PHARMACOLOGY

Basic &
Edition)
1.

2.

3.

Clinical

Pharmacology

by

Katzung

8 th

This measure relates the dose of the drug required to

produce a desired effect to that which produces an
undesired effect. (p. 8)
A. therapeutic index***
B. Idiosyncratic effect C.
Tolerance
D. Potency
This is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the
systemic circulation following administration by any
route:(p. 41)
A. Absorption
B. First Pass Effect
C.
Bioavailability***
D. Bioequivalence
In this clinical phase of drug development, the drug is
studied in patients with the target disease to
determine its efficacy. (p. 72)
A. Phase 1
B. phase 2***
C. phase 3
D. phase 4

4.

In this clinical phase of drug development, the

drug is studied in patients with the target disease to
determine its efficacy. (p. 72)
A. Phase 1
B. phase 2***
C. phase 3
D. phase 4

5.

This
is
an
irreversible
inhibitor
of
GABA
aminotransferase and is useful in the treatment of
partial seizures and WEST syndrome: (p. 404)
A. vigabatrin ****
C. lamotrigine
B. tiagabine

D. gabapentin

6.

Action of Insulin in the liver: (p. 717)

A, increase storage of glucose as glycogen**
B. increase glycogenolysis
C.Increase ketogenesis
D.increase gluconeogenesis

7.

Most common adverse effect of insulin: (p. 721)

A. hypoglycemia
C.
lipodystrophy
B. allergy
D. bleeding

8.

Effect of digitalis in the AV node during arrythmias:

(p. 207)
A. prolonged PR interval
B. AV blockade C.
bradycardia D. prolonged QT interval
9.

Immediate metabolic precursor of dopamine that

penetrates the blood-brain barrier: (p.464)
A. carbidopa
B. levodopa
C. selegiline
D. ropinorole

10. The following are true of phenoxybenzamine: (p.

141)
A. causes reversible blockade of alpha receptors
B. blocks catecholamine-induced vasoconstriction
C. significantly reduces blood pressure in supine
individuals
D. stimulates histamine (H1) acetylcholine and
serotonin receptors
11. Antiarrhythmic drugs that prolong effective refractory
period by prolonging action potential duration: (p.
239)
A. Bepridil
B. Bretylium
C.
Esmolol
D. Lidocaine
12. Antiarrhytmic of choice for suppression of recurrences
of ventricular tachycardia & fibrillation after
termination of the arrhythmia by cardioversion: (p.
240)
A. Adenosine
B. Esmolol
C.
Lidocaine
D. Procainamide
13.

The most serious toxic reaction to local anesthetics

is: (p. 441)
A. circumoral numbness
C. nystagmus
B. metabolic acidosis
D.
tonic-clonic
convulsions

14. Lithiums most common side effect/s (p. 491)

A.polyuria
and subclinical hypothyrodism***
C.polyuria and polydipsia
B.polydipsia and subclinical hypothyroidism
D.
Polyuria and polyphagia

15. Most important unwanted

psychotics
secondary
to
deficiency.(p. 488)
A. Akathisia
Tardive dyskinesia****
B. Parkinsonian syndrome
rabbit syndrome

effect of antirelative
choline
C.
D.

Perioral

16. Blocks norepinephrine & serotonin reuptake

pumps-the the off switches of amine
transmission (p. 503)
A. MAO inhibitors
B. tricyclics***
C. SSRI D.
heterocyclics
17. Drug interaction of older MAO inhibitor
with
tyramine ingested in food:(p. 505)
A. depression
B.
Hypertensive
reactions***
C. hypotension
D. mania
18. The following are sites of the major classes of
anti-hypertensive drugs, except:(p.158 )
A. Sympathetic nerve terminals
B. -receptors of juxtaglomerular cells that
release rennin
C. Hypothalamus
D. Vasomotor center
19. The following statements regarding selection of
anti-hypertensive drugs are correct, except: (p.
179)
A. ACE inhibitors are particularly useful in
diabetic patients with evidence of renal
disease.
B. White race responds better to diuretics
and calcium channel blockers than to blockers and ACE inhibitors.
C. Beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers
are useful in patients who have angina.
D. Diuretics or ACE inhibitors are useful who
also have CHF
20. The following are the determinants of vascular
tone, except:(p. 182)
a.Increasing cGMP
b.Increasing cAMP in the vascular cells
c.Decreasing intracellular calcium
d.Stabilizing or preventing depolarization of
the vascular smooth muscle cell membrane
21. The following are the pharmacodynamics of
nitroglycerine, except: (p. 184-185)
A. Smooth muscle relaxation
B. Decreased ventricular preload
C. Responsible for a decrease in platelet
aggregation
D. Increased cardiac output
22. The following are the pharmacodynamics of
NSAIDs, except: (p. 598-599)
A. Mediated chiefly through inhibition of
biosynthesis of prostaglandins
B. All NSAIDs inhibit platelet aggregation
C. All
NSAIDs
are
anagesic,
antiinflammatory and antipyretic
D. They are all gastric irritants as well
23. The
following
are
disease-modifying
antirheumatic drugs, except: (p. 608)
a. Methotrexate
b. Cyclosporins
c. Corticosteroids
d. Azathioprine
24. This agent inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding
firmly to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of nascent
peptidoglycan pentapeptide.
It inhibits the
transglycosylase, preventing further elongation of
peptidoglycan and cross-linking. ( p. 768 )
A. Cycloserine
B. Vancomycin C.
Teicoplanin
D. Bacitracin
25. This agent is a potent inhibitor of microbial
protein synthesis. It binds reversibly to the 50 S
subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibits
peptidyl transferase step of protein synthesis.
1

This agent is active against rickettsiae but not

chlamydiae: ( p. 774)
A. Chloramphenicol
B.
Chlortetracycline
C. Amikacin
D. Penicillins
26. These agents readily bound to calcium deposited
in newly formed bone or teeth in young children.
When drug is given during pregnancy, it can be
deposited in the fetal teeth, leading to
fluorescence,
discoloration,
and
enamel
dysplasia: ( p. 778 )
A. Azithromycin
B. Linezolid
C. Tetracyclines
D. Aminoglycosides
27. This drug is split by intestinal microflora to yiels
sulfapyridine and 5 aminosalicylate and is widely
used in ulcerative colitis, enteritis and other
inflammatory bowel diseases. (p. 794-795)
A. Sulfadoxine
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Sulfadiazine
28. Blocks the conversion of cholesterol to
pregnanolone and causes reduction in the
synthesis of all hormonally active steroids; used
in pts. with breast Ca (page 674)
A. metyrapone
B. trilostane
C.
aminoglutethimide D. spirinolactone
29. A glucocoorticoid antagonist that is an antifungal
imidazole derivative, that is potent and rather
nonselective inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal
steroid synthesis: (page 674)
A. aminogluthetimide
B. ketoconazole
C.
trilostane
D. mitotane
30. The most widely used mineralocorticoid, with
both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid activity:
(page 672)
A. aldosterone
B. deoxycortisone
C.
fludrocortisone
D. cortisone
31. Act as a partial agonist at estrogen receptors in
the pituitary, to treat infertility in women by
stimulating ovulation: (page 699)
A. tamoxifen
B. clomiphene C. danazol
D.
mifepristone
32. An antiandrogen that prevents synthesis of
dihydrotestosterone by inhibiting the activity of
5- reductase: (page 705)
A. spirinolactone B. cyproterone
C. finasteride
D. flutamide
33. Effects of progesterone: (page 690)
A. increase basal insulin levels
C. promotes
breast development
B. promotes blood coaguability
D. affects
protein metabolism
34. Mazzoti reaction, as an adverse effect is seen
with the use of this agent, characterized as
eosinophilia, rashes due to the release of foreign
particles from the dying microfilariae: : (page
908)
A. niclosamide
B. diethylcarbamazine
C.
piperazine
D. chloroquine
35. A depolarizing muscular blocking agent used as
an alternative to mebendazole in the treatment of
ascariasis and enterobiasis: (page 917)
A. piperazine citrate
B. pyrantel pamoate
C.
praziquantel D. primaquine
36. Kills dormant liver forms in malaria: (page 889)
A. piperazine citrate
B. pyrantel pamoate
C.
praziquantel D. primaquine
37. The drug that could accelerate antithrombin
activity resulting to blockade of the coagulation
cascade at the at the thrombin level, thus
preventing the formation of a clot is: (p. 567)
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin ans
C. Coumarin
D. Plasmin
38. This is an antiplatelet drug whose mechanism of
action involves inhibition of thromboxane
synthesis, thus consequently, prevention of

platelet
574)
A.
B.
C.
D.

aggregation & thrombus formation: (p.

