Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

DATE : 13/05/2012

Code -

Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Solutions

Time : 3 hrs.

Max. Marks: 480

for
CBSE Final Exam. 2012
1.

The dimensions of (00)1/2 are

(1) [L1/2T1/2]
(3) [LT1]

Ans. (4)

(2) [L1T]
Sol. smg

(4) [L1/2T1/2]

Ans. (3)
Sol. c
2.

vmax =

4.

0 0

A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the

ground with a certain momentum P. If the same
stone is dropped from a height 100% more than the
previous height, the momentum when it hits the
ground will change by
(1) 68%

(2) 41%

(3) 200%

(4) 100%

3.

A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates

so that the instantaneous power delivered to the
car has a constant magnitude P 0 . The
instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to
(2) t1/2
(3) t1/2
t

(4)

Ans. (2)

2mE 2m 2 gh m 2 gh

P = m 2 g 2h 2P 1.41 P

s Rg

(1) t2P0

Ans. (2)
Sol. P =

2
mvmax
R

Sol. P0 mav m

P P
100% 41%
P

A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track

of radius R. If s represents the static friction
between the road and tyres of the car, the
maximum speed of the car in circular motion is
given by
(1)

s mRg

(2)

Rg
s

(3)

mRg / s

(4)

s Rg

v2 Pt

2
m

vdv

dv
v
dt

P
m

dt
0

2Pt
m

v t2

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5.

A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless

vertical axle. Its radius R = 2 m and its moment
of inertia about the axle is 200 kg m 2. It is
initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge
of the platform and begins to walk along the edge
at the speed of 1 ms1 relative to the ground.
Time taken by the man to complete one revolution
is
(1) s

(2)

3
s
2

(3) 2s

(4)

s
2

Sol. Xcm =

8.

Ans. (3)
Sol. Gain of angular speed of disc

rel =

T
6.

300 0 500 40 400 70

1200

20000 28000 48000

40 cm
1200
120

If ve is escape velocity and vo is orbital velocity of

a satellite for orbit close to the earths surface,
then these are related by
(1) vo 2 ve

(2) vo = ve

(3) ve 2 vo

(4) ve 2 vo

Ans. (4)

mvR 50 1 2 100 1

rad/s
I
200
200 2

Angular speed of man ()

m1 x1 m2 x2 m3 x3
m1 m2 m3

GM
, ve
R

Sol. v0
9.

v 1
rad/s
r 2

1 1
1 rad/s
2 2

2 2

2 s

Which one of the following plots represents the

variation of gravitational field on a particle with
distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R?
(r is measured from the centre of the spherical
shell)

The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc

is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the
disc and passing through

C
B

(1)

(2)

(2) C

(3) D

(4) A

(3)

Sol. Parallel axis theorem

Sol. Eln = Zero

E0

hB > hC > hD > hA IB > IC > ID > IA

(3) 50 cm

(4) 30 cm

GM
r2

10. A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness 0.1 m

is exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100C.
A block of ice at 0C rests on the upper surface of
the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The
thermal conductivity of slab is (Given latent heat
of fusion of ice = 3.36 105 J kg1 )

Three masses are placed on the x-axis : 300 g at

origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at
x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass
from the origin is
(2) 45 cm

(4)

I = ICM + Mh2

Ans. (1)

(1) 40 cm

(1) B

Ans. (2)

7.

2GM
2 v0
R

Ans. (1)

(1) 1.24 J/m/s/C

(2) 1.29 J/m/s/C

(3) 2.05 J/m/s/C

(4) 1.02 J/m/s/C

Ans. (1)

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

13. A train moving at a speed of 220 ms1 towards a

stationary object, emits a sound of frequency
1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object
gets reflected back to the train as echo. The
frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of
the train is

KAt(1 2 )
Sol. ML
d

K 0.36 3600 100

(0.1)

4.8 3.36 10 =
K = 1.24 J/m/s/C

(Speed of sound in air is 330 ms1)

11. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three

different processes as indicated in the P-V diagram

A
P

2
3

(1) 3500 Hz
(2) 4000 Hz

(3) 5000 Hz

(4) 3000 Hz
Ans. (3)

V
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas
along the three processes and U1, U2 , U3
indicate the change in internal energy along the
three processes respectively, then

v v0
Sol. f
f
v vs
330 220

1000
330 220

(1) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3

(3) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1 > U2 > U3

= 5000 Hz

(4) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 > U2 > U3

14. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric

field E in the space between the plates. If the
distance between the plates is d and area of each
plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is

Ans. (1)
Sol. U1 = U2 = U3
and W1 > W2 > W3
Q1 > Q2 > Q3
12. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given
by :

(1) 2

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

2
(2) E

(3)

1
E 2 Ad
2 0

(4) 0EAd

1
0 E 2 Ad
2

15. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are

given charges of 1 10 2 C and 5 102 C,
respectively. If these are connected by a conducting
wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is

Ans. (2)

1
0 E 2
2

Sol. E U E V

where x and y are in metres an t is in seconds.

The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave
velocity is

V pmax

Ad
0

(1)

Ans. (3)

y 3sin (50t x )
2

Sol.

