Financial Management: Liquidity Decisions
Financial Management: Liquidity Decisions
Q.1:- Explain the liquidity decisions and its important elements. Write complete information on dividend
decisions.
Ans.
Liquidity decisions
The liquidity decision is concerned with the management of the current assets, which is a pre-requisite
to long-term success of any business firm. This is also called as working capital decision. The main objective of
the current assets management is the trade-off between profitability and liquidity, and there is a conflict between
these two concepts. The liquidity decision should balance the basic two ingredients, i.e. working capital
management and the efficient allocation of funds on the individual current assets.
In other terms, liquidity decisions deal with working capital management. It is concerned with the dayto-day financial operations that involve current assets and current liabilities.
The important elements of liquidity decisions are:
Formulation of inventory policy
Policies on receivable management
Formulation of cash management strategies
Policies on utilisation of spontaneous finance effectively
Dividend decisions
Dividends are payouts to shareholders. Dividends are paid to keep the shareholders happy. Dividend
decision is a major decision made by the finance manager. Dividend is that portion of profits of a company
which is distributed among its shareholders according to the resolution passed in the meeting of the Board of
Directors. This may be paid as a fixed percentage on the share capital contributed by them or at a fixed amount
per share. The Board of Directors as they have to decide how much profits should be transferred to reserve
funds to meet any unforeseen contingencies and how much should be distributed to the shareholders.
Payment of dividend is always desirable since it affects the goodwill of the concern in the market on the
one hand, and on the other, shareholders invest their funds in the company in a hope of getting a reasonable
return. Although both - expansion and payment of dividend - are desirable, these two are in conflicting tasks.
The following issues need adequate consideration in deciding on dividend policy:
Preferences of shareholders Do they want cash dividend or capital gains?
Current financial requirements of the company.
Legal constraints on paying dividends.
Striking an optimum balance between desire of shareholders and the companys funds requirements.
The main reasons why a stable dividend is preferred are:
a) A regular and stable dividend payment may serve to resolve uncertainty in the minds of shareholders,
and it creates confidence among shareholders.
b) Many investors are income conscious and favour a stable dividend.
c) Other things being in balance, the market price invariably vary with the rate of dividend declared by the
company on its equity shares. The value of shares of a company that has a stable dividend policy does
not fluctuate as much, even if the earnings of the company fluctuate now and then.
d) A stable dividend policy encourages investments from institutional investors.
Q.2:- Explain about the doubling period and present value. Solve the given problem:
Ans.
Doubling period
A very common question arising in the minds of an investor is how long will it take for the amount
invested to double for a given rate of interest. There are 2 ways of answering this question:
1. One way is to answer it by a rule known as rule of 72. This rule states that the period within which the
amount doubles is obtained by dividing 72 by the rate of interest. Though it is a crude way of
calculating, this rule is followed by most. If the given rate of interest is 10%, the doubling period is
72/10, that is, 7.2 years.
2. A much accurate way of calculating doubling period is by using the rule known as rule of 69. By this
method, Doubling Period = 0.35+69/Interest rate Going by the same example given above, we get the
number of years as 7.25 years {(0.35 + 69/10) or (0.35 +6.9)}.
Under the ABC Banks Cash Multiplier Scheme, deposits can be made for periods ranging from 3
months to 5 years and for every quarter, interest is added to the principal. The applicable rate of
interest is 9% for deposits less than 23 months and 10% for periods more than 24 months. What will
be the amount of Rs. 1000 after 2 years?
Solution for the given problem
i mXn
1+
m
n
FV = PV
( )
Present Value
Present value can be simply defined as the current value of a future sum. It can also be defined as
the amount to be invested today (present value) at a given rate of interest over a specified period to equal the
future sum. If we reverse the flow by saying that we expect a fixed amount after n
number of years and we also know the present prevailing interest rate, then by discounting the future
amount at the given interest rate, we will get the present value of investment to be made.