Clopidogel
Ticlopidine
Aspirin ans
Dipyridamole

39. Among the thioamide antithyroid drug, which one

is preferred for pregnant women because it
crosses the placental barrier less readily thus will
not affect the fetus?( p. 651)
A. Methimazole
B. Carbimazole
C. Propylthiouracil ans
D. Ipodate
40. Which beta blocker is most widely used to control
the symptom of hyperthyroidism? (p. 653)
A. Propranolol ans
B. Metoprolol
C. Labetalol
D. Guanithidine
41. Drugs that competitively inhibit CYP enzymes
cause
a. Decrease in concentration of the object
drug
b. Increase in concentration of object
drug
c. Decrease efficacy of object drug
d. Irreversible inactivation of the enzyme
42. The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is
explained by:
a. Substitution for GABA
b. Direct activation of GABA receptors
c. Increase duration of GABA gated
chloride channel opening
d. Increase frequency of GABA gated
chloride channel opening
43. The use of benzodiazepines in the chronic
treatment of seizures is limited because of their
a. high toxicity effects
c. tolerance
b. slow absorption
d.
low therapeutic index
44. Which should be observed to minimize adverse
effects of sedative hypnotics?
a. Always give a very low dose.
b. Doses should be given at daytime.
c. Combine two drugs with different
toxicities
d. Efficacy of therapy is based on
patients subjective response
45. A 50 y/o male coca cola executive was using
fluoxetine for depression but decided to stop
taking the drug for it affects his sexual
performance and even said
he is getting
older. He is also a tobacco user. What is the next
best drug to use?
a. Bupropion
c. citalopram
b. Sertraline
d
venlafaxine
46. A fly catching movement of the tongue commonly
observed as a drawback of all typical
antipsychotics is called
a. lead pipe rigidity
c.
tardive dyskinesia
b. rabbit syndrome
d.
akathisia
47. The most hepatotoxic general
anesthetic
a. Nitrous oxide
c. isoflurane
b. Sevoflurane
d. halothane

inhalational

48. A 55 year old female has post-menopausal

osteoporosis. Which is not a recommended drug?
a. Estrogen
c. Biphosphonate
b. Calcium
d.
Calcitonin
2

49. Corticosteroid with most potent anti-inflammatory

activity:
a. Prednisone
c. Betamethasone
b. Dexamethasone
d.
Cortisone

60. Differences in the rate of acetylation of isoniazid

among groups of individuals exemplifies.
A. pharmacodynamics
C.
pharmacogenetics
B. posology
D.
biochemorphology

50. Drug of choice (DOC) for endometriosis in young

women
a. danazol
c.
mifepristone
b. leuprolide
d. misoprostol

Ans. C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 2 and 5.
Pharmacogenetics

51. The effect of diethylstilbestrol intake taken during

pregnancy on female infants:
a. vaginal adenocarcinoma
c. cervical polyp
b. endometrial carcinoma
d.
breast fibroadenoma
52. The most common adverse effect of clomiphene
is
a. hot flushes
c. constipation
b. hair loss
d.
headache
53. A 65 year old married man was found to have
greatly enlarged prostate.
Which one of the
following drug is MOST likely to suppress prostatic
growth without affecting libido?
a. Spironolactone
c.
Ketoconazole
b. Finasteride
d. Flutamide
54. Testosterone therapy may be indicated for the
treatment of erectile dysfunction in which of the
following situation?
a. Aged patient
c. Alcoholism
b. Hypogonadism
d.
Depression
55. Major mechanism of action of aspirin as NSAID is
a. Reversible COX inhibitor
c.
Irreversible
PG
biosynthesis
inhibition
b. Chemotaxis inhibition
d. Down regulation of IL-1
56. Which of the following is the drug of choice for
inducing labor
a. Oxytocin
c. Methyl ergonovine
b. Misoprostol
d. Dinoprostone
57. The primary consideration in all clinical trials is to
a. Determine the safety of the drug
b. Determine the efficacy of the drug
c. Ensure that there is no risk to the
subject
d. Provide for the welfare of the
subject
58. According to the Philippine National Drug
Formulary (PNDF), complementary drugs are:
A. those drugs italicized in the guide
B. drugs that satisfy the health care needs of
majority of population
C. drugs with special pharmacological properties
D. not to be used as an alternative to core drugs
Ans. C.
Philippine National Drug Formulary, 2000 edition, p.
109.
Essential Drugs Concept
59. Which of the following is considered a regulated
drug?
A. pseudoephedrine
C.
lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
B. meperidine
D.
cocaine
Ans. A.
Dangerous Drug Board Info Republic Act 6425
Dangerous Drugs

61. Absorption of most orally administered drugs

occurs in the small intestine.
This may be
enhanced by:
A. taking agents that accelerate gastric emptying
time
B. the presence of food
C. stimulation of hepatic microsomal CYP3A4
enzymes
D. increasing intestinal motility
Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 41, 42, 53, and 56.
Pharmacokinetics
62. The
nicotinic
acetylcholine
categorized as to which type?
A. G protein coupled
kinase-linked
B. ion channel-linked
nuclear

receptors

are
C.
D.

Ans. B
Katzung, 9th edition pp. 18-23
Pharmacodynamics
63. If a drug has a high distribution volume, it
indicates:
A. it is highly bound to plasma proteins
B. the drug is highly retained in the vascular
compartment
C. the plasma drug concentration will increase
D. there is extensive tissue uptake
Ans. D.
Katzung, pp. 35 and 47.
Pharmacokinetics
64. The index of safety of a drug decreases as the
median toxic dose :
A. decreases and the median effective dose
increases
B. increases and the median effective dose
decreases
C. and the median effective dose decrease
D. and the median effective dose increase
Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 30.
Pharmacodynamics
65. What is the major second messenger of beta
receptor activation that participates in signal
transduction?
A. inositol triphosphates
C.
calcium
B. cAMP
D.
adenylyl cyclase
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 25-27.
Pharmacodynamics
66. In
what
condition
are
the
drugs
phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine useful?
A. pheochromocytoma
C.
essential hypertension
B. migraine attacks
D.
benign prostatic hyperplasia
Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 144-146.
Adrenergic Receptor Blockers
67. Acetylcholine acts by:
A. increasing adenylyl cyclase activity
B. decreasing cGMP concentrations
C. activating the IP3, diacylglycerol pathway
D. all of the above
Ans. C
Katzung, 9th edition, p.97
3

Cholinergic Agonists
68. Which of the following antihypertensive agents
has the best documented evidence for
prophylaxis against migraine attacks?
A. pindolol
C.
clonidine
B. propranolol
D.
prazosin
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 148 and 156
Adrenoceptor Antagonists
69. Which is a direct effect of nitrates when given in
the usual doses for the management of angina?
A. increased preload
C.
increased cardiac contractility
B. increased afterload
D.
smooth muscle relaxation
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 190.
Vasodilators / CVS Drugs
70. A college friend consults you regarding the
suitability of the therapy his doctor has
prescribed for severe hypertension.
He
complains of postural and exercise hypotension
("dizziness"), some diarrhea, and problems with
ejaculation during sex. Which of the following is
most likely to produce the effects that your friend
has described?
A. propranolol
C.
hydralazine
B. guanethidine
D.
captopril
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 166.
Antihypertensive / CVS Drugs
71. The most important pharmacologic action of
digitalis in the treatment of heart failure is its
ability to:
A. reduce venous pressure
C.
produce diuresis in edematous patients
B. increase heart rate
D.
increase myocardial contractile force
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 205.
Cardiac Glycosides / CVS Drugs
72. Side effects of oxytocin use in a woman in labor
includes the following, EXCEPT:
A. increase in BP
C.
fetal death
B. uterine rupture
D. diuresis
Ans. D.
Katzung 9th edition, p. 621
Hormones and Pituitary glands / Drugs used for
Endocrine Disorders
73. An antithyroid drug which may be given to reduce
the vascularity of the thyroid gland prior to
thyroidectomy:
A. RAI
C.
methimazole
B. PTU
D.
Lugol's iodine
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 633
Thyroid & Antithyroid Drugs
Endocrine Disorders

Drugs

used

for

74. Drugs that decrease bone resorption include the

following, EXCEPT:
A. calcitonin
C.
alendronate
B. estrogen
D.
fluoride
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 719
Agents that affects bone mineral homeostasis

75. Which drug is used as an antiretroviral agent?

A. oseltamivir
C.
indinavir
B. famciclovir
D.
ribavirin
Ans. C.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 820
Anti-viral Agents
76. Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by
the binding of a beta lactam antimicrobial with
penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)?
A. beta-lactamase
C.
peptidyl tranferase
B. transpeptidase
D. acetylase
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 734-735 and 764.
Beta-lactams / Antimicrobials
77. A poor farm helper from Palawan was diagnosed
to have falciparum malaria by blood smear. The
safe, cost-effective, and readily available agent to
prescribe if this farmer has an allergy to
sulfonamides is:
A. Fansidar
C.
chloroquine
B. quinine
D. mefloquine
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 869
Anti-malarial Drugs / Antiprotozoals
78. Radical cure for malaria is achieved by giving:
A. chloroquine
C.
mefloquine
B. quinine
D.
primaquine
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p.871
Anti-malarial Drug
79. There is a sudden increase of atypical pneumonia
secondary to Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, and
Rickettsia in the Pneumonia Ward of a tertiary
hospital. Majority of patients were treated with
doxycycline. All of the following ADRs are to be
watched out for in these patients EXCEPT:
A. photosensitivity
C.
superinfection
B. fetal bone defects
D.
renal failure
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 758
Tetracyclines / Antimicrobials
80. Which of the following agents may predispose to
the development of
pseudomembranous
colitis?
A. erythromycin
C.
vancomycin
B. metronidazole
D.
clidamycin
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 761
Antimicrobials
81. A patient with persistent chronic cough and fever
had no response to adequate doses of oral
penicillin. The PE showed normal chest findings.
Further PE showed bullous myringitis. A chest
Xray showed infiltrates in the right lower lobe.
Which of the following antimicrobials would be
effective?
A. parenteral penicillin G
C.
vancomycin
B. chlarithromycin
D.
gentamicin
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 760
Macrolides / Antimicrobials
82. A 4 year old boy that has diarrhea and
malnutrition was noted to have a mixed parasitic
infection of Ascaris, Capillaria philippinensis, and
4