550
1000
110

(2) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 = U2 = U3

(1) 2 102 C

(2) 3 102 C

(3) 4 102 C

(4) 1 102 C

Ans. (2)

3
KA 3
2
2

Sol. Q2

QR2
( 1 5) 102 3

R1 R2
13
= 3 102 C

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

16. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the

figure is 30 watts. The value of R is

2ME
qB

Sol. R

M pEp

M E

10 V

q M
E p E p
qp M

qp

(1) 20

(2) 15

(3) 10

(4) 30

Ans. (3)
Sol. P

19. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a

V2 V2

R1 R2

magnetic field requires 3 J of work to turn it

through 60. The torque needed to maintain the
needle in this position will be

102
102
30
R
5

100
30 20

R = 10

(2)

(4)

i
e

1
3
2

MB 2 3

1
2
1

3
3J
2

sin(100t ) ampere

sin 100t volt

3
2

The average power in Watts consumed in the

circuit is

Ans. (3)
Sol. V

3
J
2

20. The instantaneous values of alternating current

and voltages in a circuit are given as

V
0

(4)

3J

MB sin 60 2 3

(3)

(3)

V
0

(2) 3 J

Sol. W MB(cos0 cos 60) MB

(1) 2 3 J

Ans. (2)

17. A cell having an emf and internal resistance r is

connected across a variable external resistance R.
As the resistance R is increased, the plot of
potential difference V across R is given by

(1)

1
1 MeV 1 MeV
4

Rr

r
1
R

18. A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving

in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic
field. What should be the energy of an -particle to
describe a circle of same radius in the same field?
(1) 2 MeV

(2) 1 MeV

(3) 0.5 MeV

(4) 4 MeV

(1)

1
4

(2)

(3)

1
2

(4)

3
4
1
8

Ans. (4)
Sol. Pav =
=

Ans. (2)

E0 I 0
1
1 1

cos

cos
2
3
2
2 2
1
W
8

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21. In a coil of resistance 10 , the induced current

developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is
shown in figure as a function of time. The
magnitude of change in flux through the coil in
Weber is

24. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis

of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such
a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away
from the mirror. The length of the image is

i (amp)

(1) 10 cm

(2) 15 cm

(3) 2.5 cm

(4) 5 cm

Ans. (4)

Sol. u = 30
f = 10

0.1

(1) 8

(2) 2

(3) 6

(4) 4

1 1 1

v u f

t(s)

(3) The ratio of magnetic permeability to the

electric susceptibility of vacuum

(3)

10

P
200

(2) 400 P
(4) 100 P

Ans. (1)

(4) Unity
Ans. (2)

Sol.

E
B

h
p

23. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to

be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be
made of a material whose refractive index

p=

2 and 1

p
P
=
= 200P

0.005

26. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and

2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive
metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio
of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is

(3) is less than 1

(4) is greater than 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. min = (i + e) A
A = 2i A

1
1
1
1 1 3 2

10 30 30 10
30
30

(1) 200 P

(2) Reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

i = A, r1 r2

20

25. If the momentum of an electron is changed by P,

then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it
changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of
electron will be

(1) The speed of light in vacuum

(2) lies between 2 and

15

Length of image = 20 15 = 5 cm

22. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the

amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic
wave propagating in vacuum is equal to

(1) lies between

30

v = 15

1
RQ 10 (0.1 4) 2 Wb
2

Sol. c

1 1 1

v f u

Ans. (2)
Sol. Q

(1) 1 : 4

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 1

(4) 1 : 5

Ans. (2)

A
2

Sol. v E

v1
1 0.5

v2
2.5 0.5

sin i
A
2cos
sin r
2

0.5
1 1

2
4 2

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

30. To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of

the following input will be correct

27. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a

hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation.
Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition
from

A
B
C
A

(1) 2 1
(2) 3 2
(3) 4 2
(4) 4 2
Ans. (4)
Sol. 3 1 UV Hydrogen atom
3 2
42

Y
B

(1) 1

(2) 1

(3) 1

(4) 0

Ans. (2)
Sol. y = (A + B) C

Visible

C should be 1

4 3 Infrared

Either of A and B OR both A and B are 1.

28. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days.

The time interval (t2 t1) between the time t2
2
1
when
of it has decayed and the time t1 when
3
3
of it had decayed as
(1) 30 days

(2) 50 days

(3) 60 days

(4) 15 days

31. Given that the equilibrium constant for the

reaction
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2 SO3(g)
has a value of 278 at a particular temperature.
What is the value of the equilibrium constant for
the following reaction at the same temperature ?
SO3(g) SO2(g) +

Ans. (2)

2
Sol. t1 time at which
is active i.e. A1
3

1
O
2 2(g)

(1) 1.8 103

(2) 3.6 103

(3) 6.0 102

(4) 1.3 105

Ans. (3)
t2 time at which

1
is active i.e. A2
3

Sol. 2SO2 (g) O2 (g)

2SO3 (g)

A1
2 so one half life is required (50 days).
A2

(2) 3000

(3) 4000

(4) 1000

1
O (g)
2 2

[SO3 ]
1

[SO2 ][O2 ]2

1
k
2

IC 2 mA
2 103

0.5 102 50
I B 40 A 40 106

Av

278

[SO2 ][O2 ]2
k
[SO3 ]

Ans. (1)
Sol.

