MCQ Questions Preliminary examination

1.

For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is

to,

A.
B.
C.
D.

Avoid buccal pulp horn

Avoid lingual pulp horn
Remove unsupported enamel
Conserve lingual dentine

2.

For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should,

A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance

B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
C. reduce 2mm for retention form
3.

Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should,

A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid

B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly
4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of
amalgam restoration is true?
A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay.
5.

The retention Pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed,

A. Parallel to the outer wall

B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth
6.

The most common cause of failure of the IDN Inferior Dental Nerve
block is,

A. Injecting too low

B. Injecting too high
7. Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

SnF2
1.23% APF
H2SiF2
CaSiF2
8% Stannous fluoride

8.

The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is,

A. H2O2
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Polyacrylic acid
9.

The most mineralised part of dentine is,

A. Peritubular dentine
10. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes,
and oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to
bed he had the swelling, pain or dental complaints. Examination shows
several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is
negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and
periapical area of rarefaction. The patients temperature is normal. The
day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital
and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Acute periapical abscess

Angioneurotic oedema
Infectious mononucleosis
Acute maxillary sinusitis
Acute apical periodontitis

11. Internal resorption is,

A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal
B. Usually in a response to trauma
C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal
12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see,
A. Surface resorption, external resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Inflammatory resorption
D. Replacement resorption
E. A, C and D
F.All of the above
13. The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make in 0.5mm
away from pulp is,
A. 20%
B. 50%

14. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is,

A.
B.
C.
D.

A reversal line
Sharp curvature
A resting line
A reduction in the number of tubules

15. What is the correct sequence of events

A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine
formation then enamel formation.
B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation,
elongation of enamel epithelium.
C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine
formation then enamel formation.
16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries?
A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine
B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis.
C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation.
17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres?
A. Afferent & sympathetic
18. In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually
curve towards?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Facial / buccal/
Lingual
Mesial
Distal

19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture?

A. Perio abscess like appearance
B. Displacement of fragments
20. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect
pulp capping?
A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure.
B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ

21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp
tests you should?
A. Review again later
B. Start endodontic treatment
C. Extraction of tooth
22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently
traumatised tooth?
A. Obtain baseline response
B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality
23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics?
A. Decalcification of dentine
B. Cleaning debris from root canal
24. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of
diazepam for sedation?
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given
one hour preoperatively
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post
operatively
E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil
25. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient?
A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood
from HIV patient
B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of
blood from HIV patient
C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active
disease is not present
26. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures;
what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that
sterilization has occurred:**
A. Use spore test daily

B.
C.
D.
E.

Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each package
Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly
Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthly
Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly

27. A 65 year old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered
questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The
problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Extreme susceptibility to pain

Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage
Recurring oral infection
Increased tendency to syncope
Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by,

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Bells palsy
Traumatic bone cyst
Trigeminal neuralgia
Fracture in the mandible first molar region
Ludwigs angina

29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a
fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture is most likely to be
present in,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Symphysis region
Left body of the mandible
Left sub-condylar region
Right sub-condylar region
sub-condylar region

30. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient
being assessed for oral surgery are,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Elevated temperature and nausea

Palpitations and malaise
Ankle oedema and dyspnoea
Erythema and pain
Pallor and tremor

31. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter

is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which
method of treatment would you consider?**

A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket
B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa
C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening
made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal.
D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening
made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.
E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation.
32. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the
extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by,
A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal
spontaneously
B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants
C. Curettage and dressing of the defect
D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure
E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.
33. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid mass may be
accompanying,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Lympha adenopathy
Nodular consistency
Facial paralysis
Slow progressive enlargement
Xerostomia

34. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the

following is true?**
A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of
infection
B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will
reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve
C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post
operative swelling
D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the
wisdom tooth root
E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of
infection.
35. Endogenous morphine like substance which can control pain is known
as,**
A. Bradykinins
B. Peptides

C. Prostaglandins
D. Serotonins
E. Enkephalins
36. Platelets play an important role in haemostasis; which of the following
describes this role?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

They convert fibrinogen to fibrin

They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels
They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis
They supply fibrin stabilizing factors
They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation

37. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors;
which of the following is not one of these factors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Necrosis
Presence of lymphocytes
Collection of neutrophils
Accumulation of tissue fluid
Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes

38. Which of the following lesions CANNOT BE classified as an intraepithelial lesion?**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Herpes simplex infections

Pemphigus vulgaris
Herpangina
Lichen planus
Hand, foot and mouth disease

39. In regards to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Kaposi sarcoma on the palate

Reduced haemoglobin
Infection with pneumocystic carinii
Reduction in white cells count
B cell lymphoma

40. Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal

neuralgia?**
A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of
the disease
B. The pain is usually unilateral

C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated

precipitate an attack of pain
D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the
forehead
E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with
Carbamazepine
41. Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests itself in the
oral cavity as,
A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the
tongue
B. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove in
the centre of the tongue
C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas
D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper trophic fungiform
E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surface
F.Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissure
G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue
42. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?
A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of
the tongue
B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral
side of the tongue
C. Usually caused by Candida species
D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue
E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia
43. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Giant cell granuloma

Lipoma
Fibrous epulis
Haematoma
Pulp polyps

44. Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by,

A. Rapid growth and metastasis
B. Local cutaneous invasion
C. Inability to invade bone
D. Poor prognosis
E. Radiation resistance
F.Can not metastasise to the bone

45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following
sites?**
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Lateral border anteriorly

Anterior dorsal surface
Posterior dorsal surface
Lateral border posteriorly
No preferred location

46. A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting

a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Type I allergic reaction

Nervous disorder
Side effect of the drug
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Pyloric stenosis

47. Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical
cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of
action is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Thermodynamic action
Activation of tissue enzymes
Osmotic pressure
Protein precipitation PPT
Neutralization

48. Which of the following adverse reaction of oral contraceptives is the most
common and the most serious
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hypotension
Hepatotoxicity
Uterine neoplasia
Thromboembolism disorder
Decreased resistance to infection

49. A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased
post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation
Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets
Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network

E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood

clotting factors
50. A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented
with radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling.
The disease that you would immediately suggest is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Diabetes
Thyrotoxicosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Osteoporosis
Adrenal insufficiency

51. Typical features of Downs syndrome (Mongolism) do not include:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A multiple immunodeficiencies
Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease
Susceptibility to infections
Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion
Hepatitis B carriage in institutionalised patients

52. The patient whom you are about to treat, states that he has Von
Willebrands disease. Which one of the following preoperative
haematological analyses may reflect this disease:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Bleeding time and factor VIII level

Bleeding time and factor IX level
Bleeding time and factor X level
Platelet count
Thromboplastin generation time

53. A 22 year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy, spontaneous

bleeding from the gingiva and complains of weakness and anorexia. Her
blood analysis was as follows: HB=12gm, Neutrophils=90%,
Monocytes=1%, Platelets=250000, WBC=100000, Lymphocytes=9%,
Eosinophils=0%
The most likely diagnosis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Myelogenous leukaemia
Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever/
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Gingivitis of local aetiological origin
Pernicious anaemia /Vitamin B12 deficiency/

54. The tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of,

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Angle of the mandible

C6 vertebrae
Jugulodigastric crossing
Clavicle
Jugulo-omohyoid crossing

55. Exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a radiograph is

NOT REDUCED by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

The use of fast film

The addition of filtration
Collimation of the beam
The use of an open and lead lined cone
Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP

56. X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both side of a support material.
The emulsion contains particles of,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Silver nitrate crystal

Metallic silver in gelatine
Silver bromide in gelatine
Silver nitrate in gelatine
Potassium bromide in gelatine

57. The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of radiation using
type D film of 200mm target to film distance, the exposure time was 0.25s.
What would be the exposure for the same situation with 400mm target to
film distance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

0.5s
1.0s
2.0s
0.25s
0.125s

58. You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and have the choice between
60kVp and 70kVp machines. With single change from 60kVp to 70kVp
what would the approximate affects on exposure time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

No effect
Half the time
Double
Quarter
Triple the time

59. When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the
primary x ray beam and a distance from the patients head of at LEAST:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