Trichiuris trichiura. The single agent that could be

effective for this patient is:
A. pyrantel pamoate
C.
diethylcarbamazine
B. mebendazole
D.
niclosamide
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 889-895.
edtition, p. 1249.
Anti-helmintic Drugs

Harrison, 15th

83. Activated charcoal may be used to treat

poisoning due to the following EXCEPT:
A. primaquine
C.
propoxyphene
B. aspirin
D. iron overdose
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 989
Management of Poisoned Patient
84. This herbal plant endorsed by the DOH is useful
for the relief of muscle pain:
A. Yerba Buena
C.
Tsaang gubat
B. Akapulko
D.
Sambong
Ans. A.
DOH Manuals.
Herbal Medicines
85. On regular follow-up for tuberculosis, you noticed
that the visual acuity of Vilma worsened from
20/20 to 20/50 in both eyes after only three
weeks of HRPE. Your approach in management
would be to discontinue:
A. all of the 4 drugs and reintroduce one drug at
a time
B. ethambutol and refer to an ophthalmologist
C.
pyrazinamide and refer to an
ophthalmologist
D. ethambutol, reintroduce it after 1 week, and
refer to an ophthalmologist
Ans. .
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 786.
Anti-tuberculosis Drugs
86. Phenytoin is administered intravenously for acute
management of seizure, but when given at a
rapid rated can cause
A. generalized seizure
C. cardiac
arrhythmia
B. gingival hyperplasia
D.
gastrointestinal disturbances
Answer C.
Goodman and Gilman, 10th edition, p. 530.
Anti-epileptic drugs / CNS Drugs
87. Which anticonvulsant is safe in pregnancy?
A. hydantoin
C.
valproic acid
B. trimethadione
D. none
of the above
Answer D.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 398.
Anti-epileptic drugs / CNS Drugs

88. Which of the following is a common mechanism

of action shared by all NSAIDs?
A. inhibition of arachidonate release from
the plasma membrane by ihibiting
phospholipase
B. Inhibition of histamine release by
inhibiting mast cell degranulation
C. Inhibition
of
the
production
of
prostaglandin and thromboxane from
arachidonic acid through inhibition of
prostaglandin H synthesis
D. Inhibition of the the formation of
leukotrienes by inhibiting lipoxygenase
Answer: C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 263, 306, 577, and 581

Agents which controls prostaglandin effect / CNS

Drugs
89. The primary reason why aspirin has been
displaced by NSAIDs as first choice drug of
pediatric rheumatologists is because:
A. poor inflammatory effect and gastric irritation
B. poor inflammatory effect and Reyes
syndrome
C. lack of liquid preparation and high toxicity
effect
D. need for frequent administration and
association with Reyes syndrome
Answer D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 579-581.
Goodman and
Gilman, 10th edition, p. 698.
Agents which control prostaglandin effect / CNS Drugs
90. The intravenous anesthetic producing the socalled "dissociative anesthesia" is:
A. fentanyl
C. ketamine
B. thiopental
D. propofol
Answer: C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 413-414.
Gilman, 10th edition,
pp. 346-347.
General Anesthetic / CNS Drugs

Goodman and

91. Your patient requests you to give her a sedativehypnotic that not will not only calm her down or
put her to sleep but will make her forget the
whole operating room experience as well. To
facilitate this request your drug regimen should
include:
A. midazolam
C.
phenobarbital
B. succinylcholine
D. etomidate
Answer: A.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 413-415.
General Anesthetic / CNS Drugs
B
92.
The process by which the amount of
drug in the body is reduced after
administration but before entering the
systemic circulation is called
A. Excretion
B.

First-pass Effect

C. Metabolism
D. First-order elimination
MPL: 0.33
Page 43
C
93. Which of the following terms best describes
an antagonist that interacts directly
with the antagonist and not at all, or only incidentally, with
the receptor?
A. Pharmacologic antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Chemical antagonist
D. Physiologic antagonist
MPL: 0.33
Page 16
B
94.
A child has swallowed the contents of 2
bottles of a nasal decongestant whose
primary ingredient is a potent, selective
adrenoceptor agonist drug. The signs
of alpha activation that may occur in this
patient include
A. Bronchodilation
B.

Cardioacceleration

(tachycardia)

C. Vasodilation
D. Pupillary dilation (mydriasis)
MPL: 0.33
Page 127
A
95.
Ms. Green has severe hypertension and
is to receive minoxidil. Minoxidil is a
powerful arteriolar vasodilator that does not act on
autonomic receptors. When
used in severe hypertension, its effects
would probably include
5

A.

Tachycardia and increased cardiac

contractility
B. Tachycardia and decreased cardiac
output
C. Decreased mean arterial pressure
and decreased cardiac contractility
D. Decreased mean arterial pressure
and increased salt and water
excretion by the kidney
MPL: 0.25
Page 170
B
96.
Several children at a summer camp were
hospitalized with symptoms thought to
be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum
toxin. The effects of botulinum
toxin are likely to include
A. Bronchospasm
B.

Cycloplegia

C. Diarrhea
D. Skeletal muscle spasms
MPL: 1.0
Page 89
D
97.
Parathion has which one of the following
characteristics?
A. It is less toxic to humans than
malathion
B. It is more persistent in the
environment than DDT
C. It is poorly absorbed through skin
and lungs
D. Its toxicity, if treated early, may be
partly reversed by pralidoxime
MPL: 0.5
Page 1029
B
98.
Ms. Brown has had myasthenia gravis for
several years. She reports to the
emergency department complaining of rapid
onset of weakness of her hands,
diplopia, and difficulty swallowing. She
may be suffering from a change in
response to her myasthenia therapy, ie,
a cholinergic or a myasthenic crisis.
The best drug for distinguishing between
myasthenic crisis (insufficient therapy)
and
cholinergic
crisis
(excessive
therapy) is
A. Atropine
B.

Edrophonium

C. Physostigmine
D. Pralidoxime
MPL: 0.25
Page 103
D
99.
A 30-year-old man has been treated with
several autonomic drugs for 4 weeks.
He is
now admitted to the emergency department showing
signs of drug toxicity.
Which of the following signs would
distinguish between an overdose of a
ganglion blocker versus a muscarinic
blocker?
A. Blurred vision
B.

Dry mouth, constipation

C. Physostigmine
D. Postural hypotension
MPL: 0.33
Page 116

B
100. Dilation
of
vessels
in
muscle,
constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive
inotropic and chronotropic effects on the
heart are all actions of
A. Acetylcholine
B.

B
107. A patient is admitted to the emergency
department following a drug overdose. He is noted to
have a severe tachycardia. He has been receiving
therapy for hypertension and angina. A drug that
often causes tachycardia is
A. Diltiazem

Epinephrine

B.

C. Isoproterenol
D. Metaproterenol
MPL: 0.5
Page 130
A
101. Adverse effects that limit the use of
adrenoceptor blockers include
Heart failure exacerbation from blockers
A. Impaired blood sugar response with
-blockers
B. Increased intraocular pressure with
-blockers
C. Sleep disturbances from -blocking
drugs
MPL: 0.5
Page 145
C
102. Which of the following binds covalently
to the site specified?
A. Atenolol - receptor
B. Carvedilol cardiac receptors
C. Phenoxybenzamine- receptor
D. Pindolol - receptors
MPL: 1.0
Page 141
B
103
Which
one
of
the
following
is
characteristics of enalapril treatment in patients
with essential hypertension?
A. Competitively blocks angiotensin II
at its receptor
B. Decreases
angiotensin
II
concentration in the blood
C. Decreases renin concentration in
the blood
D. Increases sodium and decreases
potassium in the blood
MPL: 0.5
Page 173
A
104
A visitor from another city comes to your
office complaining of incessant cough.
He has diabetes and hypertension and has
recently started taking a different
antihypertensive medication. The most
likely cause of his cough is
A. Captopril
B.

Losartan

C. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
MPL: 0.5
Page 172
B
105. Verapamil is associated with all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Bradycardia
B.

Hyperglycemia

C. Increased PR interval
D. Pretibial edema
MPL: 0.2
Page 172
A
106. The antianginal effect of propranolol
may be attributed to which one of the
following?
A. Block
of
exercise-induced
tachycardia
B. Decreased end-diastolic ventricular
volume
C. Dilation of constricted coronary
vessels
D. Increased cardiac force
MPL: 0.5
Page 195

Isosorbide dinitrate

C. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
MPL: 0.33
Page 185
B
108. Drugs that have been found to be useful
in one or more types of heart failure
include all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitors
B.

