Physics For IIT-JEE by Shiv R. Goel (B.Tech., IIT-Delhi)
Uploaded by
Kshitij BansalPhysics For IIT-JEE by Shiv R. Goel (B.Tech., IIT-Delhi)
Uploaded by
Kshitij BansalDPP No.#23,24/Solutions.
Target IIT-JEE 2016
Physics For IITJEE by Shiv R. Goel (B.Tech., IITDelhi)
DPP# 25 & 26
SOLUTIONS
SECTION B
1.
2.
B due to AC to D,
B
0i
o
=
AD(sin 60 )
4
60
AD = 2Rcos60 = R
DB = 2R cos 30 = 3R
C
0i
sin 30o
B due to BC at D,=
4 3R
i 3
0i
1
Total 0
4R 2 2 3 4 3R
B due to inner most square is
i
sin 45o sin 45o k
4 0
4 (a / 2)
A
60
30
8.
essentially making B of long placed conductor as they are
equidistant
i
2 107 10
Hence B = 0 d
104 T
2r
0.2
(i) B resultant = 2 B wire cos 30o = 2 3 105 T
30
60
Wire 1
0 i
2 2 k
a
i
so on till infinity
Next, B2 0 2 2 k.....
(3a)
5.
60
2 0 i 1 1 1
2 2 0 i
1 ...
ln 2
(a / 2) 2 3 4
a
FABC will cause magnetic field in j direction.
Wire 1
z
y
A B
x
Path
12.
Wire 2
B resultant = 2 B wire cos 60=2 10-5 T
(a)x = 0, 2 = 2m
2 10 7 10
Bstraight wire
( i)
2
It cancels out the uniform magnetic field present
Hence B total 0
(b) x = 2, z = 0 m
Bstraight wire 106 kT
B total 10 6 (i k)T
(c) x = 0, z = 0.5 m
Bstraight wire 4 106 iT
B total 5 10 6 iT
B due to
Point A,C magnitude of magnetic field is same.
Point A,D, direction of magnetic fields are opposite. But
in a single perpendicular plane to the wire, no two points
can have same magnetic field.
LR and SM are along the origin so will not induce any
magnetic field there. SQ and PR induced B will add,
B2
60
60
10.
i 1
1
BAB 0
4 / 2 2
2
0 i 1
BAF on BC
0
4 / 2 2
2 i 2
2 0 i
2
B FABC 0
4 2
2
FEDC will cause magnetic field of some magnitude but in
2 0 i
( j i)
i direction. hence Btotal
By definition of magnetic field direction it is taken as
direction of r d vector
11.
0i r d
0i d r
Hence
(Bio
Savart
Law)
or
4 r 3
4 r 3
Point A,B direction of magnetic field is same
Wire 2
30
Btotal =
4.
60
(ii) opposite direction
3.
Equidistant point
60
a E
B
a
K
F
G
BC and DE cancel out
KJ and HI cancel out
HG and LK cancel out
GF and AB cancel out
At P,QR; OP is collinear wire and wire OS is at
distance d
At S,Q; OS is collinear wire and wire OP is at distance
d with same current I as OP. hence magnitude of B at
P,Q,R,S is same.
I
I
B 0 [sin 90o sin 0] 0
4 d
4d
Page #1
DPP No.#23,24/Solutions.
13.
5 R 1i1 R 2 i 2 5
(1)
0
5
0
5
R3 5
0
R2
R1
i1
i2
R2i2
5R1i1
i3
d/2
IR 2 / 2
(B)(2
) 0
R 2
2
0 I
| B |
4R / 2
R
8.
i
2
2
(a) B 0 N
B 0
50 0
100
2R
2 0.05
2 0.1
4
= 8 10 T
(b) | B1 || B2 | as we saw in above case
(c) B 4 2 10 4 T
SECTION D
2R
2
2.
ir 2
R 2
r linear
Hence it will uniformly increase till R,
Between R1 and R2
0 I
B.d i B(2r) I B 2r
0
i 2 0 i 2 2
B 0
2r 2 2R 2
Because it is not complete circle.
Assuming current is flowing uniformly inside the
conductor.
Inside the conductor B . d 0 i inside
i
B 0 2
2R
i k
0 Ir 2
r R 0 I r R
R2
Magnetic field direction
W
SECTION C
B(2r) 0
B 0 (i k)
4R
B . d 0i enclosd
6.
length of wire = 2R
Let radius of circle be r
R
R
, y,
2
2
Consider direction unit vector =
2 / d
2d /
2
2
2
2 0 I d
2 d 2 2 0 I d
2
d
2 d2
2
d
2gpr r 2R
R/ 2
0 I
0 I
d
d
B 2
2
2
2
2
2 d 2 4 2 d 2 d
4 d / 2 d
due to AB, CD
due to BC, AC
3.
B . d I
4.
5.
2 d2
2
I
(r 2 R 22
I
2
2
R 3 R 2
/2
0 I
r 2 R 22
1 2
2r R 3 R 22
It follows different curve from what it followed
between R1 and R2. Also at R3 iclosed = 0 and hence
B0.
R3i3 - 5
R
(i3 ) 3 3 1 0
R1 R 2
Cant be zero as all are positive numbers.
i3 = 0 = i1 = i2 for only value of R1, R2, R3
Hence the magnetic field at point P is ever zero.
sin
2
d2
A
1.
B.d i B(2r)
0
R1i1 = R2i2
R2 i2 = 5 5 i3R3
R2i2 = R3i3
R1i1 = R2i2 = R3i3 and i1 + i2 + i3 = 0
Ri Ri
On 3 3 3 3 i3 0
R1
R2
15.
Target IIT-JEE 2016
Hence it falls hyperbolically till R2
Between R2 and R3
3.
i 2
(a) B 0
0i
2a 2
2
i 2
0
4 a
b
0i 3 0i 1
1
(b) B
2a 4 4ab 2
2
i 3
2
0
4 2a b
I3
0 I
[ 2]
(c) B 0
2R 4 4R / 2
I 3
0 1
2R 4
0i 1
i
(a) B
(i) 0 ( k)
2R 2
2R
i
| B | 0
2 4
4R
b
a
b
45
a
O
2
Page #2
DPP No.#23,24/Solutions.
Target IIT-JEE 2016
i 1
i 1
i 1
(i) 0
(k)
(b) B 0 (i) 0
2R 2
4R 2
4R 2
0i
( 2 1) 2 1
24R
i3
0i
0 i (j)
( k)
(c) B 0 (i)
2R 4
4 2R
4 2k
2
3 2
11
4 2R 2
0i
4.
2r
n
The angle subtended at centre by O side is 2/no of sides
2
2/n
=
n
Length of the side of polygon =
2r/n
So essentially if AB is side and O is centre,
/n
C r/n B
I r
cot sin sin
B due to AB, 0
4 n
n
n n
0 nI
2 tan sin
n
n
2 r
n2I
Total B by all sides = 0 2 tan sin
n
n
2 r
tan
0 I
n sin / n sin 0, tan 0
(b) n
2r / n / n
0 I
Hence, B
that of a circle.
2
Page #3
