta oxalyl amino transferase Ref: Park 19th/e p. 512 & 18th/e p. 467 1029. Lysine is not present in (AI 88) !a) Wheat b) Rice c) Bengal gram d) red gram e) Red gram dhall Ref: Park 19th/e p. 497 & 18th/e p. 453 1030. According to the latest estimate the number of people living in the known iodine deficient areas is (AIIMS 84) a) 40 million !b) 120 million

1031.

1032.

1033.

1034.

1035.

1036.

! !

1037.

1038.

1039.

1040.

c) 20 million d) 80 million [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 511 & 18th/e p. 467] The exact no. is 140 million What is known as poor mans meat' (AIIMS 84) a) Milk !b) Pulses c) Fish d) egg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 & 18th/e p. 454 Daily requirements of Iodine is (PGI 85) a) 50 mg/day b) 100 mg/day c) 150 mg/day d) 150 mg/day [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 494 & 18th/e p. 451] Correct answer is 150 microgram /day. Total body iodine is about (PGI 85, PCI 83) a) 20 mg b) 30 mg c) 40 mg !d) 50 mg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 493 & 18th/e p. 450 Index of duration of malnutrition is (PGI 83) a) Weight for height !b) Height for age c) Weight for age d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 508 & 18th/e p. 463 Index of severity of malnutrition is (PGI 83) !a) Weight for heightb) Height for age c) Weight for age d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 508 & 18th/e p. 463 Iodine deficiency is associated with all except (AI 88) a) Mental retardation b) Still births c) High infant mortality rates d) Cataract Ref: Park 19th/e p. 494 table (16) & 18th/ e p. 451 table (15) Highest Biological value is for (TN 90) !a) Eggs b) Milk c) Soyabean d) Meat Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 & 18th/e p. 456 Calcium requirement above the normal during the first six month of lactation is (AI 92) a) 400 mg/day b) 550 mg/day !c) 600 mg/day d) 750 mg/day Ref: Park 19th/e p. 506 table (32) & 18th/ e p. 461 The highest calories is in (JIPMER 92) !a) Animal meat b) Egg c) Sweet potato d) Milk Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499, 500, 503 & 18th/e p. 456, 455 &p. 454 Important clinical diagnostic feature of kwashiorkor is (AIIMS 92)
76

a) Flagsign b) Weight loss !c) Edema d) Neurologic dysfunction Ref: Park 19th/e p. 507 table (33) & 18th/ e p. 463 1041. Normal iron requirement per day in pregnancy (ALL INDIA 93) a) 1.5 mg b) 1.8 mg c) 2.8 mg !d) 3.5 mg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 493 table (15) & 18th/e p. 461 & p.450 table (14) 1042. Calcium requirement during pregnancy per day is (JIPMER 93) a) 5 gm b) 15 gm c) 22 gm d) 33 gm [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 506 table (32) & 18th/ e p. 461 table (31)] Correct answer is = 1000 mg or 1 gm. 1043. Requirement of extra calories for lactating mother during first six month is age (UPSC 87, AI 93) a) 300 K cal/day b) 400 K cal/day !c) 550 K cal/day d) 800 K cal/day Ref: Park 19th/e p. 506 table (32) & 18th/ e p. 461 table (31) 1044. In national goiter control programme iodine supplementation is implemented in (AMU 86, AMC 92) a) Subhimalayas areas b) Subhimalayas areas + Hilly aeras ! c) Subhimalayas + northern areas d) Whole of India Ref: Park 19th/e p. 511 & 18th/e p. 466 1046. Positive health indicators of nutritional status include except (BHU 81, 85) a) Anthropometric measurements of pre school children b) Height of school children at school entry ! c) Weight of antenatal mothers d) Prevalence of low birth weight Ref: Park 19th/e p. 519 table (40) & 18th/ e p. 474 table (39) 1046. A normal six month old child would about require how many calories per kilogram daily (AIIMS 79, PGI 84) a) 25 b) 40 c) 75 !d) 110 Ref: Park 18th/e p. 506 table (32) & 18th/ e p. 461 table (31) 1047. I.C.D.S scheme was started in the year (AIIMS 81, AMU 89)

1048.

1049.

1050.

1051.

1052.

1053.

1054.

1055.

a) 1965 b) 1970 !c) 1975 d) 1995 Ref: Park 19th/e p.527 & 18th/e p. 482 Government of India have accepted the policy of lodisation of entire (edible) salt in a phased manner by (PGI 81, AMU 87) a) 1990 !b) 1992 c) 2000 AD d) None of the above Ref: Park Line omitted from 19th/e & 18th/ e p. 466 Iodized oil used in preventing goiter is (PGI 80, DNB 90) a) Croton oil b) Castor oil c) Almond oil !d) poppy - seed oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 511 & 18th/e p. 466 1ml of iodized oil gives protection for about (AIIMS 83, PGI 86) a) 6 months b) 1 Year !c) 4 Years d) 10 Years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 511 & 18th/e p. 466 Malnutrition in India is mainly attributed to (JIPMER 81, KERALA 90) a) Protein deficiency b) Vitamin A deficiency c) Iron deficiency d) All of these Ref: Park 19th/e p. 506 ! a, 509 b, 509 c & 18th/e p. 462 a, 464 b, 465 c All of the following programmes are sponsored by ministry of social welfare except (PGI 79, DNB 91) a) Balwadi nutrition programme b) Special nutrition programme c) Midday meal programme d) ICDS Ref: Park 19th/e p. 527 table (42) & 18th/ e p. 482 table (41) Double edged sword is (AMC 84,85,89, PGI 82) a) Chlorine !b) fluorine c) lead d) selenium Ref: Park 19th/e p. 494 & 18th/e p. 451 Excessive of leucine canlead to (PGI 80, UPSC 85, 88) a) Beri-Beri b) Marasmus !c) Pellagra d) Megnat tongue Ref: Park 19th/e p. 497 & 18th/e p. 446 & 447 Iron absorption from intestine is regulated by (KERALA 94)

a) Acid secretion in stomach b) Reducing substances in food ! c) Mucosal block in the intestinal cells in according to iron requirement d) Alkaline medium in small intestine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 492 & 18th/e p. 449, 450 1056. All are food fortification except (KERALA 94) ! a) Addition of colour to saccharin b) Addition of Vit A to food stuff c) Addition of extra nutrients to food stuff d) lodisation of salt Ref: Park 19th/e p. 525, 526 & 18th/e p. 480, 481 1057. In which state, lathyrism is common (KARN 94) a) Karnataka b) Maharashtra !c) Madhaya Pradesh d) Andhra Pradesh Ref: Park 19th/e p. 512 & 18th/e p. 467 1058. For assessing of the ability of protein utilisation the best index is (JIPMER 95) a) Urea b) Uric acid c) Blood ammonia d) Urinary nitrogen content [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 503 & 18th/e p. 446, ! Nitrogen retained by the body NPU = 459] 100 Nitrogen intake

1059. Ragi is richest source of (ALL INDIA 95) a) Carbohydrates b) iron !c) Calcium d) Proteins Ref: Park 19th/e p. 497 table (18) & 18th/ e p. 453 table (18) 1060. The defluoridations process of drinking water developed by the NEERI is popularly known as (KARN 95) a) Activated sludge process b) Recarbonation process ! c) Nalgonda process d) Double pot method Ref: Park 19th/e p. 512 & 18th/e p. 467 1061. The recommended daily allowance of calcium for adults is (KARN 96) a) 100 mg b) 200 mg c) 300 mg !d) 400 mg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 506 table (32) & 18th/ e p. 461 table (31) 1062. Rice contains (AP 96) a) 20% protein b) 12% of protein
77

1063.

1064.

1065.

1066.

1067.

1068.

1069.

1070.
!

c) 14% of protein d) 0.6% of potein !e) 6.8% of protein Ref: Park 19th/e p. 496 table (17) & 18th/ e p. 452 table (16) All of the following are used to assess the nutritional status of an individual, except (UP 97) a) Urinary nitrogen excretion b) Mid arm circumference c) Serum immunoglobulin d) Serum transferrin Ref: Park 19th/e p. 517 table (37) & 18th/ e p. 472 Epidemic dropsy manifests as all except (AIIMS 97) a) Cardiac failure b) Diarrhoea !c) Convulsions d) Glaucoma Ref: Park 19th/e p. 525 & 18th/e p. 479, 480 Additional caloric requirement during lactation (AI 97) !b) 550 a) 450 c) 650 d) 750 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 506 table (32) & 18th/ e p. 461 table (31) All are classified under malabsorption micronutrients substances except (AIIMS 96) a) Iron !b) Fluoride c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B Ref: Park 19th/e p. 492 for a, p. 485 for c p. 489 for d, 494 for b & 18th/e p. 449 & 450 ! a p. 443 c p. 446 d Fat content is highest in (All India 98) !a) Beef b) Mutton c) Chicken d) Fish Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 table (23) & 18th/ e p. 456 table (22) The net protein utilization of rice is (MP 98) a) 20% b) 40% !c) 63% d) 81% [Ref: Park 19th/ep. 503 & 19th/e p. 458-459] See protein utilization of Indian diet i.e., 50 to 80. Epidemic dropsy is caused by (AIIHPH 98) !a) Argemone oil b) Aflatoxin c) Ergot d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 525 & 18th/e p. 479, 480 Test not done on pasteurized milk except (TN 99) a) Methylene blue test

1071.

1072.

1073.

1074.

1075.

1076.
78

b) Standard plate count c) Phosphatase test d) Coliform count Ref: Park 19th/e p. 522 & 18th/e p. 477 Test for detecting argemone oil Contamination does not include (AMC 99) a) Nitric acid test b) Paper chromatography test !c) Aldehyde test d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 525 & 18th/e p. 480 The haemoglobin cut-off level for determining prevalence of anemia among pregnant women is (KARN.99, Aiims 97, MAHE 05) a) Less than 15g/dL b) Less than 13 g/dL !c) Less than 11 g/dL d) Less than 19 g/dL Ref: Park 19th/e p. 493 table (14) & 18th/ e p. 450 table (13) Second degree of under nutrition means (Orissa 99) a) Weight below 50% of the harvard standard b) Weight below 60% of the harvard standard c) Weight between 60% & 81% of the harvard standard d) Weight between 60 % & 71% of the harvard standard Ref: Park 19th/e p.508 & 18th/e p. 463 Which is first and commonest clinical manifestation of Epidemic dropsy (Orissa 99) a) Bilateral swelling of legs b) Gastrointestinal upsets c) Cardiac decomposition d) Sarcoid Ref: Park 19th/e p. 525 & 18th/e p. 479, 480 Classification of grades of protein energy malnutrition given by Indian academy of peadiatrics as adopted (UPSC 2K) a) ICMR standards b) Standards developed by national institute of nutrition, Hyderabad c) Local standards d) NCHS standards Ref: Park 19th/e p. 508 & 18th/e p. 464 What is average protein requirement of a referance indian man (AIIMS 2K)

1077.

1078.

1079.

1080.

1081.

1082.

1083.

a) 50 gms !b) 60 gms c) 80 gms d) 40 gms Ref: Park 19th/e p. 503 table (27) & 18th/ e p. 457 & 458 Severe wasting is (ORISSA R) a) <60% !b) <70% c) <80% d) <90% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 508 table (35) & 18th/ e p. 464 table (34) Community health guide measures malnutrition by (MAHE 01) a) Mid arm circumference b) Skin fold thickness !c) Height & weight e) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 519 table (40) & p. 445 & 18th/e p. 474 and p. 47 Soya bean is rich in (J & K 2001) !a) Lysine b) Aspartic acid c) Glycine d)Alanine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 & 427 & 18th/ e p. 454 The ICDS scheme is sponsored by (ALLHPH 01) a) Ministry of health & family welfare b) Ministry of Social welfare. c) Ministry of education d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 527 table (42) & 18th/ e p. 482 table (41) Which of the following is the nodal ministry for Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Program me Centre? (AIIMS 04) a) Ministry for Human Resource Development b) Ministry for Rural Development c) Ministry for Health and Family Welfare d) Social Justice Ref: See Q: No. 44 Amit & Ashish AIIMS May 2004 Dates are rich source of (APPGE 04) !a) Calcium b) Iron c) Vit C d) Carotene Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 table (21) & 18th/ e p. 455 table (20) Wrong statement is (SGPGI 05) a) Pulses are diffident in methionme b) Cerels are deficient in lysine c) Wheat deficient in threonine d) Maize is deficient in tryptophan & leucine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 for a, 496 for b,
79

1084.

1085.

1086.

1087.

1088.

1089.

1090.

1091.

497 for c & d & 18th/e p. 454 for a, 452 for b, 453 for c & d Pulses are deficient in (MAHE 05) a) Lysine b) Tryptophan !c) Metheonine d) Jsoleucine [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 & 18th/e p. 454 The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is (AI 05) a) 1800 b) 2100 c) 2300 !d) 2900 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 502 table (25) or 506 table (32) & 18th/e p. 458 Which one of the following pulses has the highest content of iron (AIIMS May 05) a) Bengal gram b) Black gram c) Red gram !d) Soyabean Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 & 18th/e p. 454 As per WHO guidelines, iodine deficiency disorders are endemic in the community when prevalence of goitre in school age children is more than (HP 2006) !b) 5% a) 1% c) 10% d)15% Ref: Project Report: Assessment of Iodine deficiency disorder using the 30 cluster approach Among the following, which one is not a good dietary source of iron (UPSC 07) a) Liver b) Jaggery c) Fish !d) Milk Ref: Park 19th/e p. 492; 18th/e p. 449 What would be the minimum calorie requirement of a normal sedentary lactating mother of eight month old baby (UPSC 07) a) 1900 kcal b) 2100 kcal !c) 2300 kcal d) 2600 kcal Ref: Park 19th/e p. 506 Mid-day meal contains (Comed 07, Jipmer 86) a) 1/2 proteins and 1/2 of the calories required per day b) 1/2 of proteins and 1/3 of the calories required per day c) 1/3 of protein and 1/3 of the calories required per day d) 1/3 protein and 1/2 of the calories required per day Ref: Park 19th/e p. 527 The recommended content of Iodine in salt at the consumer level is (Comed 08) a) 10 ppm !b) 15 ppm

1092.
!

1093.

1094.

1095.
!

1096.
!

1097.

1098.

c) 20 ppm d) 30 ppm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 511 Impact and efficiency of iodine control program can be estimated by (AI 07, 05) a) Neonatal thyroxine levels b) Goiter in pregnant women c) Goiter in children of age 1 2 to 1 8 d) Urinary iodine levels in pregnant women Ref: Park 19th/e p. 494, 511 Dietary intake reference standards refers to all except a) Recommended daily allowance b) Adequate intake c) Food based dietary advice d) Upper tolerable lebels Ref: Goodman & Oilman 10th/e p. 1745, 1746 Dietary Reference Intake recommendations include all except (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Recommended Dietary Allowances b) Adequate Intake c) Upper tolerable level d) Food based dietary advice Ref: http://en.wikipedia.org; Goodman Gilman 10th/e 1745, 1746 Toxins responsible for epidemic dropsy (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Sanguinarine b) BOAA c) Pyrrolizidine alkaloids d) Aflatoxin Ref: Park 19th/e p. 511 True regarding fluorosis are all except (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Fluorosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children b) Fluorosis can cause fluoride deposition in bones c) Defluoridation is done by Nalgonda technique d) Fluorosis can cause genu valgum Ref: www.henriettesherbal.com Which one of the following describes the flavouring substance asafoetida (Hing) ? (UPSC-I 08) a) Dried leaf extract b) Exudate from chopped roots c) Pith of stem boiled and dried d) Dried and hardened paste of fruit Ref: Park 19th/e p. 524 The genetically engineered golden rice is
80

1099.

1100.

1101.

1102.

1103.

1104.
!

rich in (UPSC-I 08) a) '-carotene and magnesium b) Folic acid and iron c) '-carotene and iron d) Folic acid and magnesium Ref: www.pri.org In Iron deficiency anemia, after haemoglobin level has returned to normal so that iron stores are replenished. The Iron tablets should be recommended for (UP 08) !a) 0-3 months b) 3-6 months c) 6-12 months d) 12-24 months Ref: Park 19th/e p. 510 Under the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act (PFA) the level of iodine salt at consumer level is (UP 08) a) 0-5 ppm b) 5-10 ppm !c) 5-15 ppm d) 5-30 ppm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 511 Elemental iron supplementation in Iron deficiency anemia is (UP 08) a) 300-400 mg b) 150-200 mg !c) 100-150 mg d) <100mg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 510 Which of the following statements about Nutritional surveillance is not true (AI 08) a) It is a diagnostic approach b) Assessment involves precise measurements of weight and height c) Assessment is done by trained persons d) Done in all children <5 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 518; 18th/e p. 473 Which of the following statements about recommended daily allowance is false (AI 08) a) The RDA is decided by a panel of experts and is based on scientific research b) The RDA caters to the dietry requirement of all people c) The RDA is often higher than the recommenden minimum requirement d) The RDA is based on the estimated average requirement (EAR) Ref: Park 19th/e p. 501; 18th/e p.457; Lippincotts Biochemistry 4th/e p. 357, 358 Endemic ascitis is associated with the following (Aiims May 08) a) Pyrrolizidine b) Aflatoxin c) Sanguinarine d) Betaoxalylaminoalanine (BOAA)

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 525; 18th/e p. 480

LIPID
1105. Following is rich in linoeic acid (UPSC 88, AI 93) a) Groundnitoil b) Linseed oil c) Soyabeen oil !d) Sunflower oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 table (2) & 18th/e p. 440 table (2) 1106. Odour of rancid fats is due to (AIIMS 85) a) Antioxidants b) Vitamin E excess !c) Volatile fatty acids d) Phenol Ref: SPM Parks 19th/e p. 483 & 18th/ e p. 441 1107. Saturated fatty acid is present in high quantity (Assam 95) !a) Coconut oil b) Sun flower oil c) Saffloweroil d) Soyabeen Ref: Park SPM 19th/e p. 482 table (I) & 18th/e p. 440 table (1) 1108. Which of the following contain the highest amount of cholesterol (UPSC 86) a) White meat b) Red meat !c) Egg d) Fish Ref: Park 19th/e p . 500 table (23) & 18th/ e p. 456 table (22) 1109. Which cooking oil has the highest amount of essential fatty acids (UPSC 86) a) Groundnut oil b) Coconut oil !c) Sunflower oil d) Castor oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 table (2) & 18th/ e p. 440 table (2) 1110. The daily requirement of fat is ........% of total energy (UPSC 85) a) 10 b)15 !c) 20 d) 25 e)30 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 484 & 413 & 18th/e p. 462 & p. 439 1111. Higher amounts of unsaturated fatty acids are found in (AI 89) !a) Vegetable oil b) Butter c) Milk d) Egg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 table (1) & 18th/ e p. 440 1112. Essential fatty acids are lowest in (Kerala 94) a) Fish liver oil b) Sunflower oil c) Vegetable oils !d) Coconut oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 table (1) & 18th/ e p. 440 1113. Fat content is highest in (AI 98)
81

Beef b) Mutton c) Chicken d) Fish Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 table (23) & 18th/ e p. 456 table (22) 1114. The highest percentage of essential fatty acid is found in (Orissa 99) a) Butter fat (ghee) b) Sunflower seed oil !c) Corn oil d) Ground nut oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 table (2) & 18th/e p. 440 table (2) 1115. Maximum amount of PUFA is in (UPSC 2002) a) Palmitic acid b) Stearic acid c) Oleic acid !d) Linoleic acid Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 & 18th/e p. 440 1116. Which one of the following edible oil yields highest quantity of Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids ? (UPSC 04) a) Coconul oil !b) Corn oil !d) Sunflower oil c) Groundnut oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 table (1) & 18th/ e p. 440 1117. Which one of the following cooking oils contains highest percentage of linoleic acid ? (UPSC 2006, MP 98) !a) Saffloweroil b) Sunflower oil c) Corn oil d) Groundnut oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 table (2) & 18th/ e p.440 1118. The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in ? (AI 07) a) Ground nut oil b) Palm oil c) Margarine !d) Soya bean oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 1119. n-3 PUFA is present in all except (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Mustard oil !b) Corn oil c) Fish oil !d) Groundnut oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 484; Lippincott biochemistry 3rd/e p.360 1120. Highest amount of saturated fatty acid is seen in (AI 08) a) Soyabean oil b) Groundnut oil !c) Palm oil d) Sunflower oil Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482; 18th/e p. 440

!a)

VITAMIN
1121. The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in (AP 85, PGI 86, Kerala 87, UPSC 88) a) Orange

1122.

