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IBPS - RRBs Office Assistants
MOCK TEST
No.of Questions: 200 Total Marks: 200 Time:150 Minutes
TEST - I: REASONING
Directions (1 - 5): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
11 stands Ato K are sitting in the first row of the clear facing the teacher 'D' who is
immediate left of F, is second to the right of 'C'. A is second to the right of 'E' who
is at one of the ends. J is immediate neighbour 'A' and 'B' and third to left of 'G'. H is
immediate left of 'D' and third to the right of 'I'.
1. Who is sitting in the middle?
1) B 2) K 3) I
4) F 5) G
2. Who is second to the right of K?
1) E 2) J 3) B
4) D 5) A
3. Who are the friends sitting right of A?
1) J 2) E 3) L
4) G 5) H
4. If all the eleven friends are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right,
positions of how many will remain unchanged?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3
4) 4 5) 5
5. Who are the friends sitting at the extreme ends?
1) E, D 2) D, F 3) K, H
4) A, K 5) E, F
Directions (6 - 10): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give answer
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5) If both conclusions I and II follow.
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6. Statements: A B = C < M D < E
Conclusions: I. A > D II. E > B
7. Statements: Z = Y > X > W V < T
Conclusions: I. Z > W II. W< T
8. Statements: N < M O > P = Q R
Conclusions: I. Q > R II. N < P
9. Statements: T > M = B Q > F > R
Conclusions: I. M > R II. F < T
10. Statements: O = P < Q R = S T
Conclusions: I. T Q II. O < S
Directions (11 - 15): In each of the questions below, two statements are given fol-
lowed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given state-
ments disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer -
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
5) If both conclusions I and II follow.
11. Statements: Some watches are clocks. All crystals are watches.
Conclusions: I. Some clocks are crystals
II. No crystal being a clock is a possibility.
12. Statements: All cats are dogs. All rats are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cats being rats is a possibility
II. All rats being dogs is a possibility.
13. Statements: All rocks are mountains. No mountain is a fountain.
Conclusions: I. Some fountains are rocks.
II. No fountain is a rock.
14. Statements: No energy is force. Some force is power.
Conclusions: I. No energy is power.
II. All forces being energy is a possibility.
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15. Statements: All pages are trees. All trees are precious.
Conclusions: I. All pages are precious.
II. All precious can never be pages.
Directions (16 - 20): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the
centre. Four out of the eight friends drive a car while four drive a bike. No two friends
who drive a car are immediate neighbours of each other. A, who drives a car sits third
to left of H. G, who drives a bike sits second to right of E. F and C are immediate
neighbours of each other. F does not drive a car. B is an immediate neighbour of F
not of H.
16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrange-
ment and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the
group?
1) B 2) E 3) A
4) C 5) D
17. If all the eight friends are made to sit in alphabetical order in the anti-clockwise
direction starting from A, positions of how many will remain unchanged
(excluding A)?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) Four
18. In which of the following pairs do both the members drive a bike?
1) F, D 2) B, D 3) F, C
4) H, B 5) E, H
19. Which of the following is true about D?
1) D drives a bike
2) H and E are immediate neighbours of D
3) H sits third to left of D
4) D sits second to the left of C
5) None of these
20. What is F's position with respect to E?
1) Immediate right 2) Third to the right
3) Second to the left 4) Fourth to the left
5) Second to the right
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Directions (21 - 25): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code 'support the other group' is written as 'ja pe la no', 'the mission
gains support' is written as 'ke ja zi la', 'gains other than money' is written as 'fu no ho
zi', and 'more support and money' is written as 're qi fu ja'.
21. What is the code for 'group'?
1) ja 2) pe 3) la
4) no 5) Cannot be determined
22. What does 'zi' stand for?
1) mission 2) than 3) other
4) the 5) gains
23. Which of the following may represent 'more than the group'?
1) la qi ho pe 2) re la qi ho 3) re no la pe
4) pe ke qi la 5) qi ho la fu
24. What is code for 'mission'?
1) la 2) zi 3) ke
4) ja 5) ke or la
25. Which of the following may represent 'money matters more'?
1) yo fu no 2) re bu qi 3) zi qi yo
4) fu re bu 5) la fu bu
Directions (26 - 30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two state-
ments numbered I and II below it. ,You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and -
Give answer 1) If the data in statement I alone sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement II alone not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer 2) If the data in statement II alone sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement I alone not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer 3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
sufficient answer the question.
Give answer 4) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to
answer the question.
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26. Who is oldest among Peter, Kevin, Joseph and Jason?
I. Jason is older than Peter and Joseph.
II. Kevin is younger than Joseph.
27. How is 'happy' written in a code language?
I. 'I happy today' is written as 'ke ne que' and 'today happy day' is written as 'ke
joi ne'.
II. 'I play' is written as 'que pa'.
28. H is the mother of J. How is J related to V?
I. V is the only daughter of H.
II. V is the sister of J.
29. What is the colour of white snow in a colour code?
I. Green is called Black, Black is called Blue, and Blue is called Red.
II. Red is called White and White is called Orange.
30. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated around a circular table and are
equidistant from each other. Who is second to the right of T?
I. P is to the immediate left of Q and Q sits opposite R.
II. S is to the immediate left of U.
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to that group?
1) 9 2) 216 3) 8
4) 64 5) 512
32. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters 'EPA'
using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to that group?
1) Meter 2) Litre 3) Yard
4) Feet 5) Mile
34. If each vowel in the word 'REMAINS' is changed to next alphabet according
to the English alphabetical series and each consonant changed to previous
letter, how many alphabets will be there in the English alphabetical series
between the letters which are at the extreme ends of the new word thus formed?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) Four
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35. Pointing to a man's photograph Ajay said 'my mother is the only daughter of his
father'. How is the man in the photograph related to Ajay?