[SO2 ]2 [O2 ]

SO3 (g)
SO2 (g)

29. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is

100 . Base current is changed by 40 A which
results in a change in collector current by 2 mA.
This transistor is used as a common emitter
amplifier with a load resistance of 4 K. The
voltage gain of the amplifier is
(1) 2000

[SO3 ]2

k1

1
k2 =

RL
4 k
50
2000
100
Ri

k2 =

[SO3 ]2
[SO2 ]2 [O2 ]

= 278

278

1
278

= 0.0614 = 6.14 102

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34. Activation energy (Ea) and rate constants (k1 and

k 2 ) of a chemical reaction at two different
temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by

32. Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close packed

(c.c.p.). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is
composed of oxide ions. One fourth of the
tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A
and the octahedral voids are occupied by a
monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is :
(1) ABO2

(1) ln

E 1
k2
1
a
k1
R T1 T2

(2) ln

k2
E 1
1
a

k1
R T2 T1

(3) ln

E 1
k2
1
a

k1
R T2 T1

(4) ln

k2 Ea 1
1

k1
R T1 T2

(2) A2BO2
(3) A2B3O4
(4) AB2O2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Number of O2 ions = 4
Number of A

Ans. (2, 4)

1
82
4

Sol. Fact
35. During change of O2 to O2 ion, the electron adds
on which one of the following orbitals?

Number of B = 4

(1) * orbitals

Formula = A2B4O4 = AB2O2

(2) orbitals

33. Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by

A2 and B2 to give the compound AB(g).

(3) * orbitals

A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g).

(4) orbitals

At equilibrium, the concentration

Ans. (1)

of A2 = 3.0 103 M

Sol. Electron is added in * orbitals.

of B2 = 4.2 103 M

36. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions

are given below

of AB = 2.8 103 M

F2(g) + 2e 2F(aq) ;

If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at

527C, then the value of Kc will be :

Eo = +2.85 V

Cl2(g) + 2e 2Cl(aq) ; Eo = +1.36 V

(1) 2.0

Br2(l) + 2e 2Br(aq) ; Eo = +1.06 V

(2) 1.9

I2(s) + 2e 2I(aq) ;

(3) 0.62

The strongest oxidising and reducing agents

respectively are

(4) 4.5
Ans. (3)
Sol. K c

(1) F2 and I

(2) Br2 and Cl

(3) Cl2 and Br

(4) Cl2 and I2

Ans. (1)

[AB]2
[A 2 ][B2 ]

Sol. Reduction potential is highest for F2 and lowest for

I.
37. A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse
out as helium. Its molecular mass will be

[2.8 10 3 ]2
3 10 3 4.2 103

7.84 106
12.6 10

Eo = +0.53 V

7.84
= 0.622
12.6

(1) 27 u

(2) 36 u

(3) 64 u

(4) 9 u

Ans. (2)

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rHe

Sol.
rX

or

XCHCl3

MX
MHe

VHe t X

t He VX

XCH2Cl2

MX
4

XCH2Cl2 41.5 0.69 28.63

XCH2Cl 2 PCH
2Cl 2
Psolution = 62 + 28.63 = 90.63 mm

o
40. Molar conductivities m

MX
or 9 =
4

91.0 S cm2 mol1 respectively om for CH3COOH

will be

38. The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is

given as

(3)

h
2
3h
2

h
2

(2)

(4)

(1) 425.5 S cm2 mol1

(2) 180.5 S cm2 mol1

(3) 290.8 S cm2 mol1

(4) 390.5 S cm2 mol1

Ans. (4)
Sol. m(CH COOH) = m(CH

h
2

3COONa)

+ m(HCl) m(NaCl)

= 91 + 425.9 126.4
= 390.5 S cm2 mol1

Ans. (1)

41. For real gases van der Waals equation is written

Sol. For p-orbital l = 1

Orbital angular momentum =

h
l(l 1)
2

h
1(1 1)
2

an 2
as p 2 (V nb) n RT

V
where 'a' and 'b' are van der Waals constants.
Two sets of gases are :
(I) O2, CO2, H2 and He

h
2
2

(II) CH4, O2 and H2

The gases given in set-I in increasing order of 'b'
and gases given in set-II in decreasing order of 'a',
are arranged below. Select the correct order from
the following :

h
2

39. Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and

dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 25C are 200 mmHg
and 41.5 mmHg respectively. Vapour pressure of
the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3
and 40 g of CH2Cl2 at the same temperature will
be (Molecular mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 u and
molecular mass of CH2Cl2 = 85 u)
(1) 173.9 mmHg