Alpha-adrenoceptors agonist

C. Beta-adrenoceptors antagonists
D. ACE inhibitors
MPL: 1.0
Page 127
D
109. The mechanism of action of digitalis is
associated with
A.

A decrease in calcium uptake by the

sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. An increase in ATP synthesis
C. A modification of the acting
molecule
D. An increase in systolic intracellular
calcium levels
MPL: 0.33
Page 205
B
110. A patient with long-standing diabetic
renal disease and hyperkalemia and
recent-onset heart failure requires a diuretic.
Which of the following agents
would be LEAST harmful in a patient with
severe hyperkalemia? (pp.256)
A. Amiloride
B.

Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Spironolactone
D. Triamterene
MPL: 1.0
Page 256
B

111. Inflammation is a complex tissue

reaction that includes the release of cytokines,
leukotrienes,
prostaglandins,
and
peptides.
Prostaglandins
involved
in
inflammatory
processes are produced from arachidonic acid by
A. Cyclooxygenase -1
B.

Cyclooxygenase-2

C. Lipoxygenase
D. Phospholipase A2
MPL: 0.5
Page 312
B
112. Which of the following situations
constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity?
A.

Administration of captopril

B.

Adminstration of quinidine

C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyperkalemia
MPL: 0.33
Page 230
A
113. Successful therapy of heart failure with
digoxin will result in which one of
the following?
A. Decreased heart rate
B.

Increased afterload

C.
D.

Increased aldosterone
Increased renin secretion
7

MPL: 1.0
Page 206
D
114. When used as an antiarrhythmic drug,
lidocaine typically
A. increases action potential duration
B.

Increases contractility

C. Increases PR interval
D. Reduces abnormal automaticity
MPL: 0.25
Page 235
D
115.
Which of the following is a recognized
effect of nitric oxide (NO)?
A. Arrhythmia
B.

Bronchoconstriction

C. Constipation
D. Pulmonary vasodilation
MPL: 1.0
Page 329
C
116. One
effect
that
theophylline,
nitroglycerin, isoproterenol, and histamine have
in common is
A. Increased gastric acid secretion
B. Direct
stimulation
of
cardiac
contractile force
C. Tachycardia
D. Postural hypotension
MPL: 0.25
Page 1023
B

117.

Nedocromil has as its major action

A.

Block of calcium channels in

lymphocytes
B. Block of mediator release from mast
cells
C. Block of phosphodiesterase in mast
cells and basophils
D. Smooth muscle relaxation in the
bronchi
MPL: 0.5
Page 337
C
118
You are on your way to take an
examination and you suddenly get an attack of
diarrhea.
If you stop at a nearby
drugstore for an over-the-counter opioid with
antidiarrheal action, you will be asking
for
A. Codeine
B.

Dextromethorphan

C. Loperamide
D. Diphenoxylate
MPL: 1.0
Page 527
C

119.
Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin is
brought about by
A. Aminocaproic acid
B.

Heparin

C. Reteplase
D. Warfarin
MPL: 0.2
Page 572
D
120. Which of the following pairs of a drug
effect and mechanism of action is
accurate?
A. Allopurinol action in gout: inhibits
reuptake of uric acid from renal
tubular fluid
B. Etanercept antirheumatic action:
inhibits
dihydroorotate
dehydrogenase, the
enzyme in lymphocytes that is
required for pyrimidine synthesis
C. Hydroxychloroquine antirheumatic
action: a cytotoxic drug that kills
rapidly
dividing lymphocytes

D.

Indomethacin closure of patent

ductus
arteriosus:
blocks
prostaglandin E
production in the ductus arteriosis
of the newborn
MPL: 0.4
Page 605

B
121. A 52-year-old woman presented with
intense pain, warmth, and redness in the
first toe on her left foot. Examination of
fluid withdrawn from the
inflamed joint
revealed crystals of uric acid. In the
treatment of this womans acute attack of
gout,
the
advantage
of
using
indomethacin instead of colchicines is
that indomethacin is
A. Less likely to cause acute renal
failure
B. Less likely to cause severe diarrhea
C. Less likely to precipitate sudden
gastrointestinal bleeding
D. More likely to prevent another acute
attack
MPL: 0.6
Page 605
A
122. A 27-year-old woman with amenorrhea,
infertility, and galactorrhea was
treated with a drug that successfully
restored ovulation and menstruation.
Before being given the drug, the woman
was carefully questioned about
previous mental health problems, which
she did not have. She was advised
to take the drug orally. The drug used to
treat this patient was probably
A. Bromocriptine
B.

Desmopressin

C. Leuprolide
D. Human gonadotropin hormone
MPL: 0.5
Page 468
D
123. Methimazole
reduces
concentration of T3 primarily by

serum

A.

Accelerating
the
peripheral
metabolism of T3
B. Inhibiting the proteolysis of thyroidbinding globulin
C. Inhibiting the secretion of TSH
D. Preventing the addition of iodine to
tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin
MPL: 0.6
Page 651
C
124. Pharmacologic
glucocorticoids include

effects

of

A.

Increased muscle mass

B.

Hypoglycemia

exogenous

C. Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis

D. Improved wound healing
MPL: 0.33
Page 665
D
125. Toxic effects of long-term administration
of a glucocorticoid include
A. A lupus-like syndrome
B. Adrenal gland neoplasm
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Osteoporosis
MPL: 0.33
Page 670
D
126. For patients who have been on long-term
therapy with a glucocorticoid and
who now wish to discontinue the drug, gradual
tapering of the glucocorticoid
is needed to allow recovery of
A. Depressed release of insulin from
pancreatic B cells
8

B.
C.
D.

Hematopoiesis in the bone marrow

Normal osteoblast function
The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal
system
MPL: 0.6
Page 671
B
127. The estrogen that is used in most
combined hormonal contraceptives is
A. Clomiphene
B.

Ethinyl estradiol

B.

Hypoglycemia

C. Pancreatitis
D. Severe hypertension
MPL: 1.0
Page 721

Neurologic
effects,
including
headache, dizziness, and lethargy
B. Hematuria
C. Fanconis aminoaciduria syndrome
D. Skin reactions
MPL: 0.2
Page 793
C
135. On her release from hospital, the patient
is advised not to rely solely on oral
contraceptives to avoid pregnancy because they
may be less effective while
she
is
being
maintained
on
antimycobacterial drugs. The agent most likely
to
interfere with the action of oral
contraceptives is
A. Ethambutol

B
130. Which of the following drugs is MOST
likely to cause hypoglycemia when used
as monotherapy in the treatment of type
2 diabetes?
A. Acarbose
B.

D
131. A patient needs antibiotic treatement for
native valve, culture-positive infective
entericoccal endocarditis. His medical history
includes a severe anaphylactic
reaction to penicillin G during the past
year. The best approach would be
treatment with
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Aztreonam

C. Meropenem
D. Vancomycin
MPL: 0.4
Page 768

C
136. Chemical interactions between this drug
and cell membrane components
can result in the formation of pores lined by
hydrophilic groups present in the
drug molecule
A. Caspofungin
B.

D
137. Which of the following statements about
fluconazole is most accurate?
A. it is highly effective in treatment of
aspergillosis
B. It does not penetrate the bloodbrain barrier
C. Its oral bioavailability is less than
that of ketoconazole
D. It
inhibits
demethylation
of
lanosterol
MP[L: 0.25
Page 819
D
138. Which of the following drugs binds to a
viral envelope protein preventing
the
conformational changes required for the
fusion of viral and cellular membranes?
A. Abacavir
B.

A.

D
133. In
patient
with
culture-positive
enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to
respond to vancomycin because of
resistance, the treatment most likely to
be effective is

Griseofulvin

C. Nystatin
D. Fluconazole
MPL: 0.25
Page 1049

C
132. The mechanism of antibacterial action of
tetracyclines involves
Binding to a component of the 50S
ribosomal subunit
B. Inhibition of translocase activity
C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyltRNA to bacterial ribosomes
D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal
peptidyl transferases
MPL: 0.33
Page 776

Isoniazid

C. Rifampin
D. Pyrazinamide
MPL: 1.0
Page 806

Glyburide

C. Miglitol
D. Rosiglitazone
MPL: 0.4
Page 726

B.

B.

Excessive weight gain

C. Lactic acidosis
D. Hypoglycemia
MPL: 0.5
Page 728

Erythromycin

A.

C
129. A 54-year-old obese patient with type 2
diabetes and a history of alcoholism
probably should not receive metformin because it
can increase the risk of
A. A disulfiram-like reaction
B.

B.

D
134. Which of the following adverse effects is
most likely to occur with sulfonamides?

B
128. The most likely complication of insulin
therapy in this patient is
Dilutional hyponatremia

Clarithromycin

C. Minocycline
D. Linezolid
MPL: 1.0
Page 782

C. DES
D. Norgestrel
MPL: 1.0
Page 682

A.

A.

No
139.

140.