1) Uncle 2) Brother
3) Son 4) Grandfather
5) Cannot be determined
36. In a certain code language, 'NICE' is coded as 'OIDE', similarly 'WORK' is
coded as 'XOSK'. How will 'SAID' be coded in the same code
language?
1) TIJD 2) TBJD 3) SBIE
4) TAJD 5) TBID
37. Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.
A one of the main reasons behind the lack of applicants for teachers' training /
degree programmes is that teachers have not experienced any improvement in
working conditions and their salaries have not kept pace with salaries in other
professions.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given paragraph?
1) Very tough entrance exam is also one of main reasons behind plunging num-
ber of applicants for teachers training programmes.
2) In the years to come, the schools would face a crunch in terms of availabili-
ty of qualified teachers.
3) Training programmes for other professions are also as good as teachers'
training programmes.
4) The number of applicants for teachers training programmes will improve if
the salaries in other professions are reduced.
5) No direct relationship can be established between the work conditions of a
particular profession and preference for it among the qualified candidates.
Directions (38 - 40): Read the given statements carefully and answer the questions
which follow.
38. After the government announced a compensatory policy for farmers in return
for the acquisition of their land, the farmers demanded a written proof of the
policy.
Which of the following could possibly be a CAUSE for demanding the written
proof?
1) The farmers were unable to contest the inadequate compensation for their in
earlier such policies.
2) The compensation promised in the policy was grossly inadequate.
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3) The farmers were unwilling to surrender their lands to the government.
4) The farmers demand a certain percentage of share out of the revenue
generated the government off their lands.
5) The only option to enforce the government officials to frame a compensatory
policy for the farmers was to demand a proof.
39. The number of cases concerning a non contiguous chemical poisoning is on the
rise among local villagers.
Which of the following could possibly be a CAUSE of the statement given
above?
1) The government has ordered an immediate enquiry into the matter.
2) Unless timely treatment is provided to the patients, the poisoning can prove
to be fatal.
3) Many factories surrounding the village do not dispose off their wastes
appropriately.
4) The only hospital in the area is not equipped to treat chemical poisoning
related ailments.
5) A study done a couple of years ago had reported that a large number of
farmers had stopped using chemical fertilizers owing to their ill - effects on
health.
40. In a governmental initiative which started a couple of years ago, school
teachers of a particular State were engaged in teaching the illiterate every
evening after the regular school hours.
Which of the following can be an EFFECT of the statement given above?
1) A report given to the State government a couple of years ago stated a high
percentage of illiterate population as compared to some other States.
2) Many teachers were motivated to join the scheme started by the government
as the remuneration provided to them was attractive.
3) Lack of accessibility to schools and extreme poverty were major causes of
illiteracy in the State.
4) Evening classes help individuals working as daily wagers attend classes after
work.
5) The literacy rate in the State has improved significantly this year.
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TEST - II: NUMERICAL ABILITY
Directions (41 - 45): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions.

41. 360 225 2 + 379 = ?

279
4) 289 5) None of these
42. (9)
3
(81)
2
(27)
3
= (3)?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5
4) 6 5) None of these
43. 572 26 12 200 = (2)
?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7
4) 8 5) None of these
44. 4
1

2
2
5

6
= ? 1
7

12
1) 3
1

4
2) 3
5

12
3) 2
7

12
4) 3
3

4
5) None of these
45. 36% of 245 40% of 210 = 10 ?
1) 4.2 2) 6.8 3) 4.9
4) 5.6 5) None of these
Directions (46 - 50): What approximate value should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following questions. (You are not expected to calculate the exact
value).
46.

8938 (5.96)
2
= ?
1) 3050 2) 3780 3) 2340
4) 3400 5) 3950
47. 4734.96 3454.03 1612.8 = ? 1611.43
1) 1280 2) 2290 3) 1020
4) 18150 5) 1040
323 971 56
48. = ?
53 251 61
1) 27 2) 9 3) 4
4) 16 5) 21
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49. 133.008 2.97 111.87 + 74.13 = ?
1) 311 2) 234 3) 357
4) 290 5) 399
50. 32.1 2799 316.36 =?
1) 220 2) 284 3) 375
4) 505 5) 190
51. Rita invested 25% more than Sunil. Sunil invested 30% less than Abhinav who
invested Rs.6,000. What is the respective ratio between the amount that Rita
invested and the total amount invested by all of them together?
1) 35 : 104 2) 13 : 29 3) 101 : 36
4) 35 : 103 5) None of these
52. A man gets a simple interest of Rs.1,000 on a certain principal at the rate of 5
p.c.p.a. in 4 years. What compound interest will the man get on twice the
principal in two years at the same rate?
1) Rs.1,050 2) Rs.1,005 3) Rs.11,025
4) Rs.10,125 5) None of these
53. The perimeter of a square is equal to twice the perimeter of a rectangle of length
8 cms. and breadth 7 cms. What is the circumference of a semicircle whose
diameter is equal to the side of the square? (Rounded off to the two decimal
places).
1) 47.14 cms. 2) 23.57 cms. 3) 42.46 cms.
4) 47.47 cms. 5) None of these
54. Radha's present age is three years less than twice her age 12 years ago.
Also the respective ratio between Raj's present age and Radha's present age is
4 : 9. What will be Raj's age after 5 years?
1) 12 years 2) 17 years 3) 21 years
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
55. The respective ratio between the speeds of a car, a train and a bus is 5 : 9 : 4.
The average speed of the car, the bus and the train is 72 kmph together.