(2) 615.0 mmHg

(3) 347.9 mmHg

(4) 285.5 mmHg

(1) (I) He < H2 < CO2 < O2 (II) CH2 > H2 > O2
(2) (I) O2 < He < H2 < CO2 (II) H2 > O2 > CH4
(3) (I) H2 < He < O2 < CO2 (II) CH4 > O2 >H2
(4) (I) H2 < O2 <He < CO2 (II) O2 > CH4 > H2
Ans. (3)
42. Equal volumes of two monoatomic gases, A and B,
at same temperature and pressure are mixed. The
ratio of specific heats (Cp/Cv) of the mixture will
be:

Ans. (No one is correct option)

Sol. n CHCl3

at infinite dilution of

NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and

MX = 36

(1)

0.47
0.69
0.68

XCHCl3 200 0.31 62

PCHCl3 PCHCl
3

MX
4

0.21
0.31
0.68

25.5
0.21
119.5

n CH2Cl 2

(1) 0.83

(2) 1.50

(3) 3.3

(4) 1.67

Ans. (4)

40
0.47
85

Sol. For monoatomic gas

nTotal = 0.68

Cp
Cv

1.67 .

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43. Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution

of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II).
Which of the following statements is not true?

47. In the replacement reaction

Cl + MF

(1) Red complex has a square planar geometry.

CF + MI

The reaction will be most favourable if M happens

to be

(2) Complex has symmetrical H-bonding

(3) Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry

(1) Na

(2) K

(3) Rb

(4) Li

(4) Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate

ligand

Ans. (3)

HC
dimethylglyoxime 3

H3C

Sol. The reaction is SN1. The reaction will be more

favoured when there is more release of F which
depends upon polarising power of metal. Size of Rb
is largest among the given options so more release
of F will take place.

C
C

OH

N
OH

Ans. (3)

48. In which of the following arrangements the given

sequence is not strictly according to the property
indicated against it?

d6cation

44. Low spin complex of

in an octahedral
field will have the following energy:

12
P
(1)
5 o

12
3P
(2)
5 o

2
o 2P
(3)
5

2
o P
(4)
5

(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic

strength
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : increasing pKa
values
(3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing acidic
character

( o = Crystal Field Splitting Energy in an

octahedral field, P = Electron pairing energy)

(4) CO 2 < SiO 2 < SnO 2 < PbO 2 : increasing

oxidising power

Ans. (2)

Ans. (2)

45. Which one of the following does not correctly

represent the correct order of the property indicated
against it?

Sol. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te

Acidic nature increases so pKa decreases in the
same order.

(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of

oxidation states

49. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the

correct order in which the bond order is increasing
in them

(2) Ti 3+ < V 3+ < Cr 3+ < Mn 3+ : increasing

magnetic moment

(1) NO < O2 < C22 < He2+

(3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points

(2) O2 < NO < C22 < He2+

(4) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization

enthalpy

(3) C22 < He2+ < O2 < NO

(4) He2+ < O2 < NO < C22

Ans. (3)

Ans. (4)

Sol. M.P. increases from Ti to Cr and then decreases.

Sol. Fact
50. The catalytic activity of transition metals and their
compounds is ascribed mainly to

46. Four successive members of the first series of the

transition metals are listed below. For which one

o
of them the standard potential EM2 / M

(1) Their magnetic behaviour

value

(2) Their unfilled d-orbitals

has a positive sign?

(3) Their ability to adopt variable oxidation states

(1) Co (Z = 27)

(2) Ni (Z = 28)

(3) Cu (Z = 29)

(4) Fe (Z = 26)

(4) Their chemical reactivity

Ans. (3)
Sol. Catalytic property of transition metal is mainly due
to ability to adopt multiple oxidation state and
complex formation.

Ans. (3)
Sol. ECu+2/Cu = +0.34 volt

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

51. Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation

state?

55. Which one of the following sets forms the

biodegradable polymer?

(1) U

(1) CH2 = CH CN and

CH2 = CH CH = CH2

(2) Th

(2) H2N CH2 COOH and

H2N (CH2)5 COOH

(3) Ac
(4) Pa

(3) HO CH2 CH2 OH and

Ans. (3)

HOOC

Sol. Actinium exhibit only + 3 oxidation state.

52. The Gibb's energy for the decomposition of Al2O3
at 500C is as follows :

COOH

CH = CH2 and

(4)

CH2 = CH CH = CH2

2
4
Al2 O3 Al O2 ; r G 960 kJ mol 1
3
3

Ans. (2)

The potential difference needed for the electrolytic

reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) at 500C is
at least:

Sol. Nylon-2-nylon-6 is a biodegradable polymer which

monomer is H 2 N CH 2 COOH and
H2N (CH2)5 COOH

(1) 4.5 V

56. An organic compound (C3H9N) (A), when treated

with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas was
evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl3 and caustic
potash gave (C) which on reduction gave
isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A).

(2) 3.0 V
(3) 2.5 V
(4) 5.0 V
Ans. (3)
Sol. G = nFE

(1)

53. Chloroamphenicol is an
(1) Antifertility drug

CH3
CH3

CH

NH2

(2) CH3CH2 NHCH3

(2) Antihistaminic

(3) CH3

(3) Antispetic and disinfectant

CH3

CH3

(4) Antibiotic-broad spectrum

(4) CH3CH2CH2 NH2

Ans. (4)
Sol. Fact

Ans. (1)

54. Consider the following reaction

Sol. Condition of reaction is satisfied by 1 amine

COCl

H2
Pb BaSO 4

containing CH3 CH group .