1123.

1124.

1125.

1126.

1127.

1128.

1129.

b) Lemon !c) Indian gooseberry d) Grapes Ref: Park 19th/e p. 491 table (13) & 18th/ e p. 448 Daily requirement of Vitamin A is (AIIMS 85) a) 400 IU b) 300 IU !c) 2000 IU d) 4000 IU [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 487 table (8) & 18th/e p. 444 table (7)] 600 mcg = 2000 IU Oral vitamin A prophylaxis is given to children even (UPSC 86) a) 2 months !b) 6 months c) 9 months d) One year Ref: Park 19th/e p. 509 table (36) & 18th/ e p. 464 table (35) Dose of oral vitamin A given as prophylaxis is (UPSC 86) a) 66,000 IU b) 10,000 IU !d) 2,00,000 IU c) 1,60,000 IU Ref: Park 19th/e p. 509 table (36) & 18th/ e p. 464 table (35) The daily requirement of Vitamin C is (AP 85) !a) 40 mg. b) 100 mg. c) 200 mg. d) 500 mg. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 491 & 18th/e p. 448 Highest vitamin A content is seen in (UPSC 88) a) Lemon !b) Green leafy vegetables c) Tomato d) Ragi Ref: Park 19th/e p. 485 table (5) & 18th/e p. 442 table (4) In which Indian state is pellagra prevalent (AI 88) a) Kerala !b) Andhra c) Bengal d) Bihar Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489 & 18th/e p. 447 One mg. of Niacin is produced by .......... mg. of Tryptophan (PCI 85, 84) a) 22 b) 37 c) 55 !d) 60 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489 & 18th/e p. 446 Thefeatureof Hypervitaminosis A is (PGI 85) a) Pseudotumour cerebri b) Alopecia c) Anorexia !d) All Ref: Park 19th/e p. 487 & 18th/e p. 444;
82

1130.

1131.

1132.
!

1133.

1134.

1135.

1136.

1137.

Pedia Ghai 5th/e p. 79 The highest concentrations of Vitamin A is seem in (PGI 88) a) Polar bear liver !b) Cod liver oil c) Shark liver oil d) Papaya [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 485 table (5) & 18th/e p. 442 table (4)] Higest cone, is in Halibut liver oil. Which of the following vitamin is not needed in excess of normal daily requirements in pregnancy (PGI 89) !a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D !c) Vitamin B12 !d) Vitamin C Ref: Park 19th/e p. 506 table (32) & 18th/ e p. 461 table (31) Prevalance of Vitamin A deficiency in a community is assessed as (AIIMS 92) a) Bitots spots - 0.5% b) Decreased Serum retinol level - 0.05% c) Corneal Ulcer - 0.01% d) Night blindness - 10% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 486 table (6) & 18th/e p. 443 table (5) 100 gm meat gives ........ mg niac in (JIPMER 81, AMC 92) a) 1.0 b) 2.8 !d) 6.8 c) 4.8 Ref: Still searching A cup of good coffee provides about of Niacin (JIPMER 81, PGI 87) !a) 1 mg b) 2 mg c) 5 mg d) 10 mg Ref: Still searching Vitamin A prophylaxis schedule of new born is ......... mg at birth.(AIIMS 79, PGI 81) !a) 27.5 b) 55 c) 110 d) 165 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 509 table (36) & 18th/ e p. 464 table (35) The occurrence of pellagra is most common in (PGI 81,UPSC 86) a) Teen agers b) Growing children c) Young adults !d) Adults in later life Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489-490 & 18th/e p. 446, 447; Pedia Ghai 5th/e p. 80-81; Harper 25th/ e p. 631; Harmon 15th/e p. 463 Poorest source of vitamin C among following is (AIIMS 80) a) Guava !b) Orange c) Lime d) Cabbage Ref: Park 19th/e p. 491 table (13) & 18th/ e p. 448 table (12)

1138. For every 100 kilocalories, vitamin B, required is (AIIMS 81, AMC 87) !a) 0.05 mg b) 0.5 mg c) 5.0 mg d)1.0 gm [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489 & 18th/e p. 446] It is .5/1000 = .05/100 1139. Niacin is synthesised from (Kerala 94) !a) Tryptophan b) Tyrosine c) Methionine d) Phenylalanine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489 & 18th/e p. 446 1140. Par boiling of paddy helps in retaining (Karn 94) a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin A c) Niacin !d) Thiamine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489 & 18th/e p. 446 1141. Carotene is not found in high amounts in (AIIMS 94) a) Tomato b) Cabbage !c) Potato d) Spinach Ref: Park 19th/e p. 485 table (5) & 18th/e p. 442 table (4) (AI 97) 1141. B2 is present in all except a) Milk b) Meat c) Fish d) Soyabean Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489 t. (12), p. 498 t. (20) for a & 18th/e p. 446 tab (11) p. 454 tab (19) d 1143. Vitamin A (retinol) requirements daily in 6 to 12 months old (Rajasthan 97, AI 92) a) 600 mcg !b) 300 mcg c) 200 mcg d)100 mcg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 487 table (8) & 18th/e p. 444 table (7) 1144. Dose of Vitamin A (I.U) and Vitamin D (I.U) in Dalda is (MAHE 98) a) 1000 & 100 b) 1500 & 125 c) 2000 & 150 !d) 2500 & 175 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 483 & 18th/e p. 441 1145. In South India pellagra is reported in population eating (KARNAT 98) a) Ragi !b) Jowar c) Bajra d) Minor millets Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489 & 18th/e p. 447 1146. As per nutritional surveys, the diet of an average Indian of lower socioeconomic strata is highly deficient in (UPSC 99) !a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin c) Nicotinic acid d) Vitamin C Ref: Park 19th/e p. 488-489 & 18th/e p. 446, 447 1147. The recommended daily requirement of

1148.

1149.

1150.

1151.

1152.

1153.

vitamin A for pregnant woman is (AMC 99) a) 750 meg b) 900 mg c) 1200 meg d) 1500 mg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 487 table (8) & 18th/e p. 444 table (7) The World Health Organization criterion for evidence of a Xerophthalmia problem in the community is (UPSC 2K) a) Night blindness prevalence of more than 1% in 6 months to 6 years age group. b) Prevalence of Bilots spots more than 2% in 6 months to 6 years of age group c) Serum retinol of less than 10 microgram/ 100ml in more than 3% in 6 months to 6 years of age d) Corneal ulcers in more than 0.5% of population of 6 months to 6 years of age group Ref: Park 19th/e p. 486 table (6) & 18th/e p. 443 table (5) On exposure to sunlight which Vitamin is lost (AMC 2K) a) VitaminA b)Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin B6 !d) Vitamin C Ref: Park 19th/e p. 490 & 18th/e p. 448 All are vegetable origin except (UPSC 2002) a) Vit A b) Vit B c) Vrt C !d) Vit B12 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 490 & 18th/e p. 447 Which of the following statements about clinical features of vitamin A is not true (Kerala 04) a) Night blindness occurs due to impaired dark adaptation b) Bitots spot affect palpebral conjunctiva c) Kerotomalacia is a medical emergency d) Keratomalacia is frequently associated with PEM Ref: Park 19th/e p. 486 & 18th/e p. 443 Daily regularmentofVit Ain children is (SGPGI 05) a) 40 !b) 400 c) 1500 d) 5000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 487 table (8) & 18th/ e p. 444 Vit. C content of which of the following is < 5 mg per 100 grams (APPGE 05) !a) Human milk !b) Dates !c) Egg d) Sitaphal [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 491 & 18th/e p. 455] Human milk 3 mg

83

1154.

1155.

1156.

1157.

1158.

1159.

Dates 3 mg Egg No vit. c Sitaphal 37 mg Under National Programme for Prevention of Nutritional Blindness, a child in the age group of 6-11 months is given a mega dose of vitamin A equal to (AIIMS NOV 05) a) 50,000 IU !b) 1 Lakh IU c) 1.5 Lakh IU d) 2 Lakh IU Ref: Park 19th/e p. 509 table (36) & 18th/ e p. 443 For which one of the following has the cytotoxic effect of vitamin on human lymphocytes in vitro at high concentration been reported (UPSC 2006) a) VitaminA b)VitaminD !c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K Ref: Park 19th/e p. 488 & 18th/e p 445 Jowar is Pellogerogeriic due to excess of (PGMCET 01) !a) Leucine b) Lysine c) Tryptophan d) Methionine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 489 Dose of vitamin A prophylaxis given in age group 1-6 years (PGMCET 01) a) 2000iu b) 20000 iu !c) 200000 iu d) 100000 iu Ref: Park 19th/e p. 486 Absorption of vitamin A can be enhanced by giving the child a diet rich in (UPSC 07) !a) Fat b) Protein c) Minerals d) Carbohydrates [Ref: O.P. Ghai 6th/e p. 120] Note : Retinal and carotene are fat, soluble. Match List-1 with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list (UPSC 07) List I List II (State) (Retional as vitamin) A. Pregnancy 1.600 meg B. Lactation 2.950 meg C. Infant 3.350 meg D. Children (1 -6 years age) 4.400 meg Code: a) A B C D 1 3 2 4 b) A B C D 4 2 3 1 c) A B C D 4 3 2 1 !d) A B C D

1160.

1161.

1162.

1163.

1 2 3 4 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 487; 18th/e p. 444 The earliest clinical sign of Vitamin A deficiency is (Comed 08) !a) Conjunctival xerosis b) Corneal xerosis c) Bitots spots d) Keratomalacia Ref: Park 19th/e p. 485 Thiamine deficiency is seen in all except (Aiims May 07) a) Chronic diarrhoea b) Chronic alcoholism c) Homocystinemia d) Food faddist Ref: CMDT 2007, p 1298; Harison 16th/e p. 403-404; Park 19th/e p.488; Harper 26th/ e p.492 Richest source of vitamin D is (Aiims May 07) a) Milk b) Egg !d) Fish oil c) Green leafy vegetables Ref: Park 19th/e p. 487 Folic acid supplementation during lactation period is (UP 07) a) 100 (g/d !b) 150 (g/d c) 400 (g/d d) 450 (g/d Ref: Park 19th/e p. 490

PROTEIN
1164. The percentage of calories to be supplied by proteins is (PGI 87) a) 5-10% b)10-15% !c) 15-20% d) More than 20% [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 481 & 503 & 18th/ e p.439 & 462] In Indian diet proteins constitute 7-15% According to WHO proteins constitute 15-20% 1165. Highest amount of protein is seen in (AP 85, PGI 86, Kerala 87, UPSC 88) ! a) Soyabeans b) Groundnut c) Bengal gram d) Mysore dhal Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 & 18th/e p. 454 1166. Daily requirement of protein is (Jipmer 86, AI 88) !a) 1 g/kg. b) 2 g/kg c) 3 g/kg d) 4 g/kg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 & 18th/e p. 440
84

1167. The reference protein is (UPSC 85, 86, Jipmer 88, 86, ALLHPH 01) a) Cows milk ! b) Hens Egg c) Meat d) Fish Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 & 18th/e p. 456 1168. Maize is deficient in (PGI 86) !a) Lysine b) Leucine c) Phenylalanine !d) Tryptophan Ref: Park 19th/e p. 497 & 18th/e p. 453 1169. Semi essential amino acids are (PGI 85) !a) Arginine b) Lysine c) Leucine !d) Histidine Ref: Harper 25th/e p. 307, table (30.1) 1170. ICMR recommendation for protein intake for 13-15 year old girl is (TN 86) a) 0.5 g/kg b) 0.95 g/kg !c) 1.3 g/kg d) 1.85 g/kg Ref: Park 19th/e p. 504 table (29) & 18th/ e p. 444 table (8) 1171. Limiting amino acid in soyabean is (PGI 7 8, AIIMS 85, ALLHPH 01) a) Threonine b) Lysine !c) Methionsne d) Tryptophan Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 & 18th/e p. 454 172. One of the following is biologically complete (JIPMER 81, PGI 86) a) Groundnut b) Wheat c) Soyabean !d)Milk [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 & 18th/e p. 439] Other is egg. 1173. Protein requirement of 4 kg new born (daily) (AIIHPH 98) a) 3 gm b) 7 gm !c) 9 gm d) 11 gm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 504 table (29) & 18th/ e p. 460 table (28) 1174. Best quality proteins are found in highest quantities in (UPSC 85) !a) Rice b) Wheat c) Ragi d) Bajra Ref: Park 19th/e p. 496 & 18th/e p. 452 1175. The biological value of proteins in soyabean is (PGI 83) !a) 40% b) 50% c) 58% d) 64% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 table (20) & 18th/ e p. 454 table (19) 1176. Protein content is highest per 100 g in (Sl. Johns 03)

1177.

1178.

1179.

1180.

a) Ground nut b) Milk c) Hens egg !d) Meat Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 table (23) & 18th/e p. 456 table (22) In Khesri dal poisoing due to Lathyrus sativus, the active principal is (SGPGI 05) a) Pyrrazolidine !b) BOAA c) Argmoncoil d) Pilocarpinc Ref: Park 19th/e p. 512 & 18th/e p. 467 What percentage of khesri daal in diet causes lathyrism in 2-6 months (COMED 2006) a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% !d) More than 30% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 512 & 18th/e p.467 Protein quality assessment is best done by (PGMCET 07, Kerala 94) !a) NPU b) Biological value c) Digestibillity coefficient d) Amino acid score Ref: Park 19th/e p. 482 How is the protein Energy Ratio (PER) in expressed as (UPSC 07) a)

Energy in diet Energy in diet % 100 %100 b) Total Protein in ! diet energy in diet

c)

Total protein in diet % 100 Total energy in diet Total energy consumed %100 Total protein consumed

d)

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 503 1181. What is the percent of total energy ratio supplied by fish protein (PE % Kcal) (UPSC 07) !a) 20 b) 40 c) 60 d) 80 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 503 1182. Among the pulses, the highest quantity of protest is present in (Comed 08) a) Green gram b) Red gram !c) Soyabean d) Black gram Ref: Park 19th/e p. 498 1183. Limiting amino acids in wheat are (MAHE 07, 05, PGI 86) a) Methionine and lysine ! b) Lysine and threonine c) Threonine and methionine
85

1184.

1185.

1186.

1187.

1188.

1189.

1190.

1191.

d) Argininte and lysine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 497 Which of the following is least in protein quality? (APPG 08) !a) Gelatin b) Lactalbumin c) Albumin d) Cashewnut protein Ref: Satyanarayan 2nd/e p. 68, 69 One litre of cows milk provides .......... mg. of calcium (AIIMS 85) a) 100 b) 600 c) 800 d) 1000 !e) 1200 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 table (22) & 18th/ e p. 455 table (21) One ounce of fresh cows milk yields about (JIPMER 93) a) 20 K cal b) 40 K cal !c) 67 K cal d) 90 K cal Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 table (22) & 18th/ e p. 455 table (21) The risk of bacterial contamination is least with (PGI 81, AMU 86) !b) Butter milk a) Icecream c) Skimmed milk d) All of these Ref: Still searching Percentage of protein in breast milk is (AIIMS 79, PGI 89) !a) 1-2 gm% (3) b) 2-4 gm% c) 4-5 gm% d) 5-7 gm% e) 0.5-1.0 gm% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 table (22) & 18th/ e p. 455 table (21) Pasteurization kills all except (JIPMER 80, UPSC 84, 91) a) Sore throat causing bacilli b) Bacillary dysentery organisms !c) Staphylococcus exotoxin d) Brucellosis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 522 & 18th/e p.477; Ananthnarayan 6th/e p. 25 Milk is deficient in (KERALA 94) a) Ca b) Vit A c) Vit D !d) Fe Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 table (22) & 18th/ e p.455 table (21) Methylene blue reduction test is done for estimating (KARN 94, UPSC 88) a) Fat content of milk b) Sugar content of milk c) Protein content of milk !d) Bacterial activity in milk
86

1192.

1193.

1194.

1195.

1196.

1197.

1198.

1199.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 522 & 18th/e p. 477 A baby fed on cows milk only, is likely to develop (Karn 94) a) Beri-Beri b) Rickets c) Night blindness !d) Scurvy [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 table (22) & 18th/ e p.455] Milk is a good source of all vit. except vit.C Pasteru isation of milk does not kills (Rajasihan 97, TN 90) !a) Anthrax b) Brucella c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis d) Streptococcus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 522 & 18th/e p. 477; Ananthnarayan 6th/e p. 25 Pasteurization is .............. disinfection (Orissa 05) !a) Precurrent b) Concurrent c) Preconcurrent d) Terminal Ref: Park 19th/e p. 108 & 18th/e p. 106 The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of mild except(AI 05, UPSC 07, Jipmer 03) a) Phosphatase test b) Standard plate count c) Coliform count !d) Methylene blue reduction test Ref: Park 19th/e p. 522 Cows milk contains what % proteins (Orissa 05) a) 1.1 !b) 3.2 c) 3.5 d) 4.1 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 table (22) & 18th/ e p. 455 Which one of the following nutrient is more in the human milk as compared to cows milk (UPSC 06) a) Protein b) Calcium !c) Cabohydrate d) Fat Ref: Park 19th/e p. 430 table (6) & 18th/ e p.398 table (6) In which one of the following is the calcium content of milk lowest (UPSC 2006) !a) Human milk b) Goat milk c) Cow milk d) Buffalo milk Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 table (22) & 18th/ e p.455 Compared with cows milk, mothers milk has more (AI 07, Delhi 96) !a) Lactose b) Vitamin D c) Proteins d) Fat

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 1200. Milk is a poor source of which of the following ? (UPSC-II 08) a) Essential fatty acids b) Iron ! c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin A Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 1201. Among the following milk sources, which one is the correct sequence with decreasing fat content (UPSC-II 08) a) Buffalo, Cow, Goat, Human ! b) Buffalo, Goat, Cow, Human c) Buffalo, Human, Cow, Goat d) Buffalo, Goat, Human, Cow Ref: Park 19th/e p. 499 1202. Which one of the following tests is not used for checking quality of pasteurization of milk ? (UPSC-II 08) a) Phosphatase test b) Standard plate count c) Coliform count ! d) Orthotoludine test Ref: Park 19th/e p. 522

EGG
1203. Egg yields about ........ K cal of energy (UPSC 97) a) 50 b) 60 !c) 70 d) 80 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 & 18th/e p. 456 1204. Egg has all vitamins except (PGI 83) a) BI b) B6 !c) C d) E Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 & 18th/e p. 456 1205. Egg lacks the following (APPGE 05) a) Protein b) Cholesterol !c) Carbohydrate d) Vitamins Ref: Park 19th/e p. 500 & 18th/e p. 456

SOCIAL SCIENCE & GENERAL

1206. What is the definition of society (AI 89) ! a) System of social relationship between individuals b) Social relationship between families c) Interaction of individuals and people d) Relationship of individual family and the country Ref: Park 19th/e p. 436 & 18th/e p.490 1207. Nuclear family consists of (TN 91)
87

a) Husband, wife and son ! b) Husband ,wife and dependent children c) Husband and wife only d) Father mother husband and wife Ref: Park 19th/e p. 547 & 18th/e p.502 1208. Social Mobility is (UPSC 88; ESI 89) a) From rural to urban areas for work b) Industrialization c) Interaction between cultures ! d) Movement in socio-economic stratas Ref: Park 19th/e p. 553 & 18th/e p.506 1209. Acculturation means (PGI 79, UPSC 86) ! a) Culture contact b) Study of the various cultures c) Cultural history of health and disease d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 537 & 18th/e p. 491 1210. In a social group a social act which is considered natural and right is referred to as (UPSC 96) a) Taboo b) Ritual !c) Custom d) Tradition Ref: Park 19th/e p. 537 & 18th/e p. 491 1211. Behavioural sciences are all except (AIIMS 98) a) Sociology b) Psychology !c) Political science d) Anthropology Ref: Park 19th/e p. 535-536 & 18th/e p. 489, 490 1212. Kuppuswamy socioeconomic index does not include (AIIMS 99) a) Education !b) Structure of house c) Occupation d) Income Ref: Park 19th/e p. 554 & 18th/e p. 508 1213. Which among the following sciences is most used in community medicine (All India 2K) a) Economics b) Politics !c) Anthropology d) Psychology Ref: Park 19th/e p. 536 & 18th/e p. 490 1214. Which is needed for daily living according to WHO (CIP 2001) a) Emotional skill b) Interpersonal skills c) Social skills ! d) Academic skills Ref: Still searching 1215. The poverty line limit for rural areas is the purchasing capacity for a daily intake of 2400 calories per person. Which one of the following calorie limits is for urban areas? (UPSC 02)

1216.