Adenavir

C. Oseltamivir
D. Enfuvirtide
MPL: 0.33
Page 820
Question
Which of the following is NOT an expected effect of muscarinic
instilled into the conjunctival sac?
a. Contraction of the smooth muscle of the iris sphincter
b. Contraction of the ciliary muscle
c. Mydriasis
d. Improves aqueous humor outflow in the canal of Schle
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, salivation, s
cutaneous vasodilation and bronchial constriction are cause
overdose of:
a. Ipratropium
b. Pirenzepine
c. Benztropine
d. Pilocarpine
9

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

147.

148.

149.

150.

151.

In normal individuals and more so in patients with airway disease, most

the common adverse effects of this drug is:
administration of this agent causes cause some bronchodilation and a. hepatotoxicity
reduction in secretion.
b. hypersensitivity lung reaction
a. Atropine
c. nausea and mucosal ulcers
b. Metacholine
d. pseudolymphomatous reactions
c. Carbachol
152.
This antihypertensive drug is approximately equipotent to pro
d. Bethanechol
in inhibition stimulation of 1-adrenoceptors but 50- to 100potent than propranolol in blocking 2-adrenoceptors.
a. Nadolol,
This agent relieves motion sickness and is as effective as any more b. Carteolol
recently introduced agent but causes significant sedation and dry c. Pindolol
mouth.
d. Metoprolol
a. Oxybutinin
153.
This antihypertensive agent illustrates how one persons toxic
b. Scopolamine
be another persons therapy in that it causes hirsutism, w
c. Tolterodine
bothersome in women but a topical formulation is used to s
d. Darifenacin
hair growth, which is beneficial for many men.
AL, 25y.o. male patient is brought to the emergency room suffering a. Diltiazem
from bronchospasm, mucous membrane congestion, angioedema, and b. Hydralazine
severe hypotension. The appropriate drug is:
c. Minoxidil
a. Phenylephrine
d. Methyldopa
b. Ephedrine
c. Amphetamine
d. Epinephrine
BM, 50 yo female is asthmatic and hypertensive. The following class of
drugs should be avoided as maintenance treatment for her
hypertension.
a. ACE inhibitors
154.
This antihypertensive drug may cause severe hypoten
b. Calcium channel blockers
hypovolemic patients, acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia, dr
c. Beta-blockers
sometime accompanied by wheezing, and angioedema.
d. Diuretics
a. Captopril
Which of the following CNS neurotransmitters has only an inhibitory b. Methyldopa
mechanism of action?
c. Reserpine
a. GABA
d. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Acetylcholine
155.
MF, 45 yo female with evidence of chronic kidney disease w
c. Glutamate
diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following drugs
d. 5-Hydroxttryptamine
helpful for both of her conditions>
Which among the following sedative-hypnotic drugs has the longest a. Metoprolol
elimination half-life and is ingested as a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to b. Hydrochlorothiazide
its active form in the stomach?
c. Captopril
a. Alprazolam
d. Nifedipine
b. Lorazepam
156.
GG, 68 yo female teacher has chronic heart failure with left ve
c. Oxazepam
dysfunction but no edema. The first drug to be used for her are
d. Clorazepate
a. - blockers
This drug is a novel hypnotic drug prescribed for patients who have b. Diuretics
difficulty in falling asleep. In polysomnography studies of patients with c. Calcium blockers
chronic insomnia, this drug reportedly reduced the latency to persistent d.
ACE inhibitors
sleep with no rebound insomnia or withdrawal symptoms. 157.
Chloroquine is effective in the treatment of nonfalciparum and s
a. Remelteon
falciparum malaria but it causes which of the following comm
b. Buspirone
effects?
c. Diazempam
a. pruritus
d. Triazolam
b. hemolysis
EJ, 35 yo executive often awakens early in the sleep cycle and could c. alopecia
hardly go to sleep again. He may probably benefit from which of the d. hypotension
following drugs?
158.
The common adverse effects of Quinine in treating falciparum
a. Flurazepam
include the following, except
b. Clorazepate
a. tinnitus
c. Zolpidem
b. hemoglobinuria
d. None of the above
c. flushing
d. visual disturbances
159.
TT, 7yo male public elementary school student develops mi
transmitted helminthic infections. Which of the following
appropriate?
a. Pyrantel pamoate
b. Praziquantel
GM, 30 yo female experiences visual scotomas followed after around c. Mebendazole
30 minutes by a severe throbbing right-sided headache that would last d. Metronidazole
4 8 hours if untreated. Which group of drugs isalmost160.
exclusively
This group of antimicrobials kills bacterial cells interfering
used for this condition?
transpeptidation reaction of bacterial cell wall synthesis
a. Triptans
a. Tetracyclines
b. Propranolol
b. -lactam antibiotics
c. Topiramate
c. Macrolides
d. Valproate
d. All of the above
This drug is effective in reducing pain of mild to moderate intensity
through its effects on inflammation and because it probably inhibits
161.
The following penicillins are resistant to Staphylococc
pain stimuli at a subcortical site.
lactamases, except
a. Paracetamol
a. Methicicillin
b. Tramadol
b. Amoxicillin
c. Aspirin
c. Nafcillin
d. All of the above
d. Cloxacillin
IT, 60 yo male suffers from excruciatingly painful inflammation of the
162.
Which of the following drugs is more stable to bacterial -lactam
big toe after binge eating. The following agents may be helpful except?
a. Penicillin G
a. Indomethacin
b. Amoxicillin
b. Colchicine
c. Cephalexin
c. Tolmetin
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
YH, 62 yo female is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician
strongly believes that this condition causes significant systemic effects
163.mobility
The class of cephalosporins with expanded gram-negative c
which shorten life in addition to the joint disease that reduces
with some agents being able to cross the blood-brain barrier, bu
and quality of life. He decides to give her metothrexate, the diseaseagents effective vs. P aeruginosa.
modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) of choice for her condition. The
a. First generation
10

164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

A. Bioavailability
b. Second generation
C. Cmax
c. Third generation
B. Clearance
d. Fourth generation
D. half-life
ME, 33 yo male develops pneumonia and was given penicillin but
develops allergy. He was given an alternative drug which had to be
ANS A p. 40
discontinued because of gastrointestinal intolerance due to direct
stimulation of gut motility. This drug is most probably.
_____
174. A laboratory experiment is being conducted
a. Cefalexin
in which an animal is injected with a nonb. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
competitive antagonist to the histamine receptor.
c. Minocycline
Which of the following best describes this drug?
d. Erythromycin
This agent participates in conversion of diatary folate A.to The drug binds to the histamine receptor and
tetrahydrofolate and isomerization of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl partially activates it.
B. The drug binds to the histamine receptor but
CoA and is effective in the treatment of megaloblastic anemia.
does not activate it.
Vitamin B12
a.
C. The drug binds to the receptor, but not
Iron
b.
where histamine binds and prevents the
Erythropoietin
c.
receptor from being activated.
None of these
d.
BV, 45 year old female suffers from chronic kidney disease dueD.to The drug irreversibly binds to the histamine
diabetic nephropathy leading to recurring anemia. Which of the receptor and renders it ineffective.
following agents is most useful for this patient?
ANS C p. 16
a. Iron
b. Folate
_____
175. The rate and extent of absorption of a drug
c. Erythropoietin
is decreased by:
d. Interleukin
A. inhibition of P-glycoprotein transporter
of
carbon-nitrogen
bond
TU, 3 yo male has manifest slowing down of bodily functions leadingB.to addition
striking retaration of growth and development leading to very slow ( quaternary amine )
C. inhibition of gut wall metabolism
growth and some degree of mental retardation. The most satisfactory
D. low ionization constant
preparation for replacement therapy in this case is.
a. Liothyronine
ANS B p. 41
b. Levothyroxine
c. Methimazole
_____
176. At low doses, dobutamine receptor
d. Propylthiouracil
selectivity and activity will primarily result to:
A. bronchodilation
C. uterine contraction
B. dilatation of renal bladder vessels
D. increase in cardiac
con
trac
tilit
GF, 25 yo female manifests with warm moist skin, sweating, heat
y
intolerance, periorbital edema, retraction of upper lid with wide stare,
ANS D p.133
exopthalmos an diplopia. The management of this condition involves

the following, except:

_____
177. Antiarrythmic with the most marked Ka. Methimazole
blocking effect
b. Thyroidectomy
A. lidocaine
c. 131 Iodine
C. quinidine
d. None of the above
169.
This agent is a prohormone that serves as a precursor to a numberB.of amiodarone
D. verapamil
biologically active metabolites, including calcitriol.
a. Calcimimetics
ANS B pp 228
b. Vitamin D
c. Calcitonin
_____
178. Blocks the final common pathway of
d. None of these
platelet aggregation:
170.
Which of the following is an inscription and translation of a violative
A. ticlopidine
prescription based on the Generics Act of 1988?
C. abciximab
a. Paracetamol 500mg tabs ----------------#20
B. clopidogrel
b. Amoxil 500 mg caps ---------------------#21
D. ASA
c. Ponstan (Mefenamic Acid) 500 mg ---#12
d. B an C are violative prescriptions
_____
179. Drug interaction seen with concomitant
spironolactone and ACE inhibitor use
Basic and Clinical Pharmacology by: Bertram G.
A. ACE inhibitors may decrease renal perfusion
th
Katzung, 10 edition, 2007
decreasing the action of spironolactone in
the collecting tubules
_____
171. All of the following factors can affect the
B. Additive afterloader effect
rate and extent of drug absorption EXCEPT
C. Enhanced hyperkalemia*
A. lipophilicity
D. Enhanced
vasodilating
effect
of
ACE
C. protein binding
inhibitors
because of
inhibition
of
B. intestinal motility
metabolism by spironolactone
D. presence of P glycoprotein transporter
ANS C p. 177