What is the average speed of the car and the train together?
1) 82 kmph 2) 78 kmph
3) 84 kmph 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
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Directions (56 - 60): In the following number series only one number is wrong.
Find out the wrong number.
56. 32 34 37 46 62 87 123
1) 34 2) 37 3) 62
4) 87 5) 46
57. 7 18 40 106 183 282 404
1) 18 2) 282 3) 404
4) 106 5) 183
58. 850 843 829 808 788 745 703
1) 843 2) 829 3) 808
4) 788 5) 745
59. 33 321 465 537 573 590 600
1) 321 2) 465 3) 573
4) 537 5) 590
60. 37 47 52 67 87 112 142
1) 47 2) 52 3) 67
4) 87 5) 112
Directions (61 - 65): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Monthly Expenditure (in thousands) by five people on Rent, Food,
Children's Education, Clothes and Travelling.
61. What is the total monthly expenditure made by D on rent, B on clothes and E
on travelling together?
1) Rs.18,720 2) Rs.1,78,200
3) Rs.17,800 4) Rs.1,84,720
5) None of these
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Expenditure
Rent Food Children's Clothes Travelling
People Education
A 12.5 7.50 6.52 3.30 4.72
B 16.0 8.55 8.38 2.75 5.86
C 13.8 11.40 12.60 6.30 9.30
D 9.65 17.80 9.95 8.40 7.85
E 14.5 9.00 10.25 3.90 5.42
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62. What is the average monthly expenditure on food by all the people together?
1) Rs.1,08,500 2) Rs.10,850 3) Rs.17,800
4) Rs.1,84,720 5) None of these
63. Whose monthly expenditure on all the heads together is the lowest among them?
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) D 5) E
64. If the monthly expenditure of C all the heads together is?
1) Rs.1,58,760 2) Rs.15,87,600
3) Rs.13,230 4) Rs.1,32,300
5) None of these
65. What is the respective ratio between the monthly expenditure made by A on
travelling and the monthly expenditure made by D on clothes?
1) 57 : 105 2) 105 : 59
3) 37 : 103 4) 59 : 105
5) None of these
Directions (66 - 70): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that
follow:
There are two companies A and B. Both companies produce all the four
different products viz. Computers, Phones, Pendrives, and Compact Discs (CDs).
Company A produces a total of 800 products. The respective ratio between the total
products produced by Company Aand Company B is 4 : 5. 20% of the total products
produced by Company B are Pendrives and 40% of them are CDs.
2

5
of the
remaining products produced by Company B are Phones. The total number of
computers produced by both the companies together is 340. 20% of the total products
produced by Company A are CDs. Company A produces equal number of Pendrives
and Phones.
66. What is the respective ratio between the number of Pendrives produced by
Company A and the number of Computers produced by Company B?
1) 8 : 9 2) 9 : 7 3) 7 : 9
4) 4 : 9 5) None of these
67. What is the total number of Phones produced by both the companies together?
1) 430 2) 420 3) 390
4) 530 5) None of these
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68. Number of Phones produced by Company A is what percent of the total
number of products produced by Company B?
1) 25 2) 29 3) 33
4) 37 5) None of these
69. What is the average of the number of Pendrives, CDs and Computers produced
by Company B?
1) 840 2) 280 3) 270
4) 860 5) None of these
70. What is the difference between the number of CDs produced by Company B
and the number of Computers produced by Company A?
1) 200 2) 250 3) 300
4) 350 5) None of these
71. A 320 - metre - long train moving at an average speed of 120 kmph crosses a
platform in 24 seconds. Aman crosses the same platform in 4 minutes.
What is the speed of the man in metre / second?
1) 2.4 2) 1.5 3) 1.6
4) 2.0 5) None of these
Directions (72 - 76): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Candidates who appeared and passed in the test from
four schools in six different years.
72. What was the total number of failed candidates from school C in the year 2008
and the number of candidates who appeared in the exam from school D in the
year 2006?
1) 335 2) 325 3) 322
4) 332 5) None of these
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School
Year
A
Appeared Passed
B
Appeared Passed
C
Appeared Passed
D
Appeared Passed
2004 124 78 445 354 454 343 546 345
2005 234 124 545 435 732 567 565 456
2006 456 235 664 454 693 456 235 112
2007 398 156 345 144 645 545 546 234
2008 546 346 584 354 656 258 656 564
2009 547 435 704 347 578 313 456 252
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73. In which year was the difference between the number of candidates who
appeared and passed in the exam from school B second lowest?
1) 2004 2) 2005 3) 2006
4) 2007 5) 2008
74. What was the ratio of the number of candidates who appeared from school C in
the year 2006 to the number of candidates who passed the exam from school D
in the year 2009?
1) 11 : 4 2) 11 : 5 3) 5 : 11
4) 49 : 11 5) None of these
75. The number of candidates who passed in the exam from school B in the year
2005 was approximately what percent of the number of candidates who
appeared from school A in the year 2008?
1) 76 2) 87 3) 90
4) 84 5) 80
76. What was the approximate percentage increase in the number of candidates
who passed the exam from school A in the year 2009 as compared to
previous year?
1) 22 2) 39 3) 26
4) 30 5) 34
77. The simple interest accrued on a certain principal is Rs.7,200 in six years at the
rate of 12 p.c.p.a. What would be the compound interest accrued on that
principal at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. in 2 years?
