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XAVIER ADMISSION TEST

XAT - 2007

* INSTRUCTIONS :

There are 2 parts in this test. Part-A consists of 130 questions distributed in 3 sections. You have 2 hours time
to complete Part-A. Each question carries 1 mark. For first five wrong answer in each section 1/3 mark will
be deducted from your score, after which 1/2 mark will be deducted for any further wrong answers.
Part-B consist of Essay-Writing. You will be given 20 minutes to complete Part-B.

PART A
SECTION-A : Verbal Ability
Directions (Qs. 1-5) : Go through the passage below and answer
the question that follow.
This confusion concerns nothing less than the concept of
socialism itself. It may mean, and is often use to describe, merely
the ideals of social justice, greater equality and security which are
the ultimate aims of socialism. But it means also the particular
method by which most socialists hope to attain these ends and
which many competent people regard as the only methods by
which they can be fully and quickly attained. In this sense socialism
means the abolition of private enterprise, of private ownership of
the means of production, and the creation of system of planned
economy in which the entrepreneur working for profit is replaced
by a central planning body.
There many people who call themselves socialists although they
care only about the first, who fervently believe in those ultimate
aims of socialism but neither care nor understand how they can be
achieved, and who are merely certain they must be achieved,
whatever the cost. But to nearly all those to whom socialism is not
merely a hope but an object of practical politics, the characteristic
methods of modern socialism are as essential as the ends
themselves. Most people, on the other hand, who value the ultimate
ends of socialism no less than the socialists, refuse to support
socialism because of the dangers to other values they see in the
methods proposed by the socialists. The dispute about socialism
has, thus, become largely a dispute about means and not about
ends-although the question whether the different ends of socialism
can be simultaneously achieved is also involved.
This would be enough to create confusion. And the confusion
has been further increased by the common practice of denying
that those who repudiate the means value the ends. But this is not
all. The situation is still more complicated by the fact that the same
means, the economic planning which is the prime instrument for
socialist reform, can be used for many other purposes. We must
centrally direct economic activity if we want to make the distribution
of income conform to current ideas of social justice. Planning,
therefore, is wanted by all those who demand that production for
use be substituted for production for profit. But such planning is
no less indispensable if the distribution of incomes is to be
regulated in a way which to us appears to be the opposite of just.
Whether we should wish that more of the good things of this
world should go to some racial elite, the Nordic men, or the members
of a party or an aristocracy, the methods which we shall have to
employ are the same as those which could ensure an equalitarian
distribution.

It may, perhaps, seem unfair to use the term socialism to describe

its methods rather than its aims, to use for a particular method a
term which for many people stand for an ultimate ideal. It is probably
preferable to describe the methods which can be used for a great
variety of ends as collectivism and to regard socialism as a species
of that genus. Yet, although to most socialists only one species of
collectivism will represent true socialism, it must always be
remembered that socialism is a species of collectivism and that
therefore everything which is true for collectivism as such must
apply also to socialism. Nearly all the points which are disputed
between socialists and liberals concerns the methods common to
all forms of collectivism and not the particular ends for which the
socialists want to use them; and all the consequences with which
we shall be concerned in this book follow from the methods of
collectivism irrespective of the ends for which they are used. It
must also not be forgotten that socialism is not only by far the
most important species of collectivism or planning but that it is
socialism which has persuaded liberal-minded people to submit
once more to that regimentation of economic life which they had
overthrown because, in the words of Adam Smith it puts
governments in a position where to support themselves they are
obliged to be oppressive and tyrannical.
1.
According to the author, those who agree to the aims of
socialism would
(a) refuse to support socialism because of possible
consequences of the methods advocated to achieve
those ends.
(b) agree on the collectivisation and centralisation of
economic activities since both require strong and
powerful governments.
(c) have disagreed if only they had known that the only
way to achieve the equalitarian ends of socialism
required centralisation and collectivisation of economic
activities.
(d) explicitly advocate strict control of economic and social
life always since it is matter of practical politics for them.
(e) none of these
2.
From the passage, it may be inferred that the author is a
supporter of
(a) the ideals of socialism and does not care much about
the means required to achieve them.
(b) ends as portrayed by supporters of socialism but is
sceptical of the efficacy of the means advocated to
reach those ends.
(c) the ends of socialism, since the means required to
achieve those ends always involve collectivisation and
centralization.

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3.

4.

5.

(d) a strong and powerful government as a means to

achieve the ends of socialism, since there is no debate
on the desirability of the aforementioned ends.
(e) all the possible means of collectivisation as they are
the tools which can be used to achieve equalitarian
distribution in society.
The statement that the author of the passage would support
the most is:
(a) The development of society, if left to individuals, would
be impossible as each individual would exploit
opportunities for plundering and exploiting ones fellow
citizens.
(b) The development of society is best done by individuals
working for selfish interests within free economic
environment that collectively ends up improving the
condition of society since the outcomes of each action
of individuals are shared by the members of the society.
(c) In the absence of a strong government, society would
degenerate into anarchy as each individual tries to
achieve success at the cost of ones fellow citizens.
(d) Individuals would created mechanisms to put a system
in place that would have rules and regulations so that
the society does not break down into chaos.
(e) In a general environment of chaos, individuals would
create clusters of order which would allow and
encourage individual clusters economic development.
Amongst the options below, the one that best captures the
ideology being advocated by the author is
(a) Fascism
(b) Democratic socialism
(c) Marxism
(d) Fabian socialism
(e) Capitalism
Amongst the options given below, the one most opposite to
the ideology being advocated by the author
(a) Fascism
(b) Democratic socialism
(c) Marxism
(d) Fabian socialism
(e) Capitalism

Directions (Qs. 6-9) : Go through the exchange between two poets

below and answer the questions that follow.
I do my thing and you do your thing
I am not in this world to live up to your expectations... and you are
not in this world to live up to mine.
You are you ....
and I am I
And if, by chance, we find each other...
its beautiful.
If not, it cant be helped.
Poet 1.
Beyond poet 1
Poet 2
If I just do my thing and you do yours,
We stand in danger of losing each other
And ourselves.
I am not in this world to live up to your expectations;
But I am in this world to confirm you

as a unique human being.

And to be confirmed by you.
We are fully ourselves only in relation to each other;
The I detached from Thou
Disintegrates.
I do not find you by chance;
I find you by an active life
of reaching out.
Rather than passively letting things happen to me,
I can act intentionally to make them happen.
I must begin within myself, true;
But I must not end with myself:
The truth begins with two
6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

What could the second poem be best characterized as, with

respect to the first ?
(a) Retort
(b) Rejoinder
(c) Critique
(d) Criticism
(e) Compliment
Amongst the perspectives listed below, which one would
extend poet 2s argument the most?
(a) Human beings these days primarily conceive of
themselves as isolated individual selves.
(b) Self-exploration is considered the most important preoccupation by educated individuals.
(c) Ones active stance towards life does not change fate.
(d) Society incorporates multiple simultaneous relationships.
(e) Collectivism is considered a virtue in most indigenous
societies.
What could be the central theme of the second poem?
(a) Individualism is debilitating to human existence.
(b) Hermits and ascetics stand no chance of reaching their
goal.
(c) Chance does not play an active role in todays life
(d) One ought to seize the day to make life happen.
(e) An individual finds ones individuality only in relation
to others.
Amongst the following ways of living ones life, which one
would the first poet most strongly endorse?
(a) The life of a person stranded on an isolated island.
(b) The life of a renunciate.
(c) The life of a stoic.
(d) The life of a person who has no use for anyone elses
perspectives.
(e) None of the above.
Which of the following choices MOST accurately captures
the meaning of crucible as used in the sentence below ?
General Charles Krulak, the Commandant, introduced The
Crucible to Marine training ......... an incredibly grueling
fifty-four straight hours of live fire exercises, long marches,
and sleep deprivation at the end of basic training. After
climbing the final hill in this test, recruits are presented with
the eagle, globe, and anchor emblem.
(a) Cauldron
(b) Nightmare
(c) Albatross
(d) Adversity
(e) None of the above

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11.

12.

13.

14.

Which of the following choices will be MOST opposite to

the word juvenile as use in the sentence below ?
Juvenile delinquents and depressive or suicidal psychiatric
patients show orphanhood rates similar to those of the
eminent public figures.
(a) Puerile
(b) Naive
(c) Jejune
(d) Tyke
(e) None of the above
The correlation between technological intensity and
diversification may be spurious, as both may be related to
selling to the government or to other dominant customers.
In the above sentence, spurious may refer to all of the
following but:
(a) counterfeit
(b) questionable
(c) contrived
(d) forged
(e) misleading
The various branches of knowledge complete, correct, and
balance each other. This consideration, if well-founded, must
be taken into account, not only as regards the attainment of
truth, which is their common end, but as regards the influence
which they exercise upon those whose education consults
in the study of them.
The word exercise in the extract above most nearly means
(a) Remove
(b) Cut
(c) Impose
(d) Arrange
(e) Compete
Basic assumptions and beliefs that are shared by members
of an organization, that operate unconsciously, and that
define in a basic taken-for-granted fashion an organizations
view of itself and its environment. These assumptions and
beliefs are learned responses to a groups problems. They
come to be taken for granted because they solve those
problems repeatedly and reliably.
What would be the word that can substitute for assumptions
in the extract above, WITHOUT changing the extracts
meaning?
(a) Hunch
(b) Conclusion
(c) Induction
(d) Doctrine
(e) None of the above

Directions (Qs. 15-20) : Go through the passage below and answer

the questions that follow.
A major problem of Indian industrial and commercial development
was the supply of capital. Until 1850, British capital was shy of
Indian adventure. The risks and unknown factors were too great,
and prospects in other directions too bright. The working capital
of the agency houses after 1813 at first consisted mainly of the
savings of the Companys servants. Their cries of woe when these
houses fell as in the crisis of 1831 were loud and poignant. Indian
capital was also shy for different reasons. It needed to acquire
confidence in the new regime, and outside the presidency towns,
to acquire the habit of investment. Investment for large scale
production for enabling works like railways was an unfamiliar
and suspected practice. Thus, the first big development came
when European capital was coaxed into the country by government

guarantees or went of its own free will to develop industries with

which it was already familiar as in the case of jute or coal. Indian
capital followed where it was in touch with European practice as
in Bombay and dealing with familiar products like cotton. These
considerations throw into all the greater relief the achievement of
the Tatas in developing iron and steel. Thus the major part of the
capital provided was British with a steadily increasing Indian
proportion from 1900. As late as 1931-32 the capital of companies
registered abroad was nearly four times that of companies registered
in India. But this is not an exact guide because it leaves out of
account the stock in British companies held by Indians, as well as
government stocks. Speaking plainly, it may be said that the capital
of the cotton industry was mainly Indian, that of the iron and steel
industry entirely so, that of the jute industry about half and half,
while the coal and plantation industries were mainly British,
together with that used for the building of railways, irrigation, and
other public works. Management in the cotton and steel industries
was mainly Indian though European technicians were freely
employed, that of the jute, coal and the plantation industries being
European, the jute men in particular being Scotch. Their capital,
apart of course from government enterprise, operated through
joint-stock companies and managing agencies.
The latter arose through the convenience found by bodies of
capitalists seeking to develop some new activities and lacking
any Indian experience, of operating through local agents. It arose
in the period after 1813 when private merchants took over the
trade formerly monopolized by the Company. The money would
be found in Britain to promote a tea garden, a coal mine, or a jute
mill, but the management would be confided to a firm already on
the spot. The managing agency was the hyphen connecting capital
with experience and local knowledge.
Until 1914 the policy of the government continued in the main to
be one of 'enabling' private capital and enterprise to develop the
Country. Direct promotion was confined to public utilities like
canals and railways. The line between enabling and interfering
action became distinctly blurred, however, in the case of the cotton
industry and there was tendency for enabling action to pass over
into the positive promotion of particular projects. This was most
noticeable in the time of Lord Curzon with his establishment of an
imperial department of agriculture with a research station at Pusa
and department of commerce and industry presided over by a
sixth member of the Viceroy's Council. The First World War began
the transition to a new period of active promotion and positive
support. As the conflict lengthened there arose a demand for Indian
manufactured goods. India failed to take full advantage of this
opportunity, partly because of uncertainty as to the future and
partly because the means for sudden expansion were lacking. The
outcome of this situation was the appointment of an industrial
commission in 1916, under pressure from London. The commission
criticized the unequal development of Indian industry which had
led to the missing of her, war opportunity. A much closer cooperation with industry was planned though provincial
departments of industry. Increased technical training and technical
assistance to industry was proposed while it was suggested that

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the central government should set up a stores department which

should aim at making India self-sufficing in this respect. The
commission's report was only partially implemented, but a stores
department and provincial industrial departments were created
and something was done towards promoting technical assistance.
The importance of the report and its aftermath was that it marked
the transition from the conception of Indian economy in broadly
colonial terms with freedom for private enterprise to the conception
of India as an autonomous economic unit.
15.

16.

17.

18.

The following can be inferred from the passage:

(I) Industrial development of a country requires supply of
external capital
(II) Investment in uncertain industries is more when
government provides guarantees against failure
(III) Lack of indigenous technical expertise can be a
constraining factor in a country's economic
development
(IV) Enabling infrastructure like railways would have to be
provided necessarily by the government
(V) Market development for the final products is an
important prerequisite for industrial development.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I), (III), and (IV)
(c) (II), (III) and (V)
(d) (III), (IV) and (V)
(e) (I), (II), (III) and (V)
The first capitalists investing in Indian economy were
(a) the Indians
(b) predominantly the British
(c) the Europeans except the British
(d) both (a) and (b)
(e) both (a) and (c)
After the start of the First World War, all of the following
could be likely reasons for the British government adopting
a proactive stance towards Indian industry except
(a) The major investors in Indian enterprise were British
and they had missed out on an opportunity.
(b) The war had created a huge demand for industrial
goods.
(c) The British government wanted economic development
of the country as India was a strategic economically in
the war.
(d) The development of Indian economy was required for
contributing towards the war effort.
(e) The desire to see India as self-sufficient in technical
expertise.
During the early twentieth century, Indians were restricted
to making investment in stocks of companies that were
necessarily listed in India. This was done with the aim of
confining Indian capital to India so that it could not compete
with British capital.
(a) Definitely true as inferred from the passage
(b) It was true on a selective case by case basis.
(c) This was the fact during the early part of the British
rule.
(d) This was true in the later part of the British rule.
(e) No evidence to support the same is given in the passage

19.

20.