0.5 metres
1 metre
1.5 metres
2 metres
3 metres

60. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete
pulpectomy is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Zn phosphate cement and formcresol combination paste

Quick setting hydroxide cement
Zinc oxide and eugenol cement
Gutta-percha
Polycarboxylate cement

61. When primary molars are prepared for stainless steel crowns should the
depth for reduction of the proximal surface be similar to the depth of the
buccal and lingual surfaces?
A. Yes; reduction of all wall is similar for best retention
B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area
C. No, the buccal surfaces has the greatest reduction to remove the cervical
bulge
D. Yes, all undercuts are uniformly removed so that the steel crown can be
seated
E. No, because of lateral constriction, the lingual surface needs greatest
reduction
62. 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent
central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for
treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be
considered?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide
Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp
Pulpotomy using formocresol
Pulpectomy and immediate root filling
Pulpectomy and apexification

63. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing bottle
syndrome?
A. Maxillary molars

B.
C.
D.
E.

Maxillary and mandibular canines

Mandibular incisors
Maxillary incisors
Mandibular molars

64. Which of the following anomalies occurs during the initiation and
proliferation stages of tooth development
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Amelogenesis imperfecta
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Enamel hypoplasia
Oligodontia
Ankylosis

65. Which is the right sequence of the histological stages of tooth

development?
A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation,
mineralization
B. Proliferation, initiation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation,
mineralization
C. Proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization
D. Initiation, proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation,
mineralization
66. A health 6 year old child presents with carious maxillary second primary
molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment would be preferred?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Extraction
Indirect pulp treatment
Pulpotomy
Pulpectomy
Antibiotic coverage

67. To produce a stable correction of an upper labial segment in lingual

crossbite; it is essential to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Use fixed appliances

Have adequate overbite
Treat during growth
Use posterior capping
Increase vertical dimension

68. Which of the following are typical consequence of dental crowding;

assuming no primary teeth has been lost prematurely?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Overlapping of lower incisors

Palatal displacement of upper canines
Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars
Mesial tipping of 16 and 26
Rotation of 16 and 26

69. The lamina dura seen on periapical radiograph as:

A. Usual radiolucency between tooth root and surrounding bone as a thin white
line.
B. Cribriform plate of bone making the tooth socket
C. Dense crestal bone consistent with a healthy periodontal status
D. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone
70. Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic
ulcerative gingivitis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP

Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes
Polymorphs and lymphocytes
Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga
Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia

71. In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true:

A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility
B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic
inflammatory periodontal disease
C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structure have been
weakened
D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually
for hyper mobility
E. Reliance on radiograph is essential
72. Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis (Desquamative
gingivitis)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

It is caused by hormononal imbalance

Is seen only at or after menopause
Is frequently caused by lichen planus
Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis
Is related to nutritional disturbance

73. The treatment of Localised Juvenile Periodontitis is frequently

supplemented with tetracycline because flora involved is predominant:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Aerobic
Strictly anaerobic
Facultative or microaerophilic
Resistant to other antibiotic

74. The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of root planning is by:
A. Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness
B. Use air for visual inspection
C. Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched sound
which indicates a smooth, hard surface.
D. Evaluate the soft tissue at the end of the appointment for a decrease oedema
and bleeding
E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later.
75. Probe pressure at the sulculus of pocket should not be more than enough
to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Feel the top of the crestal bone

Balance the pressure between fulcrum and grasp
Define the location of the apical and the calculus deposit
Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues
Limit the lateral pressure

76. A curette may be inserted to the level of the attached gingiva with minimal
trauma to the tissues because of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Has a round base

Is easy to sharpen
Has rounded cutting edges
Provides good tactile sensitivity
Has two cutting edges

77. Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surface in periodontal

surgery is to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Sterilise the root surface

May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast
Aids in re-mineralising the root surface
Assist the biding of lamina dura
Prevents post operative infections

78. Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to dental caries THE
MOST EFFECTIVE is,
A. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation

B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and

maturation
C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth
eruption
D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel
mineralization and maturation
79. When the enamel of the tooth is exposed to preparation containing high
concentrations of fluoride; the major reaction is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Sodium fluoride
Calcium fluoride
Stannous fluoride
Fluoroapatite

80. Several approaches have been suggested to increase the fixation of

professionally applied topical fluoride, which of the following statements
IS INCORRECT regarding increasing the fixation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Increase concentration of fluoride in solutions

Raise the PH of the fluoride solution
Increase the exposure time to topical fluoride
Pre-treat the enamel with 0.5% phosphoric acid
Use NH4F rather than NaF at a lower PH

81. Biopsy is least useful in the diagnosis of,

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Geographic tongue
Aphthous ulcer
Cysts
Granuloma
Myeloma

82. In the inferior alveolar block the needle goes through or close to which
muscles:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Buccinator and superior constrictor

Medial and lateral pterygoid
Medial pterygoid and superior instructor
Temporal and lateral pterygoid
Temporal and medial pterygoid

83. The extraction of maxillary deciduous molar in 5 years old child; you
should use:
A. Mostly towards the apex pressure and some movement

B. Rotation
C. Distal pressure and movement
D. Labial-lingual movement
84. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what
function does it serve after it is made?
A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal
guidance.
B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination of the
incisal guidance.
C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the
articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient.
D. To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the
condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar
paths of the patient.
85. the pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of large cavity
in permanent molar tooth is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

MesioLingual in upper first molars

MesioBuccal in upper first molars
Distobuccal in lower first molars
MesioLingual in lower first molars
Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar

86. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of
teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether,
A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment
B. There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention
of the crowns
C. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate
periodontal support
D. The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant
the planned reconstruction
87. In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denture the study
cast,
A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays
B. minimize the need for articulating
C. provide only limited information about inter ridge distance, which is best
assessed clinically
D. can be used as a working cast when duplicating facilities are not available

88. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of partial denture with distal

extension can best be avoided by,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Applying Stressbreakers
Employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension
Clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
Maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of
tension

89. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete
denture,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mentalis
Lateral pterygoid
Orbicularis oris
Levator angulioris
Temporal

90. Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established. The maxillary
cast has been mounted on an articulator without a face bow. You decide to
increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm this will necessitate,
A.
B.
C.
D.

Opening the articulator 4mm

A new centric relation to be recorded
A change in the condylar guide settings
An increase in the rest vertical dimension

91. Following extraction of the molar teeth**

A. The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible
B. The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspect than the
buccal
C. The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch
D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more
bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one.
92. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete
denture therapy,
A.
B.
C.
D.

Trauma to extraction site

Increased the potential of infection
Impossibility for anterior try in
Excessive resorption of residual ridge

93. For dental caries to progress in dentine,

A. The dentine must contain soluble collagen
B. Enamel must contain glycoproteins
C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate
D. Diet must contain polysaccharides
E. Pulp must contain complement
94. Streptococcus mutans utilise which subtract to form dextran,
Refer to Boucher Microbiology
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Amylopectin
E. Dextrans
95. At birth, some calcified dental tissues are presented,
A.
B.
C.
D.

All deciduous teeth and all permanent incisors

All deciduous teeth and permanent central incisors
All deciduous teeth and the first permanent molars
Deciduous teeth only

96. which one of the following statement is correct,

A.
B.
C.
D.

The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle

the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum X
The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle
The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle

97. The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth is,
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mylohyoid
Anterior temporal
Posterior temporal
Anterior belly of digastric

98. Loss of tooth in mixed dentition affects the

A.
B.
C.
D.

Same quadrant
The relevant jaw
The whole mouth
The relevant quadrant

99. What are the points that determine the facial line in cephalometric points,
The angle of the convex facial line:
A. Nasion, subnasale, pogonion
B. Orbital, sella
100. What is the main purpose of using Stress breakers:
A. To distribute the load between teeth and ridges
B. To distribute the load between the clasps and the face end of the saddle
C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their
physiologic strength
101. What is Millers theory about
A. Acidogenic micro-organism
B. Proteolytic
The researcher name is W. D. Miller
102. Tooth under occlusal trauma shows
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Bone resorption
Necrosis of the pulp
Hypercementosis
Triangulation
All of the above

103. Which is more retentive form for anterior bridge

A.
B.
C.
D.

partial veneer crown

Class V inlay
Pinlay Veneer
Class III inlay with pins

104. What would not cause an airway obstruction

A.
B.
C.
D.

Laryngeal muscles paralysis

Flexion of the neck
Airway obstruction
Extension of the neck

105. As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the

following is true?