'A'

CH3

The product 'A; is

57. Which of the following reagents will be able to

distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne?

(1) C6H5CHO
(2) C6H5OH

(1) NaNH2

(2) HCl

(3) C6H5COCH3

(3) O2

(4) Br2

(4) C6H5Cl

Ans. (1)

Ans. (1)

Sol. NaNH2 reacts with but-1-yne due to presence of

acidic hydrogen but not with but-2-yne.

Sol. It is Rosenmund reduction.

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

62. Read the following five statements (A - E) and

answer as asked next to them.

58. Consider the reaction

RCHO + NH2NH2 RCH = N NH2

(A) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is

retained on the parent sporophyte.

What sort of reaction is it?

(1) Electrophilic addition - elimination reaction

(B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not

independent.

(2) Free radical addition - elimination reaction

(3) Electrophilic substitution - elimination reaction

(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed

than that in Polytrichum.

(4) Nucleophilic addition - elimination reaction

Ans. (4)

(D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.

Sol. It is the nucleophilic addition elimination reaction

of aldehyde.

(E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls.

How many of the above statements are correct?

59. Which of the following compounds will give a

yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?
(1) Acetophenone

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) One

Ans. (4)

(2) Methyl acetate

Sol. Equisetum Homosporous pteridophyte

(3) Acetamide

63. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly

matched?

(4) 2-hydroxypropane
Ans. (1, 4)
Sol. Both Acetophenone and 2-hydroxypropane give
iodoform reaction.
60. Which of the following compounds can be used as
antifreeze in automobile radiators?

(1) Ginkgo

Archegonia

(2) Salvinia

Prothallus

(3) Viroids

RNA

(4) Mustard

Synergids

(1) Methyl alcohol

Ans. (2)

(2) Glycol

Sol. Salvinia Heterosporous pteridophyte

(3) Nitrophenol

64. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas

and Chlorella have been included in

(4) Ethyl alcohol

Ans. (2)

(1) Protista

(2) Algae

Sol. Glycol act as antifreeze substance.

(3) Plantae

(4) Monera

Ans. (1)

61. How many organisms in the list given below are

autotrophs?

Sol. Kingdom Protista has brought together

Chlamydomonas, Chlorella (earlier placed in Algae
within plants and both having cell walls) with
Paramoecium and Amoeba (which were earlier
placed in animal kingdom) which lack it.

Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas,

Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces,
Trypansoma, Porphyra, Wolfia
(1) Four

(2) Five

(3) Six

(4) Three

65. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires

Ans. (3)
Sol. Nostoc, Porphyra, Wolfia,
Photosynthetic autotrophs

Chara

(1) Zinc

(2) Iron

(3) Niacin

(4) Copper

Ans. (1)
Sol. Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase.

Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter Chemosynthetic

autotrophs

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66. Which one of the following structures is an

organelle within an organelle?
(1) Ribosome

(2) Peroxisome

(3) ER

(4) Mesosome

70. Which one of the following organisms is correctly

matched with its three characteristics?
(1) Pea : C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary
aestivation
(2) Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile
placentation, Berry

Ans. (1)
Sol. Ribosome is found in chloroplast and mitochondria.

(3) Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile

placentation

67. Which one of the following is a wrong statement

regarding mutations?

(4) Maize : C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles,

Scutellum

(1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause

frame-shift mutations

Ans. (4)
Sol. Maize is a C 4 plant having C3 as well as C 4
pathway.

(2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal

aberrations

71. How many plants in the list given below have

marginal placentation?

(3) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens

(4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not
cause mutation

Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sun

hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea,
Tobacco, Lupin

Ans. (4)
Sol. Change in a single base pair of DNA is called point
mutation.

(1) Four

(2) Five

(3) Six

(4) Three

Ans. (3)

68. A test cross is carried out to

Sol. Gram, Arhar, Sun hemp, Moong, Pea, Lupin

Plants of Fabaceae family.

(1) Determine the genotype of a plant at F2

(2) Predict whether two traits are linked

72. Read the following four statements (A - D)

(3) Assess the number of alleles of a gene

(A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative

phosphorylation involve uphill transport of
protons across the membrane.

(4) Determine whether two species or varieties

will breed successfully

(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates

from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary
growth.

Ans. (1)
Sol. To determine the genotype of a tall plant at F2,
Mendel crossed the tall plant from F2 with a dwarf
plant. This is called a test cross.

(C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia

are polyandrous.

69. Read the following four statements (A - D)

(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-living

state also in soil.

(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.

(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred
to as positive regulation.

How many of the above statements are right?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000

genes.

(3) Four

(4) One

Ans. (1)

(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

Sol. Petunia A5
Gloriosa A3 + 3

How many of the above statements are right?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) One

73. Through their effect on plant growth regulators,

what do the temperature and light control in the
plants?