From the passage it can be inferred that during the early part
of twentieth century, starting a greenfield project was more
difficult for an Indian capitalist than for an European.
(a) Definitely true as inferred from the passage.
(b) It was true on a selective case by case basis.
(c) Not trend of discrimination between the two categories
of capitalists can be inferred from the passage
(d) Preference was given to British capitalists, buffeted by
the fact that the country was under British rule
(e) Preference was given to European capitalists.
From this passage, it can be inferred that one of the problem
that could have cropped up in the early stages of
industrialization might have been
(a) government interference in day-to-day operations of
business.
(b) equitable sharing of risks between domestic and foreign
investors.
(c) ensuring adequate working capital.
(d) regulation of the stock markets to protect investors
from dubious enterprises
(e) the alignment of interests of the capitalists and the
management

Directions (Qs. 21-26) : Choose the option that correctly unscrambles the paragraphs below :
21. 1. The same is true for less fraught examples : dispensing
with Truth' does not mean dispensing with accuracy
and attention to detail, and to suggest for example that
the colonization of the New World never happened
would be equally untenable.
2. To relinquish 'Truth' and the idea of one history does
not lead to absolute relativism, where any version of
events is taken as being equally valid as any other.
3. It does not, for example, give succour to those
charlatans and ideologues who seek to deny that the
Holocaust ever happened.
4. What I am suggesting here is complex, but its
importance demands a careful reading.
5. The evidence for the systematic murder of more than
six million people by the Nazis is overwhelming.
6. To try to argue that it never occurred is to violate the
voices of the past, to suppress that evidence which
goes against the twisted thesis.
(a) 2-3-5-6-1-4
(b) 5-6-1-2-4-3
(c) 4-2-3-5-6-1
(d) 2-4-5-3-6-1
(e) 4-5-1-6-3-2
22. 1. You could try friendly competition, or set yourself team
targets and agree that you'll all go out for an evening
together if you meet them.
2. Presumably your team members have the same problem,
so perhaps you could find collective incentives.
3. Work towards targets of your own, or promise yourself
a reward for certain achievements.
4. Or aim towards promotion or earning new responsibilities
as an incentive to keep you enthusiastic.
5. Find ways to motivate yourself.
6. Or simply make a point of congratulating each other on
good work, even if the boss doesn't join in.
(a) 1-4-2-6-3-5
(b) 5-2-1-4-3-6
(c) 1-4-6-3-2-5
(d) 5-3-6-2-1-4
(e) 5-3-4-2-1-6

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23.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

24.

(a)
(c)
(e)
1.
2.

3.

4.
5.
6.
(a)
(c)
(e)

Individuals and firms moving into a new and unfamiliar

field of activity are increasingly using information
resources provided over the Internet.
The economic importance of a strong, viable business
sector, especially a strong and viable small business
sector with its potential for employment and export
generation, makes it imperative that government
agencies provide encouragement, leadership and
effective support.
Governments undertake a wide variety of initiatives to
achieve these ends and online information provision is
one of many such initiatives.
The power of the Internet to deliver information and
services online offers an opportunity for governments
to support business and the economies they serve.
Many small to medium-size enterprises may turn initially
to a government agency for business related
information, in part because they lack the confidence
and financial resources to engage private consultants
at the initial stage of the planning process.
This is an important issue, both for government
economic development strategies and to help them meet
the rising public expectations of online service
provision.
1-4-3-6-2-5
(b) 4-6-2-3-1-5
3-6-2-1-5-3
(d) 2-3-6-5-1-4
5-4-6-2-3-1
Employees are seeing organizational leaders who
appear to have only their personal interests in sight.
All the while, these same leaders appear to be walking
away from their failures with multimillion-dollar exit
bonuses or millions in forgiven loans.
They are feeling increasingly expendable and
disposable, all for the purpose of enriching CEOs and
top leaders.
Workers are feeling less and less connected with top
management.
Some corporate leaders are simply losing touch.
Those they lead are, understandably, losing confidence
and trust in their leaders.
5-6-1-4-3-2
(b) 1-2-4-3-5-6
1-5-6-3-4-2
(d) 1-3-4-2-5-6
1-3-5-6-2-4

Directions (Qs. 25-28) : Go through the passage below and answer

the questions that follow.
The ignorant man is not the unlearned, but he who does not know
himself, and the learned man is stupid when he relies on books, on
knowledge and on authority to give him understanding.
Understanding comes only through self-Knowledge, which is
awareness of one's total psychological process. Thus, education,
in the true sense, is the understanding of oneself, for it is within
each one of us that the whole of existence is gathered.
What we now call education is a matter of accumulating information
and knowledge from books, which anyone can do who can read.
Such education offers a subtle form of escape from ourselves and,
like all escapes, it inevitable creates increasing misery. Conflict
and confusion result from our own wrong relationship with people,

things and ideas, and until we understand that relationship and

alter it. Mere learning, the gathering of facts and the acquiring of
various skills, can only lead us to engulfing chaos and destruction.
As society is now organized, we send our children to school to
learn some technique by which they can eventually earn a
livelihood. We want to make the child first and foremost a specialist,
hoping thus to give him a secure economic position. But does the
cultivation of a technique enable us to understand ourselves?
While it is obviously necessary to know how to read and write,
and to learn engineering or some other profession, will technique
give us the capacity to understand life ? Surely, technique is
secondary, and if technique is the only thing we are striving for,
we are obviously denying what is by far the greater part of life.
Life is pain, joy, beauty, ugliness, love, and when we understand
it as a whole, at every level, that understanding creates its own
technique. But the contrary is not true: technique can never bring
about creative understanding.
Present-day education is a complete failure because it has
overemphasized technique. In overemphasizing technique we
destroy man. To cultivate capacity and efficiency without
understanding life, without having a comprehensive perception
of the ways of thought and desire, will only make us increasingly
ruthless, which is to engender wars and jeopardize our physical
security. The exclusive cultivation of technique has produced
scientists, mathematicians, bridge builders, space conquerors; but
do they understand the total process of life ? Can any specialist
experience life as a whole ? Only when he ceases to be a specialist.
Technological progress does solve certain kinds of problems for
some people at one level, but it introduces wider and deeper issues
too. To live at one level, disregarding the total process of life, is to
invite misery and destruction. The greatest need and most pressing
problem for every individual is to have an integrated
comprehension of life, which will enable him to meet its ever
increasing complexities.
Technical knowledge, however necessary, will in no way resolve
our inner, psychological pressures and conflict; and it is because
we have acquired technical knowledge without understanding
the total process of life that technology has, become a means of
destroying ourselves. The man who knows how to split the atom
but has no love in his heart becomes a monster.
We choose a vocation according to our capacities; but will the
following of a vocation lead us out of conflict and confusion?
Some form of technical training seems necessary; but when we
have become engineers, physicians, accountants then what ? Is
the practice of a profession the fulfillment of life ? Apparently with
most of us it is. Our various professions may keep us busy for the
greater part of our existence; but the very things that we produce
and are so entranced with are causing destruction and misery. Our
attitudes and values make of things and occupations the
instruments of envy, bitterness and hate.
25. The passage implies that
(a) Technique follows creative understanding
(b) A specialist too can enjoy life as a whole.
(c) Technology necessarily leads to destruction and
misery.
(d) An atom-breaker becomes a monster.
(e) None of the above

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26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

This passage was most likely written in order to

(a) Persuade readers to shun technology.
(b) coax the readers to transcend technological limits.
(c) inspire readers to understand life as a whole.
(d) rail against present-day education policy.
(e) provoke a social movement against present-day
education
Which statement would most likely follow the truncated
passage above ?
(a) Throughout the world, engineers are frantically
designing machines which do not need men to operate
them.
(b) Another factor in the cultivation of technique is that it
gives us sense of security, not only economic, but
psychological as well.
(c) The right kind of education while encouraging the
learning of a technique, should accomplish something
which is of far greater importance: it should help man
to experience the integrated process of life
(d) Without understanding ourselves, mere occupation
leads to frustration, with its inevitable escapes through
all kinds of mischievous activities.
(e) Life cannot be made to conform to a system, it cannot
be forced into a framework, however, nobly conceived;
and a mind that has merely been trained in factual
knowledge is incapable of meeting life, with its variety,
its subtlety, its depths and great heights.
What might be the most opposite title for the passage above?
(a) Education and the significance of life
(b) Life in its wholeness
(c) The tragedy of technical education
(d) Knowledge and ignorance
(e) Technological progress: Is it for real ?
Choose the option that points out sentence(s) with
grammatical error(s).
I. I love the man dancing on the table.
II. I love the man's dancing on the table.
III. In 1986 Elie Wiesel was named the Nobel Peace Prize
recipient, an honour established by Alfred Nobel.
IV. Neither of the recommendations works as well as we
thought they would.
V. Either the Minister or the Minister's wife will have to
excuse themselves from the reception to speak to the
caterer
(a) III and V
(b) I and IV
(c) II and V
(d) III and IV
(e) IV
Amongst the option below, choose the one which is correctly
punctuated ?
(a) Last Sunday, we went canoeing on the Brahmaputra
river. You could see eagles high in the trees above us.
(b) While we were canoeing last Sunday on the
Brahmaputra river, high in the trees above us, you could
see eagles.
(c) We went canoeing last Sunday on the Brahmaputra
river, and high in the trees above us, we could see
eagles.

31.

32.

(d) High in the trees above, the eagles were looking down
at you, as we canoed on the Brahmaputra river last
Sunday.
(e) High above in the trees, eagles were looking at us, as
we canoed on the Brahmaputra river last Sunday.
Choose the best revision of the following wordy sentence ?
It seems that the library board will meet tomorrow, as a matter
of fact.
(a) As a matter of fact, the library board will meet tomorrow.
(b) In fact, the library board will meet tomorrow.
(c) It is apparent that the library board will meet tomorrow.
(d) Library board will meet tomorrow.
(e) The library board will meet tomorrow.
Which revision best combines ideas without losing out on
information?
There are still ample physical reminders of the history of the
Ao tribe in Meghalaya.
Impressive burial mounds, dating back hundreds of years,
can be found along many along many of the rivers, for
instance
(a) Impressive burial mounds, dating back hundreds of
years, can be found along many of the rivers, for
instance; there are still ample : physical reminders of
the history of the of the Ao tribe in Meghalaya,
(b) Since there are still ample physical, reminders of the
history of the Ao tribe in Meghalaya, impressive burial
mounds, dating back hundreds of years, can be found
along many of the rivers, for instance.
(c) Although impressive burial mounds, dating back
hundreds of years, can be found along many of the
rivers, for instance, there are still ample physical
reminders of the history of the Ao tribe in Meghalaya.
(d) There are still ample physical reminders of the history
of the Ao tribe in Meghalaya; impressive burial
mounds, dating back hundreds of years, can be found
along many of the rivers, for instance.
(e) Ample physical reminders of the history of the Ao tribe
in Meghalaya including impressive burial mounds
dating back hundreds of years still exist along many of
the rivers.

Directions (Qs. 33-36) : Go through the passage below and answer

the questions that follow.
Attempting to understand science and scientific reasoning in terms
of the subjective beliefs of scientists would seem to be a
disappointing departure for those who seek an objective account
of science. Howson and Urbach have an answer to that charge.
They insist that the Bayesian theory constitutes an objective
theory of scientific inference. That is, given a set of prior
probabilities and some new evidence, Bayes' theorem dictates in
an objective way, what the new, posterior, probabilities must be in
the light of that evidence. There is no difference in this respect
between Bayesianism and deductive logic, because logic has
nothing to do about the source of the propositions that constitute
the premises of a deduction either. It simply dictates what follows
from those propositions once they are given. The Bayesian defence
can be taken a stage further. It can be argued that the beliefs of

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individual scientists, however much they might differ at the outset,

can be made to converge given the appropriate input of evidence.
It is easy to see in an informal way how this can come about.
Suppose two scientists start out by disagreeing greatly about the
probable truth of hypothesis h which predicts otherwise
unexpected experimental outcome e. The one who attributes a
high probability to h will regard e as less unlikely than the one
who attributes a low probability to h. So P(e) will be high for the
former and low for the latter. Suppose now that e is experimentally
confirmed. Each scientist will have to adjust the probabilities for h
by the factor P(e/h) / P(e). However, since we are assuming that e
follows from h, P(e/h) is 1 and the scaling factor is 1/P(e).
Consequently, the scientist who started with a low probability for
h will scale up that probability by a larger factor than the scientist
who started with a higher probability for h. As more positive
evidence comes in, the original doubter is forced to scale up the
probability in such a way that it eventually approaches that of the
already convinced scientist. In this way, argue the Bayesians,
widely differing subjective opinions can be brought into
conformity in response to evidence in an objective way.
33.

34.

35.

36.

Using the idea explicated in the passage above, the only

scientific way to deny the validity of a counter-hypothesis
put forward to explain a natural phenomenon would be to
(a) Take the counter-hypothesis and try to find flaws in its
components.
(b) question the source of alternative hypothesis.
(c) question the authority of the scientist stating the
alternative hypothesis.
(d) Take the alternative explanation and ask for its fullest
development in terms of possible ramifications other
than the already existent outcome (e).
The subjective beliefs of scientists referred to in the passage
could be due to
(a) multiple scientists studying multiple phenomena and
putting forth multiple hypotheses
(b) propositions offered by scientists being backed only
by one's beliefs about their validity.
(c) Scientists presenting data selectively in support of their
own favourite hypothesis over competing hypotheses
(d) scientists allowing their subjective opinions to bias
their testing of hypothesis.
(e) None of these
Scientists' beliefs which differ at the outset are related to
(a) different outcomes only.
(b) different hypotheses only.
(c) different hypotheses about different outcomes.
(d) differences in explanatory power of competing
hypotheses.
(e) none of these.
Strictly following the idea put forward in the article, which
one of the following is a logical possibility
(a) The idea that astrologers can predict stock market
movements better than economists, if astrologers'
hypothesis (h) is more consistently followed by out
comes (e) than that of economists.