A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar

B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the
incidence.
C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology
D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory
E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth
106. A patient with impacted canine; by moving the X ray tube distally the
canine moves distally too; where do you expect the impacted canine:
A. Labially impacted
B. Palatally impacted
107. A 10 year old boy presents with small greyish white lesion surrounded by
a red halos on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars, small vesicles are
found. He has fever and pain in the ear. The MOST probable diagnosis
is?
A. Herpangina
108.
of,

The SNA angle on cephalogram, best signifies the relationship

A. Mandible to cranial base

B. Maxilla to cranial base
C. Maxilla to mandible
D. Mandible to porion
E. Maxilla to Frankfort plane
109. A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor,
he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury. Which of the
following should be considered?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2

Pulpotomy and formocresol
Direct pulp capping
Pulpectomy (RCT)
110.
8 years old child presents with all permanent incisors erupted,
but yet only three permanent first molars are erupted. Oral
examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the un-erupted
permanent area. A panoramic radiograph shows the alveolar
emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molar crown and three
fourth tooth developments, there are no other radiographic
abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan in
such situation would be:**

A. Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation.

B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure
C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the
second one to erupt into its place.
D. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and
luxation of the molar
E. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and
orthodontic traction.
111.
Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many
teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible
indicator of this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min

S. mutans concentration of 105 organism/ml
A plaque sample containing 5% S. mutans
A lactobacilli concentration of 105 organism/ml
Salivary buffering PH 5.5

112. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Downs syndrome?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Decreased neutrophil function

Macroglossia
Macrodontia
An increased susceptibility to periodontal disease
Congenitally missing teeth

113. The MOST common carcinoma in the mouth is,

A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/
B. Carcinoma of the lips
114. 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisors erupted, but yet
only three permanent first molars are erupted. Oral examination reveals a
large gingival bulge in the un-erupted permanent area. A panoramic
radiograph shows the alveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent
first molar crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no other
radiographic abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis and
treatment plan in such situation would be:
A. Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation.
B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure
C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to
erupt into its place.
D. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the
molar

E. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic

traction.
115. 12 years old child presents with symptoms of widespread gingivitis with
bleeding and general malaise for several weeks. How would you manage
this patient?
A. Prescribe Metronidazole 100mg
B. Locally debride, give oral hygiene instruction and prescribe H2O2 mouth
wash.
C. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling
D. Refer for haematological screening
E. Advise for bed rest with supportive and palliative treatment

116. What is the affect of office dental prophylaxis of regular six month
intervals on childrens oral health?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Reduce caries incidence by approximately 30%

Provide a long term improvement in oral hygiene
Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene
Prevent gingivitis
Reduce the need for patient cooperation
117.

Plaque is considered as an infection because:

A. Antibiotic therapy prevents or stop its formation
B. Indication of bacterial activity
C. It is common to both animal and human

118. Which of the following is true in relation to dental decay?

A. Foods that require vigorous mastication will increase salivary flow and
reduce PH
B. Tooth brushing immediately after meals is most effective because
demineralisation has already started
C. Food that encourage the mastication will increase the number of
lymphocytes in saliva and thus reduce decay
D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays
E. The Stephan Curve describes an increase in PH during a meal with resultant
of demineralisation
119. The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess:
A. Endontic treatment or extraction

B. Incision and drainage alone

C. Extraction
D. Endodontic
120. In developing plaque; the adhesive polymer produced by streptococcus
mutans is synthesis from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Glucose
Fructose
Sucrose
Lactose
Amylose

121. Fluoridation is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community

water supply to optimum levels for caries prevention. Which of the
following statement is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Tooth decay declines by 90% to 95%

Tooth decay declines by 45% to 55%
Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures
Fluoridation increases vulnerability to osteoporosis
122.

Clinical /Proximal in some papers/ caries on radiographs are seen:

A. Smaller than the real one
B. Larger than the real one
C. The same size

123.

A cusp fracture immediate to Class II inlay can be detected by,

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

History
Visually
Radiograph
Percussion
Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/

124. Recession of gingiva of several anterior teeth caused by exposure

and softened cementum; what would you do?
A. Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluoride
B. Scrap the soften cementum and use GIC
C. Class V amalgam
125. Patient with class II division II; the lateral incisor is missing. You
want to make a fixed bridge which of the following is suitable:

A. Rocket bridge using central incisor as abutment

B. Cantilever using central incisor
C. Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid
126. When repairing a fracture of lower complete denture. Which
statement is correct:
A. Self curing will distort the denture
B. Cold curing will not be strong enough because of small area of
attachment
C. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony
127.

In regards to Electrical Vitalometer:

A. To test recently erupted teeth
B. Check response for an electrical stimulant
C. Reveal potential necrosis

128. When preparing class III for composite restoration; which

situation acid itching should be placed:
A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage
B. Should not be performed because it might damage the adjacent
tooth
C. When extra retention is required
D. Only in situations where cavity is shallow to avoid pulp irritation
129.

In which situation the translucency of a tooth is lost:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

130.

Death of the pulp

Complete calcification of pulp chamber
Hyperaemia
Pulp stone
All of the above

Which pin system has proven to be the most retentive

A. Self tapping threaded pin
B. Friction peak pin
C. Cemented pin

131.

Reconstructing the occlusal anatomy is based on:

A. Functional factors
B. Depth of restoration on a tooth

C. Necessity to restore normal anatomy

132.

How do you prepare floor of pulp chamber in molars:

A.
B.
C.
D.

133.

Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate

Use round bur to flatten the floor
Under cut walls
Use flat end fissure bur to make it levelled

When do you finish campsite resin restorations:

A. Immediately after curing
B. After 24 hours
C. A week after placement

134.

Where Caf au lait spots are seen:

A. Von Willebrands disease
B. Recklinghausen
C. Neurofibroma

135.

Von Willebrand disease is,

A.
B.
C.
D.

136.

Haemophilic disease
Bacterial Endocarditis
Congenital cardiac disease
Rheumatic fever

What technique is used in the extraction of permanent 1st molars:

A. Rotation movement
B. Lingual movement
C. Buccal movement

137.

Drugs contraindicated with Monoaminoxidas MAO

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Barbiturates
Pethidine
Local Anaesthesia with felypressin
Narcotic analgetics
Salicylic acid

138. Blow to mandible causing fracture in molars right side region,

you expect a second fracture of:
A. Sub condylar of right side

B. Sub-condylar of left side

C. Fracture of symphysis
139. What is the most common fracture of Class II amalgam
restorations:
A. Isthmus because of insufficient depth
B. Internal fracture
C. Marginal ridge site
140.

What is the advantage of composite over silicate resin:

A.
B.
C.
D.

141.

The setting expansion of casting investment is approximately

A.
B.
C.
D.

142.

Less shrinkage
Less surface erosion
Less water absorption
All of the above

0 to 0.1%
0.1 to 0.5%
0.5 to 1%
1.1 to 1.6%

The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately:

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.5%
2.5%
1.40%
3%

143. The un-polymerized monomer in Self-cured resin is

approximately:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.5%
2.5%
5%
10%

144. A volume shrinkage of methyl meta cyrelate monomer when is

polymerized:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

12%
15%
18%
21%

145.

Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists of,

A. Resection
B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion,
limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations.
C. Irradiation
D. Excision and removal of adjacent teeth
E. None of the above

146.

Treatment of all of Giant Cell lesion either salivary or multiple is,

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

147.

Oil or water on impression for treatment casts causes:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

148.

Marsupialization
In velation and packing ap??
Cold well??
Surgical curettage
None of the above

An increase of the quality

No alteration
A decrease of the quality
Bubbles on the cast
None of the above

What is Path of Insertion

A. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts
to path of final rest position
B. The movement of the appliance from the points of rest position
until it is not in contact with teeth

149.