ANS C p.41
_____
172. Which of the following factors is TRUE
regarding drug distribution?
A. All drugs distribute to the same degree in all
tissues.
B. The binding of drugs to tissues has no
relationship to the distribution of drug in the
body.
C. In general, a drug with a higher degree of
plasma protein binding will have a lower Vd.
D. In general, lipophilic drugs distribute to a
lesser extent than hydrophilic drugs
ANS C p. 34
_____

173. The amount of a drug dose that reaches the

systemic circulation in the unchanged form is:

_____

180. The following anti-hypertensive drug should

be used with caution in patients on potassiumsparing diuretics
A. losartan*
C. hydrochlorthiazide
B. verapamil
D. methyldopa
ANS A p. 177

_____

181. Accumulation of bradykinin due to ACE

inhibition is responsible for these adverse effects
EXCEPT one:
A. cough
C. angioedema
11

B.

hypotension
D. hyperkalemia

ANS C p. 199-202

ANS D p. 177
_____
182. The absence of reflex tachycardia with the
use of ACE inhibitors is due to
A. downward resetting of the baroreceptor
B. mild
decrease in
peripheral vascular
resistance
C. enhanced sympathetic activity
D. inhibition of RAA system

_____

ANS A p. 176
_____

183. This adverse effect of nitrates can be

prevented by providing nitrate-free interval
between administration
A. dependence
C.
tolerance
B. hypotension
D. tachycardia

ANS A p. 133
_____

ANS D p. 186
_____

184. Which of the following drug combinations

will give the best hemodynamic effects of
decreasing filling pressure and increasing cardiac
output in CHF patients?
A. furosemide and dopamine
C. captopril and digoxin
B. digoxin and verapamil
D.
furosemide and digoxin
ANS A p. 208

_____

185. The drug of choice for converting

paroxysmal atrial tachycardia to normal sinus
rhythm
A. propranolol
C. quinidine
B. adenosine
D. flecainide
ANS B p. 231

_____

_____
187. The risk of Torsades des pointes is highest
with the use of
A. sotalol
C. bretylium
B. flecainide
D. amiodarone

_____
193. Rapid intravenous administration of this
drug may cause respiratory depression:
A. phenytoin
C. phenobarbital
B. lamotrigine
D. carbamazepine
ANS C p.359
_____
194. This drug increases free phenytoin levels
due to protein binding displacement.
A. Cimetidine
C. chloramphenicol
B. salicylates
D. isoniazid
ANS B p.377
_____

188. Drug-induced lupus is an adverse effect of

A. procainamide
C. disopyramide
B. amiodarone
D. amiloride

_____

189. A 60 year old male has dilated

cardiomyopathy and is on digoxin. He complains
of nausea and vomiting and you think he has
digitalis toxicity. Which of the following drugs he
is taking most likely enhanced this?
A. Furosemide*
C.
spironolactone
B. Carvedilol
D. captopril
ANS A p. 204

_____
190. The positive inotropic action of cardiac
glycosides is associated with
A. an increase in ATP synthesis
B. a modification in actin molecule
C. decreased outward flow of calcium*
D. a decrease in calcium uptake by the
sarcoplasmic reticulum

195. Which of the following antidepressants will

produce
a
life-threatening
syndrome
of
hyperthermia, muscle rigidity and myoclonus
when administered with MAO?
A. Fluoxetine
C. imipramine
B. trazodone
D. clomipramine
ANS A p. 486

_____
196. Ideally, baseline liver function tests are done
prior to giving this anticonvulsant
A. topiramate
C. valproic acid
B. levetiracetam
D. gabapentin
ANS C p. 387

ANS D p. 223
_____

192. A.M. a 55 year old known hypertensive was

found to have heart block on ECG. Which of the
drugs below should not be given?
A. Spironolactone
C. captopril
B. Verapamil*
D. prazosin
ANS A p. 175; 230

186. This class I antiarrhythmic drug has marked

negative inotropic action and therefore should not
be used in patient with heart failure
A. quinidine
C. disopyramide
B. procainamide
D. lidocaine
ANS D p.225

191. A patient in CHF has developed oliguria

because of low cardiac output. To improve renal
perfusion, dopamine must be given at this dose in
ug/kg/min
A. 2*
C. 15
B. 10
D. 20

_____

197. Elimination of this anticonvulsant is

enhanced significantly by alkalinization of the
urine
A. Phenobarbital
C. valproic acid
B. Carbamazepine
D. phenytoin
ANS A p.380

_____

198. Orthostatic hypotension is most common

with which of the following antipsychotic agents:
A. Perphenazine
C. chlorpromazine
B. Haloperidol
D. olanzapine
ANS C p.461

_____
199. Carbamazepine exerts its antiepileptic effect
through
A. inhibition of low threshold transient Ca++
current
12

B.

inhibition of neurotransmission by NMDA and

non-NMDA receptors
C. reduction of Na+ current
D. enhancement of post-synaptic GABA receptor
current
ANS C p. 378

B.

ANS A pp. 774-775

_____

_____
200. Based on the mechanism of action, the
following antimicrobial is NOT selectively toxic:
A. piperacillin
C. amphotericin B
B. cotrimoxazole
D.
gentamicin
ANS B p. 763
_____
201. Which of the following antibiotics is
effective against both aerobes and anaerobes?
A. metronidazole
C.
aztreonam
B. gentamicin
D. chloramphenicol

_____
210. Aromatase inhibitor used in the treatment of
breast cancer
A. Tamoxifen
C. anastrazole
B. Danazol
D. leuprolide
ANS C p. 673

_____

202. This antibiotic is frequently associated with

8th nerve damage in the offspring if given to
pregnant women, thus classified under pregnancy
risk category D
A. Clarithromycin
C. ciprofloxacin
B. Tetracycline
D. streptomycin
ANS D p. 759

_____

203. Maculopapular rash with this antibiotic is

non-immunologic in nature and does not preclude
the use of chemically related antibiotics in the
future
A. Erythromycin
C.
amoxicillin
B. Cefalexin
D. cotrimoxazole
ANS C p. 733

_____

204. A 15 year old college student came in

because of headache,
fever,
chills
and
photophobia. Thick and thin smears showed P.
vivax. The oral drug of choice to rid the blood of
plasmodia is
A. Quinine
C. mefloquine
B. Primaquine
D. chloroquine
ANS D p.846
against

the

_____

206. The following antiviral agents DOES NOT

require activation by phosphorylation and it
directly inhibits DNA and RNA polymerases as
well as HIV reverse transcriptase
A. penciclovir
C. cidofovir
B. acyclovir
D. foscarnet

ANS C p. 700
_____

ANS D p. 773
_____

208. A 50 year old male receiving anti-TB

treatment develops mono-articular arthritis.
Which of the following could have caused it?
A. pyrazinamide and ethambutol
C.
ethambutol + streptomycin

213. This drug is an estrogen agonist in the bone

but an estrogen antagonist in breast tissue:
A. raloxifene
C. tamoxifen
B. alendronate
D. calcitonin
ANS A p. 672

_____
214. This is essential for the antithyroid activity of
thioamides:
A. phenyl group
C.
thiocarbamide group
B. methyl group at 3
D. iodide substituent at 3
ANS C p.625
_____

215. The main mechanism for its effectiveness in

diabetics is the release of endogenous insulin
A. sulfonylurea
C. biguanide
B. thiazolidinedione
D. alpha glucosidase inhibitor
ANS A p. 694

_____

216. The main action as anti-diabetic agent is to

stimulate the nuclear receptors that regulate the
transcription of genes encoding proteins involved
in protein and carbohydrate metabolism
A. insulin
C. sulfonylurea
B. thiazolidinedione
D. biguanide

ANS D p. 797
_____
207. The following adverse reaction to isoniazid is
age-related
A. SLE like syndrome
C. neuropathy
B. Hemolysis
D. hepatitis

211. Which of the following statements is TRUE

regarding the direct genomic pharmacodynamic
action of glucocorticoids (GC)?
A. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm and into
nucleus where it binds to glucocorticoid
response element (GRE) and act as
transcription factor,
upregulating gene
transcription
B. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm and bind to
steroid receptors leading to release of heat
shock proteins and dimerization of steroid
receptor complexes which translocate into
nucleus and bind to GRE, inducing or
inhibiting gene transcription
C. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm, binding to
steroid
receptors,
the
steroid-receptor
complexes then bind to transcription factor
inhibiting synthesis of pro-inflammatory
cytokines
D. GCs activate cell membrane enzymes
leading to formation 2nd messenger
ANS B p. 639

_____
212. The main mechanism of action is to lower
post meal glycemic excursion:
A. metformin
C. acarbose
B. glipizide
D. nateglinide