1) Rs.1,020 2) Rs.1,055 3) Rs.1,050
4) Rs.1,025 5) None of these
78. The sum of the square of the first number and the cube of the second number
together is 568. Also, the square of the second number is 15 less than the square
of 8. What is the value of three-fifths of the first number? (Assuming both the
numbers is positive)
1) 18 2) 8 3) 9
4) 16 5) None of these
79. The sum of 8 consecutive odd numbers is 656. Also, the average of four con-
secutive even numbers is 87. What is the sum of the smallest odd number and
the second largest even number?
1) 165 2) 175
3) 163 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
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80. Seema purchased an item for Rs.9,600 and sold it at a loss of 5 percent.
From that money she purchased another item and sold it at a gain of 5 percent.
What is her overall gain / loss?
1) Loss of Rs. 36 2) Profit of Rs. 24 3) Loss of Rs. 54
4) Profit of Rs. 36 5) None of these
TEST - III: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (81 - 85): For each set of jumbled sentences given below rearrange the
sentences in proper sequence and answer the questions that follow.
(A) The others had fled to seashore, lake, and mountain, and had started settling
down in their new abodes.
(B) Meanwhile, Hollis's fiancee, Miss Loris Sherman, was enjoying the
air - conditioned comforts, at Lower Saranac Lake, for a month.
(C) Every evening Hollis and I prowled about the deserted town searching for
coolness in empty cafes, dining - rooms, and roof gardens.
(D) There was not a soul left in the city except Hollis and me - and two or three
sun worshippers who chose to stay back.
(E) But all we could find was the same hot and humid air in all the places we
visited.
81. Which is the LAST sentence?
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) F 5) E
82. Which is the FIRST sentence?
1) E 2) A 3) B
4) D 5) C
83. Which is the THIRD sentence?
1) C 2) E 3) A
4) F 5) B
84. Which sentence will come before the FINAL sentence?
1) F 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) A
85. Which is the SECOND sentence?
1) B 2) D 3) F 4) A 5) C
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Directions (86 - 95): For each of the following passages, read the passage
carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are marked in bold
to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Barter is a method of exchange by which goods or services are directly
exchanged for other goods or services without using a medium of exchange, such as
money. It is usually bilateral, but may be multilateral, and usually exists parallel to
monetary systems in most developed countries, though to a very limited extent. Barter
usually replaces money as the method of exchange in times of monetary crisis, such
as when the currency may be either unstable (e.g.: hyper inflation or deflationary
spiral) or simply unavailable for conducting commerce.
Contrary to popular conception, there is no evidence of a society or economy
that relied primarily on barter. Instead, non - monetary societies operated largely along
the principles of gift economics. When barter did in fact occur, it was usually between
either complete strangers or would - be enemies.
While one - to - one bartering is practiced between individuals and businesses
on an informal basis, organized barter exchanges have developed to conduct third
party bartering. A barter exchange operates as a broker and bank in which each
participating member has an account that is debited when purchases are made, and
credited when sales are made. Compared to one - to - one bartering, concerns over
unequal exchanges are reduced in a barter exchange.
Modern trade and barter has developed into a sophisticated tool that can
sometimes help businesses increase their efficiencies by monetizing their unused
capacities and excess inventories. The worldwide organized barter exchange and trade
industry has grown to an $8 billion a year industry and is used by thousands of
businesses and individuals. The advent of the Internet and sophisticated relational
database software programs has made it easier to conduct these activities and has
further advanced the barter industry's growth. Organized barter has grown globally to
the point where virtually every country now has a formalized barter and trade network
of some kind. Complex business models based on the concept of barter are today
possible since the advent of Web 2.0 technologies.
Bartering benefits companies and countries that see a mutual benefit in
exchanging goods and services rather than cash, and it also enables those who are
lacking hard currency to obtain goods and services. To make up for a lack of hard
currency, Thailand's township, Amphoe Kut Chum, once issued its own local scrip
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called Bia Kut Chum: Bia is Thai for cowry shell, was once 1/6400 Baht, and is still
current in metaphorical expressions. Running afoul of national currency laws, the
community changed to barter coupons called Boon Kut Chum that bear a fixed value
in baht, which they swap for goods and services within the community.
A trade or barter exchange is a commercial organization that provides a
trading platform and bookkeeping system for its members or clients. The member
companies buy and sell products and services to each other using an internal
currency known as barter or trade dollars. Modern barter and trade has evolved
considerably to become an effective method of increasing sales, conserving cash,
moving inventory, and making use of excess production capacity for businesses
around the world. Businesses in barter earn trade credits (instead of cash) that are
deposited into their account. They then have the ability to purchase goods and
services from other members utilizing their trade credits - they are not obligated to
purchase from whom they sold to, and vice - versa. The exchange plays an important
role because they provide the record - keeping, brokering expertise and monthly
statements to each member. Commercial exchanges make money by charging a
commission on each transaction either all on the buy side, all on the sell side, or a
combination of both. Transaction fees typically run between 8 and 15%.
It is estimated that over 350,000 businesses in the United States are involved
in barter exchange activities. There are approximately 400 commercial and corporate
barter companies serving all parts of the world. There are many opportunities for
entrepreneurs to start barter exchange. Several major cities in the U.S. and Canada do
not currently have a local barter exchange. There are two industry groups, the National
Association of Trade Exchanges (NATE) and the International Reciprocal Trade
Association (IRTA). Both offer training and promoter high ethical standards among
their members. Moreover, each has created its own currency through which its
member barter companies can trade. NATE's currency is known as the BANC and
IRTA's currency is called Universal Currency (US).
The first exchange system was the Swiss WIR Bank. It was founded in 1934
as a result of currency shortages after the stock market crash of 1929. ''WIR'' is both
an abbreviation of Wirtschaftsring and the word for ''we'' in German, reminding
participants that the economic circle is also a community.