(b) The fact that stock-market movements are in sync with

the movement of the heavenly bodies both (h) and (e)
contained in the same statement.
(c) That certain astrological phenomena can influence
thinking of humans (e) which is manifested in stock
market booms and crashes (h).
(d) That certain astrological phenomena (h) can influence
thinking of humans (e1) which is manifested in stockmarket booms and crashes (e2).
(e) None of these.
Directions (Qs. 37-41) : Analyze the statements given and provide
an appropriate answer for the questions that follow.
37. Prediction, the hallmark of natural sciences, appears to have
been possible by reducing phenomena to mathematical
expressions. Some social scientists also want the power to
predict accurately and assume they ought to perform the
same reduction. But this would be a mistake, it would neglect
data that are not easily mathematized and thereby would
only distort the social phenomena.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
main conclusion of the argument?
(a) The social sciences do not have as much predictive
power as the natural sciences.
(b) Mathematics plays a more important role in the natural
sciences than it does in the social sciences
(c) Phenomena in the social sciences should not be
reduced to mathematical formulae.
(d) There is a need in the social sciences to improve the
ability to predict.
(e) Prediction is responsible for the success of the natural
sciences.
38. Chandra: Hailey's Comet, now in a part of its orbit relatively
far from the Sun, recently flared brightly enough to be seen
by telescope on earth. This has never happened before, so
such a flare must be highly unusual.
Surya: Nonsense. Usually no one bothers to observe comets
when they are so far from the Sun. This flare was observed
only because an observatory was tracking Hailey's comet
very carefully.
Surya challenges Chandra's reasoning by:
(a) Offering an alternative explanation for the evidence
Chandra seeks to explain.
(b) Drawing attention to an inconsistency between two of
Chandra's claims.
(c) Presenting evidence that directly contradicts Chandra's
evidence.
(d) Pointing out that Chandras use of the term observed
is excessively vague.
(e) Undermining some of Chandras evidence while
agreeing with her conclusion.
39. Most antidepressant drugs cause weight gain. While dieting
can help reduce the amount of weight gained as one takes
such antidepressants, some weight gain is unlikely to be
preventable.
The information above most strongly supports which one
of the following?

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40.

41.

(a) A physician should not prescribe any antidepressant

drug for an overweight patient
(b) People who are trying to lose weight should not ask
their doctors for an antidepressant drug.
(c) At least some patients gain weight as a result of taking
antidepressant drugs.
(d) The weight gain experienced by patients taking
antidepressant drugs should be attributed to lack of dieting.
(e) All patients taking antidepressant drugs should diet to
maintain their weight.
Industry experts expect improvements in job safety training
programs to lead to safer work environments.
A recent survey indicated, however, that for manufactures
who improved job safety training programs during the 1980s,
the number of on- the-job accidents increased in the months
following the imparting of improved training programs.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps resolve the
apparent discrepancy in the passage above ?
(a) A similar survey found that the number of on-the-job
accidents remained constant after job safety training
programs were improved in the transportation sector.
(b) Manufacturers tend to improve job safety training
programs only when they are increasing the size of
their workforce.
(c) Manufacturers tend to improve job safety training
programs only after they have noticed an increase in
the number of on-the-job accidents.
(d) It is likely that the increase in the number of on-the-job
accidents experienced by many companies was not
merely a random fluctuation.
(e) Significant safety measures, such as protective
equipment and government safety inspections, were
in place well before the improvements in job safety
training programs were undertaken.
The number of airplanes equipped with a new anticollision
device has increased steadily during the past two years.
During the same period, it has become increasingly common
for key information about an airplanes altitude and speed to
disappear suddenly from air traffic controllers screens. The
new anti-collision device, which operates at the same
frequency as air traffic radar, is therefore responsible for the
sudden disappearance of key information.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens
the argument above?
(a) The new anti-collision device has already prevented a
considerable number of mid-air collisions.
(b) It was not until the new anti-collision device was
introduced that key information first began
disappearing suddenly from controllers screens.
(c) The new anti-collision device is scheduled to be moved
to a different frequency within the next two to three
months.
(d) Key information began disappearing from controllers
screen three months before the new anticollision device
was first tested.
(e) The sudden disappearance of key information from
controllers screen has occurred only at relatively large
airports.

SECTION-B : Quantitative Ability

Directions (Qs. 42-43) : A truck travelled from town A to town B
over several days. During the first day, it covered 1/p of the total
distance, where p is a natural number. During the second day, it
travelled 1/q of the remaining distance, where q is a natural
number. During the third day, it travelled 1/p of the distance
remaining after the second day, and during the fourth day, 1/q of
the distance remaining after third day. By the end of the fourth
day the truck had travelled 3/4 of the distance between A and B.
42.

43.

The value of P + q is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 8
If the total distance is 100 kilometres, the minimum distance
that can be covered on day 1 is ......... kilometres.
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 33
(d) 35
(e) 40

44.

For how many integers n,

n
is the square of an integer?
20 n
(b) 1
(c) 2
(e) 4

(a) 0
(d) 3

Directions (Qs. 45-46) : It is possible to arrange eight of the nine

numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 10, 11, 12, 13 in the vacant squares of the 3
by 4 array shown below so that the arithmetic average of the
numbers in each row and column is the same integer.
1

15
9

45.

46.

47.

14
The arithmetic average is
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
(e) 12
Which one of the nine numbers must be left out when
completing the array ?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 10
(e) 11

Which equation can be graphically represented as follows ?

20

-18 -14 -10 -8

-2 2

-20

10 14 18
20

-20

8x2 15y2 = 169

(a)
(c) |(x 8) (y 15)| = 12
(e) None of these.

(b)
(d)

9x2 16y2 = 144

|(x 9) (y 16)| = 13

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48.

ABC is a triangle with CAB = 15 and ABC = 30. If M

is the mid-point of AB, then ACM =
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
(e) None of these

55.

56.
Directions (Qs. 49-50) : Let f be a function defined on the set of
integers. Assume that f satisfies the following properties:
I. f (0) 0;
II. f (1) = 3; and
III. f (x) f (y) = f (x + y) + f (x y) for all integers x and y.
49.

50.

51.

52.

The value of f (3) is

(a) 7
(c) 123
(e) None of these
The value of f (7) is
(a) 123
(c) 843
(e) None of these

(b)
(d)

322
1126

57.

(a) 1 + 5

58.

1
s;
2

1
x
s and
s
x +1
x +1
Which of the following is true?
(a) S contains all rational numbers in the interval 0 < x < 1.
(b) S contains all rational numbers in the interval 1 < x < 1.
(c) S contains all rational numbers in the interval 1 < x < 0.
(d) S contains all rational numbers in the interval 1 < x <.
(e) S contains all rational numbers in the interval 1 x 1
Eight cities A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected with oneway roads R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, in the following manner..
R1, leads from A to C via B;
R2 leads from C to D; and then via B to F;
R3 leads from D to A and then via E to H;
R4 leads from F to B via G;
R5 leads from G to D; and
R6 leads from F to H.
The minimum number of road segments that have to be
blocked in order to make all traffic from B to D impossible is
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
(e) 1
We define a function f on the integers f (x) = x/10, if x is
divisible by 10, f (x) = x + 1 if x is not divisible by 10. If A0 =
1994 and An+1 = f(An).
What is the smallest n such that A n = 2 ?
(a) 9
(b) 18
(c) 128
(d) 1993
(e) An never equals 2.

II.

54.

18
322

Let P be any positive integer and 2x + p = 2y, p + y = x and

x +y = z. For what value of p would x + y + z attain its
maximum value?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these
Let S be the set of rational numbers with the following
properties:
I.

53.

(b)
(d)

If the polynomial x3 + px + q has three distinct roots, then

which of the following is a possible value of p ?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
(e) 3
In a certain factory, each day the expected number of accident
is related to the number of overtime hours by a linear equation.
Suppose that on one day there were 1000 overtime hours
logged and 8 accidents reported and on another day, there
were 400 overtime hours logged and 5 accidents. What are
the expected numbers of accidents when no overtime hours
are logged?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these
ABCD is a rectangle. The points p and Q lie on AD and AB
respectively. If the triangles PAQ, QBC and PCD all have the
same areas and BQ = 2, then AQ =

If x s, then both

59.

60.

61.

(b)

1 5

(d) 2 7
(c)
7
(e) Not uniquely determined.
A brokerage house offers 3 stock portfolios. Portfolio I
consists of 2 blocks of common stock and 1 municipal bond.
Portfolio II consists of 4 blocks of common stock, 2 municipal
bonds and 3 blocks of preferred stock. Portfolio III consists
of 2 blocks of common stock, 2 municipal bonds and 3 blocks
of preferred stock. A customer wants 12 blocks of common
stock, 6 municipal bonds and 6 preferred stocks. How many
portfolio III should be offered?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) None of these
Triangle ABC has vertices A(0,0), B(0, 6) and C (9, 0). The
points P and Q lie on side AC such that AP = PQ = QC.
Similarly, the points R and S lie on side AB such that
AR = RS = SB. If the line segments PB and RC intersect at X,
then the slope of the line AX is
(a) 2/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 3/2
(d) 3/2
(e) None of these.
In a rainy season, Jamshedpur experienced some rain for
thirteen days. A morning rain was always followed by a clear
evening . An evening rain was always preceded by a clear
morning. A total of 9 morning and 12 evenings were clear.
How many rainless days did Jamshedpur have in the period?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 4
(e) 3
a, b, c, d and e be non-negative real numbers such that
a + b + c +d + e = 10. Let x be the maximum of the number
a + b, b + c, c + d and d + e. The least possible value of X lies
in the interval
(a) [0, 2]
(b) [2, 3]
(c) [3, 4]
(d) [4, 5]
(e) [5, 10]

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Directions (Qs. 62-64) : Substitute different digits (0, 1, 2, .....9)

for different letters in the problem below, so that the
corresponding addition is correct and it results in the maximum
possible value of MONEY.

+
M
62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

68.

69.

The letter Y should be

(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 7
(e) None of these
There are nine letters and ten digits. The digit that remain
unutilised is:
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) None of these
The resulting value of MONEY is
(a) 10364
(b) 10563
(c) 10978
(D) 19627
(e) None of these
Consider the system of linear equations
2x + 3y + 4z = 16
4x + 4y + 5z = 26
ax + by + cz = r
For r = 5 and a = 1, then the system of linear equation will
have infinite number of solutions if c =
(a) 3/2
(b) 1
(c) 1/2
(d) 0
(e) None of these
A management institute has six senior professors and four
junior professors. Three professors are selected at random
for a Government project. The probability that at least one
of the junior professors would get selected is:
(a) 5/6
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/5
(d) 1/6
(e) None of these

Directions (Qs. 67-70) : Seven integers A, B, C, D, E, F and G are

to be arranged in an increasing order such that
I.
First four numbers are in arithmetic progression.
II. Last four numbers are in geometric progression
III. There exists one number between E and G.
IV. There exist no numbers between A and B.
V.
D is the smallest number and E is the greatest.
A G F
= = >1
VI.
D C A
VII. E = 960

67.

70.

E
=
A
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these
D=
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 22
(d) 20
(e) None of these
The common difference in the A.P. is
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 25
(d) 30
(e) None of these
The position and value of A is
(a) 5th highest and 100 (b) 4th highest and 100
(c) 4th highest and 110 (d) 3rd highest and 180
(e) None of these

Directions (Qs. 71-74) : These questions are followed by two

statements labelled as I and II. You have to decide, if these statement
are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose
(a) If Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If Statements I and II together are sufficient but neither of
the two alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
(e) Both Statement I and Statement II are insufficient to answer
the question.
71. What is the maximum value of a/b?
I. a, a + b and a + 2b are three sides of a triangle.
II. a and b both are positive.
72. ABC is a triangle with B = 90. What is the length of the
side AC?
I. D is the mid-point of BC and E is the mid-point of AB.
II. AD = 7 and CE = 5
73. Five integers A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way
that there are two integers between B and C and B is not the
greatest. There exists one integer between D and E and D is
smaller than E. A is not the smallest integer. Which one is the
smallest.
I. E is the greatest.
II. There exists no integer between B and E.
74. Let f : N N (N is the set of all natural numbers). How many
solutions are there to the equation f (x) = 1485?
I. For a, be N, f (10a + b) = f(a) + 12b
II. The maximum value of b is 9.
75.

For which value of non-negative a will the system

x2 y2 = 0, (x a)2 + y2 = 1 have exactly three real solutions?
(a)

(c)
2
(e) None of these

(b)

(d)

10

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76.

77.

Let {An} be a unique sequence of positive integers satisfying

the following properties:
A1 = 1, A2 = 2, A4 = 12, and An+1 .A n1 =An2 1 for n = 2, 3, 4....
Then, A 7 is
(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 149
(d) 169
(e) 187
ABC is a triangle with BAC = 60. A Point P lies on one-third
of the way from B to C, and AP bisects BAC. APC =
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90
(e) 120

Directions (Qs. 78-81) : Read the data below and choose the correct
option for the questions that follow.
Queen Airlines offers the following privilege programme:
There are 5 membership tiers, each with its own set of enhanced
tier-specific benefits. New members join at the Blue tier level, then
upgrade to the Blue Plus, with the added benefit of Tele check-in.
The programme also has three elite tiersSilver, Gold and Platinum.
The 6-month fast-track upgrade and the 12-months standard
upgrade system operate in parallel-implying that whenever a
particular passenger satisfies conditions, either in terms of number
of flights in the stipulated period or in terms of accumulated. QueenMiles in either of the two systems, they are automatically upgraded
to the next tier. The 6-months upgrade system considers the data
in rolling 6 months period. The same holds for the 12-months
period. If conditions for more than one upgrade are satisfied, the
passenger is given the higher of the two.

Distances between cities in Queen-miles

1461
1407 1987
1499 1516 711
2061 1881 998 562
2401 2167 1265 902 340
1959 1081 2746 2370 2932 3209
2095 1676 1329 688 331 491 2718
Delhi K'kata Mum H'bad B'lore C'tore Ghu
Mr. Kakkar, a newly recruited MBA from a business school, started
his career with the start of the year 2007. His travel plans for the
year of 2007 is given below in the table.
Kol kata
Mumbai
Hyderabad
Bangalore
Coimbatore
Guwahati
Chennai

Date
2.1.2007
8.1.2007
3.2.2007
8.3.2007
20.3.2007
11.4.2007
30.4.2007
4.7.2007
20.7.2007
2.9.2007
11.9.2007
22.9.2007
1.10.2007
11.10.2007
4.11.2007
29.11.2007
1.12.2007
31.12.2007

Cumulative Queen Airways flights/

Cumulative Status Queen Miles
Tier Upgrade

6-month Fast 12 month Standard

Track Upgrade Upgrade Sytem
System

Blue to Blue Plus

Blue plus to silver
Silver to Gold
Gold to Platinum

3/3,000
Not Applicable
5/12,500
10/20,000

Not Applicable
5/12,500
10/20,000
20/30,000

78.

Benefits and Privileges

Blue
Tele Check-in
Additional
baggage
allowance
Confirmed
upgrade
vouchers
Guaranteed
reservations up
to 24 hours
prior to
departure
Cancellation
fees waived on
published fares

Blue
Silver Gold Platinum
Plus

10 kgs 20 kgs

79.