Ans. (1)

(1) Apical dominance

Sol. (B) Negative control

(3) Closure of stomata (4) Fruit elongation

(2) Flowering

Ans. (2)

(C) 30,000 genes

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

Sol. Many of the extrinsic factors such as temperature

and light, control plant growth and development
via PGR. Some of such events could be :
Vernalisation, flowering, dormancy, seed
germination, plant movements etc.

79. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

74. Which one of the following generally acts as an

antagonist to gibberellins?

(3) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for

months

(1) Zeatin

(2) Ethylene

(3) ABA

(4) IAA

(1) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double

fertilization does not take place
(2) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell

(4) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin

Ans. (1)

Ans. (3)

Sol. Double fertilisation event is unique to angiosperms.

Sol. ABA = Antigibberellic acid

80. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few

ovules, are generally pollinated by

75. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has

(1) More abundant secondary xylem
(2) Many xylem bundles
(3) Inconspicuous annual rings

(1) Bees

(2) Butterflies

(3) Birds

(4) Wind

Ans. (4)

(4) Relatively thicker periderm

Sol. Wind pollination is quite common in grasses (basal

placentation).

Ans. (2)
Sol. Monocot root has polyarch condition.

81. Sacred groves are specially useful in

76. For its action, nitrogenase requires

(1) Generating environmental awareness

(1) High input of energy

(2) Preventing soil erosion

(2) Light

(3) Year-round flow of water in rivers

(3) Mn2+

(4) Conserving rare and threatened species

(4) Super oxygen radicals

Ans. (4)

Ans. (1)

Sol. In Meghalaya, sacred groves are the last refuges

for a large number of rare and threatened plants.

Sol. ATP for each NH3 produced.

77. Vernalisation stimulates flowering in
(1) Zamikand

(2) Turmeric

(3) Carrot

(4) Ginger

82. The rate of formation of new organic matter by

rabbit in a grassland, is called
(1) Net productivity

Ans. (3)

(2) Secondary productivity

Sol. Subjecting the growing of a biennial plant (e.g.,

Sugarbeet, Cabbage, Carrot) to a cold treatment
stimulates a subsequent photoperiodic flowering
response.

(3) Net primary productivity

(4) Gross primary productivity
Ans. (2)

78. What is the function of germ pore?

Sol. Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of

formation of new organic matter by consumers.

(1) Emergence of radicle

(2) Absorption of water for seed germination

83. Cuscuta is an example of

(3) Initiation of pollen tube

(4) Release of male gametes
Ans. (3)

(1) Ectoparasitism

(2) Brood parasitism

(3) Predation

(4) Endoparasitism

Ans. (1)

Sol. Pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce

a pollen tube through one of the germ pores.

Sol. It is a total stem parasite.

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

84. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants

like

88. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been

developed by the introduction of DNA that
produced (in the host cells)

(1) Azolla

(1) Both sense and anti-sense RNA

(2) Typha

(2) A particular hormone

(3) Salix

(3) An antifeedant

(4) Vallisneria

(4) A toxic protein

Ans. (4)

Ans. (1)

Sol. Submerged plant stage

Sol. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been

developed by the introduction of DNA that
produces both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host
cells.

85. Green revolution in India occurred during

(1) 1960's

(2) 1970's

(3) 1980's

(4) 1950's

89. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

Ans. (1)

(1) Disarming pathogen vectors

Sol. 1960 decade is the phase of green revolution.

(2) Transformation of plant cells

86. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of

(1) Butane

(3) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining

with vectors

(2) Methane

(4) DNA finger printing

(3) Propane

Ans. (2)

(4) Carbon dioxide

Sol. Biolistic (gene gun) is suitable for transformation

of plant cells.

Ans. (2)

90. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used :

Sol. Large amount of methane along with CO2 and H2.

(1) As selectable markers

87. Read the following statements (A - D)

(2) To select healthy vectors

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born

because it is rich in antigens

(3) As sequences from where replication starts

(4) To keep the cultures free of infection

(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative

bacterium

Ans. (1)

(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining

virus-free plants

Sol. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used as

selectable markers.

(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of

fermented grape juice

91. Which one of the following pairs of animals are

similar to each other pertaining to the feature
stated against them?

How many of the above statements are wrong?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) One

(1) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus-Viviparity

(2) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three
chambered heart

Ans. (2)

(3) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric

segmentation

Sol. A, B and D statements are wrong

(4) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded

(poikilothermal)

The correct statements for

A : Colostrum is recommended for the new born
because it is rich in antibodies.

Ans. (4)

B : Chikungunya is caused by arbovirus.

Sol. Sea horse is Hippocampus

Flying fish is Exocoetus

D : Beer is manufactured without distillation of

fermented grape juice.

Both are fishes and cold blooded animals.

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

92. Which one of the following categories of animals,

is correctly described with no single exception
in it?

95. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous

chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids
remain associated at their centromeres :

(1) All reptiles possess scales, have a three

chambered heart and are cold blooded
(poikilothermal)

(1) Metaphase I

(2) Metaphase II

(3) Anaphase I

(4) Anaphase II

Ans. (3)

(2) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an

operculum on each side

Sol. Anaphase, Anaphase II division of centromere.