1) Present value of a single flow
Present Value (PV) is simply the reverse of finding Future Value (FV). Hence, the formula for FV can be
simply transformed into the PV formula.
FV n
PV =
(1+i)n
The expression {(1+i)n-1/i(1+i)n} is known as Present Value Interest Factor Annuity (PVIFA). It
represents the present value of a regular annuity of Re. 1 for the given values of i and n.
3) Present value of perpetuity
An annuity for an infinite time period is perpetuity. It occurs indefinitely. The present values of
perpetuity can be expressed as follows:
P = A PVIFAi,
Where, P = Present value of perpetuity
A = constant annual payment
PVIFAi, = Present value interest factor for a perpetuity
1
1
=
n
Therefore, the value of PVIFAi, is n=1 (1+i) i
It can be said that PVIF of perpetuity is simply one divided by interest rate expressed in decimal form.
Hence, PV of perpetuity is simply equal to the constant annual payment divided by the interest rate. This
can be expressed as follows:
A
P = i
4) Present value of an uneven periodic sum
In some investment decisions of a firm, the returns may not be constant. In such cases, the PV is calculated as
follows:
P=
A1
(1+i)
A2
(1+i)
A3
(1+i)
++
An
(1+i)n
or
PV= A1 PVIF (i, 1) + A2 PVIF (i, 2) + A3 PVIF (i, 3) + A4 PVIF (i, 4) +. + An PVIF (i, n)
5) Capital recovery factor
Capital recovery factor is the annuity of an investment for a specified time at a given rate of interest. The
reciprocal of the present value annuity factor is called capital recovery factor.
n
i (1+ I )
A = PVAn ( 1+i )n1
i (1+ I )
( 1+i )n1
Q.3:- Write short notes on:- a) Operating Leverage, b) Financial leverage, c) Combined leverage.
Ans.
Operating Leverage
Operating leverage arises due to the presence of fixed operating expenses in the firms income flows.
The operating leverage takes place when a change in revenue produces a greater change in Earnings Before
Interest and Taxes (EBIT). It indicates the impact of changes in sales on operating income. A firm with a high
operating leverage has a relatively greater effect on EBIT for small changes in sales. A small rise in sales may
enhance profits considerably, while a small decline in sales may reduce and even wipe out the EBIT.
There are three categories of a compatys operating costs.
Fixed costs Fixed costs are those which do not vary with an increase in production or sales activities
for a particular period of time. These are incurred irrespective of the income and value of sales and
generally cannot be reduced.
Variable costs Variable costs are those which vary in direct proportion to output and sales. An increase
or decrease in production or sales activities will have a direct effect on such types of costs incurred.
Semi-variable costs Semi-variable costs are those which are partly fixed and partly variable in nature.
These costs are typically of fixed nature up to a certain level beyond which they vary with the firms activities.
Financial Leverage
Financial leverage relates to the financing activities of a firm and measures the effect of EBIT on
Earnings Per Share (EPS) of the company.
A companys sources of funds fall under two categories:
Those which carry fixed financial charges like debentures, bonds, and preference shares
Those which do not carry any fixed charges like equity shares
Financial leverage refers to a firm's use of fixed-charge securities like debentures and preference shares in its
plan of financing the assets. The Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) is a more precise measurement. It
examines the effect of the fixed sources of funds on EPS.
DFL = %change in EPS
%change in EBIT
DFL={EPS/EPS} {EBIT/EBIT}
Or DFL = EBIT {EBIT.I.{Dp/(1-T)}}
I is Interest, Dp is dividend on preference shares, T is tax rate.
DTL measures the total risk of the company as DTL is a combined measure of both operating and
financial risk
DTL measures the variability of EPS
Q.4:- Explain the factors affecting Capital Structure. Solve the given problem.