What is Path of Removal:

A. The appliances movement from the rest position to the last
contacts of its rigid parts with the supporting teeth
B. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts
to path of final rest position

150. When correction preparation for re contouring of occlusal surface

is to be applied. Grinding only of the adjusted surface:
A. Should not be felt flat
B. Require a flat crown
C. Require no contact with adjacent teeth

D. Should be felt flat

E. None of the above
151. To obtain a desired projection of occlusal loads, the floor of the
occlusal rest should,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Be convex
Slope from the marginal ridge towards Contact?? of abutment
Slope from Contact?? of abutment towards the marginal ridge
Be concave
Does not slope from the marginal ridge towards Contact?? of
abutment
F. None of the above
152. The transfer of stress by Tensile Action employs T. reaction; a
process that within limit:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Fails to promote bone growth

Promote bone growth and maintenance
Fails to promote maintenance
None of the above

153. Which of the following arrears CAN NOT be determined by survey

analysis of partially edentulous cast?
A. Areas to be revealed as blocked out to properly loca?? Rigid
parts of a frame work
B. Areas to be shaped to properly loc?? Rigid parts of framework
C. Areas used for guideline planes
D. Areas used for retention
E. Areas used for support
F. Depth of rest seats
154.

In partial dentures the guidelines Guiding Planes serve to:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

155.

Aids in balancing occlusion

Assure predictable clasp retention
Form right angle with the occlusal plane
Eliminate the necessity for precision attachment
Eliminate the necessity for a posterior clasp

Rough surface of porcelain /Porosity/ is a result of:

A. Lack of compression
B. Sudden high temperature

156.

The most common failure in constructing porcelain to metal is:

A. Improper metal framework
B. Rapid heating

157.

Prolong GICs setting time can be achieved by,

A. Cool down the slab
B. Increase the amount of distilled water

158. The maxillary canine is missing. The best way for making
Cantilever bridge:
A. Both premolars
B. Incisors and premolars
159.

Antes Law: Dr. Ante in 1926 stated that,

A. The combined pericemental area of the abutment teeth should
be equal to or greater in pericemental area than tooth or teeth to
be replaced

160. Why would you decide to replace the anterior missing teeth for
partial denture using bridge:
A. Aesthetic
B. Overjet
C. Overbite
161.

In regards to Gold casting alloys which one is available for bridge

A. Hard alloy Type III
B. Type II
C. Type I

162.

Using fluoride in the root surface caries is to protect,

A. Enamel
B. Dentine and cementum
C. Cuticle

163. The first thing to check when patient comes complaining of pain
under denture is:
A. Occlusion
B. Soft tissues changes

164. Fovea Palatini, is a landmark to determine the posterior bonds of

upper denture:
A. Post dam
B. Flanges
165.

Attrition is,
A. Process of normal wear of teeth
B. Lost of teeth substance as a result of chemical exposure

166.

Modulus of elasticity is defined as:

A. The stress at the proportional limit
B. The stress-strain ratio within the proportional limit

167.

Tissue conditioning material : (Silicon lining material)

A. Are more resilient than plastic acrylic
B. Can minimise any bacterial colonies

168. The most common cause of RCT Root Canal Treatment failure
is:
A. The canal not filled completely (Short obturation)
B. Over filled canals
169. The position of cusps of maxillary first premolar during setting of
teeth and on occlusal view is positioned:**
A. Distally
B. Mesially
C. Central buccolingually
170.

Lateral canals are usually found:

A. The middle of the root
B. Fist third of the root close to the crown
C. The apical third

171.

The cause of development of lateral canals is:

A. Cracks in Hertwigs epithelial root sheath

172.

Transillumination is used to :**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

To find intrinsic tooth colouration

To detect caries
Pulp-stones
Hemorrhagic pulp
Calculus

173. What is the common malignant lesion that occurs in the oral
cavity:
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Osteosarcoma
174. Replantation of avulsed tooth 2 hours after incident; the most
likely diagnosis is,
A. External resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Pulp stones
175.

The emergency treatment for painless necrotic pulp is:

A. Drainage through canals
B. None

176. Swelling after RCT is mainly caused by Being asked as What is

the most frequent cause of pain which occurs several days after
obturation too:
A. Entrapped Bacteria, or the presence of bacteria in the periapical
region.
B. Under filling the root canal system
C. Over filled root canal
177.

How do you treat dentine before applying GIC

A. Conditioner
B. Pumice & water

178.

The first step in the treatment of erosion is:

A. Pumice and water
B. Spray with Na-bicarbonate
C. GIC

179.

Kine-matic face bow is used for recording (to locate)

A. Hinge movement (position) axis

180.

Why do you polish the teeth before seating of partial dentures:

A. To smooth the rough surface
B. To minimise the retention of plaque
C. To increase the adoptability of occlusal rests

181. The contact between artificial and natural teeth in partial

dentures:
A. Slight touch in the balancing side
B. Should not be in touch at all
182.

Polyvinyl impression material are,

A. The most stable
B. The most resistant to heat

183.

To remove the pulp tissue from narrow canal, you can use:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Barbed broach
Small K-Type file
Smooth broach
Reamer

184. Wax patterns ARE NOT to be left on the bench for long time
because of,
A. Distortion
B. Lost of elasticity
185.

The undercut for Cobalt Chromes retentive arm clasp is,

A. 0.75mm
B. 0.50mm
C. 0.25mm

186.

When surveying:
A. Tilt the cast

187.

What statement is false:

A. Not to survey when making the crown

188. Gold clasp is more elastic than Cobalt Chrome, but Co-Chrome
has high modulus of elasticity
A.
B.
C.
D.
189.

The first statement is false the second is true

Both are true
The first is true the second is false
Both are false

Overdentures are best used for,

A. Canines and premolars
B. Posterior teeth

190. What is main reason of ordering another Periapical radiograph of

the same tooth:
A. To disclose the other roots
B. To observe tooth from different angle
191.

The ideal length of RCT is,

A. At the apex
B. As far as you can obturate
C. 0.5 t0 1.5 mm before the apex

192.

Retentive part of clasp position is,

A. Below the survey line.
B. Above survey line
C. As close as possible to the gingival margins

193.

To minimize the load on free end saddle partial denture:

A. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimension
B. Use mucco-compressive impression

194.

Retentive Clasps:
A. Alloy with high modulus of elasticity
B. Clasp arm is gingivally located

195.

Internal resorption of RC usually

A. Asymptomatic

B. Painful
196.

When doing pulpotomy with Formcresol, you will find:

A. Necrosis
B. Mummification

197.

Ledermix used in RCT to relieve pain because of,

A. Antibiotics
B. Corticosteroid

198.

In infected root canal, the two most common micro-organisms are:

A. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus

199. The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the root

canal walls providing space for additional Gutta Percha is termed:
A. Lateral Condensation
B. One major Gutta Percha point
C. Laterally above condensed
200.

In periodontal membrane, what epithelial cells you can find:

A. Epithelial rests of Malaise

201. Applying hypertonic Fluid on the dentine the transmission of fluid

through tubules will be:
A. From inside to outside
B. From outside to inside
202.

Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by:

A. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)
B. Mechanical

203.

Gate theory about pain control is:

A. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitoryexcitatory interaction of afferent fibre synapses.

204.

Angioneurotic oedema,

A. Puffiness around the eyes, oedema of the upper lip with redness
and dryness
B. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teeth
C. There is no caries, negative thermal tests, negative percussion
and negative response to palpation
205.

In melting gold, which part of flame we will use

A. Reduced zone
B. Oxidizing zone

206.

To increase the stability of the lower denture,

A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongue
B. The occlusal plane should be above the tongue
C. The lingual flanges should be concave

207.

If the investment is burnout rapidly, what will happen:

A. Back pressure porosity
B. Cracking of the investment

208.

What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:**

A. Weak edge strength and lack of surface details
B. Dimensional inaccuracy

209.

Overdenture advantage is,**

A. Proprioceptors

210.

In electro surgery, the tissue may stick to the electrode because of ,

A. The current intensity is too high
B. The current intensity is too low

211.

Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it:

A. Contains micro filled
B. Better colour matching

212.

The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by,
A. Tapering
B. Long path of insertion

213.

Wrought metal is to be,

A. Marble
B. Quenched
C. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing
(annealed)

214.

Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam:

A. Through the contacts.

215. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental

complaint:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Acute periodontal abscess

Chronic periodontal abscess
Apical abscess
Chronic alveolar abscess

216. In periodontitis, the most common finding is, Main feature of

suprabony pocket
A. Horizontal bone resorption
B. Vertical bone resorption
C. Angular bone loss
217.

Periodontitis occurs in,

A. Alveolar bone
B. Periodontal membrane
C. Alveolar bone and gingiva

218. The normal range of gingival depth Epithelial attachment in

healthy mouth is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1-2 mm
0-3 mm
2-3 mm
0-5 mm

219. The commonest elements which are found in periodontal

membrane are:**
A. Fibroblast
B. Epithelial cells
C. Erythrocytes

D. Vest cells of malaise

E. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes
220.

The term false pocket stands for,

A. Infra bony pocket
B. Loss of periodontal attachment
C. Hyperplasia of the gum

221.

What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation build up:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mastication
Tooth shape
Tooth inclination and crowding
Salivary flow
Oral flora

222. Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingivae

around the remaining teeth; mainly around the lower bicuspid and
anterior teeth. The oral hygiene is not good, some areas of cementum
appears to be soft. Which of the following would be your preferred
procedure:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
223.

Surface grinding followed by fluoride application

Surface grinding followed by GIC restorations
Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparation
Cavity preparation for amalgam preparation
Application of fluoride without surface preparation

Which of the following is not useful for apical infection:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Chlorhexidine
H2O2
EDTA
Ethyl alcohol
Eugenol

224. A child with fracture of tooth at the apical third of the root, what
your first decision would be:
A. Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or
radiolucency
B. Root canal treatment
C. Extraction
D. Apiectomy

225. what is the first thing to consider when you get a patient with
intruded 11 and 12:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Replace intruded teeth in position

Advice patient about consequences
Leave it and observe
X-ray

226. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect in some
papers/ ,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
227.

Traumatised teeth
Just erupted teeth
Multi-rooted teeth
Capped teeth
Necrotic pulp

The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located:

A. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cusp
B. In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the
buccal cusp
C. Under the disto lingual cusp

228.

The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is,

A. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes

229.

Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with,

A. Diabetics
B. Rheumatic fever

230.

Which is not an effect of :

I. Sedation
II. Excitement
III. Analgesia
IV. Hypnosis
V. General anaesthesia
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

none of the above

All of the above
I and II
II and III
I, IV and V

231. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally

appearing product:
A. Serotonin
B. Histamine
C. Enkephalins
232.

Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Injection in supine position

Injection into vascular area
Injection without vasoconstrictors
Intravenous injection

233. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI); which are
is contra indicated:
I. Barbiturate
II. Local anaesthetic
III. Pethidine
IV. Acetyl salicylic acid
A.
B.
C.
D.

All of the above

None of the above
I, II and III
II, III and IV check Q137 too

234. Which of the following may be caused by newly placed restoration

which interferes with the occlusion
A. Apical abscess
B. Pulpal necrosis
C. Apical periodontitis
235.

The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is,

A.
B.
C.
D.

236.

Removal of enough bone

Preoperative assessment
The flap design
The use of general anaesthetic

The most important indication of malignant lesions is:

A. Pain
B. Paresthesia

C. Teeth movement
D. Tooth resorption
237. Patient with lower denture and complaining of paresthesia of the
lower lip; the most common cause is,
A. Pressure on mental foramen
B. Pressure on the genioglossi Mylohyoid muscles
238.

The nerve supplies TMJ is,

A. Auricula Temporal Nerve
B. Nerve to masseter
C. Facial nerve

239. In cleidocranial dysplasia; which of the following would expect to

find:
A. Early lose of primary teeth
B. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia
240. Uni lateral swelling in the floor of the mouth occurs frequently
with meal; what is the possible diagnosis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
241.

Ranula
Sub-mandibular sialolith
Cyst
Mucocele

Which two of the following conditions present as complete vesicles

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Pemphigus
Herpes simplex
Aphthous ulcer
ANUG
Erythema migrans
Erythema multiforme

242.
Keratotic lesion surrounded by cold web like lines /Wickhams
Striae/ appears as lace-like network on the buccal mucosa; you
diagnosis is**
A. Lichen Planus
B. Keratosis follicularis
C. White sponge nevus

243.

How would you treat Denture Stomatitis

A. Tetracycline
B. Systemic penicillin
C. Nystatin +

244.

What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth:

A.
B.
C.
D.

245.

12, 22
35, 45
15, 25
33, 43
What is the percentage of leukoplakia that turn into cancer:**

A. 5%-6%
B. 10%
C. 25%
246.

An oral prodromal signs of Rubella are:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

Fordyces spots
Koplik spots
Geographic tongue
None of the above

247.
Which of the following conditions is not classified as a white
lesion:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Fordyces granules
Smokers keratosis
Leukoplakia
Lichen planus

248.
Angular cheilitis in edentulous patient with complete denture is
a result of:
A. Deficiency of .. vitamin
B. Low vertical dimension
249. The absence of lamina dura in radiograph is a feature of all of
these except for:**
A. Pagets disease
B. Hyperparathyroidism

C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
E. Hyperthyroidism
250.

Which is usually found when a systemic infection is present:

A. Regional lymph node
B. Fever
C. Cellulitis

251.

How would you diagnose a periapical abscess:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Pain on percussion
Pain when eating hot food
Pain when eating cold food
The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray

252. Diabetic patient with moist skin, moist mouth and weak pulse;
what would you do:
A.
B.
C.
D.
253.

How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma:

A.
B.
C.
D.

254.

Give glucose
Administer O2
Administer adrenaline
Inject insulin

Excision
Excision and extraction of teeth
Radiation
Surgery and radiation

In which direction you would extract a deciduous upper molar:

A. Rotation
B. Buccally
C. Lingually

255. Impression without elastomer in custom tray has been taken for
crown preparation; it will be two days before impression gets to the
laboratory for construction of the crown. Which impression material is
preferred?
A. Polyether
B. Thiokol or meraptan rubber
C. Condensation silicone

D. Vinyl polysiloxane
256. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pins in a
vital molar tooth; what type of amalgam mix would you prefer:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

A large mix to ensure homogeneity

A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualities
Several small mixes, sequentially triturated
Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratios
A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed

257. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resin interface is

most likely to be due:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
258.

Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the composite

Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the composite
Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamel
Salivary pellicle growth at the interface
Setting contraction of the composite resin

The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgam surface is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

45-60
70-85
45-80
95-110
130-150

259. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured

composite is that during setting or in function the light cures material
tends to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Seal the margins better and completely

Exhibit less wear on time
Undergo greater colour change
Shrink rapidly
Posses greater fracture toughness

260. If the sealant of bonding agent is not placed on part of enamel that
has been etched by an acid solution; you would expect:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Arrest of enamel carries by organic sulphides

The enamel is to return to normal within 7 days
Continued enamel declassification in the etched area
Slight attrition of the opposing tooth

261. When restoring weakened cusps with dental amalgam you should
consider:
A.
B.
C.
D.

2mm reduction while forming a flattened surface

2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cusps
4mm reduction while forming a flattened surface
4mm reduction while following the original contour of the
surface

262. The bur should be tilted lingually when preparing the occlusal
surface of class II cavity on a mandibular first premolar in order to:
I. Remove unsupported enamel
II. Prevents encroachment on the buccal pulp horn
III. Prevents encroachment on the lingual pulp horn
IV. Maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

I and II
I and III
II and IV
III and IV
IV only

263. In radiographs, an incipient carious lesion limited to the end of the

proximal surface of posterior tooth appears as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Radiopaque area
Triangle with apex towards the tooth surface
Larger in radiographs than actual lesion
All of the above
None of the above

264. In regards to carbide burs; the more number of cutting blades and
low speed will result in:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Less efficient cutting and a smoother surface

Less efficient cutting and a rougher surface
More efficient cutting and a smoother surface
More efficient cutting and a rougher surface

265. For an onlay preparation during the restoration of a tooth, which

one of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE means for verifying
adequate occlusal clearance
A. Wax bite chew in
B. Proper depth cuts

C. Visual inspection
D. Articulating paper
266.

Choose statement that correctly defines the term AMALGAM:

A. Amalgam is a metallic powder composed of silver, tin, copper
and zinc
B. Amalgam is an alloy of two more metals that have been
dissolved in each other in the molten state.
C. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals, one of them is
mercury
D. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that is
mixed with mercury
E. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals, one of them is tin

267. At which angle to the external surface of proximal cavity walls in a

class II preparation for amalgam should be finished
A.
B.
C.
D.