35 kgs

80.
1

81.

From
Mumbai
Hyderabad
Mumbai
Delhi
Guwahati
Kolkata
Guwahati
Chennai
Guwahati
Kolkata
Hyderabad
Guwahati
Chennai
Guwahati
Chennai
Delhi
Hyderabad
Guwahati

To
Hyderabad
Mumbai
Delhi
Guwahati
Kolkata
Guwahati
Chennai
Guwahati
Kolkata
Hyderabad
Guwahati
Delhi
Bangalore
Chennai
Delhi
Hyderabad
Guwahati
Mumbai

In which month will Mr. Kakkar become eligible for guaranteed

reservations upto 24 hours prior to departure
(a) January
(b) February
(c) March
(d) April
(e) May
The number of complete calendar months, discounting any
partial months, for which Mr. Kakkar avails the gold tier
membership is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
(e) 11
The difference in complete calendar months, discounting
any partial months, between the first tier upgrade and the
last tier upgrade for Mr. Kakkar is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
(e) 11
If 6 month upgrade had not been in operation, then Mr.
Kakkar would have reached Gold tier in the month of
(a) June
(b) July
(c) August
(d) September
(e) October

11

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Directions (Qs. 82-83) : The graph given below contains data

pertaining to number of electronic commerce transactions that
have taken place in the last six months of the financial year 2005.
This graph contains data related to private consumption and does
not include corporate electronic commerce activities. Numbers
mentioned above the bar graphs are in millions and average price
per unit is mentioned in the brackets.
Online Consumer Trends

Number of Transactions

50
40

44
37

37
32

30
20

20

24

21

23

22

Europe

Latin
America

North
America
Regions

South
Africa

Video/DVDs/Games ($10)

Airline Tickets/Reservations ($20)

83.

16
9

Books ($5)

82.

21

16

Asia
Pacific

Directions (Qs. 86-90) : Study the tables of the Indian foreign

trade given below to answer the questions :

25

22

10
0

85.

What is the annual growth rate in aggregate PAT of the

Indian manufacturing companies in the financial year 2005
as compared to that in the financial year 2004 ?
(a) 15.0 per cent
(b) 5.7 per cent
(b) 88.6 per cent
(d) 37.8 per cent
(e) none of these
In which year the annual growth rate in the aggregate Salaries
and Wages expense was maximum?
(a) 2005
(b) 2004
(c) 2003
(d) 2002
(e) 2001

31

28

25
21

84.

Clothing/Accessories/Shoes ($15)

For which product category is the revenue contribution of

Asia pacific region the maximum?
(a) Books
(b) Video / DVDs/Games
(c) Airline Tickets/Reservation and Clothing/Accessories/
Shoes
(d) Clothing/ Accessories /Shoes
(e) Airline Tickets/ Reservation
If the airline ticket purchases made through internet increases
by 20 per cent and the average price of the airline ticket
increases by 25 per cent, then the net increase in revenues
from the e-commerce activities worldwide will be ........ percent
of the corresponding pre-price-increase revenues.
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 21
(e) 22

Directions (Qs. 84-85) : Study the aggregate financial ratios of

all registered Indian manufacturing companies in the table below
to answer the questions that follow.
All figures are as per cent of net sales unless otherwise
mentioned.
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005
PBDIT
13.1 11.7 12.3 13.3 14.4 14.7
PBDT
8.1
7.1
8
9.9
11.8 12.7
PBIT
9.4
8.4
8.7
9.9
11
11.6
PAT
3.2
2.8
2.7
4.4
6
6.9
Raw Material
41
40.6 43.1 45.5 45.7 47.1
expense
Salaries and
5.9
5.7
5.6
5.3
4.9
4.4
wages
Interest
4.6
4.3
4
3.1
2.3
1.7
payments
Operating profit 5.2
4.2
4.9
6.7
8
8.7
Net sales (per
18.4 19.3
2.6
15.7 15.2 19.9
cent Growth
Over Previous
Year)

Principal
Commodities' Export
Commodities
plantations
agri & allied prodts
marine products
ores & minerals
leather & mfrs.
gems & jewellery
sports goods
chemicals & related
products
engineering goods
electronic goods
project goods
textiles
handicrafts
carpets
cotton raw incl. Waste
petroleum products
unclassified exports
GRAND TOTAL
Total Exports in
Rupees Crore
US Dollar Exchange
Rate

Principal
Commodities' Import
Commodities
bulk imports
pearls, precious &
semiprecious stones
machinery
project goods
others
Total Imports
Total Imports (in
Crore of Rupees)

Weight (% )
2003-04
0.92
8.39
2.08
3.69
3.19
16.56
0.15
15.43

2004-05
0.78
7.61
1.60
5.29
2.89
17.29
0.12
16.00

2005-06
0.71
7.21
1.40
6.02
2.56
15.13
0.13
15.10

16.41
2.74
0.09
18.86
0.70
0.90
0.28

18.41
2.28
0.06
15.16
0.43
0.75
0.10

18.66
2.18
0.13
14.80
0.40
0.81
0.61

5.54
8.57
11.21
4.07
2.66
2.94
100.00
100.00
100.00
293,366.75 375,339.53 454,799.97
45.9513

44.9315

44.2735

Weight (%)
2003-04
37.87
9.25

2004-05
39.09
8.80

2005-06
42.56
6.42

10.63
10.00
10.94
0.49
0.54
0.57
41.76
41.57
39.51
100.00
100.00
100.00
359,107.66 501,064.54 630,526.77

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86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

The three commodities which had highest export growth

rate in the year 2004-05 as compared to the previous year,
arranged in descending order of growth rates are
(a) petroleum products, ores and minerals, engineering
goods
(b) ores and minerals, gems and jewellry, chemicals and
related products
(c) gems and jewellery, chemicals and related products,
agri and allied products
(d) ores and minerals, chemicals and related products, agri
and allied products
(e) ores and minerals, engineering goods, chemicals and
related products
In the year 2005-06, the commodity which witnessed maximum
growth in exports (in Indian Rupees) as compared to the
year 2004-05 is
(a) petroleum products (b) project goods
(c) ores and minerals
(d) sports goods
(e) none of these
In the two years, period from 2004-05 to 2005-06, the average
growth in import (in Indian Rupees) of which commodity to
India was maximum?
(a) Bulk imports
(b) Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones
(c) Machinery
(d) Project goods
(e) Others
Growth of trade imbalance (exports less imports) in dollar terms
in the year 2005-06 as compared to the previous year was
(a) 39.77
(b) 41.85
(c) 91.24
(d) 95.98
(e) None of these
Given that the weight (%) of Petroleum crude and products
in the total imports of India is 26.70, 27.87, and 30.87 in the
years 2003-04, 2004-05, and 2005-06 respectively. What is
the ratio of yearly difference in the export of petroleum
products and import of petroleum crude and products, in
dollar terms, in the year 2005-06 versus 2004-05?
(a) 1.36
(b) 1.38
(c) 1.46
(d) 1.48
(e) none of these

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

SECTION-C : Reasoning and

Decision Making Ability
Directions (Qs. 91-96) : Seven film buffs-Gangadhar, Indra,
Lalatakshaya, Maheshwar, Rudra, Vyomkesha, and Yogi attend a
showing of classic films. Three films are shown :
One each directed by Guru Dutt, Satyajit Ray, and Ritwik Ghatak.
Each of the film buffs sees exactly one of the three films. The films
are shown only once, one film at a time. The following restrictions
apply:
Exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Satyajit Ray film as
see the Guru Dutt film. Gangadhar and Rudra do not see the same
film as each other. Indra and Maheshwar do not see the same film
as each other. Vyomkesha and Yogi see the same film as each
other. Lalatakshaya sees the Satyajit Ray film. Gangadhar sees
either the Guru Dutt film or the Ritwik Ghatak film.

If exactly one film buff sees the Ritwik Ghatak film, then
which one of the following must be true?
(a) Vyomkesha sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(b) Gangadhar sees the Guru Dutt film.
(c) Maheshwar see the Guru Dutt film.
(d) Indra sees the Guru Dutt film.
(e) Rudra sees the Satyajit Ray film.
Each of the following must be false EXCEPT:
(a) Rudra is the only film buff to see the Guru Dutt film.
(b) Rudra is the only film buff to see the Satyajit Ray film.
(c) Yogi is the only film buff to see the Ritwik Ghatak film.
(d) Exactly two film buffs see the Ritwik Ghatak film.
(e) Exactly three film buffs see the Satyajit Ray film.
Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate
list of the film buffs who DO NOT see the Satyajit Ray film?
(a) Gangadhar, Maheshwar
(b) Gangadhar, Rudra
(c) Gangadhar, Indra, Rudra
(d) Gangadhar, Maheshwar, Yogi
(e) Gangadhar, Vyomkesha, Yogi
Which one of the following could be an accurate matching
of film buffs to films?
(a) Gangadhar: the Satyajit Ray film; Indra: the Ritwik
Ghatak film; Maheshwar: the Satyajit Ray film
(b) Gangadhar: the Ritwik Ghatak film; Indra: the Guru Dutt
film; Vyomkesha: The Guru Dutt film
(c) Indra: the Satyajit Ray film; Rudra: the Ritwik Ghatak
film; Vyomkesha: the Guru Dutt film
(d) Maheshwar: the Ritwik Ghatak film; Rudra: the Ritwik
Ghatak film; Vyomkesha: the Ritwik Ghatak film
(e) Maheshwar: the Satyajit Ray film; Rudra: the Satyajit
Ray Film; Yogi: the Satyajit Ray film.
If Vyomkesha and Gangadhar see the same film, then which
one of the following could be true?
(a) Gangadhar sees the Guru Dutt film.
(b) Indra sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(c) Rudra sees the Ritwik Ghatak film.
(d) Vyomkesha sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(e) Yogi sees the Guru Dutt film.
Each of the following could be a complete and accurate list
of the film buffs who see the Guru Dutt film except:
(a) Gangadhar, Indra
(b) Gangadhar, Maheshwar
(c) Indra, Rudra
(d) Maheshwar, Rudra
(e) Vyomkesha, Yogi

Directions (Qs. 97-100) : The following set of questions is based

on a decision-making situation that is described. Attempt the
questions that follow and blacken the corresponding space on
your answer sheet.
Ram Kumar, an over worked executive in Delhi, has to decide on
the travel plan for attending his friends marriage in Ajmer,
Rajasthan. Barely managing to get leave from his boss, he has to
make sure that he reaches at least on the day of the marriage.
Since it has been quite some time since he got a break, he also
planned to visit a few tourist spots so that he could de-stress
himself after a year of demanding executive work-life.

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As per his plan, Ram would start from Delhi. He would first pay a
visit to Bharatpur bird sanctuary where he would stay in the forest
guest house for sometime. After that he planned to visit Jodhpur
and would do some sightseeing for a day or two. From Jodhpur,
he would travel to Jaipur and spend few days visiting different
places in the city. After that he would make a move towards Ajmer
where his friends marriage would take place.
Bharatpur can be reached from Delhi by bus, taxi or train. The
probabilities of reaching the destination on time by each mode of
travel, Ram reasoned based on his experience of travelling
extensively in India, were 0.65, 0.75 and 0.9 respectively. All three
modes of travel require 12 hours. From Bharatpur to Jodhpur he
could opt for travel by train, bus or private taxi with the
corresponding probabilities of 0.9, 0.8 and 0.85. The travel time, he
reasoned would be 12 hours by train, 16 hours by bus and 14
hours by taxi.
Jaipur can be reached from Jodhpur either by a flight, train, bus or
taxi with the corresponding probabilities of reaching on time 0.85,
0.9, 0.65 and 0.7 respectively. The flight would take 2 hours, while
the train would entail 10 hours; the travel by bus and taxi would
take the same time of 15 hours.
The last leg of the journey to Ajmer could be covered by train, bus
or taxi with respective probabilities of 0.75, 0.55 and 0.55. Bus and
taxi require 5 hours to reach Ajmer from Jodhpur while the train
take an hour less. Since both Jaipur and Jodhpur had the facility
of airports, he could travel directly to either of these places by
taking a flight from Delhi, or use the flight option mid-way along
with a combination of land transport.
97. The second best option (in terms of travel time) gives a total
travel time of _____ hours for the entire itinerary.
(a) 29
(b) 30
(c) 31
(d) 32
(e) 33
98. Due to winter fog, flights out of Delhi have become uncertain
and unreliable. Given this constraint, the itinerary Ram
should adopt to have the best probability of reaching Ajmer
on time is:
(a) Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by taxi,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by bus; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
(b) Delhi- Bharatpur by Taxi; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by train,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by flight; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
(c) Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by train,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by train; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
(d) Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by taxi,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by train; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
(e) Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by bus,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by flight; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
99. Rams younger brother Shyam gets to know of Rams travel
plans and wants to come along. As against his brother,
Shyam enjoys scenery enroute and wants Ram to maximize
the travel time. To do so, the itinerary that Ram should decide
upon is:

I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
(a)
(c)
(e)

Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by bus,

Jodhpur to Jaipur by bus; Jaipur to Ajmer by bus
Delhi- Bharatpur by bus; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by bus,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by taxi; Jaipur to Ajmer by taxi.
Delhi- Bharatpur by bus; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by bus,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by bus; Jaipur to Ajmer by bus.
Delhi- Bharatpur by taxi; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by bus,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by taxi; Jaipur to Ajmer by bus
Delhi- Bharatpur by taxi; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by taxi,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by taxi; Jaipur to Ajmer by taxi
I
(b) I, II
I, II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
I, II, III, IV and V

Directions (Qs. 100-101) : Rams statistically-oriented friend

Rocky disagrees that Ram should use only a single criterion for
decision making Decision making has to incorporate all the criteria
together. Thats what makes for a sound decision. Rocky gave
his advice in most sagacious tone.
How does one do that? asked Ram. Simple. All you need to do
is give weight to the criteria and multiply the value of each criterion
by its weight and then sum all the products for each option
Rocky answered.
Looking at the lost look on Rams face, Rocky gave an example
For each of the option there are two criteria probability of not
making it to the wedding and travel time. [The probability of not
reaching on time = 1 the probability of reaching on time] Suppose
you hate the possibility of not making it to the wedding despite
your best efforts. Then your time and money is wasted. So lets
give that criterion a weight of 80%. Moreover you also want to
minimise the travel time. Let it have a weight of 20%. Therefore for
each option you can sum the product of the value of respective
criteria with its weight - and compare the sums for each of the
options. Choose the option with the lowest total.
So simple? asked Ram.
Well, it is....for starters admitted Rocky.
100. As the foggy conditions in winter continue, flights out of
Delhi have become uncertain and unreliable. Adopting
Rockys elementary decision-making framework, which of
the following itinerary should Ram adopt?
(a) Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by taxi,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by bus; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
(b) Delhi- Bharatpur by Taxi; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by train,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by flight; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
(c) Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by train,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by train; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
(d) Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by taxi,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by train; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.
(e) Delhi- Bharatpur by train; Bharatpur to Jodhpur by bus,
Jodhpur to Jaipur by flight; Jaipur to Ajmer by train.