96. Which one of the following biomolecules is
correctly characterised?

(3) All sponges are marine and have collared cells

(4) All mammals are viviparous and possess
diaphragm for breathing

(1) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in

cell membrane

Ans. (2)

(2) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with

18 carbon atoms

Sol. All bony fishes have four pair of gills and an

operculum on each side without any exception.

(3) Adenylic acid - adenosine with a glucose

phosphate molecule

93. Which one of the following organisms is

scientifically correctly named, correctly
printed according to the International Rules of
Nomenclature and correctly described?

(4) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group

and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
Ans. (1)

(1) Musca domestica - The common house lizard,

a reptile

Sol. Lecithin is a phospholipid present in the cell

membranes.

(2) Plasmodium falciparum - A protozoan

pathogen causing the most serious type of
malaria

97. The idea of mutations was brought forth by :

(1) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening
primrose

(3) Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well protected in

Gir forests

(2) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum

sativum

(4) E.coli - Full name Entamoeba coli, a

commonly occurring bacterium in human
intestine

(3) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele

frequencies in a population

Ans. (2)

(4) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide

variety of organisms during sea voyage

Sol. Plasmodium falciparum is a protozoan pathogen

causing malignant malaria

Ans. (1)

94. Which one of the following cellular parts is

correctly described?

Sol. Hugo de Vries, worked on evening primrose and

gave the concept of mutation.

(1) Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs

forming the grana of chloroplasts

98. What is it that forms the basis of DNA

Fingerprinting?

(2) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis

(1) The relative proportions of purines and

pyrimidines in DNA

(3) Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger

(80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller
(70 s)

(2) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence

in blood, skin and saliva

(4) Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about

8.5

(3) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and

grooves of the fingerprints

Ans. (1)

(4) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated

short DNA segments

Sol. Nucleolus : Sites for active RNA synthesis

Lysosomes : Acidic pH

Ans. (4)

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

101. Which one of the following options gives the

correct categorisation of six animals according to
the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C) they give
out?

Sol. Satellite DNA normally do not code for any

proteins, but they form a large portion of human
genome. These sequence show high degree of
polymorphism and form the basis of DNA finger
printing.

A
B
C
AMMONO UREOTELIC URICOTELIC
TELIC

99. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a

certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the
following conditions could be an example of this
pattern?

Female
Mother
Daughter

Male
Father
Son

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Sickle cell anaemia

(1)

Pigeon,
Humans

Aquatic
Amphibia,
Lizards

Cockroach,
Frog

(2)

Frog,
Lizards

Aquatic
Amphibia,
Humans

Cockroach,
Pigeon

(3)

Aquatic
Amphibia

Frog,
Humans

Pigeon, Lizards,
Cockroach

(4)

Aquatic
Amphibia

Cockroach,
Humans

Frog, Pigeon,
Lizards

Ans. (3)

(3) Haemophilia

102. Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms

normally occur in human body?

(4) Thalassemia
Ans. (3)

(1) Caecum

Sol. Criss-cross inheritance is a feature of X-linked

recessive traits.

(2) Oral lining and tongue surface

100. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a

certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option
about them.

(4) Duodenum

(3) Vermiform appendix and rectum

Ans. (1)
Sol. Caecum is a small blind sac that hosts some
symbiotic micro-organisms.

103. Which one of the following pairs of chemical

substances, is correctly categorised?

(1) Calcitonin and thymosin Thyroid hormones

(2) Pepsin and prolactin Two digestive enzymes

secreted in stomach

Options :

Part-A

Part-B

Part-C

(1) Macro- Fibroblast Collagen

phage
fibres
(2) Mast
cell

(3) Troponin and myosin Complex proteins in

striated muscles

MacroPhage

(4) Secretin and rhodopsin polypeptide hormones

Part-D

Ans. (3)

Mast cells

Sol. Troponin and myosin are complex proteins in

striated muscles.

Fibroblast Collagen
fibres

104. The supportive skeletal structures in the human

external ears and in the nose tip are examples of

(3) Macro- Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell

phage fibres
(4) Mast
cell

Collagen Fibroblast Macrofibres

phage

(1) Ligament

(2) Areolar tissue

(3) Bone

(4) Cartilage

Ans. (4)
Sol. In ear pinna and tip of nose elastic cartilage is
present.

Ans. (1)

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

105. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below,

represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the
options given, along with its correct location and
function?

(A)

108. Identify the human development stage shown

below as well as the related right place of its
occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and
select the right option for the two together.

(B)
Options :

Developmental
stage
(C)

Location Function

(1) (B) Glandular Intestine

epithelium

Secretion

Cartilage

Attach
skeletal
muscles to
bones

Smooth
muscle
tissue

Heart

Heart
contraction

Columnar
epithelium

Nephron

(2) (C)

Collagen
fibres

(3) (D)

(4) (A)

(1)

Late morula

(2)

Blastula

End part of
Fallopian tube

(3)

Blastocyst

Uterine wall

(4)

8 - celled
morula

Starting point of
Fallopian tube

(D)

Tissue

Site of
occurrence
Middle part of
Fallopian tube

Ans. (3)
109. Which one of the following human organs is often
called the "graveyard" of RBCs?
(1) Gall bladder

(2) Kidney

(3) Spleen

(4) Liver

Ans. (3)
110. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle
is also called

Secretion
and
absorption

(1) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days

(2) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days

Ans. (1)

(3) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days

106. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

(4) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days

(1) Juxta glomerular cells to release renin

Ans. (3)

(2) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

Sol. Secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is

also called as luteal phase which is of about 13-14
days.