1217.

1218.

1219.
!

1220.

1221.

1222.

a) 1900 !b) 2100 c) 2400 d) 2800 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 563 & 18th/e p. 517 The following is true about the terms New families a) It is a variant of the 3-generation family b) It is applied to all nuclear families of less than 10 years duration c) It is a variant of the joint family d) It is applied to all nuclear families of less than 10 years duration Ref: Park 19th/e p. 548 & 18th/e p. 502 Acquisition of skills is knows as (UPSC 04) a) Cognitive learning by knowledge b) Affective learning by attitudes c) Psychomotor learning by skills d) Learning by conditioned reflex Ref: Park 19th/e p. 542 & 18th/e p. 496 The Children Act, 1960 (Amended 1977) provides for care, maintenance, welfare, training, education and rehabilitation of (UPSC 2006) a) Physically handicapped children b) Delinquent children c) Children below 6 years of age d) Malnourished children needing nutrition and preschool services Ref: Park 19th/e p. 469 & 18th/e p.430, 432 Thanatology is the science which deals with (HP 2006) a) Death in its aspects b) Identification of the living c) Solving paternity of the child d) Detection of life Note: Also know fear of death ! thenatophobias Inventory of material means which one of the following (UPSC-II 08) a) List of items procured b) Stock distrubuted during a period c) The quantum of material ordered for d) Stock on hand at any given time Ref: Shakti Gupta, Hospital stores Management p. 61 In poverty lines the expenditure required for a daily calorie intake of ........ in rura areas (UP 08) a) 2200 !b) 2400 c) 2100 d) 2300 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 563 Process by which an individual gradually
88

aquires cultureand becomes a member of a social group is called ? (APPG 08) !a) Socialization b) Accultration c) Socialism d) Custom Ref: Park 19th/e p. 537

ENVIRONMENT & HEALTH GENERAL

1223. Prolonged exposure to noise levels greater than the following can impair hearing permanently (Karnat 96) a) 40 decibels b) 85 decibels !c) 100 decibels d) 140 decibels Ref: S.P.M. Park 19th/e p. 599 & 18th/ e p. 551 1224. Which of the following are zoonotic desease (PGI 85) !a) Anthrax b) Typhiod c) Tetanus !d) Leptospirosis Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 642 table (1) & 18th/e p. 593 table (1) 1225. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease (AI 95) !a) Hydatid cyst b) Malaria c) Filariasis d) Dengue fever [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 642 table (1) & 18th/ep. 593 table (1)] Echinococcosis = Hydatid cyst 1226. Which of the following are zoonosis (PGI 88) !a) Rabies !b) Japaness-B encephalitis c) Measles !d) KFD !e) Plague Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 6421. (1) & 240 for KFD & 18th/e p. 593 t. and p. 216 for KFD 1227. Which is not a zoonotic disease (AI 89) a) Rabies b) Q fever c) Anthrax d) Brucellosis Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 642 table (1) & 18th/e p. 593 table (1) 1228. Anthro zoonosis are all except (AI 95) !a) Guinea worm infestation b) Rabies c) Plague d) Hydatid cyst Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 642 table (1) & 18th/e p. 593 table 1, p.216 1229. Which is not a zoonotic diseage (U.P. 96) !a) Giardia b) Leptospirosis c) Brucellosis d) Rabies Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 642 table (I) &

1230.

1231.

1232.

1233.
! ! !

1234.

1235.

1236.

1237.

18th/e p. 593 table (1) Following are zoonoses except (CMC 98) a) Leptospirosis b) Brucellosis c) Anthrax d) Plague !e) Chrotnoblastomycosis Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 642 table (1) & 18th/e p. 593 table (1) The following are zoonotic disease except (UP 97) a) Rabies !b) Scabies c) Leptospirosis d) Brucellosis Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 642 table (1) & 18th/e p. 593 table (1) All are zoonoses except (JIPMER 99) !a) Typhoid b) Brucellosis c) Q fever d) Rocky mountain spotted fever Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 642 table (1) & 18th/e p. 593 table (1) & p. 239 Strength of sewage is expressed terms of (Jipmer 85) a) Biological oxygen demand b) Chemical oxygen demand c) Suspended solids d) E. coli count Ref: Park 19th/e p. 618 & 18th/e p. 569 Kata Thermometer is used to measure (UPSC 86) a) Maximum temperature b) Minimum temperature c) Radiant heat d) Cooling power of air Ref: Park 19th/e p. 603 & 18th/e p. 555 The maximum permissible level of occupational exposure to radiation is ....... per year (AIIMS 85) !a) 5 rad. b) 2 rad. c) 10 rad. d) 50 rad. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 601 & 18th/e p. 553 The best indicators of level of air pollution is (AIIMS 88) a)H2 b) CO2 c) N2 !d) SO2 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 593 & 18th/e p. 546 Tlie size of sand particles in slow filter is (PGI 84) !a) 0.15-0.35 mm b) 0.36-0.45 mm c) 0.48-0.59 mm d) 0.61-0.79 mm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 table (3) & 18th/e p. 527 table (3)
89

1238. The size of sand particles in rapid filters is (PGI 84) a) 0.6-2.0 mm b) 2.5-3.0 mm c) 4.0-5.2 mm d) 5.4-6.0 mm [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 table (3) & 18th/e p. 527 table (3)] Exact size is .4 mm and .7 mm 1239. Air pollution may cause (Kerala 90) a) Dermatitis !b) Carcinoma bronchus c) Bronchiectasis d) Pneumonia Ref: Park 19th/e p. 594 table (3) & 18th/e p. 547 table (3) 1240. Soiling index is an indicator of (JIPMER 92) !a) Air pollution b) Water pollution c) Fecal pollution d) Sand pollution Ref: Park 19th/e p. 593 & 18th/e p.546 1241. Pit latrine has depth of ......... feet. (UPSC 87, AMC 92) a) 24 b) 4-6 !d) 10-12 c) 6-10 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 613 & 18th/e p.565 1242. Organism not indicative of faecal pollution is (Jipmer 93) a) E.coli b) Streptococcus c) Cl. Perfringens !d) Staphylococcus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 580 & 18th/e p. 532, 533 & 534 1243. Exposure to noise above- causes permanent hearing loss (Jipmer 93) a) 90 dB b) 100 dB c) 125 dB !d) 160 dB Ref: Park 19th/e p.598 fig (1) & 18th/e p. 551 1244. Accepted depth of water in water- seal latrine should not be more than ......... cm. (Delhi 88, AMC 92) !a) 2.5 b) 4.0 c) 5.0 d) 7.5 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 614 & 18th/e p. 565] Exact depth is 2 cm 1245. The cause of discomfort in an overcrowded poorly ventilated room are all except (Jipmer 81, UPSC 93) a) Increase in temperature b) Increase in humidity ! c) Increase in CO2 d) Decrease in air change Ref: Park 19th/e p. 590 & 18th/e p. 542 1246. CO2 content of air is measured by (AIIMS 79, TN 93) !a) Pattern kopfers test

1247.

1248.

1249.

1250.

1251.

1252.

1253.

b) Horrocks test c) Both of these d) None of these Ref: Still searching Auditory fatigue occurs at ....... Hz. (AIIMS 80, DNB 91) a) 2000 b) 3000 !c) 4000 d) 8000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 599 & 18th/e p. 551 For satisfactory vision the minimum illumination accepted is (AIIMS 80, AMC 84) !a) 15 to 20 foot candles b) 30 to 40 candles c) 40 to 50 candles d) 70 to 90 candles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 596 & 18th/e p. 549 It is recommended that in living rooms, the daylight factor should be at least (PGI 80, AMC 88) a) 1% b)2% c) 3% d)4% [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 597 & 18th/e p. 550] Correct answer is 8 % Recommended reflection factors include each of the following, except (AIIMS 81, AMC 83) a) Ceilings 80% !b) Roofs 40% c) Walls 50 to 60% d) Furnitures 30 to 40% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 597 & 18th/e p. 549 A type of tertiary waste water treatment process is (Jipmer 81, UPSC 83) a) Reverse osmosis b) Sedimentation c) Both !d) Neither Ref: Park 19th/e p. 620 & 18th/e p. 572 A common calcultaion used in assessing the effect of wastes on the quality of the water being tested is (PGI 79, UPSC 83) a) Entrophication b) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) c) Both d) Neither Ref: Park 19th/e p. 618 & 18th/e p. 569 Light requirement in watch manufacturing company is (PGI 80, AMC 85, 86) !a) 2000-3000 Lux b) 5000-10000 Lux c) 10000-20000 Lux d) 50000 Lux Ref: Park 19th/e p. 598 table (2) & 18th/e p. 519 table (2)
90

1254. The disposal of night soil and refuse is by (UPSCI 87, AMC 198Y, 88) a) Chemical sterilization b) Burning ! c) Composting d) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 610 & 18th/e p. 562 1255. In slaughter houses, best to dispose refuses is (UPSC 83; AMC 87) !a) Incineration b) Selling c) Composting d) Dumping Ref: Park 17th/e p. 530; Ananthnarayan 6th/ e p. 24 1256. A rutpure of ear drum may actually occur at a decibel level above (AIIMS 80, UPSC 87) a) 40 b)80 c) 120 !d)160 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 598 fig (1) & 18th/ e p. 551 1257. An inexpensive and efficient method of sewage disposal for a small community is (UPSC 96) !b) Oxidation pond a) River outfall c) Trickling filter d) Activated sludge Ref: Park 19th/e p. 620 & 18th/e p. 573 1258. Corrected effective temperature is labelled as comfortable if it is (in degree F) (UPSC 96) a) Between 70 and 76 !b) Between 77 and 80 c) Between 81 and 82 d) Above 83 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 591 & 18th/e p. 543 1259. The electrostatic precipitator are used in the prevention of (Karn 95) a) Radiation risks ! b) Air pollution emissions c) Mosquito nuisance d) Diffuse vibrations Ref: Still searching 1260. The acceptable level for physical comfort is (Karn 95) a) Ambient temperature of 36F ! b) Corrected effective temperature upto 80F c) Effective temperature upto 120F d) Ambient temperature of 40F Ref: Park 19th/e p. 591 & 18th/e p. 543 1261. The heart to the activated sludge process is (Karnat 96) a) Primary sedimentation tank b) Sludge digester ! c) Aeration tank

1262.

1263.

1264.

1265.

1266.

1267.

1268.

1269.

1270.

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d) Final settling tank Ref: Park 19th/e p. 619 & 18th/e p. 571 The following are the best indicators of the level of air pollution except (UP 97) a) Sulphur dioxide b) Smoke index !c) Carbon monoxided) Suspended particles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 593 & 18th/e p. 546 Not a primary air pollutant (Chandigarh Dec 96) a) Smoke and dust b) SO2 c) NO2 !d) Ozone Ref: Park 19th/e p. 594 table (3) & 18th/e p. 547 table (3) World "No tobacco" day is (Kerala 97) !a) May 31st b) April 5th c) December 11th d) November 14th Ref: No needs of reference DM F index relates to well being (Kerala 97) !a) Dental b) Mental c) Physical d) None Ref: Still searching Trickling filter is used for (AIIMS 97) a) Primary treatment !b) Secondary treatment c) Refuse disposal d) Sewage effluent Ref: Park 19th/e p. 619 & 18th/e p. 570, 571 Centre of air pollution control by WHO (AIPHP 98) a) Hyderabad b) Bombay !c) Nagpur d) Kanpur Ref: Park 19th/e p. 594 & 18th/e p. 546 Not a constituent of air (AIIPHP 98) !a)H2 b) N2 c) O2 d)CO2 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 589-590 & 18th/e p. 542 Septic tank decomposition is by (AIIHPH 98) a) Anaerobic b) Aerobic !c) Both d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 615 & 18th/e p. 567 Oxidation pond is used in ........ treatment !a) Sewage b) Effluent c) Night soil d) Sullage Ref: Park 19th/e p. 620 & 18th/e p. 572 Wind velocity is normally recorded at a height of (AIIHPH 98) a) 1 mt. !b) 10 mts. c) 15 mts. d) 20 mts. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 605 & 18th/e p. 558 To feel comfortable and cool in a factory the
91

1273.

1274.

1275.
!

1276.

1277.

1278.

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corrected effective temperature (in degree Farenheit) should be (UPSC 99) a) Less than 69 !b) Between 69 and 76 c) Between 77 and 80 d) Between 81 and 82 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 591 & 18th/e p. 543 Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water (Jipmer 2K) !a) Copper sulphate b) Potassium permanganate c) Hypochlorite d) Bleaching powder Ref: Still searching Soakage Pit is used for hygenic disposal of (Karnat 99) a) Garbage b) Rubbish c) Sewage !d) Sullage Ref: Still searching Aerobic digestion of sludge takes place in (UPSC 2K) a) Trickling filter b) Broad irrigation c) Activated sludge d) Septic tank Ref: Park 19th/e p. 619 & 18th/e p. 571 If land is available the best method of sewage disposal is (AMC 2K) a) Dumping !b) Composting c) Trickling filter d) Activated sludge process Ref: Park 19th/e p. 610 & 18th/e p. 562 Biological oxygen demand is calculated to know ........ wastes (AMC 2K) !a) Organic b) Inorganic c) Total solid d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 618 & 18th/e p. 569 Floor space of 2 persons (AIIHPH 2K) a) 70-90 sq.ft b) 90-100 sq.ft c) 50-70 sq.ft !d) 110-120 sq.ft Ref: Park 19th/e p. 608 & 18th/e p. 560 During disposal of wastes cadmium containing bags are not sent to incinerator because of release if toxins on incineration. Colour of plastic bags (AIIMS 2001) a) Yellow b) Red c) Black !d) Blue [Ref: Still searching] As It is not incinerated The air- quality standards proposed by the

1281.

1282.

1283.

1284.

1285.
!

1286.

Indian Central Pollution Control Board are based on limits of concentration of (UPSC 2002) a) Suspended particulate matter and sulphur dioxide b) Suspended particulate matter sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen c) Suspended particulate matter sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen and oxidants d) Suspended particulate matter sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen and carbon monoxide Ref: Park 19th/e p. 594 & 18th/e p. 546 Venturi meter is used for (UPSC 2002) a) Measuring amount required for chlorination b) Measuring air velocity c) Measuring bed strength in slow sand filter d) Measuring dissolving capacity of gas Ref: Park 19th/e p. 573 & 18th/e p. 526 Sullage is (AIIHPH 2001) a) Liquid excreta b) By product of chemical industry c) Waste water from kitchen d) Waste water from an industry Ref: Park 19th/e p. 617 & 18th/e p. 569 Not safe disposal but good for soil building (Manipal 04) a) Incineration b) Controlled tipping !c) Composting d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 610 & 18th/e p. 562 An hour sweat rate should be MCARDLEs maximum allowable sweat rate (Jipmer 04) a)3.5 ltr b) 21 ltrs c) 2.5 ltrs !d) 4.5 ltrs Ref: Park 19th/e p. 591 & 18th/e p. 543 The following statements are true for bleaching powder, except (SGPGI 05) a) Its action is slow and long acting b) A fresh sample contains 33% of available chloral c) A strenghth of 1.3% will kill most organisms d) It is used for disinfection effaces Ref: Park 19th/e p. 109, 576 & 18th/e p. 107, 529 Which of the following is not true regarding bleaching powder (SGPGI 05) a) Contact period is one hour b) Volume of water is estimated c) Immediatly dissolved in water
92

1287.

1288.

1289.

1290.

1391.
!

1292.
!