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101. Of the options listed below, which diagram most closely

represents the contribution of each of the two criteria, bottom
portion of bar chart representing the contribution of
probability of not reaching the destination, to the overall
score for each of options mentioned above?

(a)

100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0

100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0

(A) (B) (C)

(A)

(A)

(B)

(B)

(C)

(C)

(D)

(D)

(D)

(E)

(E)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Directions (Qs. 102-107) : A famous retail electronics showroom

chain has six new mobile phone models - T, V, W, X, Y, and Z- each
equipped with at least one of the following three options: digital
camera, music player, and office document viewer. No mobile
has any other option. The following conditions apply:
V features both a digital camera and an office document viewer.
W has digital camera and music player.
W and Y have no options in common.
X has more options as compared to W
V and Z have exactly one option in common
T has fewer options as compared to Z.
102. For exactly how many of the six mobile phones is it possible
to determine exactly which option each one has?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) six
103. Which one of the following must be false?
(a) Exactly five mobile phones feature a music player
(b) Exactly five mobile phones feature a document viewer
(c) Exactly four mobile phones feature a music player.
(d) Exactly four mobile phones feature a digital camera.
(e) Exactly four mobile phones feature a document viewer.
104. If Z has no option in common with T but has at least one
option in common with every other mobile phone, then which
one of the following must be false?
(a) T has digital camera
(b) Z has document viewer
(c) Exactly four of the six mobile phones have digital camera.
(d) Exactly four of the six mobile phones have document
viewer.
(e) Exactly four of the six mobile phones have music player.
105. Suppose no two mobile phone models have exactly the same
options as one another. In that case, each of the following
could be true except :
(a) Exactly three of the six mobile phones have digital
camera.
(b) Exactly four of the six mobile phones have digital camera.
(c) Exactly three of the six mobile phones have document
viewer.
(d) Exactly five of the six mobile phones have document
viewer.
(e) Exactly four of the six mobile phones have music player.
106. If exactly four of the six mobile phones have music player,
and exactly four of the six mobile phones have digital camera,
then each of the following must be true except :
(a) T and V have no options in common.
(b) T and Y have no options in common.
(c) T and Z exactly one option in common.
(d) W and Z have exactly one option in common.
(e) Y and Z have no option in common.
107. Suppose that the condition X has more options than W is
replaced by a new conditions X and W have exactly two
options in common. If all of the other original conditions
remain in effect, which one of the following must be false?
(a) T and X have no options in common.
(b) X and Z have no options in common.
(c) V and X have exactly two options in common.
(d) V and X have exactly one option in common.
(e) X and Z have exactly two options in common.

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Directions (Qs. 108-112) : Krishnapurams town council has

exactly three members: Arjun, Karn, and Bhim. During one week,
the council members vote on exactly three bills : a recreation bill, a
school bill, and a tax bill. Each council member votes either for or
against each bill. The following is known:
Each member of the council votes for at least one of the bills and
against at least one of the bills.
Exactly two members of the council vote for the recreation bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the school bill.
Exactly one member of the council votes for the tax bill.
Arjun votes for the recreation bill and against the school bill
Karn votes against the recreation bill.
Bhim votes against the tax bill.
108. Which one of the following statements could be true?
(a) Arjun and Karn vote the same way on the tax bill.
(b) Karn and Bhim vote the same way on the recreation
bill.
(c) Karn and Bhim vote the same way on the school bill.
(d) Arjun votes for one of the bills and Karn votes for two
of the bills.
(e) Arjun votes for two of the bills and Karn votes for two
of the bills.
109. If the set of members of the council who vote against the
school bill are the only ones who also vote against the tax
bill, then which one of the following statements must be
true?
(a) Arjun votes for the tax bill.
(b) Karn votes for the recreation bill.
(c) Karn votes against the school bill.
(d) Bhim votes against the recreation bill
(e) Bhim votes against the school bill.
110. If Karn votes for exactly two of the three bills, which one of
the following statements must be true?
(a) Arjun votes for the tax bill.
(b) Karn votes for the recreation bill.
(c) Karn votes for the school bill.
(d) Karn votes against the tax bill.
(e) Bhim votes for the school bill.
111. If one of the members of the council votes against exactly
the same bills as does another member of the council, then
which one of the following statements must be true?
(a) Arjun votes for the tax bill.
(b) Karn votes for the recreation bill.
(c) Karn votes against the school bill.
(d) Karn votes for exactly one bill.
(e) Bhim votes for exactly one bill.
112. If Karn votes for the tax bill, then which one of the following
statements could be true?
(a) Arjun and Karn each vote for exactly one bill.
(b) Karn and Bhim each vote for exactly one bill.
(c) Arjun votes for exactly two bills.
(d) Karn votes for the recreation bill.
(e) Bhim votes against the recreation bill.

113. Mr. Basu, the managing director of XYZ company asked

five persons - Asit, Barun, Chandra, Danny and Eshita about their interest in a new project. The replies he got were
Asit : None of us is interested.
Barun : One of us is interested.
Chandra : Two of us are interested.
Danny : Three of us are interested.
Eshita : Four of us are interested.
From his experience, Mr. Basu knows that those who are
interested only tell the truth and others lie. How many of
them are interested in the new project?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) 0
114. Five persons - A, B, C, D and E are either guards or thieves.
The guards always tell the truth, whereas thieves always lie.
A claims that B is a guard. B claims that C is a thief. C claims
that D is a thief. E claims that A is a guard. D claims that B
and E are different kinds. The number of thieves is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Directions (Q. 115-117) : Each group of questions in the section
is based on a decision-making situation that is described. Attempt
the questions that follow :
The year 2004 was a great year for Top-Cloth Cotton Mill,
manufacturing towels for the export market employing more than
2000 workers, the company had an impressive growth in sales and
profits. The Chairman felt that employees were entitled to a share
in the profits and it was proposed that the employees mess be airconditioned. The proposal was discussed in a meeting that was
attended by, among other senior officials, the marketing director,
the personnel director and the finance director. The proposal was
based on the fact that the shop floor of the mill often had
temperatures in excess of 40C with a relative humidity of 99 per
cent. The air-conditioned mess would represent managements
appreciation of the employees hard work.
At the end of 2005, management reviewed the mills performance.
Profits were higher, and employee attrition was negligible. Chairman
decided that employees deserved additional recognition for their
fine work. Since the mess had already been air-conditioned, the
chairman wanted to know, if the employees appreciated this sort
of action. In the course of discussion the chairman asked the
personnel director to send a questionnaire to a sample of fifty
employees and obtain their reaction to the air-conditioned mess.
The management agreed to decide only after obtaining the
feedback from the employees.
The personnel director mailed a simple form to fifty employees
asked them for the following information, Please state your
reaction to the air-conditioned mess. Of the fifty forms mailed,
forty-six were returned. The answers received were as follows :
Reaction
"I did not know it was air-conditioned."
"I never eat there."
"If management can spend money like that,
they should pay us more"
"I wish the entire mill was air-conditioned."
"The mess is for management employees."
"It is OK."
Miscellaneous comments

Frequency
16
8
6
8
4
2
2

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115. The main conclusion(s) about the personnel director that

emerge(s) from this situation is (are) :
I. The personnel director did not have the competence to
manage an employee feedback survey, and should have
been given the task to a professional consultant.
II. The personnel director was responsible for employees
reactions.
III. The personnel director had failed in his duty of
maintaining constant touch with employees.
IV. The cost of air-conditioning is a waste, since its
beneficiaries did not feel any benefit.
(a) II only
(b) III only
(c) IV only
(d) I, III and IV
(e) I, II, III, and IV
116. Management of Top-Cloth Cotton Mill considers itself to be
socially conscious and its decisions are often re-examined
for their social relevance and the impact on society. In view
of this consideration, what could have been considered
before deciding on profit sharing?
I. communicating managements intentions via employees
newsletters.
II. taking employees inputs in designing the cafeterias
interiors and installation of airconditioning.
III. considering employees views on different ways of
sharing excess profits.
IV. investing in capacity expansion to take care of the
booming export market.
V. dividing the profits equally among the workers and
shareholders.
The options in decreasing order of their impact on society
(a) II, III, V, IV, I
(b) IV, V, III, II, I
(c) III, II, I, IV, V
(d) I, II, III, IV, V
(e) V, IV, III, II, I
117. This decision-making situation best highlights
(a) managerial short-sightedness in decision making.
(b) managerial benevolence in sharing profits among the
workers
(c) managerial incompetence in handling a negative
feedback in employee survey
(d) inefficient infrastructure management
(e) None of these
Directions (Qs. 118-121) : For each question, an Assertion (A)
and a Reason (R) has been given. Base your analysis on the
information presented in the passage. Mark
(A) if both A and R are based on information given in the passage
and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) if both A and R are based on information given in the passage
but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) if A is based on information given in the passage but R is not
based on the facts given
(D) if A is not based on information given in the passage but R
is based on the information given in the passage.
(E) if both A and R are not based on information given in the
passage.

The Society for Education in India (in short SEI) had been engaged
in running primary schools in different parts of the country since
1950s. While attending a conference on employee selection, Mr. J.
Mehta, a senior member of the society learned that a leading school
had recently employed a psychologist to perform employment
functions, i.e., recruitment and selection of teachers. Within two
months of his return, Mr. J. Mehta contacted a reputed university
and employed a graduating psychologist, Mr. Bibek Gupta.
Mr. Bibek Gupta was employed by SEI with the single directive
that he was to contribute to the selection of teachers. This task
had previously been the prerogative of principals of each school,
Mr. Gupta immediately notified each principal that in the future, he
was to be notified of the personnel needs and in return he would
recruit, screen and select the teachers.
At the end of his first year with SEI, Mr. Gupta realised that his
efforts had resulted in failure. During his first few months, he
encountered much opposition from several principals who had
been managing schools for ten or more years. They did not believe
in newer psychological techniques and preferred selecting people
based on their own assessment. Other principals frequently refused
to accept the teachers selected by Mr. Gupta. Finally, Mr. Gupta
began to notice fewer and fewer principals notifying him of
vacancies in their schools. Realising that he was not making any
effective contributions, Mr. Gupta submitted the suggestion to
the society members that support and co-operation of the school
principals should be a matter of executive order, or else his
resignation should be considered.
118. What was the flaw in the decision of selecting a psychologist
for selecting teachers that led to the final situation?
Assertion (A) : Mr. Mehtas decision was predominantly
driven by the information about another
school that had enlisted the services of
a psychologist for recruitment and
selection.
Reason (R)
: Both the administration of the school and
managing teachers have been primary
responsibilities of the principal of the
school.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
119. What responsibilities were shouldered by Mr. Bibek in his
first year of employment?
Assertion (A) : Mr. Bibek had the responsibility of
contributing his expertise to recruitment
and selection of teachers.
Reason (R)
: The board members wanted to
systematise the recruitment and
selection of the entire organization.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

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120. How were the changes in the recruitment and selection

process received by the principals?
Assertion (A) : The principals rejected the new process
in its entirety from the day, it was
introduced.
Reason (R)
: The principals were cynical of the
abilities of the psychologist as far as
recruitment and selection of teachers
were concerned.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
121. At the end of his first year with SEI, Mr. Gupta realised that
his efforts had resulted in failure. Was Mr. Bibeks selfassessment justified?
Assertion (A) : Yes, since the selection of teachers
continued to be done as it was being
done earlier.
Reason (R)
: He was placed in a situation where the
concerned persons refused to consult
him regarding his expertise. Hence his
impact was dependent on co-operation
by others.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (Qs. 122-124) : Sayan, a recent MBA graduate with
specialisation in sales and marketing, applied for the position of
sales manager in a firm producing industrial fabrication tools. The
management of the company took pride in its non-discriminatory
recruitment policy. In offering Sayan the position, the management
made it clear that an indispensable feature of the job involved
entertaining purchasing agents and that a certain amount of social
drinking was necessary. Sayan assured them that he was a
moderate drinker with no moral or religious prejudices against
drinking.
During the following two years, Sayan became a successful manager
and on two occasions received awards for achieving the highest
sales for the quarter. However, he found that he was encountering
a problem resulting from the necessity of entertaining customers
at least two or three times a week. The problem was that he felt
that he was becoming an alcoholic, since he had recently been
over indulging even when not entertaining customers. The problem
became progressively worse until he found himself in a constantly
inebriated condition and unable to work without resorting to
drinking at work.
On reporting about his problem to the management, Sayan was
sent at company expense to an alcoholic rehabilitation centre,
from which he was discharged after six weeks of rest and
recuperation. However, within two months of resuming duties,
Sayan was arrested in a local pub and charged with drunkenness
and assault. The victim of his assault was a customer whom he
had taken to the pub to discuss a sale. The management viewed
the incident extremely negatively and fired Sayan. Shortly
thereafter, a lawyer representing Sayan informed the management
that Sayan intended to bring legal action against the company.

Sayan felt the company was liable since his alcoholism was a
result of his employment. He contended that drinking was a
requirement of his job, and therefore alcoholism represented an
occupational hazard. The management decided to form a committee
to discuss the matter and recommend a course of action. The
course of action should be such so as to prevent a recurrence of
such a situation.
122. As the management decides this situation, it also has to
appoint a replacement for Sayan. The management is
exploring following options so that such a fiasco is not
repeated:
I. Do not go to business schools. Hire an experienced
sales manager from the market, and attract him or her
by offering a higher remuneration package.
II. State the requirements of job, including the necessity
of social drinking, explicitly in the employment offer
letter. A signed copy of the employment offer letter
would indicate that the employee has accepted the
terms of the employment with complete knowledge of
job-details.
III. Social drinking does not imply that a person has to
drink excessively. Therefore select only mature persons,
those who are high in self-esteem, who do not give in
to social pressures and who know how to exert selfcontrol.
IV. Provide guidance to all sales managers - both
experienced as well as newly appointed - on how to
behave during social occasions. This will be helpful to
those who are otherwise moderate drinkers, but end up
drinking beyond their capacity because of suggestions
by peers and friends.
V. Test for the validity of claims of being moderate drinkers
during the selection process itself. This will screen out
persons who only claim to be drinkers but to obtain the
job.
From managements point of view, the options in the
descending order of ease of implementation would be
(a) I + II, III, IV + V
(b) III + IV, II + V, I + V
(c) III + V, II + IV, II + V
(d) II + V, II + IV, I + II
(e) I + II, II + IV, II + V
123. Assuming that the management has no constraints in
implementing changes in policy, the following possible
recommendations can be made confidently about the
companys recruitment and selection policy.
I. All that is required to sell the product is to entertain the
purchase officers. The company should predominantly
be hiring college graduates, that too those who know
how to interact socially.
II. The firm would be better-off by hiring sales managers
from the market rather than those fresh out of business
schools.