An acute angle
An obtuse angle
A right angle
An angle of 45

268. Teenager has swelling involving his upper lip, the corner of his
nose and a region under his left eye. The swollen area is soft,
fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on the left side.
His body temperature is 39. What is the first thing you would do after
taking history and temperature:
A. Refer him to physician
B. Anaesthetise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide
instant relief
C. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the
swelling
D. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teeth
E. Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until
swelling is reduced
269.

The prognosis of tooth with apical resorption is :

A.
B.
C.
D.

Poor
Good if apex can be sealed
Dependant upon periapical surgery
Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with
treatment of the canal

270. The term TUGbag?? is related to : When used in connection with

a master Gutta Percha cone in endodontics
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Tensile strength of the gutta percha

Consistency of gutta percha
Size of the cone
Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm
Length of the cone

271. In root canal therapy it is generally accepted that the ideal root
filling,
A. Should extend to the level of the apex to minimize irritation
B. Should extend slightly through the apex to ensure a complete
seal
C. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healing
D. The extension of the filling is not critical
272. Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars MOST COMMONLY
have:
A.
B.
C.
D.
273.

One canal with one foreman

One or two canals with one foreman
Two canals with one foreman
Two canals with two foremen

The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crown is,

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Moisture contamination
Excessive firing temperature
Failure to anneal the platinum matrix
Excessive condensation of the porcelain
Inadequate condensation of the porcelain

274.
The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal
height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether,
A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable
after treatment
B. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for
proper retention of the crowns
C. at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for
adequate periodontal support
D. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently
to warrant the planned reconstruction

275.
An advantage of metal-ceramic crowns, compared wit full
ceramic crowns for restoring anterior teeth is,
A.
B.
C.
D.

Palatal reduction may be of minimal thickness

Overall conservative for tooth structure
Ability to watch the appearance of adjacent natural teeth
Less laboratory time

276.
In cementing Maryland or Roche bridges, the effect is
generally to,
A. Lighten the colour of the teeth by the opacity of the cement
B. Darken the colour of the abutment by the presence of metal on
the lingual
C. Have no detrimental colour effect
D. Darken the abutment teeth by incisal metal coverage
277.
The minimal labial tooth reduction for satisfactory aesthetics
with porcelain fused to metal crown is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

1mm
The full thickness of enamel
1.5 mm
2.5mm
One third of the dentine thickness

278.
The gingival portion of natural tooth differs in colour from the
incisal portion because the :
A.
B.
C.
D.

Lighting angle is different

Gingival and incisal portions have different fluorescent qualities
Gingival area has a dentine background
Incident light is different

279.
In bridge work, which of the followings terms is NOT
CORRECT:
A. A retainer could be a crown to which a bridge is attached to
B. A connector connects a pontic to a retainer or two retainers to
each other
C. The saddle is the area of the edentulous ridge over which the
pontic will lie and comes in contact with pontic
D. A pontic is an artificial tooth as part of a bridge

280.
A crown casting with a chamfer margin fits the die; but in the
mouth the casting is open approximately 0.3mm. A satisfactory fit and
accurate physiological close of the gingival area of the crown can
BEST be achieved by:
A. Hand burnishing
B. Mechanical burnishing
C. Using finishing burs and points to remove the enamel margins on
the tooth
D. Making a new impression and remaking the crown
E. Relieving the inside of the occlusal surface of the casting to
allow for further seating
281.
When describing a removable partial denture, the minor
connector refers to:**
A. Rigid components anterior to the premolar teeth
B. Flexible components, in contrast to rigid major connectors
C. Smaller connectors which connect denture components to the
major connector
D. The components of the denture base which provides
reciprocation
282.
The means by which one part of a partial denture framework
opposes the action of the retainer in faction is:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

Tripoding
Reciprocation
Stress breaking
Indirect retention

283.
In removable partial denture, the principle of an indirect
retainer is that:
A. Stabilise against lateral movement
B. Prevent settling of major connectors
C. Restrict tissue movement at the distal extension base of the
partial denture
D. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
284.
Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture clasp
during its clinical use probably indicates that the:
A. Ductility was too low
B. Hardness was too great
C. Ultimate tensile strength was too low

D. Tension temperature was too high

E. Elastic limit was exceeded
285.
Which of the following is true regarding preparation of custom
tray for elastomeric impression:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Adhesive is preferred over perforation

Perforation provides adequate retention
Adhesive is applied immediately before procedure
Perforations are not made in the area over the prepared tooth

286.
When a removable partial denture is terminally seated ; the
retentive clasps tips should:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Apply retentive force into the body of the teeth

Exert no force
Be invisible
Resist torque through the long axis of the teeth

287.
Why do you construct a lower removable partial denture with
lingual bar:
A. It is used when the space between raised floor, mouth and
gingival margin is minimal
B. Plaque accumulation is less than lingual plate
C. Should be make thicker when short
288.

The Fovea Palatinae are:

A. Foramina covering the lesser palatine nerves and vessels
B. Morphologically related to the formation of the premaxilla
C. Located on either sides of the midline close to the junction of the
hard and soft palate
D. Closely related to the rugae of the palate

289.
Which of following restoration material its strength is not
effected by pins:
A. Amalgam
B. Composite resin
290.
Which one of following statement about Overdenture is not
correct:
A. Greater occlusal loads can be applied by the patient

B. Retention and stability are generally better than with

conventional complete denture
C. Alveolar bone resorption is reduced
D. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting
them from caries and periodontal diseases
291.
Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate
complete
denture therapy:
A.
B.
C.
D.
292.

Trauma to extraction site

Increased the potential of infection
Impossibility for anterior try in
Excessive resorption of residual ridge
Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in:

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Von Willebrands syndrome
293.

Which statement BEST prescribe plaque:

A. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can not be
rinsed off teeth
B. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can be
rinsed off teeth
C. It is a soft film composed mainly of none calcified bacteria and
can not be rinsed off the teeth
D. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can not be
rinsed off the teeth
E. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can be rinsed off
teeth.

294.
The gingivae of child is diagnosed on the basis of all of these
except of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
295.

Contour of gingival papilla

Sulcus depth
Contour of Nasmyth membrane
Tight filling of gingival collar
Which one of the following statement is correct,

A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel

cuticle
B. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum X

C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel

cuticle
D. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle
296.
In regards to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative
resin; the microfill resins tend to have,
A. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing
strength
B. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing
strength
C. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing
strength
D. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing
strength
297.
of,

Mercury is dangerous when it turns into vapour form because

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

298.

It is accumulative and cause liver poison

It is accumulative and cause kidney poison
It induces neoplasia in the liver
It is accumulative and cause brain poison
It induces neoplasia in the brain
The elastic limit may be defined as the **,

A. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without

failure
B. The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured
before failure
C. The minimum stress required to induce permanent deformation
of a structure
D. Minimum stress in structure
E. Maximum strain that can be measured.
299.
Rank the following impressions materials according to their
flexibility
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide Eugenol

Silicone> Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol
Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol>Silicone
Alginate> Silicone> Polysulfide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol
Alginate> Zinc Oxide Eugenol> Silicone> Polysulphide

300.
Denture resin are usually available as powder and liquid that
are mixed to form a plastic dough; the powder is referred to as,**
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Initiator
Polymer
Inhibitor
Monomer
Dimer

301.
Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone
dies used for crown fabrication,
A. They lack accurate reproduction of surface details
B. Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the original
impression
C. The strength of the stone
D. The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of
the dies.
302.