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d) Chlorine demand is estimated Ref: Park 19th/e p. 577 & 18th/e p. 530 Effect of environment on genes is called (Orasa 05) a) Positive Eugenics b) Negative Eugenics !c) Euthenics d) Enthenics Ref: Park 19th/e p. 681 & 18th/e p. 629 What is the basic minimum illumination required for satisfactory vision ? (UPSC 2006) !a) 10-15 foot candles b) 15-20 foot candles c) 20-25 foot candles d) 25-30 foot candles Ref: Park 19th/e p. 597 & 18th/e p 549 The maximum ozone concentration in polluted atmosphere is dependent on the concentration and ratio of nitrogen oxides and which one of the following (UPSC 2006) a) Carbon monoxide b) Lead !c) Volate organic compounds d) Sulphur dioxide Ref: Park 18th/e p 545 Cytotoxic drugs and medicines which are discarded are disposed in (PGMCET 01) !a) Black bag b) Red bag c) Yellow bag d) Blue container Ref: Park 19th/e p. 648, 649 Exposure to 90 db AND 4000 Hz noise results in (UPSC 07) a) Auditory fatigue b) Temporary hearing loss c) Permanent hearing loss d) Rupture of tympanic membrane Ref: Park 19th/e p. 599; 18th/e p. 551 Which one of the following is the category 1 of biomedical waste in India (UPSC 07) a) Human anatomical waste b) Microbiological and biotechnological waste c) Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs d) Animal waste Ref: Park 19th/e p. 648 The limit of loudness expressed as decibels that people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing is (Comed 08, Jipmer 92) a) 55 b) 65 c) 75 !d) 85 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 599

1294. Sling psychrometer is used for measuring (Comed 08) a) Air velocity b) Rain fall c) Median radiant temperature ! d) Relative humidity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 605 1295. All can be incinerated except (AI 07) a) Cytotoxic waste !b) Sharps c) Anatomical waste d) Infectious waste Ref: Park 19th/e p. 648 1296. In Indoor air pollution, carbon monoxide is produced by (UP 07) a) Combustion equipment b) Stove c) Gas heaters !d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 592 1297. Among the following, which of the following is/are the greatest contributor/contributors to global warming as a consequence of human activities and life style ? (UPSC-I 08) !a) Carbon dioxide b) Chlorofluorocarbons c) Methane d) Ozone Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/globaljwarming 1298. What is the main constituent gas in CNG ? (UPSC-I 08) a) Acetylene b) Butane c) Ethane !d) Methane Ref: http:/en.wikipedia.-org/wiki/naturalgas 1299. Other than nitrogen and oxygen, which one of the following is the next most abundant gas in the dry air of lower atmosphere? (UPSC-I 08) a) Argon !b) Carbon dioxide c) Helium d) Hydrogen Ref: en.wikepedia.org/wiki/earth_atmorpher 1300. A mixture of rain and snow is called (UPSC-I 08) a) Glaze b) Frost c) Shower !d) Sleet Ref: en.wikepedia.org 1301. Which one of the following is the standard prescribed for setback (open space around the house) in rural areas ? (UPSC-II 08) ! a) Built up area 1 /3 and open space 2/3 b) Built up area 2/5 and open space 3/5 c) Built up area and open space
93

d) Built up area 1/4 and open space Ref: Park 19th/e p. 607 1302. Psychrometer is used to measure (AI 08) !a) Humidity b) Air velocity c) Room temperature d) Radiant temperature Ref: Stedmans Medical Dictionary 28th/e p. 1599; Park 19th/e p. 605; 18th/e p. 557 1303. Black colour code is used in four colour code system of triage management in disaster for (DPGEE 08) a) Ambulatory patients b) Low priority patients ! c) Dead patients d) High priority patients Ref: Park 19th/e p. 651 1304. The acceptable noise level is (DPGEE 08) a) 95 dB b) 100 dB !d) 85 dB c) 90 dB Ref: Park 19th/e p. 598

RADIATION
1305. The source of radiation that causes heat cataract, is (PGI 80, AIIMS 92) a) Ultraviolet radiation ! b) Infrared radiation c) Ionizing radiation d) Rodiofrequency waves Ref: Still searching 1306. Thickness of lead apron to prevent radiation (Jipmer 95) a) 1 mm b) 3 mm !c) 0.5 mm d) 7 mm Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 601 & 18th/e p. 553 1307. Radiation protection shields are made up of a) Copper b) Silver !c) Lead d) Tin Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 601 & 18th/e p. 553 1308. Curie is the unit for (AIIMS 78, 80 Delhi 93) a) Radiation emitted b) Radiation absorbed !c) Radiaoactivity d) All of the above Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 601 & 18th/e p. 553 1309. Unit of one of radiation absorbed is !a) Grey b) Roengten c) Curie d) Bequerrel Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 601 & 18th/e p. 553 1310. One gray of radiation is equal to (Orissa 99) a) 1 rad b) 10 rad !c) 100 rad d) 1000 rad Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 601 & 18th/e p. 553

1311. Which of the following is a naturally occurring radioactive substance in the body in small quantities? (JIPMER 02) a) Radium 226 b) Bismuth 60 c) Iodine 131 !d) Potassium 40 Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 600 table (1) & 18th/e p. 552 table (1) 1312. Maximum terrestrial radiation is seen in (Orissa 04) a) Assam !b) Kerala c) Orissa d) Karnataka Ref: Park 19th/e p. 600 & 18th/e p. 552 1313. The source of endogenous radiation is (APPGE 05) a) Rado !b) Potassium !c) Thorium !d) Uranium Ref: Park 19th/e p. 600 & 18th/e p. 552 1314. What is the approximate penetrating ability of alpha particle radiation at tissue level (UPSC 07) !a) 0.05 mm b) 0.10 mm c) 1.50 mm d) 2.00 mm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 600; 18th/e p. 553 1315. Which of the following kinds of radiations is/ are emitted by Uranium - 238 ? (UPSC-I 08) ! a) Alpha rays only b) Alpha and Beta rays only c) Gamma rays only d) Alpha, Beta andGamma rays Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/uranium

1319.

1320.

1321.

1322.

1323.

WATER
1316. The following diseases are carried by infective agents in water except (BHU 86, AIIMS 87) a) Cholera b) Viral hepatitis c) Weils disease d) Guinea worm Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 571 table A & 18th/ e p. 524 1317. Allare water borne disease except (Kerala 94) a) Ascariasis !b) Ankylostomiasis c) Dracunculosis d) Trichuriasis Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 571 table A & 18th/ e p. 524 1318. Residulal chlorine in chlorination of water should be (JIPMER 88) a) 1 mg/lit. after 1 hr. b) 1 mg/lit. after 1/2 hr. !c) 0.5 mg/lit. after 1 hr. d)0.5 mg/lit. after 1/2 hr.
94

1324.

1325.

1326.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 & 18th/e p. 528 A drinking water well must be ......... feet away from a source of contamination (UPSC 86) a) 25 !b) 50 c) 75 d) 100 e) 150 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 570 & 18th/e p. 523 Safe limit of fluorine in drinking water is mg/tit. (UPSC 87, PGI 86) a) 0.5 to 0.8 b) 0.1 to 0.3 c) 1 !d)1.5 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 583 table (6) & 18th/e p. 535 table (6) In fresh bleaching powder the chlorine availability is (AI 89) a) 20% b) 30% !c) 33% d) 40% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 576 & 18th/e p. 529 Pollution of water is indicated by all except (BHU 88) !b) Fluoride a) Chloride c) Nitrate d) Nitrite [Ref: no need for Ref:] Fluoride within normal range is essential Contact period for chlorination of water is (PGI 86) a) 15 minutes b) 1/2 hour !c) 1 hour d) 2 hours Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 & 18th/e p. 528 The prescribed chloride content of drinking water should be below (PGI 86) a) 100 mg/lit. b) 200 mg/lit. c) 300 mg/lit. !d) 500 mg/lit. [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 579 & 18th/e p. 531] The standard prescribed for chlorid is 200 mg/litre, but the maximum permissible limit is 600 mg/L In orthotoludine test are correct except (TN 90) a) Free chlorine is estimated b) 0.1 ml of reagent is used for 1 ml of water c) Yellow colour d) Read in TO seconds Ref: Park 19th/e p. 576 & 18th/e p. 528 Sodium permutit is used for (JIPMER 90) a) Disinfection of water b) Sterilisation of water c) Removal of hardness of water d) Testing residual chlorine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 586 & 18th/e p. 539

1327. Normal Flouride level in water is (AIIMS 91) a) 0.1 mg/lit. b) 0.2 mg/lit. !c) 0.5 mg/lit. d) 1 mg/lit. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 582 & 18th/e p. 534 1328. Following are true regarding chlorination except (AI 93) a) Residual chlorine is 0.5 mg/lit. ! b) Contact period - 30 minute c) Water should not be turbid d) Chlorine demand should be estimated Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 & 18th/e p. 528 1329. A chloride level of .......... Is accectable by WHO (JIPMER 93) a) 0.1 mcg/L b) 0.5 mg/L c) 10 mg/L !d) 200 mg/L Ref: Park 19th/e p. 579 & 18th/e p. 531 1330. True about purity of deep well water is all except (Bihar 92, UPSC 93) a) Chloride - 200 meq/1 b) Ammonia - 0.05 meq/1 c) Nitrites-0.01 meq/1 d) Albuminoid ammonia Ref: Park 19th/e p. 580 table (4), p. 583 table (6) & 18th/e p. 533 table (4) p. 535 table (6) 1331. Nitrate level in water should not be more than .......... mg/L (JIPMER 81, AMC 92} a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 2.0 d) 4.0 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 583 table (6) & 18th/ e p.535 table (6) 1332. Presumptive count includes (PGI 81, UPSC 91, 92) a) No E. Coli ! b) Coliform but not only E. Coli c) Gram negative bacilli d) Any bacteria Ref: Park 19th/e p. 585 & 18th/e p. 537 1333. A water sample is said to be moderately hard when hardness producing ion is about (PGI 80, AIIMS 83) a) 50 ppm !b) 50-150 ppm c) 150-300 ppm d) 300 ppm e) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 586 table (9) & 18th/ e p. 538 1334. Water is considered potable if there is (PGI 81, AMC 85, 89) ! a) No Esch. coli per 100 ml of water b) One Esch. coli per 100 ml water c) Ten Esch. coli per 100 ml water
95

d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 5811. (5) & 18th/e p. 533, 532 t. (5) 1335. In an epidemic of bacilliary dysentry residual chlorine in ppm should be (AIIMS 81, UPSC 90, Jipmer 88) a) 0.1 !b) 0.5 c) 0.8 d) 1.0 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 & 18th/e p. 528 1336. The amount of good quality bleaching powder poser required for chlorinating a round well measuring 4 mtrs diameter and depth of water column 6 nits, to get PPM of residual chlorine when the Horroks test gives definite blue colour in the 3rd cup onwards, is (UPSC 96) !a) 993.8 grams b) 99.38 grams c) 9.938 grams d) 0.9938 grams Ref: Park 19th/e p. 577, 588 & 18th/e p. 530, 540 1337. WHO standard for safe drinking water is (UP 96) a) Less than 3 coliforms/100 ml b) 10 coliforms/100 ml c) Less than 20 coliforms/100 ml d) Less than 100 coliforms/100 ml Ref: Park 19th/e p. 581 table (5) & 18th/e p. 533 table (3) 1338. The following organism because of its easy culture methods is widely used as bacteriology indicator of water polution (Karnat. 96, Jharkhand 03) a) Foecal streptococci !b) Escherichia coli c) Clostridium perfringens d) Salmonella Typhi Ref: Park 19th/e p. 580 & 18th/e p. 532 1339. The permissible concentration of fluorides in drinking water is (Karnat 96) !a) 0.5 to 0.8 mg/litre b) 1.0 to 3.5 mg/litre c) 5.0 to 8.0 mg/litre d) 10.0 to 15.0 mg/litre Ref: Park 19th/e p. 494 & 18th/e p. 451 1344. All are qualities of pure water except (AI 97) a) Chlorides 200 mg/L b) Nitrates Img/L c) Nitrites 1-2 mg/L d) Hardness 300 mg/L Ref: Park 19th/e p. 5801.(4) p. 583 t.(6), p. 586 ford & 18th/e p. 5331. (4) p. 5351. (6), p. 538 for d

1341. Colour produced in orthotolidine test is (AIIHPH 98) a) Red b) Green !c) Yellow d) Blue Ref: Park 19th/e p. 576 & 18th/e p. 528 & 529 1342. Old contamination of water is indicated by (MAHE 98, KARN 94) a) Nitrites !b) Nitrates c) Ammonia d) Chlorides [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 582 & 18th/e p. 535] Recent contamination is indicated by nitrites 1343. The action of chlorine is due to formation of (AMC 2K) a) HCL ! b) Hypochlorous acid c) Hypochlorite ion d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 & 18th/e p. 528 1344. Temporary and permanent hardness of water is removed by (AIIHPH 2K) a) Boiling b) Addition of lime !c) Permutit method d) All Ref: Park 19th/e p. 586 & 18th/e p. 539 1345. Daily per capita water consumption is (AIIHPH 2K, Delhi 92, UPSC 87) a) 50-100 litres b) 100-150 litres ! c) 150-200 litres d) 200-250 litres Ref: Park 19th/e p. 567 & 18th/e p. 520 1346. Following are properties of a slow sand filter except (Karn. 2001) a) Occupies large area b) Pre treatment of raw water by coagulation is not required c) Purification is by biological process ! d) Cleaning is by backwashing Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 table (3) & 18th/ e p. 527 1347. A person working in hot environment who consumes more water without salt is likely to develop a condition called (UPSC 02) a) Heat stroke b) Heat exhaustion !c) Heat cramps d) Heat hyperpyrexia Ref: Park 19th/e p. 604 & 18th/e p. 556 1348. Minimum microbiological criteria for water quality includes (Karnataka 02) ! a) All samples should be free from coliforms b) Not more than 5% samples should have ant coliform
96

1349.

1350.

1351.

1352.

1353.

1354.

c) Any 100 ml should not have more than 3 E.coli d) Coliforms should not be detectable in three consecutive samples of 100 ml of water Ref: Park 19th/e p. 581 t. (5) & 18th/e p. 533 Ground water has the following advantages except (Kerala 04) a) Likely to be free from pathogenic organisms b) Usually requires no treatment c) Supply is likely to be certain even during dry season d) Likely to be hard Ref: Park 19th/e p. 569 & 18th/e p. 522 Vital layer in slow sand filter is seen in (APPGE 04) a) Top of water !b) On the sand bed c) Near filter d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 573 & 18th/e p. 526 Disinfection of water is not required if the source is from (COMEDK 05) !a) Tube well b) Step well c) Draw well d) River Ref: Park 19th/e p. 570 & 18th/e p. 523 Nalgonda Technique is use in (J & K 05) !a) Endemic florosis b) Epidemic dropsy c) Endemic ascites d) Neurolathyrism Ref: Park 19th/e p. 512 & 18th/e p. 467 With reference to the criteria used for the identification of A Problem Village, under accelerated rural water supply programme, consider the following (UPSC 2006) 1) No source of safe water is available within a distance of 1.6 km 2) Water source has excess salinity, iron or fluorides 3) Water is available at a depth of 10 meters 4) Water is exposed to the risk of cholera Which one of the above are the criteria to identify. A problem village under the above said programme, a) 1 and 2 only b) 1,2 and 3 only !c) 1,2,4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 376 & 18th/e p 347 Hardness of water has a beneficial effect against which one of the following (UPSC 2006) a) Renal diseases b) Metabolic diseases c) Cerebrovascular diseases d) Cardiovascular diseases

1355.

1356.

1357.

1358.

1359.

1360.

1361.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 586 & 18th/e p 539 Water sample which is likely to contain chlorine, will affect the results of bacteriological analysis of water. Which one of the following, if added in small amount in the test tube will help overcome it a) Potassium nitrate b) Copper sulphate c) Calcium hydrochloride !d) Sodium thiosulphate Ref: Park 18th/e p. 540 Hardness of water is expressed as milliequivalent per litre (m Eq/L), one unit of which is equivalent to which one of the following (UPSC 2006) a) 20 mg CaCO3 (20 ppm) b) 30 mg CaCO3 (30 ppm) c) 40 mg CaCO3 (40 ppm) !d) 50 mg CaCO3 (50 ppm) Ref: Park 19th/e p. 585 & 18th/e p 538 In doubtful cases, the presence of which organism confirms the fecal contamination of water (Comed 06) a) Protozoa b) Yeast !c) Clostridium perfringes d) Fungi Ref: Park 19th/e p. 585 & 18th/e p 537, 532 Orthotoluidine Arsenite test determines (PGI 06) a) Tree residual chlorine b) Combined chlorine c) Free and combined chlorine separately d) Free and combined chlorine together Ref: Park 19th/e p. 576 & 18th/e p 528 Soft water has hardness levels of (PGMCET 01) !a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 586 In India, fluorine concentration recommended in water to prevent caries is (PGMCET 07) a) 0.5 ppm b) 1 ppm c) 1.1 ppm !d) 1.5 ppm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 583 To find out whether the water has been properly chlorinated, the test used is (Comed 07) a) Horrocks test b) Ortho-toludine test c) Presumptive coliform test d) Total bacterial count
97

1362.

1363.

1364.

1365.

1366.

1367.
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1368.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 578 Chlorine demand of water is measured by (Aiims May 07, AI 07) !a) Horrocks appratus b) Chlorimeter c) Double pot d) Berkfeld filter Ref: Park 19th/e p. 577, 587 Which oneof the following pairs for water quality standards is correctly matched ? (UPSC-II 08) Parameter Maximum tolerable limit a) Chlorides 50 mg/litre b) Nitrates 50 mg/litre c) Hardness 50 mg/litre d) Total dissolved solids 50 mg/litre Ref: Park 19th/e p. 583 Which one of the following is the level of residual free chlorine recommended for swimming pool water disinfection ? (UPSC-II 08) a) 0.5 mg/litre b) 0.8 mg/litre !c) 1 mg/litre d) 5 mg/litre Ref: Park 19th/e p. 587 What is the reagent used in Horrocks apparatus for determining chlorine demand of water (UPSC-II 08) a) Orthotoluidine b) Methylene blue c) Starch iodide indicator d) Sodium bicarbonate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 587 Maximum permissible chloride level is (UP 08) a) 200 mg/litre b) 300 mg/litre c) 500 mg/litre !d) 600 mg/litre Ref: Park 19th/e p. 579 Slow sand filter is differentiated from rapid sand filter by (PGI Junec 08) a) Bacteria are removed more effectively b) Skilled person is needed c) Cost construction is cheaper d) Sand particles are of smaller size e) Longer duration is needed Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575 What is the size of particle is rapid sand filter ? (APPG 08) a) 0.1 mm b) 0.2 c) 0.5 !d) 0.4 to 0.7 mm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 524

1369. Contact period of chlorination ? (APPG 08) !a) 1 hour b) 30 minutes c) 1 1/2 hour d) 2 hours Ref: Park 19th/e p. 575

1378.
!

INSECTISIDE
1370. Advantage of DDT as an insecticide are all of the following except (PGI 80, AIIMS 91) a) Lethal to many insects b) Long insecticidal action ! c) Resistance does not develop to it d) Absorption from GIT of man is slow and incomplete Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 637 & 18th/e p. 589 1371. Paris green is a (KERALA 97, Jipmer 90, 04) !a) Stomach poison b) Contact poison c) Repellent d) Rodenticide Ref: SPM park 19th/e p. 638 fig. (17) & 18th/e p. 589 1372. Dose of DDT for effective control of mosquitoes is (AP 85, Orrisa 04) !a) 1-2 g/m2 b) 1-2 g/m2 c) 2-4 g/m2 d) 2-4 g/m2 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 637 & 18th/e p. 589 1373. DDT acts by (AIIMS 88) !a) Contact poison b) Repellent c) Stomach poison d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 637, 627 fig I & 18th/e p. 589 fig 17 1374. JVIalathion spray is effective for ............. months (PGI 89) a) One b) Two !c) Three d) Four Ref: Park 18th/e p. 590 1375. Abate is a (Jipmer 91) a) Carbamate b) Cyanide cpd ! c) Organophosphorus cpd d) Organochlorine cpd Ref: Park 19th/e p. 638 fig 17 & 18th/e p. 589 fig 17 1376. Percentage of Para- para Isomer in DDT is (Jipmer 92) a) 20-30% . b) 40-50% c) 60-70% !d) 70-80% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 637 & 18th/e p. 589 1377. The following are Organophosphorus insecticides except (UPSC 86, Delhi 83) a) Fenthion b) Parathion c) Chlorpyriphos !d) Pyrethrum Ref: Park 19th/e p. 638 fig 17 & 18th/e p. &
98

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1380.

1381.

1382.

1383.

1384.

1385.