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86. What does the word 'bilateral' mean?
1) Having a lateral trade
2) Having more than two sides to a deal
3) Having or involving two sides
4) Not involving anyone
5) Involving three or more sides
87. Choose the word that is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word
'sophisticated' as used in the passage.
1) Bilateral 2) Naive 3) Unrefined
4) Elaborate 5) Internal
88. What does the word 'advent' mean in the passage?
1) Onset 2) Advert 3) Avert
4) Anticipate 5) Rhetoric
89. Choose the word that is most OPPOSITE to the word 'ethical' as used in the
passage.
1) Dilemma 2) Moral 3) Upright
4) Virtuous 5) Unscrupulous
90. '' ......... and usually exists parallel to monetary systems in most developed
countries'' In the above sentence, what does the word 'parallel' mean?
1) perpendicular 2) alongside 3) contradicting
4) conflicting 5) overlapping
91. What is generally believed, according to the passage?
1) That societies or economies relied primarily on barter.
2) That societies or economies did not rely primarily on barter
3) That societies or economies had barter as their core form of exchange.
4) Both 1 and 3
5) None of these
92. What is the advantage of a barter exchange as compared to one - to - one
bartering?
1) Reduction in Inequality 2) Reduction in Equality
3) Biased Judgement 4) Less Expensive 5) Free of cost
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93. What was the event that was a major factor in the origin of exchange systems?
1) World War - I 2) World War - II
3) The Great Depression of 1929 4) Stock market crash of 1929
5) The cold war
94. Under which circumstances can barter trade be considered most beneficial?
1) During war 2) During prosperity
3) During monetary crisis 4) During financial crisis
5) During commercial crisis
95. ''Running afoul of national currency laws....''
What does 'Running afoul' in the above statement mean?
1) Run with a bad stench 2) Run with a foul
3) Be foul 4) Act in accordance with the law
5) Act in a way not allowed by rules or the law
Directions (96 - 100): Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/ set of
words from among the given options.
96. His voice was very ............ which immensely pleased the audience.
1) mephitic 2) cacophonic 3) dissonant
4) mellifluous 5) None of these
97. Your ............ in releasing the prices has cost us the deal.
1) accuracy 2) precision 3) requiem
4) propinquity 5) None of these
98. There is a clear ............ between theoretical and practical implementation and
the difference is very prominent.
1) resemblance 2) relation 3) schism
4) rabble 5) association
99. The conditions here are ............ for making a vineyard as the temperature is
optimum.
1) propitious 2) ominous 3) inauspicious
4) adverse 5) audacious
100. The defender was ............ for being lazy.
1) censured 2) censored 3) cynosure 4) broached 5) cantered
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Directions (101 - 105): Replace the phrases with the given options, such that the
given sentence is grammatically correct.
101. A beautiful young woman won the tournament.
1) A beauty young woman 2) A beautiful young women
3) A beautifier young woman 4) A beautification young woman
5) No correction required
102. The annoy Spanish boy will come to our place next Monday.
1) The annoying Spanish boy 2) The annoyance Spanish boy
3) The annoys Spanish boy 4) The annoy Spanisher boy
5) No correction required
103. The girl, with a hurry, is waiting over there.
1) within a hurry 2) in a hurry
3) on a hurry 4) at a hurry
5) No correction required
104. The man to the station told me to take the next train.
1) of the station 2) in the station 3) nearest the station
4) at the station 5) No correction required
105. The boy from London lives in Mumbai.
1) of London 2) by London 3) at London
4) on London 5) No correction required
Directions (106 - 115): Find out the appropriate words in the blanks of the
following passage.
Speculation and opinions on accidents ..(106).. to ..(107).. them as part of natural
..(108)... This is a very convenient way of ..(109).. all are concerned of their
responsibility, accountability, and even culpability.
Thus, over the years, the general public and the media have begun to ..(110)..
accidents as natural disasters. Most of the investigations ..(111).. on the ..(112).. that
some natural phenomenon has ..(113).. the accident. Thus, concrete ..(114).. are
by - passed, proper modelling and analysis of the process ignored and ridiculous but
convenient conclusions ..(115).. at.
106. 1) mean 2) offer 3) are
4) tend 5) define
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107. 1) project 2) notify 3) simplify
4) sustain 5) surround
108. 1) Calamity 2) Disaster 3) Chaos
4) Certainty 5) Phenomenon
109. 1) resolving 2) absolving 3) discerning
4) releasing 5) accounting
110. 1) deviate 2) doubt 3) consider
4) raise 5) rethink
111. 1) approach 2) succeed 3) avail
4) proceed 5) pursue
112. 1) theory 2) basic 3) criteria
4) principle 5) assumption
113. 1) magnified 2) triggered 3) managed
4) surrounded 5) inspired
114. 1) evidences 2) analysis 3) solution
4) verifying 5) nature
115. 1) signaled 2) called 3) arrived
4) managed 5) strived
Directions (116 - 120): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it.
116. The relationship between (1) / small and large business in (2) / many countries
have changed (3)/ considerable due to modern franchising (4)./ No error (5).
117. My friend will not only (1) / receive you at the (2) / station and also (3)/ have
you as a guest in his house (4)./ No error (5).
118. Each of the (1)/ mistakes have (2) / to be corrected before (3) /printing the
article. (4)./ No error (5).
119. Which time (1)/ do you have to (2) / go to (3) / the dentist tomorrow? (4)./ No
error (5).
120. The journalist along with (1)/ the camera crew were (2) / kidnapped by the (3)
/ militants last night. (4) / No error (5).