Glass Ionomer Cement sets because of,**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Acid-Base reaction
Addition polymerisation reaction
Growth of glass crystals
Slip plane locking
Solvent evaporation

303.
The articular surface of the normal temporomandibular joint
are lined with,
A.
B.
C.
D.

A specially adapted, highly fibrous tissue

Hyaline cartilage
Chondroitin-6-phosphate
Highly vesiculated tissues

304.
When all other removable partial denture consideration
remains unchanged; clasps constructed of which material can be
engage the deepest under cut:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Chrome cobalt casts

Nickel chrome casts
Wrought stainless steel
Wrought gold

305.
Which one of the following types of pain is most likely to be
associated with cranio mandibular disorders:

A.
B.
C.
D.
306.

Exacerbated pain by hot or cold food

Keeps patient awake at night
Associated with muscle tenderness
Associated with trigger spots related to the trigeminal nerve
The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:**

A. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap of

upper and lower incisors
B. Mechanical equivalent at the compensating curve
C. Same as condylar guidance
D. Estimated by the equation: Incisal guidance = 1/8 of condylar
guidance
307.
When immature permanent molars that have been treated with
Ledermix pulp capping, the most probable pathology is,
A. Chronic inflammation of the pulp
B. Necrosis of the pulp
308.
Child with rampant caries taking medicine with high quantity
of sugar; the best way to help preventing caries is,
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change sugar to sorbitol sweetener

Report the patient is having expectorant
Give him the syrup during sleep time
Give him inverted sugar

309.
How many ppm Part Per Million of fluoride are present in
water supply in case of temperate climate:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
310.

1 ppm
2 ppm
8 ppm
1.2 ppm
The difference between deciduous and permanent teeth are:

A. Deciduous teeth have a higher pulp horns and larger pulp

chambers
B. Deciduous teeth have flatter contact areas
C. Deciduous teeth have thinner enamel surface
D. All of the above
311.

The most resistant filling materials to fill class IV cavities are:

A.
B.
C.
D.
312.

Resins with silicone dioxide (SiO2)

Resins with glass or quartz
Silico-phosphate
Silicates
With dentin bonding agent, you apply:

A. First acid etching to dentine and then bonding agent

B. Bonding agent directly to dentine
C. Chelating agent (EDTA) and bonding agent
313.

What is the best way to apply aspiration before injection:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Short, sharp pressure backwards

Pressure for 2 to 3 seconds
Long pressure
Turning the needle 90 between two aspirations

314.
The method you will use to fill root canal of maxillary lateral
incisor is:
A. One major Gutta Percha cone
B. Laterally condensed
C. Laterally above condensed
315.

What controls the occlusion:**?? Check Boucher C.D.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

316.

Teeth
Receptors in periodontal membrane
Proprioceptors
Neuromuscular receptors
TMJ
All of the above
How would you extract 35?

A. Rotation
B. Lingually
C. Labially
317.
Why the method of extracting lower 8s by directing the
extraction lingually is used:**
A. Because of the roots direction
B. Thinner bone

C. Lingual deviation
318.
What the maximum dose of 2% lignocaine without
vasoconstrictors:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
319.

5 ml
10 ml
50 ml
100 ml
Where do Maryland bridges lose retention often:

A. Resin-metal
B. Resin enamel
C. Resin layer
320.

What is the function of gypsum-binder in the investment:**

A. Setting and hydroscopic
B. Strength and rigidity

321.
line:

Where is the retentive position on tooth according to the survey

A. Below the height of contour

B. Next to gingival margins
322.

In regards to distal free end saddle; what is TRUE:

A. Will require relining more often than a denture supported with
teeth

323.
What are the most common errors when constructing partial
denture:
A. Improper survey
B. Bad positioning of the occlusal rests
C. Incorrect design
324.

Which periodontal pockets are evident on periapical x rays:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Buccal pockets
Lingual pockets
Mesial pockets
Distal pockets
Sinuous

325.
What factor do you consider the most important when storing
the occlusal part of a tooth:
A. Occlusal anatomy
B. Function
326.

All dental plaque:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

327.

Produce acid
Produce caries
Produce chelation
Not necessarily produce acid
Treatment of gangrenous tooth:

A. Pulp capping
B. Root canal therapy
C. Pulpotomy
328.

Which material is not compatible with composite resin:

A.
B.
C.
D.

329.

Zinc Oxide and eugenol ZOE

Ca(OH)2
Carboxylate
Zinc phosphate cement
Tooth under occlusal trauma shows:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
330.

Bone resorption
Necrosis of the pulp
Hypercementosis
Triangulation
All of the above
Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Diazepam
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Ergotamine
Phenytoin

331.
Which Nerve is anesthetised in anterior border of ramus and 1
cm above occlusal plane of lower posterior teeth:
A. Lingual nerve

B. Long buccal nerve

332.
In an X ray; the mesio buccal root of upper first molars is
elongated which is the result of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
333.

Mesio angular horizontal

Too big vertical angulation
Too small vertical angulation
High angulation
Which of the following is false in regards to Cleft-Palate?

A. May be submucous
B. More common in males than females
C. Predispose to speech defects, orthodontics problem and hearing
loss
D. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the
general population.
334.
Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal
disease:**
A. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosis
B. A communicable disease
C. X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis
healing
D. Systemic diseases have no effects on it
E. ZoE paste will accelerate healing
335.

The major cause of jacket crown breakage is,

A.
B.
C.
D.

336.

Inclusion of platinum foil

Use of weak cementum
Voids of porcelain
Porcelain is thinner than 1mm
Pontic replaces upper first molars in a bridge should be:

A. Slightly compress soft tissues

B. Be clear of soft tissues
C. Just in contact with soft tissues
337.
Labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold core
porcelain jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch; the crown will
appears:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Short
Long
Narrow
Wide

338.
Which is NOT characteristics of canal filing materials
obturation material
A.
B.
C.
D.
339.

Tacky adhesive to walls

Radio opaque
Not irritating
Quick in setting
The best location of pin in class II inlay is,

A. Where is the biggest thickness

B. Mesial and distal angle
C. Contact area
340.

Class V composite resin restorations can be polished,

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

24 hours after application

Immediately after application
3 to 4 days
3 to 4 weeks
Not at all

341.
Caries which is close to the pulp chamber; on x rays you find
dent in dent; the right treatment is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
342.

Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgam

Pulpectomy
Pulpotomy
Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam
Dental plaque produces:

A. Chelation
B. Dental caries
C. Acids
343.

The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is:

A. Better marginal sealing
B. Less corrosion

C. Better tensile strength

D. Higher and immediate compressive strength
344.

The major disadvantage of self-threaded pin is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Friction locked
Too expensive
Not all sizes available
May cause tooth cracking

345.
In which class of cavities do composite restorations show most
durability:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

I
II
IV
III
V

346.
How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp with
amalgam:
A.
B.
C.
D.

1mm
1.5mm
2mm
2.5mm

347.
Upper premolar with MO cavity; what is important about the
application of the matrix band: the question has shown too as
.What is complicated by
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
348.

The mesial concavity of the root surface

Small lingual pulp
High buccal pulp horn
High lingual pulp horn
Concavity of distal root surface
Etching techniques are used always to:

A. minimise the leakage of restorations

B. for aesthetic considerations
349.

Sjogren syndrome is characterised by:

A. Dryness of the mouth
B. Dryness of the eyes

C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. All of the above
350.

Long term use of Tetracycline is characterised by:**

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Candida Albicans

351.
The most common characteristic symptom of malignant
tumours occurring in lower jaw is,
A. Pain
B. Bleeding
C. Paraesthesia
352.
Why Class IV gold can not be used in cavity as a filling
material:
A. Can not be polished burnished
B. The corrosive properties
353.

The type of gold that used for dental bridges is,

A. Hard 18%
B. Type IV 75%

354.
In regards to Partial dentures, how do you establish reliable
vertical dimension,
A. Wax if the remaining teeth occlude
355.

In regards to indirect compare to direct wax technique:**

A. Low temperature solidifying point
B. Hard in room temperature
C. Higher flow in room temperature

356.
If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture, the most
uncommon result is:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

Blister formation
Post operative pain
Secondary caries
Lower compressive strength

357.
as,

The effects of tooth removal in healthy individuals can show

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

358.