18th/e p. 589 fig 17 The following are found resistant to DDT except (AIIMS 79, AMC 92) a) Phlebotomus b) Culex fatigans c) Anopheles Stephens! d) Musca domestica Ref: Park 19th/e p. 630 & 18th/e p. 582 Which is an insecticide of vegetable origin (Jipmer 81, AP 90) a) Abate b) BHC c) Propoxur !d) Pyrethrum Ref: Park 19th/e p. 639 & 18th/e p. 590 Least toxic Organophosphorus compound is (Jipmer 81, UPSC 86) a) DDT b) Paris green !c) Malathion d) Parathion [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 638 & 18th/e p. 590] Because of its low toxicity malathion has been recommended as an alternative insecticide to D.D.T. Which of the following is an organochlorine compound (PGI 81, ROHTAK 87) a) Gardona b) Dicapthon !c) Kepone d) Propoxur Ref: Park 19th/e p. 638 fig 17 & 18th/e p. 589 fig 17 Diethyltoluamide is an effctive (PGI 79, AIIMS 86) a) Larvicidal b) Agent against pupae of Anopheles !c) Repellent d) Space spray e) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 638 fig 17 & 18th/e p. 589 fig 17 Paris green is useful for killing (PGI 78, AIIMS 86) !a) Anopheline larvae only b) Culicine larvae only c) A + B d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 639, 627 & 18th/e p. 579 The concentration of abate recommended for killing cyclops is (AIIMS 94) a) 2 mg/L !b) 1 mg/L c) 5 mg/L d) 0 mg/L Ref: Park 19th/e p. 627 18th/e p. 588 Which of the following is an organophosphate? (Assam 95) a) DDT b) Aldrin

c) Dieldrin !d) Malathion Ref: Park 19th/e p. 638 fig 17 & 18th/e p.589 fig 17 1386. The essential ingredient in the space sprays for vector control is (Karn 95) a) Malathion b) Fenithion !c) Pyrethrum d) BHC [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 627 & 18th/e p. 579] Malathion and Fenithnion are also used 1387. All are organophosphorus compounds except (AIIMS 97) a) Malathion !b) Propoxur c) Abate d) Fenethion Ref: Park 19th/e p. 638 fig (17) & 18th/e p. 589 Fig (17) 1388. Which one of the following insecticides is commonly used for ultra low volume fogging (UPSC) a) Abate b) DDT !d) Malathion c) Paris green Ref: Park 19th/e p. 628 & 18th/e p.579 1389. Zinc phosphide is (AMC 2K) !a) Rodenticide b) Insecticide c) Larvicide d) All Ref: Park 19th/e p. 641 & 18th/e p.592 1390. Effect of Pyrethrum on mosquitoes is described as (UPSC 02) a) Residual b) Repellent c) Knock down !d) Contact Ref: Park 19th/e p. 638 fig (17) & 18th/ e p. 589 1391. Commonly used Rodenticide is (HPU 05) !a) Zinc sulphate b) Copper sulphate c) Zinc oxide d) Ferrous sulphate Ref: Park 19th/e p. 641 & 18th/e p. 592 1392. Ovicidal drug for scabies is (Orissa 05) a) BHC b) DDT c) HHC !d) Permethrin Ref: KDT 5th/e p. 810 1393. All of the following methods are antilarval measures except (AI 05) a) Intermittent irrigation b) Paris green c) Gambusia affmis !d) Malathion Ref: Park 19th/e p. 626, 627 & 18th/e p. 570, 579, 590 1394. Which one of the following insecticides is not used as a larvicides ? (UPSC 2006) a) Abate b) Paris green c) Fenthion !d) Dichloros

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 627 & 18th/e p 590

ENTOMOLOGY
1395. Anopheles mosquito lays eggs in (AIIMS 87) ! a) Clear water b) Chlorinated water c) Running water d) Water logged dirty pools [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 626 & 18th/ e p. 578] Breeding habits of mosquitoes Anopheles clear voter Culex dirty water Aedes Artificial collection of water 1396. Which is true of pathogenic mosquitoes (AI 93) a) Anopheles has spotted abdomen b) Mansoni lays egges singly c) Culex cause yellow fever ! d) Aedes has stripped yellow scales Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 624 & 18th/e p. 576 1397. Rat flea transmits all except (AI 95) a) Plague !b) Salmonellosis c) Hymenolepis dimunita d) Murine typhus ! Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 622 table (3) & 18th/e p. 574 table (3) 1398. Not transmitted to man by an insect vector (KERALA 98) a) Sleeping sickness !b) Q - fever c) Malaria d) Kala- azar Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 622 table (3), 252 & 18th/e p. 574 table (3) & 239 1399. True about sand flea (MP 2K) a) Not found in India !b) Causes ulcer in foot c) Caused bubo d) Causes plague Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 629-630 & 18th/ e p. 585 1400. Culex mosquito can transmit (UPSC 88) a) Malaria b) Kala-azar c) Dengue fever d) None Ref: Park 19th/e p. 626 table (5) & 18th/e p. 578 table (5) 1401. Drinking water is best made free of cyclops by (UPSC 88) !a) Filtration !b) Boiling !c) Chlorination d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 637 & 18th/e p. 588
99

1402. Diseases spread by mosquito are (PGI 86) !a) Malaria b) Toxoplasmosis c) Histoplasma d) Sleeping sickness Ref: Park 19th/e p. 62-2 table (3) & 18th/ e p.574 1403. Aedes is vector for all except (AI 90) a) Dengue b) Yellow fever !c) Japanese B encephalitis d) Hemorrhagic fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 626 table (5) & 18th/ e p.578 1404. Chlorine level for destruction of larvae of guinea worm is (AIIMS 91) a) 0.5 ppm b) 12 ppm !c) 5 ppm d) 7 ppm Ref: Park 19th/e p. 637 & 18th/e p. 588 1405. Hard tick transmits (AIIMS 91) a) Oroyofever b) Oriental sore !d) Tick typhus c) Leishmaniasis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622 table (3) & 18th/ e p. 574 1406. Which is not transmitted by culex (All India 92) !a) Dengue b)Filaria c) Viral arthritis d) West nile fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 626 table (5) & 18th/ e p. 578 1407. Diseases transmitted by sandfly are all except (JIPMER 93) !a) Relapsing fever b) Kala azar c) Oriental sore d) Oraya fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622 table (3) & 18th/ e p. 574 1408. Nuisance mosquito is (AIIMS 80, AMC 84) a) Anopheles !b) Culex c) Ades d) Tsetse fly Ref: Park 19th/e p. 625 & 18th/e p. 576 1409. The average life of a cyclops is about (PGI 79, Bihar 89) a) 1 month b) 2 months !c) 3 months d) 4 months Ref: Park 19th/e p. 636 & 18th/e p. 588 1410. All of the following are true about anopheles type of mosquito Except (Jipmer 80, UPSC 86) a) Eggs are boat shaped and provided with lateral floats b) Larvae rest parallel to water surface ! c) Larvae have siphon tube d) Pupae have broad and short siphon

1411.

1412.

1413.

1414.

1415.

1416.

1417.

1418.

1419.

e) Wings of adults are spotted Ref: Park 19th/e p. 624 table (4) & 18th/e p. 576 table (4) Tiger mosquito are (AIIMS 82, AMC 87,89) a) Anopheles b)Culex !c) Aedes d) Mansoides Ref: Park 19th/e p. 625 & 18th/e p. 576 Which is not true of Anopheles mosquito (AIIHPH 98) a) Eggs laid singly b) Eggs are boat shaped c) Larvae rest parallel to water surface d) Larvae has siphon tube Ref: Park 19th/e p. 624 table (4) & 18th/ e p.576 table (4) Porters of Infection are (Orissa 05) a) Anopheles !b) Housefly c) Aedes d) Cockroaches Ref: Park 19th/e p. 629 & 18th/e p. 580 Which of the following viral infections is transmitted by tick (AI 05) a) Japanese encephalitis b) Dengue fever c) kyasanur forest disease (KFD) d) Yellow fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622 table (3) Diseases transmitted by louse (PGI June 06) !a) Epidemic typhus b) Scrub Typhus !c) Trench fever d) Q fever e) Rocky mountain spotted fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622 table (3) & 18th/e p. 583, 239 Which one of the following is transmitted by soft tick (UPSC 2006) a) Tick typhus b) Tularaemia !c) Relapsing fever d) Colorado tick fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622 table (3) & 18th/ e p. 586 Which mosquito can fly the greatest distance (Karn PGmee 06) a) Mansonia b) Aedes c) Anopheles !d) Culex Ref: Park 19th/e p. 625 & 18th/e p. 476, 478 All are transmitted by Soft Tick, except (PGMCET 07) a) KFD !b)Tularemia c) Q fever d) Relapsing fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 634, 635 Kala-azar is transmitted by (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Reduvid bug !b) Sandfly c) Tsetse fly d) Mosquito

100

1420.

1421.

1422.

1423.

1424.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622 The anopheles species most commonly found in coastal regions is (Comed 08) a) Anopheles philippinensis b) Anopheles Stephens! c) Anopheles fluviatilis d) Anopheles minimus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 624 Mineral oils are used in mosquito control measure as (Comed 08) a) A personal protection method b) Larvicide c) Adulticide d) Space spray Ref: Park 19th/e p. 627 Soft tick transmits (AI 08) !a) Relapsing fever b) KFD c) Tularemia d) Indian tick typhus Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622 Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is (Aiims May 08) !b) Aluminium a) Zinc c) Copper d) Magnesium Ref: Park 19th/e p. 137-138; 18th/e p. 135 Which of the following disease is transmitted by phlebotomus argentipes (DPGEE 08) a) Epidemic typhus !b) Kala-Azar c) Relapsing fever d) Trench fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 257

(UPSC 86) a) 10 !b) 14 c) 16 d)18 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 669 & 18th/e p. 617 1429. The ESI act provides for (Jipmer 8 7) a) Medical benefit b) Sickness benefit c) Maternity benefit d) Funeral benefit !e) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 671, 672 & 18th/e p.619 fig (1) 1430. Inhalation of cotton dust causes (PGI 88) !a) Byssinosis b) Bagassosis a) Nnthracosis b) Mouldy lung Ref: Park 19th/e p. 661 & 18th/e p. 608 1431. All the following form part of occupational health history except (AI 90) a) History of previous occupation b) Exposure to dust ! c) Childhood immunisations d) Safety Ref: Park 19th/e p. 667 & 18th/e p. 615 1432. Duration of maternal benefit under ESI acts is (Jipmer 91) a) 4 wks b) 8 wks !c) 12 wks d) 24 wks Ref: Park 19th/e p. 672 & 18th/e p. 620 1433. Provisions of 1975 ESI act will not apply to (JIPMER 91) !a) Sugar factories b) Cinema c) Hotels d) Newspaper Establishments Ref: Park 19th/e p. 670 & 18th/e p.618 1434. Which type of worker is commonly affected in Byssinosis (AIIMS 91, AI 91) a) Weavers b) Dyers !c) Spinners d) Growers Ref: Park 19th/e p. 661 1435. The size of Respirable dust is (All India 93, AI 2K) !a) 1-5 microns b) 5-10 microns c) 15 microns d) 20 microns [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 659-660 & 18th/ e p.609] Particles b/w the size 5 to 3 microns are most dangerous because they reach the interior of the lung with case 1436. Beta naphthy lamines are associated with cancer of (AIIMS 81, AMC 92) a) Stomach b) Liver !c) Bladder d) Mouth
101

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH
1425. In nonexposed persons, the level of coproporphyrin in urine is (AIIMS 80, UPSC 83) !a) Less than 150 microgram/litre b) Less than 1000 microgram/litre c) More than 500 microgram/litre d) None of the above Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 663 & 18th/e p. 610 1426. The highest accident rate is seen in (AIIMS 85) a) Docks !b) Mines c) Railway d) Factories Ref: Park 19th/e p. 664 & 18th/e p.612 1427. Bagassosis is due to inhalation of (PGI 87, AP 85, Kerala 87) a) Cotton dust !b) Sugarcane dust c) Silica dust d) Coal dust Ref: Park 19th/e p. 661 & 18th/e p. 608 1428. The Indian factories act prohibits the employment of children below the age of

1437.

1438.

1439.

1440.

1441.
!

1442.

1443.

[Ref: Park 19th/e p. 663 & 18th/e p.611} Bladder carcinogens are Beta naphthylamines, Benzidine, Paramonodiphenyl In ESI scheme extended medical benefit is given when a patient has (AIIMS 81, UPSC 91) a) Diabetes melIitus !b) Chronic CHF c) Filariasis d) Syphilis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 671 & 18th/e p.620 The most commonindustrial disease of the employee population is (PGI 79, AIIMS 84) a) Emphysema b) Chronic bronchitis c) Occupational dermatosis d) Silicosis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 659 & 18th/e p.607 The industry, with the highest accidental death rate and long held to be the most dangerous occupation is (AIIMS 80, PGI 81) a) Agriculture b) Construction !c) Mining and quarrying d) Trade e) Service Ref: Park 19th/e p. 664 & 18th/e p.612 Minimum floor area for a worker in Indian Factories acts is (UPSC 82, 83, 86; AMC 85) a) 350 cuft b) 400 cuft !c) 500 cuft d) 1000 cuft Ref: Park 19th/e p. 668 & 18th/e p.617 Sickness absenteeism is a useful index in industry to assess (AIIMS 79, UPSC 87) a) State of health of workers b) Worker management relationship c) Working environment d) Sincerity of the workers Ref: Park 19th/e p. 665 & 18th/e p.613 Which among the following diseases in not eligible for the extended benefit of 309 days in ESI scheme (AIIMS 94) a) Leprosy b) Mental diseases c) Aplastic anemia d) TB Ref: Park 19th/e p. 671 & 18th/e p.619, 620 In the statement ......... benefit under the ESI act to an insured person in the case of sickness is payable for a continuous maximum period of X days the daily rate being Y of the average daily wages, X and Y
102

1444.

1445.

1446.

1447.

1448.

1449.

1450.
!

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stand respectively for (UPSC 96) a) 91 and 5/12 !b) 91 and 7/12 c) 181 and 7/12 d) 181 and 5/12 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 671 & 18th/e p.618, 619 The cancerogenic chemical that has a very long latent period is (Karn 95) a) Benzopyrine b) Vinyl chloride !c) Asbestos d) Estrogens Ref: Park 19th/e p. 622 & 18th/e p.611 Commonest occupational disease in developing countries is (Kerala 96) a) Pneumoconiosis b) Asbemstosis c) Lung cancer d) Byssinosis !e) Occupational poisoning Ref: Park 19th/e p. 659, 660 & 18th/e p. 607 & 608 In Pre-Placement examination of workers in a dye industry, special consideration is given to all except (All India 98) a) Pre cancerous condition b) Bladder disease c) Anemia d) Asthma [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 667 & 18th/e p.615] Remember, lead exposure leads to anemia For pneumoconiosis to develop in coal workers, minimum exposure is for period of (All India 98) a) 4-6 yrs b) 6-8 yrs c) 8-10 yrs !d) about 12 yrs Ref: Park 19th/e p. 661 & 18th/e p. 609 ESI act was made in (Kerala 98, PGl 84) a) 1946 !b) 1948 c) 1952 d) 1954 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 668 & 18th/e p. 617 All the following cancers are associated with occupational exposure except (TN 99) a) Liver b) Lung c) Urinary bladder !d) Rectum Ref: Park 19th/e p. 663 & 18th/e p.611 ESI act does not cover (All India 2K) a) News paper industry b) Education institutions c) Power using factory with 10-19 workers d) Non power using factory with > 20 workers Ref: Park 19th/e p. 670 & 18th/e p. 618 In ESI progamme central, state, Govt. employee contribute to the fund. Employers

1452.

1453.

1454.

1455.

1456.

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contribution is (Orissa R) a) 5.75% !b) 4.75% c) 3.75% d) 2.75% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 670 & 18th/e p.618 Benefits under the Employees State Insurance scheme include all the following except (UPSC 02) a) Dependents benefit b) Funeral benefit c) Dearness allowance d) Rehabilitation Allowance Ref: Park 19th/e p. 672 & 18th/e p. 619 The clinical symptoms of lead toxicity are associated with blood lead levels of (Karnataka 02) a) 30 (g/100ml.ofblood b) 40 (g/100 ml. of blood c) 50 (g/100 ml. of blood !d) 70 (g/100ml.of blood Ref: Park 19th/e p. 662 & 18th/e p. 610 True combination is all except (SGPGI 05) a) Cold Trench foot b) Light Miners nystagmus c) Pressure Caisson disease d) Cane fibre Farmers lung Ref: Park 19th/e p. 661-662 & 18th/e p. 610 Farmers Lung is due to inhalation of (MAHE 05) a) Cotton fiber b) Sugarcane fiber !c) Hay dust d) Coal dust Ref: Park 19th/e p. 662 & 18th/e p. 610 Which fungicide is used as a spray for the control of bagassosis (Jipmer 92) a) 2% acetic acid b) 2% formic acid !c) 2% propionic acid d) 25% phenyl mercury Ref: Park 19th/e p. 662 & 18th/e p 609 Lung cancer is an industrial hazard in/for (UPSC 06) a) Chimney sweepers b) Aniline industry !c) Gas industry d) Benzol industry Ref: Park 19th/e p. 663 & 18th/e p 611 ESI Act includes all the following except (APPG 06) a) Small power using factories employing 10-19 persons b) Non-power using factories employing 20 or more person
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c) Newspaper establishment d) Defense establishment Ref: Park 19th/e p. 670 & 18th/e p 618 Acute silicosis clinical manifestation is (Manipal 06) a) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis b) Hypersensitivity penumonitis c) Hypersensitivity pneumonia d) Forms nodules and causes pneumoconiosis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 661, 18th/e p 609; Harmon 16th/e p.1559 The maximum hours of work per week prescribed under the Factories Act is (Comed 08, Jipmer 92) a) 42 !b) 48 c) 54 d) 60 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 670 What is the proportion of daily rate wages payable as periodic cash payment under sickness Benefit of ESI Act (UPSC 07) a) 5-12 of the average monthly wages b) 7/12 of the basic monthly wages c) 8/12 of the averate daily wages d) 10/12 of the average daily wages Ref: Park 19th/e p. 671 Which one of the following is in the area of tropical rain forests ? (UPSC-I 08) a) Dudhwa National Park b) Satpura National Park c) Silent valley National Park d) Valley of Flowers National park Ref: www.indiawildliferesorts.com The factories Act (1976) prohibits employment of a person below (DPGEE 08) a) 10 years !b) 14 years c) 18 years d) 21 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 669 Extended ESI benefit are all except ? (APPG 08) a) News paper establishments b) Non power 18 employees c) Non power < 18 employees d) Small power 10 to 18 employees Ref: Park 19th/e p. 670

MENTAL HEALTH
1465. Mental ill health is due to (AMC 87, AIIMS 84) a) Stress and strain ! b) Social maladjustment