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III. The firm should have only one sales manager. The sales
manager should know about the technical details of
the product and its pricing and should have the
authority to offer price discounts to clients. At the next
level, the firm should have a team of sales
representatives, who would be responsible for
developing contacts and reporting back to the sales
manager for follow-up.
IV. The firm should have an intense induction period where
the newly appointed employees are trained in
managerial aspects of the job and provided training in
social skills, including how to manage drinks.
V. People passing out of MBA colleges and without workexperience are as good as high school kids. The firm
should avoid them at all costs as they would often end
up as a liability to the firm.
The option that makes good business sense and represents
the choices for the management in increasing order of
alignment with respect to its policy of non-discrimination
are :
(a) I, II, III, V
(b) I, III, II, IV
(c) I, V, III, IV
(d) I, III, V, IV
(e) I, II, V, IV
124. From Sayans perspective, which option allows him to
salvage his career prospects?
(a) Make an offer to withdraw the case in return for a job
back in the company. Thus the company would be
saved from any protracted legal battle in the Indian
legal system and Sayan would be gainfully employed.
(b) Ask for a job in manufacturing since it does not involve
drinking. He had proved his competence while being a
sales manager, and he can prove his competence in
manufacturing also.
(c) Obtain documentation from the fine that highlights his
performance and experience, abstain from legal action
against the firm, have a settlement outside the legal
system and take a job in a totally different company.
(d) Obtain certificates from the company that reflect his
performance on the job. Ask for help from the
management in getting a job in the sister concern of
the firm.
(e) Proceed with the court case. There is a possibility of
his winning a substantial compensation. After that he
can start looking for a new job.

Directions (Qs. 125-129) : A company launches eight productsQ, R, S, T, V, W, Y and Z- in one of the four metros of India. The
products were launched one after the other over a period of six
months in 2006. The order in which the products were launched is
consistent with the following conditions:
V is launched before both Y and Q
Q gets launched after Z
T gets launched before V but after R
S gets launched after V
R gets launched before W.
125. Which one of the following could be true?
(a) Y is the second product to be launched.
(b) R is the third product to be launched.
(c) Q is the fourth product to be launched.
(d) S is the fifth product to be launched.
(e) V is the sixth product to be launched.
126. Is Z is the seventh product to be launched, then which one
of the following could be true?
(a) W is the fifth product to be launched.
(b) T is the fourth product to be launched.
(c) R is the second product to be launched.
(d) V is the sixth product to be launched.
(e) Y is the eighth product to be launched.
127. If Q is the fifth product to be launched, then each of the
following could be true EXCEPT :
(a) Z is the first product to be launched.
(b) T is the second product to be launched.
(c) V is the third product to be launched.
(d) W is the fourth product to be launched.
(e) Y is the sixth product to be launched.
128. If R is the second product to be launched, which one of the
following MUST be true?
(a) S gets launched sometime before T.
(b) T gets launched sometime before W.
(c) W gets launched sometime before V.
(d) Y gets launched sometime before Q.
(e) Z gets launched sometime before W.
129. If V gets launched before Z does, then which one of the
following COULD be true?
(a) R is the second product to be launched.
(b) T is the fourth product to be launched.
(c) Q is the fourth product to be launched.
(d) V is the fifth product to be launched.
(e) Z is the sixth product to be launched.
130. Mr. Basu looks at the calendar for 20ab. He finds that April
20ab has exactly four Mondays and four Fridays. Ist April
20ab would fall on
(a) Saturday
(b) Sunday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Thursday
(e) Friday

PART B
ESSAY-WRITING : Write a essay on the following topic :
Economic growth without environmental damage mirage or reality.

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SOLUTIONS
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.
9.

10.

11.
12.

(e) Sentence 1 of para 2 states that supporters of aims of

socialism neither care nor understand how they can be
achieved, but they want to achieve it at any cost.
(e) The sentence in last para it is socialism which has
persuaded liberal minded people to submit. Supports
this option.
(a) Author does not seem to be supporter of capitalism or
extreme form of socialism, so all other options can be
ruled out.
(b) As stated above the author does not seem to be
supporter of capitalism or extreme form of socialism, so
(b) is the correct answer.
(e) Democratic Socialism is a form of socialism with a
democratic government; the ownership and control of
the means of production, capital, land, property, etc.,
by the community as a whole combined with a
democratic government.
Whereas Capitalism is an economic system in which
investment in and ownership of the means of
production, distribution, and exchange of wealth is
made and maintained chiefly by private individuals or
corporations, esp. as contrasted to cooperatively or
state-owned means of wealth.
(e) The second poet is neither criticising nor supporting
the first poets viewpoint. Hence options (a) to (d) are
ruled out. Second poet is just adding another perspective
to the first poets thoughts.
(a) As there is no talk on educated or uneducated so option
(b) is ruled out. There is some semblance of fate in
poem 1 only, hence option (c) is ruled out. Options (d)
and E will complement the argument. Option (a) can
instigate the argument further.
(e) 7th line of poet 2 supports this option.
(d) As cocooned life need not be that of an ascetic or stoic
person, so options (b) & (c) are ruled out. Even amiable
person can get stranded on an island, hence option (a)
is ruled out.
(a) Dictionary meaning for both cauldron and crucible is, a
large melting pot. In Latin crucible is also related to
crucial and cauldarium means hot bath.
(a) Juvenile means related to child or childhood; Puerile
means mature.
(e) Spurious is not genuine, authentic, or true; not from
the claimed, pretended, or proper source; counterfeit;
forged. A questionable thing may be or may not be
spurious, which can be revealed after thorough
questioning. World questionable raises a doubt, but is
not enough to prove something as spurious.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.
19.
20.

21.
22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

(c) The contextual meaning of exercise is to affect, so option

(c) is the only one. Exercise something upon somebody
is imposing.
(a) Options (b) & (c) can be easily ruled out as they are
nowhere near the meaning of assumption. Doctrine
means a set of instructions, written or verbal. Hunch is
intuition which comes without a rationale.
Assumptions also have a degree of irrationality.
(c) The passage mentions both external and internal capital
supply. Hence, statement I is invalid. Sentence 7 of
para 2 supports statement III. The fact that uncertain
industries like infrastructure and agriculture were
supported by British govt-supports statement II & IV.
Sentence 6 of para 2 states that there was demand but
lack of indigenous expertise failed to encase the
demand, so statement V is invalid.
(d) Certain industries, like steel were by Indian investment,
and some, like jute were by British investment, so both
(a) and (b) are correct.
(e) Sentences 6 to 9 of para 2 highlights that it was strategic
importance of Indian economy, rather than a desire on
British part to see India as self-sufficient.
(e) Same as above.
(c) There seems to be no practice of discrimination.
(c) The fact that initial investment came through savings
of British public servant and Indian business class
lack of adequate capital points to option (c).
(d)
(e) It is clear that sentence 6 will follow sentence 1 as they
both talk about friendly competition. Further 3 has to
be followed by 4 as 4 continues talking about targets
and incentives.
(d) 2 has to be followed by 3 as to achieve these ends
refers to what has been mentioned in 2. Further, 3 has
to be followed by 6 as the issue discussed in 2 and 3 is
being referred in 6.
(a) 5 has to be followed by 6 as they in 6 refers to the
leaders mentioned in 5. In 3 They refers to the workers
talked in 4, so 3 will follow 4.
(e) Technique is like development of basic skill and
develops in isolation as emphasized by para 6, so option
(a) is incorrect. If a specialist learns to understand life,
then only he can enjoy life. In this context options (b)
& (c) are incorrect. An atom breaker without love can
become a monster. It is like a blacksmith making plough
and another making a sword, hence option (d) is wrong.
(c) The passage is not anti-technology, hence options (a),
(d) & (e) are ruled out. Option (b) doesnt clarify what
will happen after transcending technological limits.

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27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.
35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

(c) As the passage highlights the need of understanding

life, without being anti technological, so option (c) best
sums up the arguments.
(c) The passage emphasizes that present day education is
a total failure, so (a) cant be an appropriate title.
Passage is dealing with effect or lack of effect of
technique on real life. In a way it is highlighting just
one of the aspects of life, not the whole aspect. So (b)
is ruled out. As it is highlighting some of the pitfalls of
technique, hence (c) is the best title.
(d) In sentence III the semicolon, after Nobel Peace should
be removed. In sentence IV they should be replaced
by it.
(c) (a), (b) & (d) dont have agreement of pronouns (you
& we). (e) means that when we were up high in the
trees, eagles were looking at us.
(c) The original statement is a type of guess based on
some assumptions. Options (a), (b), (d) & (e) give a
feeling of certainty.
(e) Option (d) is just a rehash with some changes in
punctuation marks. Although at the start of option
(c) makes it an antecedent type of statement. Options
(a) & (b) give completely different meanings.
(b) Last sentences of the passage indicate towards
adjustment of probabilities for a hypothesis so as to
confirm to the outcome. Hence option (b) is the best
answer. Passage never talks about questioning a
hypothesis, so options (a) and (c) are ruled out.
(d) The fact that two scientists may disagree on a given
hypothesis indicates towards this option.
(a) It can be argued that the beliefs of individual scientists,
however, much they might differ at the outset can be
made to converge ......... Points towards this option.
(c) The second last sentence indicates towards this option.
As it talks about scaling up or down the probability of
a hypothesis to suit the existing out come.
(c) Last sentence emphasizes that there are certain facts in
social sciences, which cant be analyzed by
mathematics.
(a) Surya is not negating Chandras agreement. He is just
stating the fact that common peoples in ability to see a
comet when it is far from the Sun.
(e) While prescribing a medicine, a physician has to
consider risk - benefit ratio, so options (a) and (b) are
ruled out. The term most patients negates option (c).
Weight gain is directly attributed to antidepressant, so
(d) is ruled out.
(c) The passage says that inspite of manufacturers
improving the imparting of safety training programmes,
the number of on- the-job accidents increased. Only
(c) can resolve this discrepancy as the employees, by
this time, become habitual of working unsafely. The
companies implemented these programmes when the
rate of accidents was on the continuous increase. So it
will take some time before the real affect of these
programmes start showing its results.

41.
42.

(d) Option (a) is neutral. Option (b) and (c) support the
argument. Option (e) doesnt mention the exact cause.
(d) By the end of the 4th day, the truck had travelled 3/4 of
the distance between A and B.
As p and q are natural numbers, the distance has to be
a multiple of 4 + 3 = 7.
So, the value of p + q = 7.
ALTERNATIVELY:
As per the given conditions we get,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
+ 1 + 1 1
p q p p p q p

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
+ 1 1 1 1

q p q p p p q p
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
or, p + q pq + p +q pq 1 p

1 1 3
1
=
q p 4

1 1 1
1 1
or, + 1 +1
p
q
pq
p q

3
=
4

Let

1
+
pq

1 1 1
+
=x
p q pq

then, x(2 x) =

3
x
4

1 1 1 1
3 1
=,
or p + q pq = 2
2 2

or 2 (p + q 1) = pq or (p + q 1) =
43.

pq
.
2

(a) Minimum distance traveled on day 1

=

44.

3
=
4

(d)

1
100 = 25 kms
4

n
I;n I
20 n

The squares of integers are 1, 4, 9, 16 ......

Let

n
= 1 n =10
20 n

Again,

n
= 4 n = 80 4 n or n = 16
20 n

n
= 9 n = 180 9n or n = 18
20 n

45.

On equating with further values of squares of integers

we do not find n to be an Integer.
(c) Let us add all the 13 numbers
1 + 9 + 14 + 15 + [2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 7 + 10 + 11 + 12 + 13]
= 106

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As there are 4 columns and 3 rows so the sum of the 12

numbers has to be divisible by 12, i.e. the sum should
be 96 ( 12 8).
So 10 is left out.

50.

(c) For x = 2, y = 2
f (2)f (2) = f (4) + f (0) f (4) =7 7 2 =47
Now for x = 4, y = 3
f (4)f (3) = f (7) + (1)

96
= 32
So the sum of all the numbers in a row =
3

96
= 24
4
Further the arithmetic mean of the numbers in a row or

and in a column =

46.
47.

32 24
=
=8
column =
4
3
(d) Clearly 10 has to be left out.
(b) This is clearly a graphical representation of the equation
of a hyperbola of the standard form :

x2
a

y2
b

or f (7) = 47 18 3 =846 3 =843

51.

48.

y2
2

p = x y = 2y 2x = 2 (y x) x =y or p = 0
52.

x S, so x is a rational number..
For any positive rational number, x,

Further 1 + x > x, so

53.

E
G

135

15

30
M

Given M is the midpoint of AB, so AM = MB

Further, the ratio of A : B = 15 : 30 = 1 : 2.
So, the ACB will be divided into ACM and MCB
in the ratio of 1 : 2.
Hence, ACM =

x
<1
1+ x

So (a) is true.
(d) R1: ABC; R2: CDBF; R3: DAEH; R4: FGB; R5: GD;R6: FH
H

=1

(c)

(b)

(a)

1
< 1 as 1 + x > 1
x +1

49.

from (3)

Again, from (1) & (2)

=1

9x 2 16y2
=1

144 144
x2

....(1)
....(2)
....(3)

x +y +z =2z = 2 (x + y)

Given : 9x 2 16y2 = 144

or

(a) 2x + p = 2y
p+y=x
x+y=z

1
135 = 45 .
3

54.