ANS A p. 872
_____

209. Of the following, the mechanism of actions

of this antifungal does not involve inhibition of
cell membrane synthesis
A. Terbinafine
C. flucytosine
B. Fluconazole
D. griseofulvin
ANS C p. 784

ANS D p. 752

_____
205. Mebendazole is effective
following parasites EXCEPT
A. capillaria philippinensis
C. necator americanus
B. ascaris lumbricoides
D. trichuris trichiuria

rifampicin + pyrazinamide
D. ethambutol + INH

ANS A p. 686
13

_____

217. Which of the following glucocorticoids has

the least mineralocorticoid effect and is best for
decreasing cerebral edema associated with
increased intracranial pressure?
A. Prednisone
C. dexamethasone
B. Hydrocortisone
D. prednisolone
ANS C p. 641-644

_____
218. Organophosphate toxicity results from its
ability to
A. interrupt heme synthesis
B. inhibit acetycholinesterase
C. compete with brain pyridoxal phosphate
D. react with sulfhydryl groups binding to
protein and other enzymes

224.Sedative-Hypnotic with low solubility

penetrate the brain slowly includes:
A. Phenobarbital
B. Flumazenil
C. Trimethadione
D. Valproic acid

Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
edition, p. 354
225.The following drugs/substance of abuse are CNS
stimulants, EXCEPT:
A. Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB)
B. Cocaine
C. Amphetamine
D.
Methylenedioxy-Methamphetamine
(MDMA, Ecstasy)

ANS B p 968
219.A class of proteins that functions as drug
receptors that mediate the actions of
endogenous chemical signals such as
neurotransmitters and hormones:
A. enzymes
B. regulatory proteins
C. structural proteins
D. transport proteins
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 11
220.Receptor/s coupled to G protein that
modulate the production of intracellular
second messengers include/s
A. muscarinic receptor
B. alpha adrenergic receptor
C. leukotriene receptor
D. all of the above

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
edition, p. 520
226.Characteristic physiologic
intoxication includes:
A. increased pulse rate
B. pale conjunctivae
C. miotic pupil
D. high blood pressure

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 437

Cannabis

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 415
228.Painless digital vasospasm is a dose-related
complication of long term
treatment with:
A. Levodopa
B. Bromocriptine
C. Selegiline
D. Tolcapone
Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 453

Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
edition, pp. 130 - 131

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 360

of

227. Which among these intravenous general

anesthetics produces a dissociative type of
anesthesia?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental
D. Midazolam

222.Therapeutic benefit/s of 2 receptor agonists

include:
A. antihypertensive
B. antiglaucoma
C. antidiarrheal
D. all of the above

223.Non-benzodiazepine that has affinity for the

Benzodiazepine receptors:
A. Zolpidem
B. Midazolam
C. Alprazolam
D. All of the above

sign

Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
edition, p. 526

Application
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 22
221.The neuromuscular blocker succinylcholine
acts by:
A.
Depolarizing
muscle
endplate
receptors
B.
Repolarizing
muscle
endplate
receptors
C. Inhibiting the release of acetylcholine
from the nerve ending
D. Blocking the access of acetylcholine
at the myoneural junction

and

229.The peripheral metabolism to Levodopa can be

prevented if it is given
concomitantly with:
A. Carbidopa
B. Amantadine
C. Biperiden
D. Bromocriptine

Application
Answer: A
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Pharmacology, ninth edition,
p. 449, p. 454

Basic

and

Clinical

230.An overdose of this opioid causes mydriasis

instead of the characteristic miosis of opioid
toxicity:
A. Hydromorphone
B. Meperidine
C. Methadone
D. Morphine
Application
Answer: B
14

Reference:
KATZUNG,
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 511

Basic

and

Clinical

231.Which of these group of tissues would be the

first to take up appreciable amounts of
inhalational anesthetics?
A. Fat
B. Muscle
C. Vessel-rich
D. Vessel-poor
Recall
Answer: C
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 405

Basic

and

Clinical

232.A narcotic-addicted patient is given this drug

as a substitute to be able to control the
withdrawal symptoms:
A. Hydromorphone
B. Meperidine
C. Methadone
D. Disulfiram
Recall
Answer: C
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.510, p. 520

Clinical

233.The duration of action of the intravenous

barbiturate anesthetic thiopental is largely
determined by:
A. Spontaneous degradation
B. Hepatic extraction
C. Renal clearance
D. Redistribution
Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 412
234.This drug inhibits binding of leukotriene D4 to
its receptor on target tissues
A. Montelukast
B. Zilenton
C. Ipratropium bromide
D. Omalizumab
Recall
Answer: A
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 330

Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,

ninth edition, p. 652
238.The most common adverse effect of Aspirin
is
A. gastric upset and ulcers
B. renal toxicity
C. asthma
D. hepatotoxicity
Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
edition, p. 581
239.A uricosuric drug that decreases body pool of
urate in patients with
tophaceous gout is
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Meloxicam
Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 598
240.Sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodal tissue
are affected markedly by
A. Diltiazem
B. Verapamil
C. Nifedipine
D. Amlodipine
Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 196
241.The beneficial effect of Captopril in patients with
heart failure is attributed to:
A. reduction in afterload
B. increased preload
C. increased myocardial contractility
D. all of the above
Application
Answer: A
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 209

Clinical

Clinical

235.The mechanism of action of corticosteroids in

the treatment of bronchial asthma includes
A. directly relax airway smooth muscle
B. enhance bronchial reactivity
C. inhibit airway mucosal inflammation
D. prevent release of chemotactic
agents

242.Beta blockers with membrane-stabilizing action,

useful as anti-arrhythmics include:
A. Metoprolol
B. Propranolol
C. Acebutolol
D. All of the above

Recall
Application
Answer: D
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
ninth edition, p. 151
edition, p. 328
243.Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs
act by blocking sodium channel?
236.A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that
A. Lidocaine
irreversibly acetylates and blocks platelet
B. Verapamil
cycloocygenase is
C. Sotalol
A. Naproxen
D. Adenosine
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Aspirin
Application
D. Ibuprofen
Answer: A
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Clinical
Recall
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 226
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
244.Antibiotic/s shown to be effective when
ninth edition, p. 577
applied topically in the treatment of acne
vulgaris include/s:
237.Corticosteroids must be used with great
A. Clindamycin
caution in patients with
B. Erythromycin
A. osteoporosis
C. Metronidazole
B. varicella
D. All of the above
C. peptic ulcer
Application
D. all of the above
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
Application
ninth edition, p. 1017
Answer: D
15

245.This organophosphate compound is thought

to have a cholinesterase inhibitory action
which temporarily paralyzes the adult
Schistosoma haematobium worms.
A. Metrifonate
B. Niclosamide
C. Mebendazole
D. Pyrantel pamoate
Recall
Answer: A
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Clinical
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 891
246.Which of these drugs selectively inhibits
microtubule synthesis and glucose uptake in
nematodes?
A. Piperazine
B. Mebendazole
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Diethylcarbamazine citrate
Application
Answer: B
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 891

Clinical

247.For onchocerciasis and strongyloidiasis, this

drug is the first choice because it causes
fewer systemic and ocular reactions:
A. Diethylcarbamazine citrate
B. Metrifonate
C. Ivermectin
D. Bithionol
Application
Answer: C
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 890
248.Most of the serious adverse
Penicllins are due to:
A. Blood dyscrasias
B. Hypersensitivity reactions
C. CNS reactions
D. Hepatic impariment

Clinical

effects

Application
Answer: B
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 741

of

patients whose gonococci are resistant to

other drugs is:
A. Ofloxacin
B. Tetracycline
C. Doxycycline
D. Spectinomycin
Recall
Answer: D
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 771

Clinical

253.Excessive anticoagulant effect results in

bleeding from Warfarin can be reversed by:
A. discontinuance of the drug
B. administration of Vitamin K
C. administration of fresh frozen plasma
D. all of the above
Application
Answer: D
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 552

Clinical

254.The amount of elemental iron per 325 mg

tablet of hydrated ferrous sulfate is ___ mg:
A. 36
B. 65
C. 80
D. 106
Application
Answer: B
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 531

Clinical

255.The preparation of choice for thyroid

replacement and suppression therapy is:
A. Liothyronine
B. Levothyroxine
C. Dessicated thyroid
D. Thyrogloculin
Recall
Answer: B
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 630

Clinical

Clinical

256.The combination of estrogens and progestins

exert their contraceptive effect largely
through
249.The following anti-TB drugs are potentially
A. inhibition of pituitary function
hepatotoxic, EXCEPT:
B. production of a mucoid cervical
A. RIfampin
secretion
B. Isoniazid
C. alteration in the motility of the
C. Pyrazinamide
uterine tubes
D. Streptomycin
D. enhancement of the rupture of the
ovarian follicle
Recall
Application
Answer: D
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
edition, p. 784-786
ninth edition, p. 673
250.This Anti-TB is relatively contraindicated in young
children whose visual acuity and red-green color
assessment can not be adequately assessed:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Ethmabutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 785
251.This antibacterial is available as a nasal
ointment useful in the elimination of nasal
carriage of Staphylococcus aureus:
A. Neomycin
B. Muprocin
C. Polymycin B sulfate
D. Bacitracin
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 1016
252.A drug that is used almost solely as an
alternative treatment for gonorrhea in