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c) Marital disharmony d) Anxiety Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 686 & 18th/e p. 633 Major psychosis is (Kerala 95) a) Neurosis b) Dementia c) Reactive depression d) Endogenous depression [Ref: SPM Park 19th/e p. 685 & 18th/ e p. 633] There are three major Psychoses (1) Schizophrenia (2) Manic Depressive psychosis (3) Paranoia Mental retardation is defined if IQ is below (PGI 81, AMC 82, Orissa 05) a) 90 b) 80 !c) 70 d) 60 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 467, 544 & 18th/e p. 428 The following grading of intelligence quotient has been given by WHO for mild mental retardation (PGI 80, AIIMS 86) a) IQ 20-34 b) IQ 35-49 c) IQ 50-70 d) IQ 60-80 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 467, 544 & 18th/e p. 428 The approximate number of mentally retarded persons in India is around (JIPMER 79, AMU 86) a) 4-8 millions b) 10-15 millions c) 15-20 millions !d) 20-25 millions Ref: Still searching All are true about intelligence quotient except (UPSC 84, DELHI 84) a) Calculated from mental chronologial age b) Less than 70 indicates mental retardation c) Increases with age d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 467 & 18th/e p. 428 The most commonly abused drug causing addiction among Indian is (UPSC 97) a) Amphetamine b) Cocaine c) Cannaine !d) Cannabis e) LSD Ref: Park 19th/e p. 687 & 18th/e p. 635 The incidence of mental illness is the maximum if the causal factors affect a particular period (UPSC) a) Perinatal period b) First five years of life
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c) School age d) Adolescence Ref: Park 19th/e p. 686 & 18th/e p. 633 As per WHO classification, a case of severe mental retardation has I.Q. of (UPSC 2002) a) 50-70 b) 35-49 !c) 20-34 d) Below 20 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 467 & 18th/e p. 428 Which one of the following is an environmental factor associated with mental illness? (UPSC 02) a) Emotional stress b) Frustration !c) Broken home d) Anxiety Ref: Park 19th/e p. 550 & 18th/e p.504 As per WHO classification, what is the IQ score for moderate mental retardation (UPSC 07) a) 20-34 !b) 35-49 c) 50-60 d) 60-65 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 467 Which of the following is not true regarding imbecility (DPGEE 08) a) Better than idiot b) Has feeble memory c) Has moral standards d) Can be roused to passion Ref: Park 19th/e p. 544

HEALTH INFORMATION & BASIC STATICS

1477. Among the measures of dispersion, which is the most frequently used (Karn. 94, Kerala 88) a) Range b) Mean c) Median !d) Standard deviation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 & 18th/e p. 646 1478. Scatter diagram show (AI 88, AIIMS 86) a) Trend event with passage of time b) Arithmetic average c) Most commonly occurring value d) Difference between the highest and lowest value [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 699 & 18th/e p. 644, 645] It shows the relationship beftveen two variable 1479. What is the mode in statistics (AI 88, AIIMS 86) a) Value of middle observation b) Arithmetic average ! c) Most commonly occurring value

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d) Difference between the highest and lowest value Ref: Park 19th/e p. 700 & 18th/e p. 646 In a standard normal curve the area between one standard deviation on either side will be (AI 88, AIIMS 86) !a) 68% b) 85% c) 99.7% d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p. 647 If the mean is 230 and the standard error is 10, the 95% confidence limits would be (AI 89) !a) 210 to 250 b) 220 to 240 c) 225 to 235 d) 230 + or 2/10 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 & 18th/e p. 647 All of the following require surveillance according to WHO except (AI 89) !a) Chicken pox b) Yellow fever c) Malaria d) Rabies Ref: Park 19th/e p. 694 & 18th/e p. 640 Internationally quarantinable disease are (BHU 88) a) Plague b) Cholera !d) All of the above c) Yellow fever Ref: Park 19th/e p.. 694 & 18th/e p.640 The notifiable diseases are (PGI 84) a) Cholera b) Yellow fever c) Plague !d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 694 & 18th/e p. 640 Which of the following is not in WHO survailiance (PGI 89) a) Rabies b) Influenza c) Malaria !d) Varicella Ref: Park 19th/e p. 694 & 18th/e p. 640 Surveillance is necessary for all recommended by WHO except (AI 91) a) Relapsing fever b) Malaria c) Plague !d) Tuberculosis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 694 & 18th/e p. 640 Normal distribution curve depends on (AI 90) a) Mean and sample b) Mean and median c) Median and standard deviation d) Mean and standard deviation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p. 647 Discrete variability are all except (AI 91) a) Color of skin b) Boys in the class room !c) Obesity weight d) Leukocyte count Ref: N.M.S., SPM p. 44 The frequently occurring value in a data is
105

(TN 91) a) Median !b) Mode c) Standard deviationd) Mean Ref: Park 19th/e p. 700 & 18th/e p. 646 Significant p value is (JIPMER 91) a) 0.005 . !b) 0.05 c) 0.01 d)0.1 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 703 & 18th/e p.649 ] Whenever < .05 it is regarded as significant Surveillance by WHO is not done for (AIIMS 91) a) Polio b) Malaria !c) Viral encephalitis d) Relapsing fever Ref: Park 19th/e p. 694 & 18th/e p. 640 The cluster sampling technique used for evaluating universal Immunisation Programme, coverage is (AIIMS 92) a) 30 cluster of 5 children b) 20 cluster of 5 children c) 30 cluster of 10 children d) 30 cluster of 7 children Ref: Zohn ashford 2nd/e p. 306 Which is true of cluster sampling (AIIMS 92) a) Every nth case is chosen for study b) Natural group is taken as sampling unit c) Stratification of population is done d) Involves use of Random numbers Ref: N.M.S. SPM p. 44 The cause of death in a village is assessed by (AI 93) a) Sample registration system b) Mortality investigation c) Modal Registration system d) Census Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693-694 & 18th/e p.639 The area under a normal distribution curve for S.D. of 2 is (AI 93) a) 68% !b) 95% c) 97.5% d) 100% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 & 18th/e p.647 Main drawback of calculating incidence of disease using hospital records is (JIPMER 93) a) Poor maintenance of records b) Subclinical cases not admitted c) Admission policy may defer d) Denominator not well defined Ref: Park 19th/e p. 694 & 18th/e p. 640 In a statistical analysis what is used to mention the dispersion of data

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(PGI 81, AMC 87, 92) a) Mode !b) Range c) Standard error of mean d) Geometric mean Ref: Park 19th/e p. 700 & 18th/e p. 646 In birth and death registration within days (UPSC 86, 87, AMC 92, Delhi 92) a) 3 !b) 7 !c) 14 d) 30 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693 & 18th/e p. 639 The sampling method adopted for LIP coverage evaluation survey of a district is (JIPMER 80, Orissa 91) a) Random sampling b) Cluster sampling c) Stratified sampling d) Multistage sampling Ref: Zohn ashford 2nd/e p. 306 Following are both Notifiable disease as well as disease under surveillance (AIIMS 80, DNB 92) a) Epidemic typhus b) Relapsing fever !c) Plague d) Cholera Ref: Park 19th/e p. 694 & 18th/e p.640 Quantitative data can be best represented by (PGI 80, 02, AMC 83, 87) a) Pie chart b)Pictogram !c) Histogram d) Bar diagram Ref: N.M.S. 4th/e p. 49 Mean incubation period of leprosy is calculated from (PGI 81, AMC 86, 87) !a) Median b) Harmonic mean c) Mode d) Geometric mean Ref: Still searching Calculate the mode of 70,71,72,70,70 (PGI 79, AMC 85, 88) !a) 70 b) 71 c) 71.5 d) 72 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 700 & 18th/e p. 646 Percentage of data can be shown in (PGI 79, Delhi 87) a) Graph presentation !b) Pie chart c) Bar diagram d) Histogram Ref: Park 19th/e p. 698 & 18th/e p. 644 Statistical tests that are non-parametric include (PGI 80, AIIMS 80) a) Regression b) Correlation c) The students test d) Rank correlation e) Wilcoxon rank sum test Ref: B.K. Mahajan 3rd/e p. 4
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1506. Basic events recorded by vital statistics (AIIMS 80, UPSC 86) a) Death b) Birth c) Divorces !d) All of the above e) Only b & c Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693 & 18th/e p. 639 1507. Graph showing relation between 2 variable is a (AI 95) !a) Scatter diagram b) Frequency polygon c) Picture chart d) Histogram Ref: Park 19th/e p. 699 & 18th/e p. 644, 645 1508. Mean + 1.96 S.D. include following % of values in a distribution (AI 96) a) 68% b) 99.5% c) 88.7% !d) 95% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 & 18th/e p.647 1509. Weight in Kg is a (AI 96) a) Discrete variable c) Nominal scale !b) Continuous variable d) None Ref: N.M.S. SPM p. 44 1510. All of the following are example of nominal scale except (AI 96) a) Age b) Sex !c) Body weight d) Socio-economic status Ref: High yield Biostatistics page 4 1511. Shape of a normal curve is (Assam 95) !a) Symmetrical b) Curvilinear c) Linear d) Parabolic Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p. 647 1512. Sample registration system is done once in (PGI 95) !a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 2 years d) 5 years Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693 & 18th/e p. 639 1513. The mean BP of a group of persons was determined & after an interventional trial, the mean BP estimated again. The test to be applied to determine the significance of intervention is (AIIMS 95, 97, 2K) a) Chi-square test !b) Paired t test c) Correlation coefficient d) Mean deviation Ref: N.M.S. SPM p. 60 1514. The average birth weight in a hospital are to be demonstrated by statistical representation. This is best done by (AIIMS 95) a) Bar chart !b) Histogram c) Pie chart d) Frequency polygon Ref: N.M.S. S.P.M. 4th/e p. 49

1515. Determination of which statistical parameter requires quantities to be arranged in an ascending or descending orders (AIIMS 95, 94) a) Mean !b) Median c) Mode d) S.D. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 700 & 18th/e p. 645 1516. The following statistic is used to measure the linear association between two characteristics in the same individuals (Karnat 96) a) Coefficient of variation ! b) Coefficient of correlation c) Chi square d) Standard error Ref: Park 19th/e p. 705 & 18th/e p.651 1517. Symmetric bell shaped curve of a population distribution is (AIIMS 97) a) Bimodal b) Parson curve c) Chi-square curve !d) Normal distribution Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701-702 & 18th/e p. 647 1518. All are features of correlation co-effcient except (AIIMS 97) a) Cause effect association cannot be shown ! b) Risk associates can be revealed c) Correlated risk to disease d) -1 indicates linear relationship Ref: Park 19th/e p. 705 & 18th/e p. 651, 652 1519. If a value is choosen from a community what is the probability that it will be above the median (AI 97) a) 025 !b) 0.5 c) 0.6 d) 1 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p. 647] See the graph of normal distribution 1520. Best method for collecting vital Statistics in India (AIIMS 97) ! a) Active surveillance b) Passive surveillance c) Sentinel surveillance d) Contact tracing Ref: S.N. Agrawal Indian population problem 3rd/e p. 112 1521. If you are doing survey of a village divide the population into lanes and rows select 5 lanes randomlyand survey all houses of the lane it is type of (AIIMS 96) a) Systemic random sampling b) Simple random sampling ! c) Stratified random sampling d) Lane-row sampling
107

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p. 648 1522. Best index to detect devitation is (AIMS 96) a) Variation b) Range c) Mean deviation !d) Standard deviation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 & 18th/e p. 646 1523. Height for weight of boys in a classroom is (AIIMS 96) a) Correlation !b) Association c) Index d) Proportion Ref: Park 19th/e p. 84 & 18th/e p. 80 1524. Registration of birth & death with a 6 monthly survey is done in (AIIMS 96) a) National sample survey b) Vital statistical system c) Census ! d) Sample registration system Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693 & 18th/e p. 639 1525. In a normal curve (AIIMS 97) a) Mean=SD !b) Mean=Median c) Mean=2SD d) Mean=Variance Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701-702 & 18th/e p. 647 1526. 10 babies were born in a hospital 5 were less than 2.5 kg. And 5 were greater than 2.5 kg the average is (AIIMS 97) !a) Arithmetic average b) Geometric average c) Median disposal d) Mode average Ref: Park 19th/e p. 699 & 18th/e p.645 1527. The weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital was 2.5 kg considering the distribution normal curve. Calculate the SD (AIIMS 97) !a) 0 b) 1 c) 2.5 d) 25 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 & 18th/e p. 646 1528. Ten readings of BP taken before and after treatment is studied by (AIIMS 97) !a) Paired t test b) Z test c) Students t test d) Correlation test Ref: N.M.S. SPM p. 60 1529. Sample registration system was started to acquire information on which of the following (Rajasthan 97, PGI 83) ! a) Birth and death rates at national and state level b) Migration statistics c) Death rates from rural areas d) Morbidity rate of various diseases Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693 & 18th/e p. 639 1530. All are included in the Nominal scale

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EXCEPT (MP 98) a) Colour of eye b) Sex !c) Socio economic status d) Occupation Ref: High yield Biostatistics page 4 In a chi square test degree of freedom I, x2 = 6.7 P value will be more than (AIIHPH 98) a) .50 b) .05 !c) .01 d) .001 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 706 & 18th/e p. 650, 651 In a community of 3000 people, 80 % are Hindus 10 % Muslims, 5 % Sikh, 4 % Christians and 1% Jains To select a sample of 300 people to analyses food habits, ideal sample would be (MAHE 98) a) Simple random !b) Stratified random c) Systematic random d) Inverse sampling Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p.648 Confidence limits can be calculated using (AI 99) a) Mean and range b) Mean and standard error c) Median and range d) Median and standard error Ref: Park 19th/e p. 703 & 18th/e p. 649 Limits of confidence of a hypothesis determined by (AIIMS 98) a) Power factor b )Level of significance c) 1-power factor d) 1-level of significance Ref: Park 19th/e p. 703 & 18th/e p. 649 A non-sysmmetrical frequency distribution is known as (Orissa 99) a) Normal distribution b) Skewed distribution c) Cumulative frequency distribution d) None of the above Ref: N.M.S. SPM p. 44 A total of 3500 patient with thyroid cancer are identified and surveyed by patient interviews with reference to past exposure to radiation. The study design most appropriately illustrates (UPSC 2K) !a) Case series report b) Case control study c) Case report d) Clinical trial Ref: N.M.S. SPM p. 41, See Q No. 34
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AIIMS NOV 04 Which of the following is a pre-requisite for the Chi square test to compare (UPSC 2K) !a) Both sample should be mutually exclusive b) Both sample need not be mutually exclusive c) Normal distribution d) All of the above Ref: N.M.S. SPM p. 62 If the ELISA test has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 95%, find the positive predictive value of the test if it is used to screen a community with a prevalence of AIDS of 55 (AIIMS 99) a) 100 b) 75 !c) 50 d) 25 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 120 & 18th/e p.118] In question it should be prevalence 5 instead 55. Regression co-efficient is between (MP 2K) !b) 1 to +1 a) 01 c) 0 to +l d) +1 to +2 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 705 & 18th/e p. 651 Median weight of 100 children was 12 kgs. The standard deviation was 3 calculate the percent coefficient of variance (AIIMS 2K) !a) 25% b) 35% c) 45% d) 55% [Ref: N.M.S. SPM p. 47] Coefficient of variance = SD/mean 100 All of the following is random sampling methods except (AIIMS 2K, AI 96) a) Simple random b) Cluster sampling c) Stratified random !d) Quota Sampling [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p. 648 NMS. SPM p. 44 ] Most probably the question is about types of samples (not random samples). There are four basic kind of samples a) Simple random samples b) Stratified random samples c) Cluster samples d) Systemic samples Simple random sampling. True is (AIIMS 2001) a) Adjacent number is considered while taking sample b) Each unit has an equal chance of being drawn in the sample c) Each portion of sample represents a

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corresponding strata of universe d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 & 18th/e p. 648 When the height and weight is perfectly correlated, coefficient of correlation is (AIIMS 2K) !a) +1 b) 1 c) 0 d) More than 1 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 705 & 18th/e p. 651 Degree of freedom of 2 by 2 contingency table is (UPSC 2002) a) 0 !b) 1 c) 2 d) 4 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 705 & 18th/e p. 651 In the estimation of statistical probability, Z score is applicable to (UPSC 2001) !a) Normal distribution b) Skewed distribution c) Binomial distribution d) Poisson distribution Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 & 18th/e p. 647 The deviation from inference of the truth and the process which leads to such deviation is (JIPMER 02) a) Standard deviation b) Error !c) Bias d) Variance Ref: Park 19th/e p. 78 & 18th/e p. 77 International notification is a must in the following except (TN 03) a) Plague b) Cholera c) Yellow !d) Paralytic polio Ref: Park 19th/e p. 694 & 18th/e p. 640 An investigator wants to study the association between maternal intake of iron supplements (Yes/ No) and birth weights (in gms) of new born babies. He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant women and their newborns. What statistal test of hypothesis would you advise for the investigator in this situation (AIIMS 03) a) Chi- square test b) Unpaired or independent t - test c) Analysis of variance d) Paired t - test Ref: NMS Biostatistics p. 59 & B.K. Mahajan 6th/e p. 130 If each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10, the standard deviation of the resulting observations is (All India 04) a) Original standard deviation 10
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b) Original standard deviation /10 c) Original standard deviation -10 d) Original standard deviation itself Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 & 18th/e p. 646, 647 If the systolic biood pressure in a population has a mean of 130 mmHg and a median of 140 mmHg. The distribution is said to be (All India 04) a) Symmetrical b) Positively skewed c) Negatively skewed d) Either positively or negatively skewed, depending on the standard deviation Ref: High yield Biostatistics p. 11, 12 If we reject Null Hypothesis, when actually it is true, it is know as (AIIMS 04) !a) Type I error b) Type II error c) Power d) Specificity Ref: Lawrence O.B. Budnicks Statistics NMS Public health p. 54 Test of association between two variables is done by (APPGE 04) !b) Correlation a)X2 c) Regression d) None [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 82 & 18th/e p. 80] Correlation indicates the degree of association between two chracteristics Significant P Value is (Orissa 05) a) >0.05 !b) <0.05 c) 1.0 d) >1.0 Ref: High yield Biostat The relationship of mean height of two groups of children is beststudied by (ICS 05) a) Students t-test b) Linear regression !c) Chi-square test d) Test of proportions Ref: Park 19th/e p. 705 & 18th/e p. 650 The number of degrees of freedom in a table of 44 is (J & K 05) a) 4 b) 6 !c) 9 d) 12 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 705 & 18th/e p. 651 The distribution of random blood glucose measurements from 50 first year medical students was found to have a mean of 3.0 mmol/litre with a standard deviation of 3.0 mmol/litre. Which of the following is a correct statement about the shape of the distribution of random blood glucose in these first year medical students (AIIMS NOV 05) a) Since both mean and standard deviation are equal, it should be a symmetric distribution

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b) The distribution is likely to be positively skewed c) The distribution is likely to be negatively skewed d) Nothing can be said conclusively Ref: High yield Biostatics 2nd/e p. 10 A chest physician observed that the distribution of forced expiratory volume (FEV) in 300 smokers had a median value of 2.5 litres with the first and third quartiles being 1.5 and 4.5 litres respectively. Based on this data now many persons in the sample are expected to have a FEV between 1.5 and 4.5 litres (AIIMS NOV 05) a) 75 !b) 150 c) 225 d) 300 Ref: High yield Biostaties If the distribution of intra-ocular pressure (IOP) seen in 100 glaucoma patients has an average 30 mm with a SD of 10, what is the lower limit of the average IOP that can be expected 95% of times (AIIMS NOV 05) !a) 28 b) 26 c) 32 d) 25 Ref: Park SPM 19th/e p. 703 & 18th/e p. 647 A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.90. A single test is applied to each subject in the population in which the diseased population is 10%. What is the probability that a person positive to this test, has the disease (AIIMS NOV 05) a) 90% b) 81% !c) 50% d) 91% Ref: Park 19th/e p. 120 & 18th/e p. 116-117 The standard normal distribution (AI 05) a) Is skewed to the left b) Has mean = 1.0 c) Has standard deviation = 0.0 d) Has variance = 1.0 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701-702 & 18th/e p. 647& Mahajan Biostatistics p. 68 The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distrubution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 201/min (AI 05) a) About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 1/min. b) The girls have healthy lungs c) About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260 1/min.
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d) All the PEFR must be less than 340 1 /min. Ref: Park 19th/e p. 701 1562. The Hb level is healthy women has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15.0 g/dl (AI 05) a) 9.0 b) 10.0 c) 2.0 !d) 1.0 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702; 18th/e p. 647; Mahajan Biostatistics / 82; High Yield Biostatistics by Glaser/15 1563. The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so (AI 05) ! a) Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) + Prob (B) b) Prob (A or B) = Prob (A). Prob (B) c) Prob (A) = Prob (B) d) Prob(A) + Prob(B) = 1 Ref: Simple biostatistics by indrayan & Satyanarayana/106 1564. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r = 0.090, p = 0.01) between the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholestrol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of thecorrelation coefficiency observed (AI 05) ! a) Since there is a high correlation, the magnitude of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other. b) A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol. c) A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol. d) About 80% of the variation in systolic blood pressure among his patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values and vice a versa Ref: High Yield Biostatistics by Anthony Glazer p.47 1565. Total cholesterol level = a+ b (calorie intake) + c (physical activity) + d (body mass index); is an example of (AI 05) a) Simple linear regression b) Simple curvilinear regression ! c) Multiple linear regression d) Multiple logistic regression Ref: High yield biostatistics by Anthony Glaser/49

1566. A one day census of inpatients in a mental hospital could (AIIMS May 05) ! a) Give good information about the patients in that hospital at that time b) Give reliable estimates of seasonal factors in admissions c) Enable us to draw conclusions about the mental hospitals of India d) Enable use to estimate the distribution of different diagnosis of mental illness in the local area Ref: Park 19th/e p. 57 & 18th/e p. 56 and Your logics 1567. After applying a statistical test, an investigator gets the p value as 0.01. It means that (AIIMS May 05) a) The probability of finding a significant difference isl% !b) The probability of declaring a significant difference, when there is truly no difference, is 1 % c) The difference is not significant 1% times and significant 99% times d) The power of the test used is 99% 1568. For a negatively skewed data mean will be (AIIMS May 05) !a) Less than the median b) More than median c) Equal to median d) One Ref: High yield Biostatistics 2nd/e p. 9 1569. Mean and standard deviation can be worked out only if data is on (AIIMS May 2005) !a) Interval/Ratio scale b) Dichotomous scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale Ref: BK Mahajan 6th/e p. 11-13, p. 36-48, p. 58-76; Biostatistics by KS Negip. 3, p. 23-45 1570. The age and sex structure of a population may be described a (AIIMS May 05, AIIMS 03, Jipmer 91) a) Life table b) Correlation coefficient ! c) Population pyramid d) Bar chart Ref: Park 19th/e p. 382 & 18th/e p. 352 1571. Which of the following is the national level system that provides annual national as well as state level raliable estimates of fertility and mortality (AIIMS May 05)
111

1572.