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TEST - IV : COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
121. A reusable set of commands or steps saved by a user is called a:
1) function 2) template 3) macro
4) relative reference 5) None of these
122. Types of charts that can be created in a MS - Excel include all EXCEPT a
............ chart.
1) pie 2) scatter 3) block
4) bar 5) None of these
123. Pixels are
1) dots on the screen arranged in rows.
2) dots of ink from an inkjet printer.
3) points of light used by a cordless, wireless, optical mouse.
4) points on the end of PDA handhold devices. 5) None of these.
124. The density of pixels on a screen is known as:
1) screen clarity 2) pixility 3) pixel depth
4) resolution 5) None of these
125. Previously drawn images that artists can legally use in their own work are known
as:
1) copy art 2) clip art 3) free art
4) shareware 5) None of these
126. CAD software is primarily used in:
1) desktop publishing 2) software development 3) engineering
4) accounting 5) None of these
127. CAD stands for:
1) Computer - Assisted Design 2) Computer Application Design
3) Computer Application and Design 4) Computer - Aided Design
5) None of these
128. Power Point is an example of:
1) presentation graphics software 2) raster graphics software
3) photo management software 4) gray - scale graphics software
5) None of these
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129. The creation of motion from still pictures is called:
1) a presentation 2) 3 - D modeling 3) transition
4) animation 5) None
130. When something is displayed at the same time as it is created, accessed, or
imported, it is known as:
1) digital time 2) real time 3) online time
4) batch time 5) None of these
131. The process of copying files to a CD is known as:
1) storing 2) copying 3) burning
4) pasting 5) None of these
132. The term ............ generally means using some combination of text, graphics,
animation, video, music, voice, and sound effects to communicate.
1) MIDI 2) Hyperlinking
3) WYSIWYG 4) Multimedia
5) None of these
133. ............ combines virtual worlds with networking, placing multiple participants
in a virtual space.
1) Virtual reality 2) Hypermedia 3) Hyper reality
4) Real time 5) None of these
134. MIDI stands for:
1) Musical Instruction and Digitized Instruments
2) Musical Instrument Digital Interface
3) Music and Instruments Digitized Instantly
4) Musical Interface Digitally Integrated
5) None of these
135. A database is a(n)
1) spreadsheet program 2) application
3) desktop publishing program 4) operating system
5) None of these
136. A collection of information stored in an organized form in a computer is a(n):
1) database 2) database program
3) operating system 4) utility tool
5) None of these
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137. A database is typically composed of one or more:
1) rows 2) tables 3) files
4) columns 5) None of these
138. Information about just one individual person is referred to as a:
1) column 2) cell 3) record
4) table 5) None of these
139. A new, powerful data description language that can access databases through
the Internet is:
1) HTML 2) Intranets 3) SML
4) XML 5) None of these
140. When a user uses English - like language to query a database, it is known as:
1) SQL 2) object - oriented language
3) a multi - media database 4) natural language
5) None of these
141. A basic computer network can be described as:
1) a minimum of five computers linked together
2) computer and cables that link the network together
3) two or more computers that are linked together
4) the use of satellites linking computers together
5) None of these
142. The three essential components of every computer system include all EXCEPT:
1) software 2) hardware
3) people or users 4) cables 5) None of these
143. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about wireless networks?
1) Wireless networks are convenient
2) Wireless networks are faster than wired networks
3) Wireless networks use radio transmitters
4) Wireless networks are slower than wired LANs
5) None of these
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144. MAN stands for
1) Metropolitan Area Network
2) Marked Area Network
3) Metropolitan Arranged Network
4) Manufactured Arrangement of Networks
5) None of these
145. The hardware device or software program that sends messages between
networks is known as a:
1) bridge 2) backbone 3) router
4) gateway 5) None of these
146. The system of satellites that circle the earth and can determine any position is
known as a:
1) GPS 2) LAN 3) receiver
4) MAN 5) None of these
147. Remote access means that:
1) a computer is linked directly to a network
2) you connect to a network through a phone line, television cable, or satellite
3) you can access the Internet from anywhere
4) your Internet connection is through a satellite rather than phone lines
5) None of these
148. NIC stands for:
1) Network Internal Card
2) Network Interface Card
3) Networking Internet Connection
4) Newer Industrial Computer 5) None
149. A NIC allows direct connection to:
1) the Internet 2) a printer 3) a network
4) a modem 5) None
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150. Computer bits must be ............ to travel over phone lines.
1) digital signals 2) analog signals 3) modem signals
4) converted to bytes 5) None of these
151. Modems use ............ cable to connect to a telephone network through a
modular phone jack.
1) phone 2) coaxial 3) digital
4) analog 5) None of these
152. Modem speed is measured in:
1) bits per second 2) bytes per second 3) bits per millisecond
4) bytes per minute 5) None of these
153. What is the term for the amount of information transmitted through a
communication medium in a certain amount of time?
1) DPI 2) Bandwidth 3) BPS
4) Baud rate 5) None of these
154. Broadband connections include all EXCEPT:
1) cable modems 2) DSL 3) wireless
4) phone modems 5) None of these
155. What type of cable uses light waves to carry information at high speed?
1) Cable modems 2) Wireless cables 3) Fiber - optic cables
4) Phone lines 5) None of these
156. Which type of media has the longest maximum distance?
1) Twisted pair 2) Coaxial cable 3) Wireless
4) Fiber - optic 5) None of these
157. The rules for exchanging data between a terminal and one or more computers
is known as a(n):
1) procedure 2) algorithm 3) set of laws
4) protocol 5) None of these
158. In a client/ server environment, most or all of the network operating system
resides on the:
1) Client machine 2) Server computer
3) CD 4) Mainframe 5) None of these
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159. The network configuration that allows every computer to act as both a client
and a server is a:
1) client/ server model 2) host system
3) server network 4) peer - to - peer network
5) None of these
160. The ......... stores data and software that are to be shared by several users.
1) mainframe 2) file server 3) print server
4) client 5) None of these
TEST - V : GENERALAWARENESS
161. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between
banks and financial institutions is known as?