Ans
Firm A
Rs. 1,00,000
Nil
Rs. 1,00,000
15%
10%
Rs. 6,66,667
Nil
Rs. 6,66,667
Firm B
Rs. 1,00,000
Rs. 25,000
Rs. 75,000
15%
10%
Rs. 5,00,000
Rs. 2,50,000
Rs. 7,50,000
Sources of risk
Project-specific risk
Project-specific risk could be traced to something quite specific to the project. Managerial deficiencies or error
in estimation of cash flows or discount rate may lead to a situation of actual cash flows realised being less
than the projected cash flow.
Industry-specific risk
Industry-specific risks are those that affect all the firms in the particular industry. Industry-specific risk could be
again grouped into technological risk, commodity risk and legal risk. Let us discuss the groups in
industryspecific risks, as follows:
Technological risk The changes in technology affect all the firms not capable of adapting themselves in
emerging into a new technology.
Commodity risk It is the risk arising from the effect of price-changes on goods produced and marketed.
Legal risk It arises from changes in laws and regulations applicable to the industry to which the firm
belongs.
International risk
These types of risks are faced by firms whose business consists mainly of exports or those who procure their
main raw material from international markets. The firms facing such kind of risks are as follows:
The rupee-dollar crisis affected the software and BPOs, because it drastically reduced their profitability.
Another example is that of the textile units in Tirupur in Tamil Nadu, which exports the major part of the
garments produced. Strengthening of rupee and weakening of dollar, reduced their competitiveness in the
global markets.
The surging crude oil prices coupled with the governments delay in taking decision on pricing of petro
products eroded the profitability of oil marketing companies in public sector like Hindustan Petroleum
Corporation Limited.
Another example is the impact of US sub-prime crisis on certain segments of Indian economy.
The changes in international political scenario also affected the operations of certain firms.
Market risk
Factors like inflation, changes in interest rates, and changing general economic conditions affect all firms and
all industries. Firms cannot diversify this risk in the normal course of business.
An investment will have an initial outlay of Rs 100,000. It is expected to generate cash inflows. Cash
inflow for four years.
Year
Cash Flow
1
40000
50000
15000
30000
Year
1
2
3
4
PV factor at
10%
0.909
0.826
0.751
0.683
PV of cash flows
(inflows)
36360
41300
11265
20490
109415
(100000)
9415
PV factor at 20%
0.833
0.694
0.579
0.482
PV of cash inflows
33320
34700
8685
14460
91165
(100000)
(8835)
Interpretation:
The project would be acceptable when no allowance is made for risk. However, it will not be acceptable if risk
premium is added to the risk free rate. By doing so, it moves from positive NPV to negative NPV. If the firm
were to use the internal rate of return (IRR), then the project would be accepted, when IRR is greater than the
risk-adjusted discount rate.
Q.6:- Explain the objectives of Cash Management. Write about the Baumol model with their
assumptions.
Ans
Baumol model
The Baumol model helps in determining the minimum amount of cash that a manager can obtain by
converting securities into cash. Baumol model is an approach to establish a firms optimum cash balance under
certainty. As such, firms attempt to minimise the sum of the cost of holding cash and the cost of converting
marketable securities to cash. Baumol model of cash management trades off between opportunity cost or
carrying cost or holding cost and the transaction cost.
The Baumol model is based on the following assumptions:
The firm is able to forecast its cash requirements in an accurate way.
The firms payouts are uniform over a period of time.
The opportunity cost of holding cash is known and does not change with time.
The firm will incur the same transaction cost for all conversions of securities into cash.
Cash balances are refilled and brought back to normal levels by the sale of securities. The average cash balance
is C/2. The firm buys securities as and when it has above-normal cash balances. This pattern is explained in
figure:Baumol Model
C
Cash balance
C/2
Average
T1
T2
T3
Time
Total Cost
Cost
Holding Cost
Transaction Cost
Cash Balance
C*
The optimum cash balance, C*, is obtained when the total cost is minimum, which is expressed as:
C* = 2cT/k
where C* is the optimum cash balance,
c is the cost per transaction,
T is the total cash needed during the year and
k is the opportunity cost of holding cash balance.
The optimum cash balance will increase with the increase in per-transaction cost and total funds required, and
decrease with the opportunity cost.