257.The most dangerous complication

Thioamides is:
A. lupus-like reaction
B. hepatitis
C. agranulocytosis
D. exfoliative dermatitis
Recall
Answer: C
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 633

of

Clinical

258.The major use of this drug is in the treatment

of endometriosis
A. Nifepristone
B. Danazol
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphine
Recall
Answer: B
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 680

Clinical

259.The best treatment option for an obese

patient with NIDDM with associated insulin
resistance syndrome is:
A. Glibenclamide
16

B.
C.
D.

Metformin
Repaglimide
Acarbose

Application
Answer: B
Reference:
KATZUNG,
Basic
and
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 708

Clinical

260.Treatment Regimen III as indicated in the

National
Tuberculosis
Control
Program
consists of:
A. 2 HRZES
B. 2HRZ / 4HR
C. 2HRZE / 4HR
D. 2HRZES / 1 HREZ / 5HRE
Application
Answer: B
Reference:
Treatment Regimens

National

TB

Control

Program,

261.The study of the absorption, distribution,

metabolism and excretion of drug is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Phamacotherapeutics
D. Pharmacology
Ans.
B p. 5

262.First pass effect is more likely to occur with

this route of administration :
A.Oral
B.Buccal
C.Sublingual
D.Rectal
Ans. A p. 43
263.Inert binding sites bind a drug without
initiating events leading to a drug effect.
They are located in:
A.True receptors
B.Spare receptors
C.Plasma proteins
D.Ttissue proteins
Ans.
C p. 5

Drug B

264.Drug A at a dose of 100 mg. produces the

same effect as drug B at a dose of 1000 mg.
One of the following statements is correct
regarding the two drugs:
A. Drug A has a greater efficacy than

Drug A

B. Drug B has a greater efficacy than

C. Drug A is more potent than Drug B

D. Drug B is more potent than Drug A
Ans. C p.28
265.Drugs with very high volume of distribution:
A. are completely retained within the
vascular compartment
B. have higher concentrations in
extravascular tissue
C. are homogeneously distributed in
blood
D. have minimum possible volume of
distribution
Ans.B p.34

268.Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from

nonselective COX inhibitors in that selective
COX-2 inhibitors have no:
A.
analgesic-antipyretic
and
antiinflammatory effects
B. gastrointestinal side effects
C. effects on platelet aggregation
D. renal toxicities
Ans. B p. 582
269.Pharmacologic effects of
alcohol include
stimulation of the:
A. central nervous system
B. heart
C. smooth muscles of the blood vessels
D. secretion of gastric acid
Ans. D p. 368
270.One of the following general anesthetics with
their
respective
blood:gas
partition
coefficients is most soluble in blood:
A.Nitrous oxide 0.47
B. Enflurane
1.40
C. Halothane
2.30
D. Methoxyflurane 12.0
Ans. D p. 403
271.Reserpine blocks this step in adrenergic
transmission:
A. synthesis of the transmitter
B. incorporation of norepinephrine into
the vesicle
C. release of the neurotransmitter
D. reuptake into presynaptic neuron
Ans.
B p. 169
272.A 24 year old male was brought to the
emergency room after having allegedly
drank poison. He had constricted pupils, was
noted to have salivation and sweating,
wheezing, vomiting and diarrhea: The poison
must have been:
A. atropine
B. organophosphate
C. opiate
D. ephedrine
Ans. B p. 101
273.Therapeutic
applications
of
atropine
include/s:
A. peptic ulcer
B. bradycardia caused by myocardial
infarction
C. urinary retention
D. constipation
Ans. B p. 115
274.Mechanism of action of pralidoxime:
A. competitive antagonism
B. noncompetitive antagonism
C. physiologic antagonism
D. regeneration of the enzyme
Ans. D p. 117
275.Compared to norepinephrine, epinephrine
has more effects on:
A. alpha 1 receptors
B. alpha 2 receptors
C. beta 1 receptors
D. beta 2 receptors
Ans. D
p.
133

266.Bioavailability of a drug is 100% following

this route of administration:
A. subcutaneous
B. intramuscular
C. transdermal
D. intravenous
Ans. D p.41

276.Drugs like quinidine, procainamide and

disopyramide are useful in the treatment of:
A. congestive heart failure
C. status asthmaticus
B. thyrotoxicosis
D. arrhythmia

267.Drug biotransformation may result in

formation of:
A. inactive metabolites
B. reactive intermediates that are toxic
to various organs
C. an active substance from a prodrug
D. all of the above
Ans. D p. 5556

Ans. D. pp. 227-229

277.A 65-year old male was admitted at the
intensive care unit disoriented with a blood
pressure of 220/120. Which of the following
drugs will be most appropriate:
A. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Methyldopa
B. Clonidine
D. Aldactone
17

Ans. A p. 175
278.Propranolol
and
other
beta-adrenergic
receptor antagonist have the following
effect/s on the heart that makes them useful
as antiarryhthmic agents:
A. Depress automaticity
C. Reduce heart rate
B. Prolong A-V conduction
D. All of the above
Ans. D. p. 232
279.All of the following are true of sodium
nitroprusside EXCEPT:
A. The
gold
standard
for
use
in
hypertensive crisis
B. Mechanism of
vasodilating effects
similar to nitrates
C. Sensitive to light
D. Metabolite is pharmacologically inert
Ans. D. p.175
280.In patients with congestive heart failure, the
use of angiotensin converting enzyme
inhibitors will increase
A. peripheral resistance
C. salt and water excretion
B. preload
D. sympathetic activity
Ans. C p. 209
281.One of the following antianginal agents is
contraindicated in patients with vasospastic
angina:
A. Propranolol
C. Diltiazem
B. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide dinitrate
Ans. A. p. 198
282.Methyldopa as antihyperatensive agent
exerts its effect by conversion to alphamethylnorepinephrine
which
stimulates
centrally this receptor:
A. alpha-1
C. alpha-2
B. Beta-1
D. Beta-2
Ans. C. p. 166
283.Aminopenicillins,
Carboxypenicillins
and
Ureidopenicillins compared to Penicillin G:
A.
Are
not
effective
for
oral
adminsitration
B. Have lesser tendency to cause
hypersensitivity reaction
C. Have greater activity against gramnegative bacteria
D. Are resistant to B-lactamse
A
ns.
C. p.
741
284.Clavulanic acid is added to Ampicillin in order
to:
A. Prevent occurrence of diarrhea
B. Protect the beta-lactam ring from
destruction
C. Increase
the
bioavailability
by
increasing absorption
D. Increase the pH of gastrointestinal
tract
Ans
. B.
p.
741
285.The
most
common
side
effect
erythromycin is:
A. Gastroinetstinal upset
B.
C.
D.

of

red neck syndrome

Pseudomembranous colitis
Nephrotoxicity
Ans. A p. 759
286.Bacterial synergism is produced by the
following drug combination:
A. Tetracycline and penicillin G
B. Cephalexin and gentamycin

C.
D.

Tetracycline
and
chloramphenicol
Tetracycline and streptomycin
Ans. B p. 846

287.This antimicrobial drug may provoke acute

gouty arthritis:
A. Pyrazinamide
B. Ethambutol
C. INH
D. PAS
Ans.
A p. 786
288.This agent is proven effects for influenza A:
A. Riboxinin
B. Acyclovir
C. Zidoxcedine
D. Amantadine
Ans.
D p. 824

289.This agent apparently acts as a GABA agonist

at the neuromuscular junction and causes
flaccid paralysis of the nematode:
A. Mebendazole
B. Piperazine
C. Bephenrium
D. Pyrantel
Ans.
B p. 861
290.This antimicrobial agent is also effective for
amebic abscesses that fail initial therapy
with metronoidazole:
A. Chloroquine
B. Amodiaquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Primaquine
Ans.
A p. 867
291.Adverse effects of aminoglycosides include
all, EXCEPT:
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Neuromuscular blockade
D. Ototoxicity
Ans.
B p. 767
292.The most common use of estrogen in
therpeutics is:
A. Dysfunctional
uterine
bleeding
B. Chemotherapy in prostatic
malignancy
C. Replacement
therapy
in
menopause
D. Component of contraceptice
pills
Ans. D
293.This is a partial agonist inhibitor of estradiol
at the estrogen receptor and used in the
palliative treatment of advanced breast
cancer:
A. Donazol
B. Diathylstilbesterol
C. Tamoxifen
D. Mefepristone
Ans.
C p. 679
294.Clomiphone enhanced pregnancy by:
A. Preparing the uterus for
implantation
B. Inhibiting estradiols negative
feedback
C. Increasing sperm motility
D. Inhibiting ovulation
Ans. B p. 681
295.The most common side effect of insulin is:
A. Lipid deposition
B. Renal dystrophy
C. Insulin allergy

18

D.

Hypoglycemia

Ans.

D p. 703
296.Actions of Vit. D include:
A. Antagonism oof parathyroid
hormone
B. Promote
absorption
of
calcium and phosphate from
the intestine
C. Hasten calcium excretion in
the kidney
D. Promotes water excretion
Ans. B p. 718

19