1573.

1574.

1575.

1576.
!

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a) Civil registration system b) Census c) Adhoc survey d) Sample registration system Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693 & 18th/e p. 639 Birth is to be registered within (PGMCET 07) a) 7 days !b) 14 days c) 21 days d) 30 days Ref: Park 19th/e p. 693 What is the incidence of chromosomal abnormality per 1000 live births (UPSC 07) a) 1.6 b) 3.6 !c) 5.6 d) 7.6 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 676; 18th/e p. 624 What is the method of sampling in which the units are picked up at regular intervals from the universe (UPSC 07) a) Simple random sampling b) Systematic random sampling c) Stratified random sampling d) Snow-ball sampling Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702 Which one of the following is not a measure of dispersion (UPSC 07) !a) Mean b) Range c) Mean deviation d) Standard deviation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 700; 18th/e p. 646 All of the following are true about cluster sampling except (AI 07) a) Samples are similar to those in simple Random sampling b) Is a Rapid and simple method c) The sample size may vary according to study design d) It is a type of probability sample Ref: High Yield Biostatistics 2nd/e p. 1, 2; Mahajan 6th/e p. 96, 100 A data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied, dissatisfied. Thisis a (AI 07) a) Normal data !b) Ordinal data c) Interval data d) Ratio data Ref: High yield Biostatistics by Anthony Glaser p. 4 A study was conducted to test if use of herbal tea played any role in prevention of common cold. Data was collected on the number of people who developed cold and those who did not develop cold and data was tabulated in relation to whether they consumed Herbal tea not

Had cold Did not have a cold 34 38 The analytical test of choice to test this study is (AI 07) a) Student -1 test (unpaired) b) Student -1 test (paired) ! c) Chi square test d) Z test Ref: High Yield Biostatistics 2nd/e p. 46, 47; Mahajan 6th/e p. 141, 142 1579. When the confidence level of a test is increased which of the following will happen (Aiims May 07) a) No effect on significance ! b) Previously insignificant value becomes significant c) Previously significant value becomes insignificant d) No change in hypothesis 1580. Mean hemoglobin of a sample of 100 pregnant women was found to be 10 mg% with a standard error of 1.0 mg%. The standard error of the estimate would be (Aiims May 07) !b) 0.1 a) 0.01 c) 1.0 d)10.0 Ref: S.P.M. Park 19th/e p. 703; 18th/e p. 649 1581. Standard error of mean is calculated by ` (Aiims May 07) a) SD/n b) SD/mean SD/ n d) Mean/SD Ref: Park 19th/e p. 703 & 18th/e p. 649 1582. Which of the following characteristics is not of much importance in a screening test (Aiims May 07) a) Low cost b) High safety margin c) High sensitivity !d) High specificity Ref: Park 19th/e p. 113-122 1583. A1 degree of freedom in chi-square test, the value of x2 for a probability of 0.05 is (UP 07) a) 0.45 b) 2.41 !c) 3.84 d) 4.34 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 706 1584. When an outcome is compared with intended objectives, it is called as (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Monitoring
!c)

Herbal tea Consumed Note consumed 12 23

!b) Evaluation

1585.
!

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1587.

1588.

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c) Input-Output analysis d) Network analysis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 723 All are measures of dispersion except (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Mode b) Range c) Variance d) Standard deviation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 700 Match list-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists (UPSC-II 08) List (Diagrams) List II (Type of data for which used) a) Bar diagram 1.Continuous data b) Frequency 2. Discrete data b) polygon c) Line diagram 3. Correlation d) Scatter plot 4. Trend of events Codes: a b c d a) 3 1 4 2 !b) 2 1 4 3 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 2 4 1 3 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 697-699; Simple Biostatistics by A. Indrayan 2nd/e p. 95-99 In national immunization coverage evaluation surveys, what is the commonly used sampling method? (UPSC-II 08) a) Simple random sampling b) Systematic random sampling c) Stratified random sampling d) Cluster random sampling Ref: Simple Biostatistics by A. Indrayan p. 32, 33 Which of the following types of bias can be reduced by allowing equal interview time (AI 08) a) Berkesonian bias b) Recall bias c) Selection bias !d) Interviewer bias Ref: Park 19th/e p. 68, 69; 18th/e p. 67; Basic and clinical Biostatistics By Pawson & Trapp 4th/e p. 337 Standard deviation is a measure of (AI 08) a) Chance b) Central tendecy c) Deviation from mean value d) None

112

1590.

1591.

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Ref Park 18th/e p, 646, 647; Basic & Clinical Biostatisties 4th/e p. 30 Which is the best distribution to study the daily admission of head injury patients in a trauma care centre ? (Aiims May 08) a) Normal distribution b) Binomial distribution c) Uniform distribution d) Poisson distribution Ref: Various websites Mean bone density amongst two groups of 50 people each is compared with each other. The test of significance used would be (A iims May 08) a) Paired-t-test !b) Student t-test c) Analysis of variance d) Chi-Square test Ref: Q no. 22 of Nov 2003, Q no. 40 of May 2003,Q no. 19 of Nov 2001; 1592. NMS Biostatistics p 59; BK Mahajan 6th/e p. 130 After applying a statistical test, an investigator gets the p value as 0.01. It means that a) The probability of finding a significant difference is 1l% b) The probability of declaring a significant difference, when there is truly no difference, is 1% !c) The difference is not significant 1% times and significant 99% times d) The power of the test used is 99% Ref: Park 18th/e p. 650-651 If mean is less than the median, than the data is to be a) Positively skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Equitable distribution d) Normal distribution Ref: High yield Biostatistics by Anthony N. Glaser, a Williams and Wilkins publication 1995th/e p. 12 Study done on a group of patients showed coefficient of variance for BPand serum creatinine to be 20% & 15% respectively. Inference is that a) Variation in BP is more than in serum creatinine. b) Variation in serum creatinine is more than in BP c) Standard deviation of BP is more than of creatinine d) Standard deviation of creatinine is more
113

than of BP Ref: Methods in Biostatlstics by BK Mahajan 6th/e p 74 1595. Normal distribution curve (PGI June 08) ! a) Mean, median, mode are same ! b) B/L symmetrical ! c) Bell shape d) SD is zero e) Mean is one Ref: Park 19th/e p. 702

HEALTH EDUCATION
1596. Which of the following is not a 2 way communication (AI 89) !a) Lectures b) Group discussion c) Panel discussion d) Symposium Ref: Park 19th/e p.716 for a, p.717 for b, 718 for c & d & 18th/e p.662 for a p.663 for b, c & d 1597. The best method of health instruction is (AIIMS 84) a) Providing reading assignments b) Giving lectures ! c) Setting an example d) Organising filmshow Ref: Park 19th/e p. 715 & 18th/e p. 661 1598. The best teaching opportunity for a health worker is the community in while (AIIMS 84) a) Giving health talk at home ! b) Demonstrating to a group of mothers c) Examining mothers and children d) Completing the records Ref: Park 19th/e p. 717 & 18th/e p. 663 1599. All are true about panel discussion except (AI 91) a) Two way discussion ! b) 6 to 20 members participates c) Chief members initiates d) Each one prepares the topic of discussion Ref: Park 19th/e p. 718 & 18th/e p.663 1600. Following are used in planning of Health education except (AI 93) a) Cover felt needs b) Using simple words ! c) Catchy slogans d) Ensuring participation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 714-715 & 18th/e p. 660, 661 1601. The best method of teaching an urban slum about ORS is (AI 93}

1602.

1603.

1604.

1605.

1606.

a) Lecture b) Role play !c) Demonstration d) Flash cards Ref: Park 19th/e p. 717 & 18th/e p. 663 To increase awareness of rural population towards small family norm, the best method is (AIIMS 85, ESI 88, 89, 90) a) Film show b) Charts Exhibitions etc !c) Role playing !d) Setting and Example Ref: Park 19th/e p. 715 & 18th/e p. 661 The most effective method for motivating a couple for adopting family planning practices is (UPSC 02) a) Printed material b) Films and television c) Group discussion !d) Inter - personal communication Ref: Still searching Panel discussion can be defined as (COMEDK 05) a) Series of speeihes !b) Discusion by 48 qualified persons c) Groups describing individual experiences d) Stage wise forrratted teaching Ref: Park 19th/e p. 718 & 18th/e p. 663 The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical scences. In which of the following war the In formation Technology Act, was passed by the Government of India (AI 05) a) 1998 !b) 2000 c) 2001 d) 2003 [Ref: I - T Act 2000 - Department of Information And Technology (www.mit.gov.in/it-bill.asp)] This Act may be called the Information Technology Act, 2000 - Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs The Information Technology Act, formulated by the Ministry Of Law, Justice And Company Affairs (Legislative Department) received the assent of the President on the 9lh of June, 2000. The act came into force from October 17, 2000. With reference to halthful school environment, which one of the Following statements is not correct (UPSC 2006) a) In the class room, esks should be of minus type !b) Per capita space pe student should be
114

6 sq feet c) Combined windowmd door area should be 25% of the floor space d) One urinal should b provided for 60 students Ref: Park 19th/e p. 465 & 18th/e p 426 1607. Which one of the following is the method in the context of health eduttion in which four to eight qualified persons discss a given problem in front of a large audience (UPSC 07, AIIMS 96) a) Group discussion !b) Panel discussion c) Symposium d) Brainstorming Ref: Park 19th/e p. 718

HEALTH PLANNIING & MANAGEMENT

1608. The Community dtelopment programme is meant (AIIMS 84) ! a) To bring about a sjcial and economic change in village life through the effort of the villagers themselves b) To arrange welfare programmes for women and children c) To improve agriculture product through better manure and seed d) To plan developement programme in a village with population of 60 and 80 thousand Ref: Park 17th/e p. 642 1609. The Bhore commiee recommended setting up health centers for population of (TN 89) a) 20,000 b) 30,000 !c) 40,000 d) 75,000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 & 18th/e p. 671 1610. The Bhore committee was set up in (PCI 84) !a) 1943 b) 1946 c) 1947 d) 1950 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 & 18th/e p. 671 1611. PHC was introduced as a result of ......... report (Jipmer 90) !a) Bhore committee b) Kartar sing c) Mudaliar d) Planning commission Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 & 18th/e p. 671 & 686 1612. All are true about Mudaliar committee except (A.I. 89) a) To improve the quality of health care b) Strengthening of the district hospital

1613.

1614.

1615.

1616.

1617.

1618.
!

1619.

c) Consolidation of advances made in the first two five year plan d) Each primary center covers a population of 80,000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 & 18th/e p. 671 Time takan for any project is estimated by (JIPMER 91) a) Work sampling b) Input/output analysis c) Network analysis d) System analysis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 725 & 18th/e p. 669, 670 Government of India launched a National plan of Action against avoidable Disablement known as IMPACT India in (AIIMS 80, UP 92) a) 80 !b) 83 c) 85 d) 87 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 738 & 18th/e p. 682 Anganwadi centers are a part of (JIPMER 93) !a) ICDS scheme b) PHC c) Middle school d) Mid day programme Ref: Park 19th/e p. 527 & 18th/e p. 482 All are goals for 2000 AD except (KERALA 94) a) Death rate below 9 b) Growth rate 2.1 c) Couple protection rate 60% d) Birth rate 31 Ref: Park 16th/e p. 618 Who can wear red cross emblem (KERALA 94) a) Civillian doctors b) Doctors in army medical service c) Government doctors d) Super specialists Ref: Park 19th/e p. 767 & 18th/e p. 710 Which of the following is a voluntary organization (JIPMER 95) a) TB Association of India b) Directrate of Health Service c) Indian Medical Council d) Council of Medical Research Ref: Park 19th/e p. 759 & 18th/e p.702 Panchayat Raj means (TN 95) a) Community health care center b) Local health care center c) Primary health care d) Local self rule government Ref: Park 19th/e p. 732 & 18th/e p. 677
115

1620. While launching a community programme best method of action is (ALL INDIA 96) a) Publicity drive ! b) Talk to community leaders c) Involvement of voluntary agencies d) Organize lecture Ref: Park 19th/e p. 715 & 18th/e p. 661 1621. Recommendation of shrivasthava committee was (PGI 95) a) Abolition of private practice ! b) Creation of multipurpose health workers c) Creation of PHC d) All of above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 727 & 18th/e p. 672 1622. All are Goals for health for all by 2000 A.D. in India except (AIIMS 96) !a) Family size-4 b) Birth rate less than 9/1000 c) NRR-1 d) Infant mortal ity rate - 60 Ref: Park 16th/e p. 618 1623. Bhore committee advised (KERALA 97) ! a) Integration of health services b) 100% immunisation c) Eradication of poverty d) minimum needs programme Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 & 18th/e p. 671 1624. PERT (programme evaluation and review technique) is based on (Kerala 97) a) Behavioral sciences ! b) Quantitative methods c) Qualitative methods d) None of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 725 & 18th/e p. 670 1625. In the critical path method, illness is the maximum if the causal factors affect a particular period of life The vulnerable period is (UPSC 97) a) Shortest !b) Longest c) Cheapest d) Costliest [Ref: Park 19"/ep. 725 & 18th/ep.670] See the last line of Network analysis 1626. Triage is (ALL INDIA 99) a) Treating the most serious cases ! b) Categorisation of the patients and treating them according to the available resource c) Cautery burns d) Treating mentally ill patients Ref: Dorlandss dictionary 28th/e p. 1738 1627. Retrospective study of cases sheets (hospital data) and evaluation (AI 99)

1628.

1629.
!

1630.

1631.

1632.
!a)

1633.

1634.

a) Medical audit b) Medical evalution c) Percormance evaluation d) Professional screening Ref: Park 19th/e p. 734 & 18th/e p.678 Not a component of health sector planning (AIIMS 98) a) Family planning b) Sanitation and water supply c) Nutritional food supplements Medical d) Medical education Ref: Park 19th/e p. 728 & 18th/e p. 673 ROME scheme was introduced consequent to the recommendation of (KERALA 2K) a) Srivastava Committee b) Chadah committee c) Mukherjee committee d) Kartar Singh committee e) 20 point programme Ref: Park 19th/e p. 728 & 18th/e p. 682 Finding the most cost effective way doing a project (DNB 2001) a) Network analysis b) System analysis !c) Cost analysis d) Field analysis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 724 & 18th/e p. 669 The concurrent list of the constitution of India lists the following functions except (Karn. 2001) a) Prevention of extension of communicable disease b) Administration of hospital and health services c) Collection and compilation of vital statistics d) Labour welfare Ref: Still searching Sri chitra trinal Institute is under (SCTIMS 2K) Ministry of science and technology b) Ministry of family Welfare c) Medical council of India d) State Government Ref: Still searching The objective of National population policy 2000 is to bring down the total fertility rate to (UPSC 01) a) 1.5 by year 2010 !b) 2.1 by year 2010 c) 2.6 by year 2006 d) 2.9 by year 2010 Ref: Park 16th/e p. 618 The critical path (CPIV1) method in health planning and management is (UPSC 2001)
116

1635.

1636.

1637.

1638.

1639.

1640.

a) The shortest time taken to complete the project I b) The midpoint for review of the project c) The longest path taken to complete the project d) Concerned with queuing theory Ref: Park 19th/e p. 725 & 18th/e p. 669, 670 P.E.R.T. is a type of (ALLHPH 2001, UPSC 96) a) Input output analysis b) System analysis !c) Network analysis d) Work sampling Ref: Park 19th/e p. 725 & 18th/e p. 669, 670 The National Health Poicy of India, 2002 sets out the following goals to be achieved except (UPSC 04) a) Eradication of polymyelitis by 2005 b) Elimination of leprosy by 2005 c) Zero level growth of HIV/AIDS by 2007 d) Elimination of Kala Azar by 2007 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 & 18th/e p. 670 Medical education which includes 3 months training in preventive and social medicine was introduced by (AMU 05) a) Bhore committee b) Kartar Singh commiee c) Shrivastavcommitte d) Chadah committee Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 & 18th/e p. 671 National Health Policy of India - 2002 includes all the following as gols, except (AIIMS 04) a) Eradicate Polio and yaws by year 2005 b) Achieve zero leve transmission of HIV/ AIDS by year 2010 c) Eliminate Kala-azar by year 2005 d) Eliminate Lymnphatic Filariasis by year 2015 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726 & 18th/e p. 670 The assessment of Health Programme where the benefit is expressed in terms of results achieved in called (J & K 05) a) Cost benefit analys b) Cost effective analysis c) Cost accounting d) Cost containment Ref: Park 19th/e p. 724 & 18th/e p. 669 Drug A & B are both used for treating a particular skin infection. After one standard application, Dnis A eradicates the infection in 95% of both adults and children. Drug B eradicates the infection in 47% of adults and

1641.

1642.

1643.

1644.