1) CHAPS 2) SWIFT 3) NEFT
4) SFMS 5) CHIPS
162. Buy now & pay later refers to?
1) Foreign Currency 2) Internet Banking 3) US Dollars
4) Traveler's cheques 5) Credit Cards
163. Which one of the following is not 'Money Market Instrument'?
1) Treasury Bills 2) Commercial Paper
3) Fixed Deposit 4) Equity Shares
5) None of these
164. Which one of the following is a retail banking product?
1) Home Loans 2) Working capital finance
3) Corporate Term Loans 4) All the above
5) None of these
165. Finance Ministry has asked the RBI to allow common ATMs that will be owned
and managed by non - banking entities hoping to cut transaction costs for banks.
Such ATMs are known as?
1) Black label ATMs 2) Offsite ATMs
3) On site ATMs or red ATMs 4) Third party ATMs
5) White label ATMs
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166. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Fiscal Policy Functions
2) Exchange Control Functions
3) Issuance, Exchange and Destruction of currency notes
4) Monetary Authority Functions
5) Supervisory and Control Functions
167. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank account?
1) Identity Proof 2) Address Proof
3) Recent Photographs 4) Domicile Certificate
5) None
168. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by DICGC?
1) Rs.2,00,000 per depositor per bank
2) Rs.2,00,000 per depositor across all banks
3) Rs.1,00,000 per depositor per bank
4) Rs.1,00,000 per depositor across all banks
5) None
169. The present Foreign Trade Policy of India will continue till?
1) Dec 2013 2) Mar 2015 3) Mar 2014
4) Jun 2014 5) Dec 2014
170. With reference to a cheque who is drawee?
1) The bank that collects cheque.
2) The payee's bank.
3) The endorsee's bank.
4) The endorser's bank.
5) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn.
171. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, funds can be moved from
one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being
bunched with any other transaction?
1) RTGS 2) NEFT 3) TT 4) EFT 5) MT
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172. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of -
1) All Scheduled commercial banks excluding RRBs.
2) All Scheduled commercial banks including RRBs.
3) Only Public Sector Banks.
4) All Banking Companies.
5) All scheduled banks except private banks.
173. Nationalization of banks aimed at all of the following except?
1) Provision of adequate credit for agriculture, SME & exports.
2) Removal of control by a few capitalists.
3) Provision of credit to big industries only.
4) Access of banking to masses.
5) Encouragement of a new class of entrepreneurs.
174. Which one of the following banks is headed by a woman CEO?
1) Bank of Baroda 2) HDFC Bank
3) Central Bank of India 4) PNB 5) ICICI
175. Base Rate is the rate below which no Bank can lend their funds. Who sets up this
'Base Rate' for Banks?
1) Individuals Banks Board 2) Ministry of Commerce
3) Ministry of Finance 4) RBI 5) Interest Rate Commission of India
176. What is a 'Debit Card'?
1) It is a card issued by a Rating Agency.
2) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment even
in the absence of any balance in the account.
3) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment at
Point of sales (POS) if there is balance in the account.
4) It is a card issued to borrowers.
5) It is a card which can be used for making STD calls.
177. Axis Bank is a?
1) Public Sector Bank 2) Private Sector Bank
3) Co - operative Bank 4) Foreign Bank 5) Gramin Bank
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178. By increasing repo rate, the economy may observe the following effects ........
1) Rate of interest on loans and advances will be costlier.
2) Industrial output would be affected to an extent.
3) Banks will increase rate of interest on deposits.
4) Industry houses may borrow money from foreign countries.
5) All of these.
179. Increased interest rates, as is existing in the economy at present will ..........
1) lead to reduction in borrowings. 2) lead to lower GDP growth.
3) mean higher cost of raw materials. 4) mean lower cost of raw materials.
5) mean higher wage bill.
180. Which of the following schemes is launched to provide pension to the members
of unorganized sectors in India?
1) Swabhiman 2) Jeevan Dhara 3) Jeevan Kalyan
4) ASHA 5) Swavalamban
181. Acheque returned for insufficiency of funds. Payee will have right to issue notice
and approach court of law for justice under section 138 of which act?
1) Indian Penal Code 2) Negotiable Instrument Act
3) Criminal Procedure Code 4) Payment and Settlement Act
5) Indian Contract Act
182. Which of the following is an example of Financial assets?
1) National Saving Certificate 2) Infrastructure Bonds
3) Indira Vikas Patra 4) Krishi Vikas Patra 5) All of these
183. Bank branches which can undertake foreign exchange business directly are
known as:
1) Authorized dealers 2) Foreign dealers
3) Overseas branches 4) Approved dealers 5) Exchange branches
184. The Financial Literacy does not include which of the following?
1) How to invest the funds 2) How to use the limited funds carefully
3) How to minimize the risks 4) How to reinvest the money earned
5) None of these
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185. 'ADB' refers to -
1) Amedical Development Bank 2) Amedical Depository Bureau
3) Additional Debit Balance 4) Only 1 & 2
5) Asian Development bank
186. When a banker talks about CDR, what is he talking about?
1) Corporate Debt Restructuring 2) Corporate Debt Rollover
3) Company Debt Rollover 4) Corporate Deposit Restructuring
5) Company Deposit Restructuring
187. Expand the term ALM as used in Banking/ Finance sector?
1) Asset Liability Management 2) Asset Liability Maturity
3) Asset Liability Mismatch 4) Asset Liability Manpower
5) Asset Liability Maintenance
188. To review tax laws and suggest ways for a stable and non - adversarial tax
administration, the Government of India on August 26, 2013 set up a Tax
Administration Reform Commission (TARC) under the Chairmanship of?