(3) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

(4) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

111. Select the correct statement about biodiversity

Ans. (1)

(1) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat

have a very high level of desert animal species
as well as numerous rare animals

Sol. A fall in GFR activates JG cells to release renin.

107. Which one of the following characteristics is
common both in humans and adult frogs?

(2) Large scale planting of BT cotton has no

adverse effect on biodiversity

(1) Four-chambered heart

(3) Western Ghats have a very high degree of

species richness and endemism

(2) Internal fertilisation

(3) Nucleated RBCs

(4) Conservation of biodiversity in just a fad

pursued by the developed countries

(4) Ureotelic mode of excretion

Ans. (4)

Ans. (3)

Sol. Adult frogs and humans are ureotelic.

Sol. Western Ghats Hot spot

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

Options

112. The domestic sewage in large cities

(a)

(1) Has a high BOD as it containing both aerobic

and anaerobic bacteria
(2) Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic
bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) Deer

Rabbit

Frog

Rat

(2) Dog

Squirrel

Bat

Deer

(3) Rat

Dog

Tortoise Crow

(4) Squirrel Cat

Treatment Plants (STPs)

Pigeon

Ans. (1)

(3) When treated in STPs does not really require

Sol. Herbivores rabbit, deer, field mouse

the aeration step as the sewage contains

Primary carnivore frog

adequate oxygen

115. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and

select the option which includes all the correct
ones only

(4) Has very high amounts of suspended solids and

dissolved salts
Ans. (2)

a. Single cell Spirulina can produce large

quantities of food rich in protein, minerals,
vitamins etc.

Sol. A mere 0.1% impurities make domestic sewage

unfit for human use.

b. Body weight-wise the micro-organism

Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to
produce several times more proteins than the
cows per day.

113. Which one of the following sets of items in the

options (1) - (4) are correctly categorised with one
exception in it?

c.

Items

Rat

Category

Exception

(1)

UAA, UAG,
UGA

(2)

Kangaroo,
Koala,
Wombat

Australian
marsupials

Wombat

(3)

Plasmodium,
Cuscuta,
Trypanosoma

Protozoan
parasites

Cuscuta

(4)

Typhoid,
Pneumonia,
Diphtheria

Bacterial
diseases

Diphtheria

Stop codons

Common button mushrooms are a very rich

source of vitamin C.

d. A rice variety has been developed which is very

rich in calcium

UAG

Options
(1) Statements (c), (d)
(2) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
(3) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (b)
Ans. (4)
Sol. It has been possible to develop an iron fortified rice
variety containing over five times.

Ans. (3)

116. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and
select the right option giving their source and use

114. Identify the likely organisms (a), (b), (c) and (d) in
the food web shown below

CH3

lion
N

hawks
owls

garden
lizard
mice

CH3

snakes

foxes

(a)

(b)

(c)
grasshopper

(a)

(d) sparrow

Vegetation/seeds

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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

Region to be amplified
A

OH

3
ds
5

5
3
5

OH

5
5

(2) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about

50C

Molecule

Source

Use

(1)

(a) Cocaine

Erythroxylum
coca

Accelerates
the transport
of dopamine

(2)

(b) Heroin

Cannabis
sativa

Depressant
and slows
down body
functions

(a) Morphine

3
3

(1) B-Denaturation at a temperature of about 98C

separating the two DNA strands

Options :

(3) (b) Cannabinoid

(4)

3
3

(b)

DNA

Atropa
belladona

Produces
hallucinations

Papaver
somniferum

Sedative and
pain killer

(3) C - Extension in the presence of heat stable

DNA polymerase
(4) A - Annealing with two sets of primers
Ans. (1)
119. The first clinical gene therapy was given for
treating?
(1) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Chicken pox
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis

Ans. (4)

(4) Adenosine deaminase deficiency

117. Which one of the following statements is correct

with respect to immunity?

Ans. (4)
120. Which one of the following represents a
palindromic sequence in DNA?

(1) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to

treat the bite by a viper snake
(2) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are
produced by T-lymphocytes

(1) 5 - GAATTC - 3

(3) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which

has four light chains

(2) 5 - CCAATG - 3

3 - CTTAAG - 5

3 - CAATCC - 5

(4) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of

B-lymphocytes

(3) 5 - CATTAG - 3
3 - GATAAC - 5

Ans. (1)

(4) 5 - GATACC - 3

Sol. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat

the bite by a viper.

3 - CCTAAG - 5
Ans. (1)

118. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the
option giving correct identification together with
what it represents?

Sol. Palindromic sequence in DNA should read the

same provided that orientation of reading is kept
the same.

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