To stop any flow of traffic from B to D we have to first

find the routes which can be taken to reach D from B.
So we see that one can take the route BCD or BFGD.
So we need to block one road segment, BC or CD and
another road segment, BF or FG or GD.
(a) A0 = 1994
A1 = f (A0 ) = 1994 +1 =1995
A 2 = f (A1 ) = 1995 +1 =1996
A3 = f (A 2 ) = 1996 +1 =1997
A 4 = f (A3 ) = 1997 +1 =1998

f(x)f(y) = f(x + y) + f (x y)

A5 = f (A 4 ) = 1998 +1 =1999

f (1) = 3 and f (0) 0

f(1)f(0) = f(1 + 0) + f (1 0)
or 3f(0) = f(1) + f(1) = 3 + 3 = 6

A6 = f (A5 ) = 1999 +1 = 2000

A 7 = f (A 6 ) =

2000
= 200
10

A8 = f (A 7 ) =

200
= 20
10

A 9 = f (A8 ) =

20
=2
10

or f (0) = 2
Again f(1)f(1) = f(1 + 1) + (1 1)
or 32 = 9 = f(2) + f(0)
f (2) =9 2 =7
Further f (2)f (1) = f (3) + (1)
or 7 3 3 = f (3) =18

So for n = 9, An = 2

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55.

(a)

x 3 + 0x 2 + px + q = 0

Again, AD = x = PD + AP =

Let the roots be , and

Sum of roots = + + =

y(y 2) =2(y 2) +2y or y2 2y = 4y 4

b
=0
a

=( +)

......(I)

c
Again, + + = =p
a

......(II)

d
=q
a
Putting (I) in (II),
=

y2 6y +4 =0

+6 (6)2 4 1 4 6 + 20
=
=3 + 5
y =
2
2 1
58.

( + ) + ( + ) =p
or p = 2 + 2
= ( + )2 + =( )2 +

56.

or p = 2 + which is negative
As one of the roots is negative of the sum of the other
two. So p = 1.
(b) Let y denotes the number of accidents reported and x
denotes the number of overtime hours logged.
y = mx + c
(Here, m and c are constants)
8 = 1000 m + c
.....(1)
5 = 400m + c
.....(2)
(1) (2), 3 = 600m or m =
Putting in (1), 8 = 1000

57.

1
200

1
+c
200

Requirement not met.

Case II:
offering
III
2
I
1

2
Q

10

CS
4
4

MB
4
2

PS
6
0

(9,0)

Requirement not met.

AQ =3 + 5 2 =1 + 5
(e) Let the number of portfolios offered be a, b and c, of
the types I, II and III respectively.
Comparing the various types of stock:
2a + 4b + 2c = 12
or a + 2b + c = 6
....(I)
Again, a + 2b + 2c = 6
....(II)
and, 3b + 3c = 6 or b + c = 2
....(III)
Subtracting (I) from (II), we get

c = 0, b =2 and a = 2
ALTERNATIVELY:
The only possibility for Portfolio III is 1 or 2 offererings
as total prefered stocks required = 6 = 2 3 prefered
stock offered by Portfolio III.
Case I : 1 offering
offering
CS
MB
PS
Required

12
6
6
III
1
2
2
3
II
1
4
2
3
I
2
4
2
0

c =8 5 =3
So expected number of accidents when no overtime
hours are logged = 3.
(a) As areas of APQ, QBC and PDC one equal, so

2x(y 2) + 2xy
y(y 2)

59.

(a) B(0,6)
S

1
1
1
2 x = AP (y 2) = PD y
2
2
2

or x =

1
1
(y 2) AP = y PD
2
2

2x
2x
PD = and AP =
y
y2

(0, 0) A
Co-ordinates of
Co-ordinates of
Co-ordinates of
Co-ordinates of

X
P

P = (3, 0)
Q = (6, 0)
R = (0, 2)
S = (0, 4)

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Equation of a line :
(y y1) = m (x x 1)

61.

(a) a, b, c, d and e are non-negative real number i.e. 0

a + b + c + d + e = 10

where m is the slope =

y2 y1
x1 x1

Average of these five numbers =

Equation of PB :
(y 0) =

The least possible value of X (Which is the maximum

of a + b, b + c, c + d and d + e) will be smaller than 2.
So required interval is [0, 2]

60
(x 3)
03

or y = 2x + 6
or y + 2x = 6

6264.

+
M

....(III)
From the pattern it is clear that M = 1, R = 9 and O = 0 as
R (single digit no.) becomes a double digit no. (MO)
with the addition of 1, carried over from P + E.
R + 1 = MO or 9 + 1 = 10
Further Y + E + L = 10 + Y
or E + L = 10
.......(1)
So 1 is carried over to the second column.
Thus A + M + A + 1 = 10 + E
Using M = 1,
2A + 2 = 10 + E
or 2A = E + 8
........(2)
A >4 and E is even

for (I) & (III)

2
18 9

=
2 x =6 2 =4 x =
9
8 4

Putting in (II) we get y =

3
2

9 3
So co-ordinates of X are ,
4 2
3
0
3 4 2
slope of AX = 2
= =
9
2 9 3
0
4

60.

....(I)

2
20
Equation of RC : y 0 =
(x 9) = x +2
9
09
2
or y + x = 2
9

10
=2
5

E 8 as if E = 8 then A = 8 not possible so E can be 2,

4 or 6
Again, 1 + P + E = 10 + N
or P + E = 9 + N
.....(3)
If E = 2, P = 7 + N which is not satisfied by any of the
remaining number.
So E = 4 or 6
L = 10 E L = 6 or 4
Again Putting E = 4 in (2)
A = 6 not possible

(d) 9 mornings and 12 evenings were clear. This does not

mean that there was rain on corresponding 9 evenings
and 12 mornings. This will contain the rainless days,
which will be common to both. Let the rainless days
be a.

9 a a 12 a

So E = 6 A =

Clear
Clear
evenings
mornings
Rainless
days
So total days = 9 a + a + 12 a = 21 a
This is equal to the 13 rainy days + a rainless days.
So 21 a = 13 + a
2a =2113 =8 or a = 4

62.
63.
64.

8+6
=7
2

Also, L = 4
In (3), P + 6 = 9 + N P N = 9 6 = 3
As MONEY has to be maximum so N should be
maximum.
P = 8 and N = 5
[Not P = 5, N = 2]
(c) The remaining digits are 2 and 3. For MONEY to be
maximum, Y = 3.
(c) The digit which remained unutilised = 2
(b) MONEY = 10563

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65.

(c) This form of equation can be represented in the form of

a determinant, where = 0 and 1 = 2 = 3 = 0 .
2 3 4
= 4 4 5 = 0
1 b c

67.

(e)

68.
69.
70.
71.

(a)
(d)
(e)
(e)

2 16 4
5

D = 30.
Common difference in AP = 60 30 = 30.
A is 4th highest and the value is 120.
We know that,
Sum of 2 sides in a triangle > than the third side
a +a +b >a +2b
or 2a + b > a + 2b

2 = 4 26 5 = 0
1

E 960
=
=8.
A 120

2(26c 25) 16(4c 5) +4(20 26) =0

or a > b or

a
>1
b

52c 50 64c +80 24 =0

12c +6 =0 c

66.

(a) Probability that atleast one of the junior professors is

selected = 1 Probability that none of the junior
professors is selected (P1)
P1 =

C3

10

C3

P =1

67-70.

So we can not know the maximum value of

1
=
2

Information in (2) is redundant as a, a + b and a + 2b are

positive (sides of a triangle).
72.

6 5 4 1
=
10 9 8 6

For r = 4;

G F
60 240
=
=
or A = 4C not possible
C A
C
A

For r = 2;

G F
240 480
=
=
or A = 2C possible
C A
C
A

r=2
As A = 2C, so C takes the 2nd lowest position as B and
A have to be together.
Again A > B , as in the other case the AP will be
D = 0, C = C, A = 2C, B = 3C, which is not possible as D
is an integer. The possible values are :
D C B A G F E
30 60 90 120 240 480 960

(c)

A
a
E

1 5
=
6 6

D _ _ _ GFE
Given E = 960, which is of the form ax3.
960 = 23 23 3 5
So the common ratio (r) of the GP of last 4 numbers is
either 2 or 4.
r=4
r=2
E
960
960
F
240
480
G
60
240

15
120

a
.
b

a
B

73.

74.

(1) is not sufficient because we do not have any values.

(2) alone is not sufficient as we do not know any thing
about the position of E and D.
On combining both and using Pythagoras Therorem in
the triangles EBC and ABD we get two equations in a
and b, which can be solved to give AB and BC.
Further AC2 = AB2 +BC2.
(b) Given B _ _ C or C _ _ B
D _ E (Here the right integer, E, is greater).
Using (1), we get, BADCE
....(i)
or CADBE
....(ii)
Hence it is not clear that which is smallest, B or C.
Again using only (2), we get CADBE as the only
possibility. C is smallest.
(e) f(x) = 1485
Further from (1), f (10a + b) = f(a) + 12b
x = 10a + b and f(a) + 12b = 1485.
Again (2) gives the maximum value of b to be 9.
Both of these are insufficient to solve the values of a
and b, as f(a) is unknown and its value for various
values of a can not be calculated.

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75.

(b) x2 y2 = 0 or x2 = y2
(x a)2 + y2 = 1
x2 + a 2 2ax + x2 = 1

For n = 5, A 6.A4 = A52 1

A6.12 = 292 1 = 841 1

....(1)

A6 =

or x + x 2ax + (a 1) = 0
2

or 2x 2 2ax + (a 2 1) =0

For n = 6, A 7.A5 = A62 1

A7.29 = 702 1

....(2)

For real solution, of a quadratic eqn.,

or A 7 =

ax + bx + c = 0; b 4ac 0
2

841 1
= 70
12

4900 + 1
= 169 .
29

(2a)2 4(2)(a 2 1) 0

4a 2 8a 2 +8 0

30 30

8 4a 2 or a 2 2 2

a 2

77.

But a 2 as a non-negative.

a = 1 or 2 from given options.

For a = 1, (2) becomes,
2x2 2x = 0
x (x 1) = 0 or x = 0, 1.
Putting x in (1), we get y = 0 for x = 0 and y2 = 12 = 1for
x = 1.
y = 1.
So 3 solutions in all (0, 0), (1, 1), (1, 1).

Again, given

Further for a = 2 , (2) becomes

2
Hence, APC = 180 = 120 .
3

2x 2 2 2x +1 =0

or x =

only 1 value.

A32 = 24 + 1 = 25

({A n } I)

A3 = 5
For n = 4, A5.A3 = A42 1
A5 5 = 122 1 = 144 1
A5 =

144 + 1
= 29
5

BP 1
=
PC 2

So, the ratio of

78.

Putting in (1), we get 2 values of y.

So only 2 solutions.
(d) An+1.An1 = A n2 1
For n = 2, A 3.A1 = A22 1
A3.1 = 2 2 1 = 4 1
A3 = 3 or 5
For n = 3, A4.A2 = A3 2 1
12 2 = A32 1

Given, AP is the angle bisector of A.

So, BAP = CAP = 30.

2 2 (2 2)2 4 2 1
x =
2 2

76.

(e)

79.

80.

APB 1
=
APC 2

(c) Guaranteed reservations upto 24 hrs prior to departure

is available from Gold tier. So Mr. Kakkar has to upgrade
his membership from Blue to Gold. As both the 6 month
and 12 month systems are operating parallely, so for
Gold tier he requires either 5 flights or atleast 12,500
miles of distance covered. He takes 5 flights by March
and covers a distance of 711 + 711 + 1407 + 1959 + 1081
= 5869 which is less than 12,500 miles.
(a) Mr. Kakkar is upgraded to Gold tier on March 20. To
get upgraded to Platinum he has to take either 10 flights
(March onwards) or 20000 miles.
He took his 10th flight on 4th Nov.
Distance travelled = 1081 + 2718 + 2718 + 1081 + 1516 +
2370 + 1959 + 331 + 2718 + 2095 = 18587 miles till Nov. 4.
So he gets upgraded to Platinum tier on 4th Nov. via
the cumulative flight rule.
(b) The 1st tier upgrade happens in the month of February
as per the 6 month fast-track upgrade system.
In the month of March, Mr. Kakkar is upgraded to Silver
tier as per the 12 month standard upgrade system.
Further, he takes his last tier upgrade in the month of
November.
So, in all there is a difference of 8 months (March and
November excluded).

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81.

82.

83.

(e) The 6th month fast-track upgrade system is absent. He

reaches the Gold tier in the month of October as he
completes his travel of more than 20000 kms in this
month.
(e) Revenue contribution for
Books = 5 37 = 185 m$
Video = 10 21 = 210 m$
Airline Tickets = 20 25 = 500 m$
Clothing = 15 20 = 300 m$
(d)
Airline Ticketing
Old
New

Asia-Pacific
Europe
N. America
L. America
S. America

Transa Reve Transa

ctions nues ctions
25 500
30
21 420
25.2
16 320
19.2
16 320
19.2
37 740
44.4
2300

Reve
nues
750
630
480
480
1110
3450

Reve
nues
from
Boo
ks
185
160
140
155
220
860

Reve Reve
nues nues
from from
VCD Cloth
's
ing
210 300
240 345
220 330
210 135
250
90
1130 1200

Increase in revenue = Increase due to revised rates of

Airline tickets = 3450 2300 = 1150.
% age increase
=
84.

86.

Commodities
plantations
agri & allied prodts
marine products
ores & minerals
leather & mfrs.
gems & jewellery
sports goods
chemicals & related
products
engineering goods
electronic goods
project goods
textiles
handicrafts
carpets
cotton raw incl. Waste
petroleum products
unclassified exports

87.

1150
100 = 21%.
2300 + 860 + 1130 + 1200

(d) Let sales in 2003 be 100.

Sales in 2004 = 100 1.152 = 115.2.
Sales in 2005 = 115.2 1.199 = 138.12.

(a)

88.

PAT in 2005 =

6.9
138.12 = 9.53.
100

% Growth =
85.