1) Parthasarathy Shome 2) Y.G.Parande
3) S.S.N. Murthy 4) M.R.Diwakar 5) None of these
189. National Media Center was inaugurated by the Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan
Singh and UPA Chairperson Sonia Gandhi on August 24, 2013 in which of the
following cities?
1) Hyderabad 2) New Delhi 3) Mumbai
4) Chandigarh 5) Bangalore
190. Who has been chosen for 2012 - 13 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna, India's highest
honour for a sports person? (The award given on August 31, 2013)
1) Krishna Poonia 2) Gagan Narang
3) Ronjan Sodhi 4) P.V. Sindhu
5) Vijay Kumar
191. Who is the author of the book "My Journey: Transforming Dreams into Actions"?
(It was launched in August 2013)
1) Amartya Sen 2) Barack Obama
3) Tony Blair 4) A P J Abdul Kalam 5) Pranab Mukherjee
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192. Head Office of which of the following banks is in Delhi?
1) UCO Bank 2) Bank of India
3) Corporation Bank 4) United Bank of India
5) Punjab National Bank
193. The Head of the Public Sector Bank in India is designated as?
1) Governor 2) President
3) Vice President 4) Chief Executive Officer
5) Chairman and MD
194. World Ozone Day is celebrated on?
1) September 8 2) November 8
3) November 16 4) September 16
5) September 27
195. The capital of Vietnam is?
1) Phnom Penh 2) Jakarta 3) Manila
4) Hanoi 5) Yangon
196. Buddh International Circuit is related to?
1) Cricket 2) Hockey
3) Football 4) Formula One
5) Tennis
197. Fiscal Policy refers to?
1) Sharing of its revenue by the central government with states
2) Sale and purchase of securities by RBI
3) Keeping foreign exchange reserves
4) Government taxes, expenditure and borrowings
5) None of these
198. Who won the Scripps National Spelling Bee competition for 2013, becoming the
sixth Indian - American to win the title in a row?
1) Arvind Mahankali 2) Pranav Shivshankar
3) Sriram Hathwar 4) Chetan Reddy
5) Vismaya Kharkar
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199. What is India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate for the entire
2012 - 13? (It is the lowest in the last decade)
1) 6 percent 2) 5 percent
3) 6.2 percent 4) 5.5 percent
5) 6.5 percent
200. Salwa Judum is a civilian outfit aimed at countering Naxalite violence in
Chhattisgarh. Its founder was killed in a Maoist ambush on May 25, 2013. Name
him?
1) Kawasi Lakhma 2) Nandkumar Patel
3) Mahendra Karma 4) Uday Mudaliar
5) None of these
ANSWERS
1-3; 2-2; 3-1; 4-1; 5-5; 6-2; 7-5; 8-4; 9-4; 10-5; 11-3; 12-5; 13-2; 14-4; 15-1; 16-2;
17-2; 18-5; 19-4; 20-3; 21-2; 22-5; 23-1; 24-3; 25-4; 26-5; 27-4; 28-1; 29-2; 30-5;
31-1; 32-3; 33-2; 34-1; 35-1; 36-4; 37-2; 38-1; 39-3; 40-4; 41-1; 42-3; 43-2; 44-1;
45-5; 46-4; 47-1; 48-5; 49-3; 50-2; 51-4; 52-5; 53-1; 54-2; 55-3; 56-1; 57-3; 58-4;
59-5; 60-1; 61-5; 62-2; 63-1; 64-5; 65-4; 66-5; 67-1; 68-5; 69-2; 70-3; 71-4; 72-5;
73-2; 74-1; 75-5; 76-3; 77-4; 78-3; 79-3; 80-5; 81-2; 82-4; 83-1; 84-3; 85-4; 86-3;
87-4; 88-1; 89-5; 90-2; 91-4; 92-1; 93-4; 94-3; 95-5; 96-4; 97-1; 98-3; 99-1; 100-1;
101-5; 102-1; 103-2; 104-4; 105-5; 106-4; 107-1; 108-5; 109-2; 110-3; 111-4; 112-5;
113-2; 114-1; 115-3; 116-4; 117-3; 118-2; 119-1; 120-2; 121-3; 122-3; 123-1; 124-4;
125-2; 126-3; 127-4; 128-1; 129-4; 130-2; 131-3; 132-4; 133-1; 134-2; 135-2; 136-1;
137-02; 138-3; 139-4; 140-1; 141-3; 142-4; 143-2; 144-1; 145-3; 146-1; 147-2;
148-2; 149-3; 150-2; 151-1; 152-1; 153-2; 154-4; 155-3; 156-3; 157-4; 158-2; 159-4;
160-2. 161-2; 162-5; 163-3; 164-3; 165-5; 166-1; 167-4; 168-3; 169-3; 170-5;
171-1; 172-2; 173-3; 174-5; 175-1; 176-3; 177-2; 178-1; 179-3; 180-5; 181-2;
182-5; 183-5; 184-5; 185-5; 186-1; 187-1; 188-1; 189-2; 190-3; 191-4; 192-5;
193-5; 194-4; 195-4; 196-4; 197-4; 198-1; 199-2; 200-3.
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REG -IBPS -2013