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90% of children. There are otherwise no significant pharmacogical differences between the two drugs, and there are no significant side effects. However, the cost of Drug A is twice that of Drug B. Dr. Ram. A general practitioner, always uses Drug B for the first treatment, and resorts to Drug A if the infection persists. Dr. Yogesh, another general practitioner, always uses Drug A for adults and drug B for children. Ignoring indirect costs, which of the following statement is incorrect (MAHE 05) a) Drag A is more effective than B for treating children b) Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating children c) Drug A itsmore cost-effective than drug B for treating children d) Dr. Yogeshs regime achieves a higher level of cost-eggectiveness than Dr. Rams When an intervention is applied to community to evaluate its usefulness, it is termed as a trial for (Aiims Nov 05) !b) Effectiveness a) Efficacy c) Efficiency d) Effect modification Ref: Stedmane Dictionary 546, 547 Which one of the following is not source of managers power (AI 05) a) Reward b) Coercive c) legitimate !d) Efferent [Ref: Power : What Types Do You Have and How Do You use Them ? Link (http:// iahcsmm.org/basic_man501.htm): Types of power that bosses have : Link (http:// courses.nus.edu.sg/ course/socsja/influence/ Group2/bases.htm)] Predominantly, for management of which one of the following resources is the critical path method (CPM) used as one of the health administration techniques (UPSC 2006) a) Money b) Manpower !c) Time d) Material Ref: Park 19th/e p. 725 & 18th/e p 670 Panchayati Raj includes all, except (PGMCET 07) a) Gram Sabha b) Gram Panchayat !c) Nyaya Sabha d) Nyaya Panchayat Ref: Park 19th/e p. 732 A systematic observation and recording of activities of one or more individuals at random interval is done in
117

(UPSC 07, Comed 06) a) Systems analysis b) Network analysis !c) Work sampling d) Input-output analysis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 725 Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objetive is done by (AIIMS Nov 07) !a) Evaluation b) Monitoring c) Input-output ailysis d) Network analysis Ref: Park 19th/e p. 723, 725, 232 Path of longest diation in network analysis is (MAHE 07) a) Limiting path mathod b) Critical path maod c) A & B d) Neither A nor E Who among the following was first an acting President of India and later the President of India ? (UPSC-I 08) a) B.D.Jatti b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed c) W Giri d) Zakir Hussain Ref: General Studies Mannual 2007 p. E17-E19 One-third of the Rajya Sabha members retire every (UPSC-I 08) a) Three years b) Four years !c) Two years d) One year Ref: General Studies Mannual 2007 p. E24 Which of the following allocates business to different Ministries/Departments in the Government of India? (UPSC-I 08) a) Prime Ministers office !b) Cabinet Secretariat c) Ministry of Parliamentary affairs d) Lok sabha secretariat Ref: General Studies Manual, website of cabinet secteriat Which one of the following has the primary function of distributing the revenue between the Centre and States ? (UPSC-I 08) a) Department of Expenditure in the Union Government b) Finance Commission c) Inter-State Council d) Planning Commission Ref: General Studies Mannual 2007 p. E44 If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to

1646.

1647.

1648.

1649.

1650.

1651.

1652.

1653.

1654.

1655.

1656.

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be held within (UPSC-I 08) a) 1 month b) 3 months !c) 6 months d) 1 year Ref: General Studies Mannual 2007 p. E73 With reference to the Parliament of India, the question as to whether the Bill is a money bill or not is decided by who among the following ? (UPSC-I 08) a) President of India b) Prime Minister !c) Speaker of Lok Sabha d) Union Finance Minister Ref: General Studies Mannual 2007 p. E28 How many Articles of the Constitution of India have provisions for the Right to Freedom of Religion? (UPSC-I 08) a) Two b) Three !c) Four d) Five Ref: www.en.wikipedia.org Consider the following statements (UPSC-I 08) 1. The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament 2. The Deputy chairman of the Rajya sfibha is nominated by the chairman of Rajya Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct? !a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ref: General Studies Mannual 2007 p. E20-E21 Which one of the following committees introduced the concept of Multipurpose Health worker ? (UPSC-II 08) a) Bhore Committee b) Jungalwalla Committee c) Kartar singh Committee d) Mudaliar Committee Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726-728 Which one of the follwing is the correct chronological order in which the given Acts were passed in India (UPSC-II 08) a) Quarantine Act, Vaccination Act, Sarda Act, Factory Act. b) Quarantine Act, Sarda Act, Factory Act, Vaccination Act. c) Sarda Act, Vaccination Act, Quarantine Act, factory Act. d) Vaccination Act, Quarantine Act, Factory Act, Sarda Act.
118

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 735, 736, 737 1658. Social physian concept was mooted by (UPSC-II 08) ! a) Bhore Committee b) Chadha Committee . c) Shrivastav Committee d) Kartar Singh Committee Ref: Park 19th/e p. 726-728 1659. Concurrent list does not encompass (AI 08) a) Prevention of extension of communicable disease from one unit to another b) Prevention of adulteration of food stuffs ! c) Regulation and developement of medical profession d) Vital statistics Ref: Park 19th/e p. 730; 18th/e p. 674, 675

HEALTH CARE OF COMMUNITY

1660. Activities of TB Association of India include (PGI 80, AIIMS 86) a) Organising a TB seal camp aign every year to raise funds b) Training of doctors health visitors and social workers c) Promotion of health education ! d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 759 & 18th/e p. 702 1661. A trained dai caters for a population of (AIIMS 87) !a) 1000 b) 2000 c) 3000 d) 4000 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 751 & 18th/e p. 695] 1 for each village 1662. The suggested norms of Doctor to population is (AI 88, AIMS 86) !a) 1 per 3500 b) 1 per 3000 c) 1 per 4000 d) 1 per 4500 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 749 table (5) & 18th/e p. 693 table (3) 1663. A female multipurpose worker does not do (AI 89) a) Distribute condoms ! b) Malaria suruveillance c) Birth death statistics d) Immunisation of mothers Ref: Park 19th/e p. 754 & 18th/e p. 697 1664. Staff covering a population of 1000 in villages (TN 89) a) Multi purpose worker b) Health guide !c) Anganwadi worker

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!

1666.

1667.

1668.

1669.

1670.

1671.

d) Dai Ref: Park 19th/e p. 752 & 18th/e p. 695 Which is true about community health center (AI 91) a) It covers a population of one lakh b) It has an 60 beds with specialities in surgery medicine and gynecology c) Community health officer is selected with a minimum of 5 years exposure d) New medical post of community health officer is created Ref: Park 19th/e p. 753 & 18th/e p. 697 Which is not a duty of traditional birth attendants (AIIMS 91) a) Aseptic delivery b) Health education c) Injection of tetanus toxoid d) Registration of birth [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 752 & 18th/e p. 695] Tetanus toxoid immunization is done by multipurpose health A female multipurpose worker should be able to detect all of the following except (AIIMS 92) !b) Renal disease a) Anemia c) Hydramnios d) Malpresentation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 754 & 18th/e p. 697 workers Which is false regarding an Anganwadi worker (AIIMS 92) a) Part time worker b) Undergoes 4 month training c) 1 for 1000 children d) Selected from the community itself Ref: Park 19th/e p. 752 & 18th/e p. 695 Anganwadi workers are under (PGI 80, AMC 90, 92) a) Ministry of health and family welfare b) Ministry of labor c) ICDS scheme d) PHC Ref: Park 19th/e p. 752 & 18th/e p. 695 In an hospital ideal bed space should be (JIPMER 79, UPSC 83) a) 5 feet b) 7 feet c) 8 feet !d) 12 feet Ref: Still searching According to the national health policy, one subcentre for the hilly areas is (AIIMS 97) !a) 3000 b) 5000 c) 1000 d) 4000
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1672.

1673.

1674.

1675.

1676.

1677.

1678.

1679.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 752 & 18th/e p. 696 All of the following are the principles of primary health care except (UPSC 97) a) Social equity b) Intersectoral coordination c) Specialty services d) Community participation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 741, 742 & 651 & 18th/ e p. 686 AH are grass root workers except (AI 98) a) Anganwadi workers b) Traditional birth attendants c) Village health guide d) Health assitants Ref: Park 19th/e p. 751 & 18th/e p. 695 Health care made universally accessible to individuals and acceptable to them is called (AIIHPH 98) a) Primary health care b) Essential health care c) Community health care d) Social Medicine Ref: Park 19th/e p. 741 & 18th/e p. 686 One PHC should be present in hilly areas for every (AI 99) a) 10,000 people !b) 20,000 people c) 30,000 people d) 50,000 people Ref: Park 19th/e p. 752 & 18th/e p. 696 Village-health guide scheme is not present in (AIIMS 98) a) Karnataka b) J & K c) Tamilnadu !d) All of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 751 & 18th/e p. 695 Principle of primary health care include all except (AI 2K) a) Intersectoral coordination b) Appropriate technology c) Mainly Coordinated by doctors d) Community participation Ref: Park 19th/e p. 741, 742 & 18th/e p. 686 One of the following is not a Voluntary Health agency (Kerala 2K) a) Family planning Association of India b) Indian Council for child Welfare c) Ford Foundation d) Rockfeller Foundation e) National Institute of Nutrition Ref: Park 19th/e p. 767 & 18th/e p. 701, 702 An anganwadi worker is trained for (AIIHPH 2001) a) 3 months !b) 4 months c) 5 months d) 6 months

1680.

1681.

1682.

1683.

1684.
!

1685.

1686.

Ref: Park 19th/e p. 752 & 18th/e p. 695 Peripheral level health workers are all except (TN 03) a) Anganwadi workers b) DAIS !c) Gram Sevak d) VHNS Ref: Park 19th/e p. 751 & 18th/e p. 695 Principles of primary health care include all of the following except (Karn 03) a) Political commiment to health for all b) Rosources allocation c) Disability prevalence d) Community involvement Ref: Park 19th/e p. 741, 742 & 18th/e p. 686, 687 Health for all by the World Health Organization was announced at (Manipal 04) a) USA b) USSR c) Canada !d) Geneva [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 741 & 18th/e p. 687] In 1977 it was decided by 17th/e p. 651 the world health assembly to launch a movement known as Health for all by the year 2000. The Head quarter of WHO is located at Geneva Village health guide scheme was started in (MAHE 05) a) 1974 !b) 1977 c) 1986 d) 1989 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 751 & 18th/e p. 695 Health man power indicated by which of the following (AIIMS June 05) a) Doctor 1 per 3 500 population b) ANM 1 per > 1000 population c) Lab technician 1 per 1 0000 population d) Pharmacist 1 per 100000 population Ref: Park 19th/e p. 749 table (5) & 18th/e p. 693 table 3 The premium of the Community-based Universal Health Insurance Scheme launched during 2003-04 ranges from (AI 06) a) Rs. 1 per day poor an$ individual to Rs.2 per day for a family of seven b) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs.3 per day for a family of seven c) Rs. 2 per day poor and individual to Rs.1 2 per day for a family of seven d) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs.7 per day for a family of seven Ref: http://www.sebahospital.arg/uhi.html Functions of female health worker includes

(PGI June 06) a) Visit 4 subcentres/month ! b) Enlist dais of three sub-centre ! c) Conduct 50% delivery d) Chlorinalion of water e) Collection of urine sample Ref: Park 19th/e p. 754 & 18th/e p. 693 1687. The period of training for a village health guide is (Comed 07) a) 1 month !b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 12 months Ref: Park 19th/e p. 751 1688. Disbursement of old age pension by the Government is (Comed 07) !a) Social assistance b) Social welfare c) Social insurance d) Social defense Community health centres covering a population of (UP 07) a) 40-60,000 b) 60-80,000 !c) 80-1,20,000 d) More than 1,20,000 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 753

Under the Primary health care, which of the following staff is present at the subcentre level (AIIMS Nov 07) ! a) Block extension educator b) Health guides ! c) Multipurpose health worker d) Medical officer Ref: Park 19th/e p. 753

Primary health care, true are all except (AIIMS Nov 07) a) Essential health care for all ! b) Health, services are taken to the doors of people c) Placing peoples health in peoples hands d) Sectors like agriculture, animal husbandary, food, industry & communication are involved Ref: Park 19th/e p. 741, 742

In India, what is the approximate percentage of total land area which is categorised as nationally protected ? (UPSC-I 08) a) 3% !b) 5% c) 7% d) 9% [Ref: www.enwikipedia.org]
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Note - It is roughly 4.95% 1698. The headquarters of UNICEF is in (JIPMER 8 8 ) a) Paris b) Geneva c) Rome !d) New York Ref: Park 19th/e p. 765 & 18th/e p. 708

1693. Biodegradable waste products, disposing in which of the colour code of the bags (UP 08) a) Blue b) Black c) Green !d) Yellow Ref: Park 19th/e p. 648-49

1694. 3-D means in hospital waste management is (UP 08) !a) Disinfection, Disposal, Drainage b) Discard, Disinfection, Drainage c) Destruction, Deep burial, Drainage d) Destruction, Deep burial, Disposal Ref: Park 19th/e p. 648, 649

1699. The UNICEF was established in (PGI 84) a) 1929 !b) 1946 c) 1948 d) 1952 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 765 & 18th/e p. 707

1700. The WHO was set up in (PGI 84) a) 1929 b) 1946 !c) 1948 :d) 1952 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 762 & 18th/e p. 705

1695. Which of the following statements about Delphi method is true (AI 08) a) Method involves formation of a team to undertake and monitor a Delphi on a given subject b) Selection of one or more panels to participate in the exercise. Customarily, the panelists are experts in the area to be investigated. c) The first round in the Delphi method involves development of a questionnaire ! d) All are true Ref: Research in Health care by Sim & Wright (2000) p. 80; Research Methods in Physical Activity by Thomas & Nelson 2005 p. 280, 281

1701. Health for all by 2000 AD is (PGI 89) a) Target b) Objective !c) Goal d) All of above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 29 & 18th/e p. 28

1702. Red Cross was founded by (JIPMER 80, DELHI 93) a) Hippocrates !b) Henry Dunant c) Galen d) Madam Curie Ref: Park 19th/e p. 767 & 18th/e p. 710

1696. All are criteria for normal Indian Reference male except (Aiims May 08) a) 60 kg !b) 2200 Kcal/day c) 8 hrs in bed d) 20-39 age Ref: Park 19th/e p. 501-502; 18th/e p. 457-458

1703. Primary health care is a concept by (DELHI 85, UPSC 93) a) UNICEF and accepted by all countries ! b) WHO and accepted by India c) India and accepted by all countries d) World Health bodies and accepted by common wealth countries Ref: Park 19th/e p. 742, 10 & 18th/e p. 686 & 10

INTERNATIONAL HEALTH
1697. The world health organisation day is (PGI 8 8 ) !a) 7th April b) 21st May c) 2nd August d) 31st December Ref: Park 19th/e p. 762 & 18th/e p. 705
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1704. Intermediate health agencies excluding WHO are (AMC 84, AIIMS 82, UPSC 8 3 , 8 6 ) !a) UNICEF !b) FAO !c) UNESCO !d) ILO Ref: Park 19th/e p. 765, 766 & 18th/e p. 707,

708,709 1711. The headquarters of UNESCO is in (UPSC 9 9 ) a) Geneva !b) Paris c) Newdelhi d) Newyork [No need for ref] WHO- Geneva, UMCEF- New york, FAO- Rome

1705. WHO constitution was made in (PGI 79, ESI 89.90) !a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1952 d) 1956 [Ref: Park 19th/e p. 762 & 18thh/e p. 705] The exact year is 1946

1706. Primary health care as a principle of WHO was founded at (DELHI 85, AMC87) a) Geneva b) Newyork !c) Alma ata d) Austria Ref: Park 19th/e p. 742 & 18th/e p. 686

1712. UNICEF provides all service except (UP 2K) a) Immunization b) Child c) Nutrition d) Family planning e) Child education Ref: Park 19th/e p. 765 & 18th/e p. 708

1707. Organisastion involve in World disease eradication (AIMS 79, PGI 84) a) UNICEF b) NASCAR !d) WHO c) WREP Ref: Park 19th/e p. 742 & 670 & 18th/e p. 705, 706

1713. Head quarters of FAO is at (AIIHPH 2K) a) New york b) Geneva !c) Rome d) San francisco Ref: Park 19th/e p. 766 & 18th/e p. 709

1708. Alma ata Confrernce was held in (JIPMER 9 5 ) !a) 1978 b) 1956 c) 1977 d) 1948 Ref: Park 19th/e p. 742 & 10 & 18th/e p. 686 & 10

1714. World Bank gives loan for (AMU 05) !a) Economic growth b) Microbiological culture TB control c) Accident problems d) All Ref: Park 19th/e p. 766& 18th/e p. 709

1709. UNDP is an international agency which works for (UPSC 96) a) Development of children !b) Development of human & natural resources in a country c) Economic development of the country d) Research and technological deveplopment of the country Ref: Park 19th/e p. 765 & 18th/e p. 708

1715. Director general of WHO is (Manipal 2006) ! a) Dr. Le Jong-wall b) Dr. Nakajima c) Dr. Grow Hariem BranHand d) Dr. Mohler

1716. The slogan for WHO 2005 (Manipal 2006) ! a) Road safety b) Maternal and child health c) Aging d) Physical activity

1710. The WHO announced, immunisation is a primary responsibility of (KERALA 96) ! a) States b) International community c) Voluntary agencies d) An individual Ref: Park 19th/e p. 21 & 18th/e p. 21
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1717. AH of the following activities of Junior Red cross except (UP 07) ! a) Military hospital workder b) Village uplift c) Prevent epidemic work d) Any of the above Ref: Park 19th/e p. 768

1718. The organozation concerned with improving the working and living condictions of the w o r k i n g population all over the world is (MAHE 07) !a) ILO b) FAO c) WHO d) UNDP

( U P S a) Delhi c) Ajmer Ref: www.nhai.org

- 1 0 !b) Jaipur d) Udaipur

1719. For inventing which one of the following is Marc Koska best known? (UPSC-I 08) a) Artificial blood !b) Disposable K1-syringe c) Vaccine against Polio d) ELISA test Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/marc_koska

1724. Which one of the following places does not have an oil refinery ? (UPSC-I 08) a) Guwahati b) Mangalore !c) Varanasi d) Visakhapatnam Ref: en.wikedpidia.org/wiki/ category:oil_refmeriesjn_india

1720. In which year did the Kyoto Protocol come into force? (UPSC-I 08) a) 2001 b) 2003 !c) 2005 d) 2007 Ref: en.wikpedia.org/wiki/kyoto-protocol

1725. The organization concerned with improving the working and living conditions of the working population all over the world is !a) ILO b) FAO c) WHO c) UNDP Ref: Park 19th/ep. 766, 768

1721. Which one of the following was the major outcome of the famous Earth summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 (UPSC-I 08) a) Setting up of bio-safety standards b) Global strategy for control of pandemics !c) Framework convention on climate change d) Framework on strategies for sustainable development Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wikijearthsummit

1726. Care is associated with (Manipal 08) !a) ICDS b) CRY. c) Ford Foundation d) RCH sheme Ref: Park 19th/ep. 766, 768

1722. Consider the following statements (UPSC-I 08) 1. El Nino is a weather phenomenon observed in Indian Ocean 2. El Nino is linked to droughts in Northern India Which of the statements given above is/are c o r r e c t ? a) 1 only b) 2 only !c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ref: www.wikepedia.org

1723. At which one of the following cities do National highways No, 8,11 and 12 meet ?
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