9.53 6.912
100 = 37.8%.
6.912

(a)
Sales
Salaries & wages %age Growth
100
118.4
125.3856
141.25
149.3025184
19.07
144.92
153.0394601
2.50
167.68
176.5636251
15.37
193.16
202.6286416
14.76
231.6
241.7937254
19.33

Growth
-ve
-ve
-ve
43.36
-ve
4.41
-ve
3.69

16.41
2.74
0.09
18.86
0.70
0.90
0.28

18.41
2.28
0.06
15.16
0.43
0.75
0.10

12.19
-ve
-ve
-ve
-ve
-ve
-ve

5.54
4.07

8.57
2.66

54.69
-ve

bulk
pearls machine project others
imports
goods

2003-04 Weight 359,107.66

38
9
Imports
135994 33217
2004-05 Weight 501,064.54
39
9
Imports
195866 44094
Growth
44
33
2005-06 Weight 630,526.77
43
6
Imports
268352 40480
Growth
37
-8
Average Growth
41
12

89.
Year
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005

2004-05
0.78
7.61
1.60
5.29
2.89
17.29
0.12
16.00

It is clear that the three commodities with highest export

growth rate are petroleum products, ores & minerals
and engineering goods (in that order) as seen from the
table.
(b) Among the commodities given 7 show a positive
increase in its weight.
There is a 21% increase in total exports (in Rupees).
On clearly visualising the 7 commodities, we see that
there is more than 100% growth in project goods (0.06
to 0.13). So, it will show maximum growth.
(d)
Total

6
115.2 = 6.912.
PAT in 2004 =
100

2003-04
0.92
8.39
2.08
3.69
3.19
16.56
0.15
15.43

11
38173
10
50106
31
11
68980
38
34

0
42
1760 149963
1
42
2706 208293
54
39
1
40
3594 249121
33
20
43
29

(b)

Rs/ Dollar
Exports (Rs)
Exports (Dollars)
Imports (Rs)
Imports (Dollars)
Trade Imbalance
Growth

2003-04
45.9513
293366.75
6384.30
359107.66
7814.96
1430.66

2004-05
44.9315
375339.53
8353.59
501064.54
11151.74
2798.15
95.58

2005-06
44.2735
454799.97
10272.51
630526.77
14241.63
3969.12
41.85

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90.

94.

(a)
2003-04 2004-05 2005-06
100.00
100.00
100.00
Total Imports
Total Imports (in 359,107.66 501,064.54 630,526.77
Crore of Rupees)
Rs/ Dollar
45.95
44.93
44.27
Total Imports (in
7814.96 11151.74 14241.63
Crore of Dollars)
Petroleum crude &
26.70
27.87
30.87
pdts; weight(%)
Imports (1)
2086.59
3107.99
4396.39
6384.30
8353.59 10272.51
Total Exports (in
Crore of Dollars)
Petroleum pdts;
5.54
8.57
11.21
weight(%)
Exports (2)
353.69
715.90
1151.55
Difference (1) - (2)
1732.90
2392.09
3244.84
Ratio
1.36

91.

(a) Only 1 sees the Ritwik Ghatak (RG) film. Hence 2 see
the Guru Dutt (GD) film and 4 see the Satyajit Ray (SR)
film. Further Vyomkesh (V) and Yogi (Y) see the same
film (either GD or SR) but there are 2 pairs (GangadharRudra and Indra-Maheshwar or G R and I M) among
whom each of the members see a different film. At least
one of these 4 sees the GD film. So V and Y see the SR
film. Possible options for other film buffs.

95.

96.

97.

G GD; R RG; I/M GD/SR

G RG; R GD; I/M GD/SR
92.

(a) (e) and (b) are clearly false as no. of film buffs who see
SR film has to be even. Further number of buffs who
see SR film has to be double as compared to who see
the GD film.
(d) is false as if 2 film buffs see the RG film than the
remaining 5 can not be arranged in the ratio 1 : 2.
(c) is false as V and Y have to watch the same film.
(a) is true.

93.

GD

SR

L, I/M

RG

G, V, Y, M/I

98.

(c) (a) and (b) are false as the number of buffs who do not
see SR film can be either 3 or 5.
(d) are false as V and Y see the same film.
(e) is false as it means I and M watch the same film.
(c) is the correct option
GD

I, G/R

SR

L, M, V, Y

RG

R/G

99.

(e) The correct combination is:

GD R, I
SR L,Y, V, M
RG G
(b) As V and G watches the same film so Y also watches
the same film. These can not watch the SR film as G
watches GD/ RG. So V, Y and G watch RG film. The
situation becomes:
GD
1
SR
2
L
RG
4
VYG
So (a), (d) and (c) are false. Again R can not see RG as
G and R watch different films so (c) is false. Hence (b) is
true.
(e) As 2 people watch the GD film so SR film is watched by
4 people. If VY watch GD, the situation becomes:
GD
2 VY
SR
4 L
RG
1
G
Not possible as I and M can not be together.
(c)
Bus
Taxi
Train Flight
D Bh Prob.
0.65
0.75
0.9
-Time
12
12
12
-Bh Jo Prob.
0.8
0.85
0.9
-Time
16
14
12
-Jo J
Prob.
0.65
0.7
0.9
0.85
Time
15
15
10
2
J Aj
Prob.
0.55
0.55
0.75
-Time
5
5
4
-The best option is Train, Train, Flight, Train, i.e. 12 + 12
+ 2 + 4 = 30 hours. The second best option is Train,
Train, Flight, Taxi/Bus, i.e., 12 + 12 + 2 + 5 = 31 hours.
(c)
p
time (T)
(a) 0.9 0.85 0.65 0.75 = 0.373 12 + 14 + 15 + 4 = 45
(b) 0.75 0.9 0.85 0.75 = 0.430 12 + 12 + 2 + 4 = 30
(c) 0.9 0.9 0.9 0.75 = 0.547
12 + 12 + 10 + 4 = 38
(d) 0.9 0.85 0.9 0.75 = 0.516 12 + 14 + 10 + 4 = 40
(e) 0.9 0.80 0.85 0.75 = 0.459 12 + 16 + 2 + 4 = 34
We see clearly that, p, the probability of reaching on time is
maximum for option (c). The time taken is immaterial in this
case.
(a) To maximise time, they should travel
Delhi Bharatpur: Train/Bus/Taxi
Bharatpur Jodhpur: Bus
Jodhpur Jaipur: Bus/Taxi
Jaipur Ajmer: Bus/Taxi
So I, II, III and IV are correct.

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100. (c)

t
Q T
Time Time/24 q 0.8

Q + T p
t 0.2

(a) 0.373 0.627 45

1.88

0.50

0.38

0.88

(b) 0.430 0.570 30

1.25

0.46

0.25

0.71

(c) 0.547 0.453 38

1.58

0.36

0.32

0.68

(d) 0.516 0.484 40

1.67

0.39

0.33

0.72

(e) 0.459 0.541 34

1.42

0.43

0.28

0.71

101. (d)
Q
0.5
0.46
0.36
0.39
0.43

%Q
%T'
T' Q+T' =Q/(Q+T')*100 =T'/(Q+T')*100
0.38 0.88
56.82
43.18
0.25 0.71
64.79
35.21
0.32 0.68
52.94
47.06
0.33 0.72
54.17
45.83
0.28 0.71
60.56
39.44

(102-107).
Options

Digital

Music

Office

Models

Camera

Player

Document
viewer

T
V

Y
Z

102. (c) Options equipped with mobile phone models- V, W, X

and Y- is clear. Mobile phone model Z has two options;
one of them is music player while mobile phone model
T has one option.
103. (a) The options for 4 models are clear. Further Z has a
music player as T has fewer options as compared to Z,
i.e., Z has 2 options as T will have 1 option. So one
option has to be music player for Z as only one option
is common with V who has digital camera and office
Document viewer.
The one option T has can be a music player so only a
maximum of 4 mobiles have a feature of music player.
104. (e) If Z has no option in common with T but has at least
one option in common with every other mobile phone,
then Z must have second option of office document
viewer because Y has only one option i.e. office
document viewer. In this scenario T has only one option
i.e. digital camera. So exactly only three of the six mobile
phones have music player. So choice (e) is false.
105. (d) Each mobile phone model is equipped with at least one
of the three options. So none of the options can be had
with more than four mobile phones.

106. (d) If exactly four of the six mobile phones have music
player, and exactly four of the six mobile phones have
digital camera, then Z must have second option as
digital camera and T must have only option as music
player. In this scenario W and Z have both option in
common. Hence answer choice (d) is not true.
107. (b) Even after change X has two options-digital camera
and music player. Z has one certain option music player.
So X and Z have at least one option in common. Hence
answer choice (b) is false.
108-112.

Informations provided:
Recreation Bill School Bill Tax Bill
Arjun

Karn

Bhim

108. (d) Exactly one member of the council votes for the tax bill.
Bhim votes against the tax bill. So Arjun and Karn cant
vote for or against the tax bill in the same way. Hence
option (a) is ruled out. Karn votes against and Bhim
votes for recreation bill. Hence option (b) is ruled out.
Karn and Bhim cant vote the same way on the school
bill as in option (a). Hence option (c) is ruled out. If
Arjun and Karn both vote for bills, tax bill will get two
votes for. Hence option (e) is ruled out.
109. (e) If the set of members of the council who vote against
the school bill are the only ones who also vote against
the tax bill, then they are Arjun and Bhim because Karn
votes against recreation bill. Hence Bhim must vote
against the school bill.
110. (e) If Karn votes for exactly two of the three bills, he must
vote for school and tax bill. Hence Bhim must vote for
recreation bill.
111. (e) According to the condition Arjun and Bhim vote
against the school bill and tax bill. In this scenario Bhim
votes for only recreation bill. Hence option (e) must be
true.
112. (a) If Karn votes for the tax bill, he can vote against school
bill. Similarly Arjun can vote against tax bill. Among
Karn and Bhim one has to vote for 2 bills. Hence option
(a) could be true.
113. (b) Let us assume that Asit is interested in the project. So,
he will speak truth. But he says none of us is interested,
which is contradictory. So, Asit is not interested in the
project.
Again assume that Barun is interested in the project
and he speaks truth. So, according to him only 1 person
is interested in the project, which is him. This can be
the correct case.

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Assume that Chandra is interested in the project and

he speaks truth. So, according to him 2 persons are
interested in the project, so 2 persons will definitely
speaks truth. But studying the responses of the other
four we see that they all are telling a lie. So, this case is
not possible.
Similarly, the cases for Danny and Eshita are not true.
114. (d) A B is a guard.
B C is a thief.
C D is a thief.
E A is a guard.
D B & E are different.
Let the 1st statement be true, then A is Guard, B is
Guard, C is thief, D is Guard, so B and E are different
kinds. Again as A is guard so E is also Guard. But this
makes B and E, both of same kind (Guards), which is
contradictory.
Now let the 1st statement be false, thus A is thief, B is
thief, C is Guard, D is thief, so B & E are of same kind.
So E is also thief which means that A is thief, which is
correct.
Hence, A, B, D and E are thieves.
115. (d) As the employees were indifferent about the air
conditioning, so IV is obvious. III is clear, as the
Personal Manager has not been in regular touch with
the employees. The main job of a Personal Manager to
understand the needs and problems of the employees
and to address them at time so as to avoid a situation
of adversity. Really the Personal Manager didnt
manage the survey well as again he never tried to get in
touch with the employees. The objective of the survey
was not clear to the employees. The whole exercise
shows that the Personal Manager was disinterested
and indifferent towards the survey. He was not able to
act as a bridge between the management and the
employees.
116. (e) The decision which would create the greatest impact
on the society is the division of profits among the
workers and the shareholders. This would lend a strong
message in the society. Further investment in capacity
expansion, which will help in generating more and more
employment, will be second in order.
The image of the company will be improved if it consider
its employees views and involve them in even small
activities.
Communicating managements intention will create
least impact on the society.

117. (b) The situation can not be called Managerial shortsightedness. Infact it is the managements long term
vision. It is the benevolent nature of the management
which is the highlight. It is that nature for which the
whole exercise has been carried out. We can not
generalise it to Inefficient infrastructure management.
Although the Personal Manager has failed in handling
the survey but this can not undermine the
managements benevolence.
118. (b) Both A and R are based on the information given in the
passage. A has been derived from para 1, whereas R
has been taken from para 2 (second sentence) and para
3 (second sentence). R is not the explanation of A as R
do not talk of anything mentioned in A.
119. (c) The given passage do not talk of the board members at
all. It also do not talk about systematizing the recruitment
and selection of the entire organization. So R is out of
context. A, clearly has been taken from the passage.
120. (e) A is clearly wrong as the passage do not talk about the
rejection of the process from day 1.
Again the passage do not talk about the abilities of the
psychologist.
121. (a) Both A and R are correct and R clearly explains A.
122. (e) The most critical point for the management is that it
shall hire experienced managers as freshers tend to get
swayed and take up bad habits (like excess drinking)
very easily. In other words they are gullible. The
requirements of the job should be told to the new
managers at the beginning itself. So, 1 + 2 is the first
thing to be implemented.
3 may not be a useful criterion as people with high selfesteem might not be the right fit for the job. Further
they would be difficult to handle and demand much
higher salaries. 1 + 2, shall be followed by 2 + 4 and 2 +
5. As 4 is to be implemented immediately. Guidance is a
must for all.
123. (c) We are not confident about 2, as stated above as well,
the hiring of graduates might be a requirement of the
job (viz. the job might involve lot of running around).
Further the firm shall not discriminate the young
graduates. 4 is the most important as it will help the
new joinees in understanding the requirements of the
job in a better way. So the right sequence is 1, 5, 3, 4.
124. (a) The best situation for Sayan will be to get his job back
in the same company. It has taken him 2 years to develop
his reputation in the firm so he must tryout an out of
the court settlement with the firm and take back his job.

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XAT - 2007 Solved paper

125. (a) Let us use the < symbol to denote before.

Given:
V<S

........ (i)

R<T<V<Y

........ (ii)

V<Q

........ (iii)

R < W,

Z < Q ........ (iv)

128. (e) The situation becomes

ZR TV S / Y / Q
14
4244
3
W
From above it is clear that only (e) is possible as Z is
the 1st launch.
129. (e) The situation is

From above we can infer that R or Z is the first product

launched. Further R could only be the 1st or the second
product. So (b) is wrong. From above (a) is wrong as Y
has at least 3 products before it.

Z
}
R TV S / Y / Q
14
4244
3
W
R is the 1st launch.

(e) is wrong as V has 3 products (S, Y, Q) after it.

T can be 2nd or 3rd launch.

Again (c) is wrong as Q has R, T, V and Z before it.

Q can take position from 5th to 8th as R, T, V and Z

have to be before.

126. (a) Z is the 7th product so Q is the 8th product and R is the
1st product launch.
So the situation is:

TV
S/Y
ZQ
1442443
W
So clearly (b), (c), (d) and (e) are false. T can be 2nd or
3rd. V can be 3rd or 4th.

V can be 3rd or 4th launch.

130. (a,c) April 20ab has exactly four Mondays and four Fridays.
We know April has 30 days. For four Mondays and
four Fridays a maximum of 4 weeks can be accomodated.
So still 2 days are left. These can be Saturday and
Sunday or Wednesday and Thursday. So the 1st of
April can be Saturday or Wednesday.

127. (d) The situation is like this

RTV
{ Q W/S/Y
Z
(a), (b), (c) and (e) can be true as Z can take position
between 1 and 4. As RTV and Z are before Q. So W has
to be after 5th launch.

31