Loss of contacts
Slight tilting
Pocket formation
TMJ problem
All of the above
Which is not a Premalignant lesion:

A. Leukoplakia
B. Erythema migrans /Geographic tongue/
359.

Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars will anesthetise:

A. Lingual Nerve
B. Long buccal nerve

360.

Posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies:**

A. 8, 7 and 6 except the mesio buccal root of 6
B. 8, 7 and 6

361.
patient complains of itching and vesicalis on the upper labium
(Vermillion region) every year, your diagnosis would be:
A. Herpes simplex
B. Recurrent ulceration aphthae
C. Impetigo
362.

What is the typical feature of Lichen planus:**

A. Smooth rete pegs
B. Band of lymphocytes inflammation and hyper parakeratosis
C. Immunofluorescence of liquefied layer

363.

Denture stomatitis is treated with,

A. Amphotencin
B. Tetracycline lozenges
C. Mycostatin

364.

Pagets disease shows in the early stages in jaws:

A. Cotton wool

B. Ground glass
C. Orange peel
D. Beaten copped
365.
The most serious complications which may occur from abscess
of max canine is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cellulitis
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Lacrimal duct stenosis
Damage to infra orbital nerves

366.
Granulomas, cysts and chronic periapical abscesses may
mostly be differentiated by :
A.
B.
C.
D.
367.

Radiographs
Electric pulp test
Biopsy
Thermal
The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is:

A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure

B. Extra oral swelling
C. Intermittent pain
368.

Marsupialisation is a technique used in the treatment of:

A. Pericoronitis
B. Cysts
C. Abscesses

369.
by:

Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmed

A.
B.
C.
D.

Microscopic examination of smears

Biopsy
Blood count
Serological exam

370.
Which antibiotic administered in childhood may result in tooth
discolouration:
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Streptomycin

371.

Ameloblastoma occurs MOST frequently:

A. Near the angle of the mandible
B. In the maxilla
C. At the mandibular symphysis

372.
A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and a history
of steroid therapy, until a week ago, he presents for multiple
extractions. The dentist should consult the patients physician
because:
A. Patient is more susceptible to infection
B. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortex
C. Patient will need haematological evaluation
373.
A patient whose hands fell warm and moist is MOST likely to
be suffering from:**
A. Anxiety
B. Congestive cardiac failure
C. Thyrotoxicosis
374.
An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis
requires prophylactic administration of antibiotic prior to removal of
teeth. indicate the pre-operative regimen:**
A. Amoxicillin 2 gram an hour before operation orally
B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation
C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment
375.
A 12 year old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful
cervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39c, oral examination
shows numerous yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY
diagnosis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
376.
is:

Measles
Erythema multiform
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitis

A. Herpes simplex bacteria

B. Herpes simplex virus

C. Herpes zoster virus

D. Borrelia vincentii
377.
To reduce the side effects risk of local anaesthetic injections;
you should follow all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Aspirate before injection

Use the smallest effective volume
Use the weakest efficient percentage strength
Inject rapidly

378.
The most potent viricidal properties: another format of the
same answer: Indicate which of the following has viricidal properties
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Sodium hypochlorite
Chlorhexidine
Glutaraldehyde
Alcohol 70%
Quaternary ammonium

379.
Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection
arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following
EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Agranulocytosis
Sever uncontrolled diabetes
Aplastic anaemia
Mumps
Leukaemia

380.
At what rate is closed chest cardiac compression should be in
an adult:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

12 times a minute
24 times a minute
50 times a minute
80 times a minute

381.
Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is not used alone as a general
anaesthetic agent because of:**
A. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentration
B. Adverse affects on liver
C. Poor analgesics affects
382.

How can a periodontal pocket be recognised:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

X-Ray
Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe/
Periodontal marker
Bitewing radiograph
Sharp explorer
Study cast

383.
The final material you use for endodontically treated
deciduous molars is:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
384.

Amalgam
GIC
Composite resin
Wrought base metal crown
Which type of cells does an abscess contain:

A.
B.
C.
D.
385.

Mast cells
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Eosinophils
Epithelial cells
The presence of sulphur granules is diagnostic of:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
386.

Actinomycosis
Candidosis
Viral infection
Keratocyte
Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to:**

A. Avoid Osteomyelitis
B. Control pain
387.

Which is the LEAST likely to cause Xerostomia:

A.
B.
C.
D.

388.

Sjogrens syndrome
Emotional reaction
Antidepressants drugs
Submandibular sialolith
Intact vesicles are MOST likely to be seen in:**

A. Herpes simplex infection

B. Oral lichenoid reaction

C. Aphthous ulceration
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
E. Cicatricial pemphigoid
389.

Painful salivary gland are MOST likely to be indicate to:**

A. Mucocele
B. Mumps
C. Sjogrens syndrome

390.
A patient with an acetone odour would be suspected suffering
from:
A. Heart disease
B. Liver damage
C. Diabetes
391.

Chronic inflammatory periodontal disease originates in:

A. The marginal gingiva
B. The crystal alveolar bone
C. Cervical cementum

392.
Which is the most important local factor in the aetiology of
periodontal disease:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Occlusal trauma
Calculus
Brushing habits
Coarse food

393.
Which of the following does state BEST the morphology of
periodontal ligament fibres:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Elastic
Striated
Non striated
Levity
Wavy

394.
Which of the following is LEAST to cause toxicity from local
anaesthetic injection:
A. Injecting in supine position
B. Injecting in vascular area
C. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor

D. Intravenous injections
395.
If a childs teeth do not form; this would MOSTLY affects the
growth of:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

Alveolar bone
Whole face
Mandible
Maxilla

396.
MOST common consequence arising from premature
extraction of deciduous molar is:
A. Loss of arch length
B. Loss of speech sound
C. Loss of facial contour
397.
After the age of 6 years, the greatest increase in the size of the
mandible occurs:
A. At the symphysis
B. Between canines
C. Distal to the first molar
398.

Which is present in Angels Class II division 2 malocclusion:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Open bite
Retrusion of maxillary central incisors
Reduced Overjet
Increased overbite

399.
When injecting without vasoconstrictor, the maximum safe
dose of 2% lignocaine solution for 70Kg adult is:
A. 2.2ml
B. 22ml
400.
Several application has been suggested to increase the
effectiveness of prophylactic application of topical fluoride which
include all EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Increase Fluoride ions in solution increase concentration

Increase PH of fluoride
Increase exposure time to topical fluoride
Pre-treat enamel with 0.5% phosphoric acid
Use NH4F instead of NaF

401.

Which of the following ahs the highest sucrose content:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Ice cream
Canned juice
Cough syrups
Breakfast cereal
Sweet potato

402.
The amount of fluoride required to reduce caries according to
age and level of fluoride in drinking water. Which of the following
figures is incorrect**
A. 1 year old child requires no fluoride when the fluoride in
drinking water is 0.3PPM
B. 3 years old child requires no fluoride when the fluoride in
drinking water is 0.7PPM
C. 6 years old child requires 1mg of fluoride when drinking water
containing 0.5mg
403.
The major etiological factor responsible for Class II division 2
malocclusion in Angels classification is:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Thumb sucking
Growth discrepancy
Tongue thrust habit
Tooth to jaw size discrepancy
Skeletal cause (discrepancy)

404.
Ankylotic primary second molar in the mandible is not always
a good space maintainer because of:
A. Mesial inclination of the 1st permanent molar
B. It does not keep up with the rest of occlusion
405.
Preschool child has an intruded upper incisor; what would
your treatment be**
A.
B.
C.
D.

X-ray
Put it back in place and splint
Control bleeding and check after a month
Make the patient comfortable without disturbing the tooth.

406.
An upper deciduous molar has a caries exposure and on X ray
the corresponding 2nd permanent premolar is absent. What treatment
would you do to the deciduous tooth:

A. Pulpotomy
B. Endodontic treatment
C. Pulp capping
407.
Where is the MOST probable place of bone resorption after a
deciduous molar has a pulpal gangrene:
A. Interradicular septum
B. The periapical area
408.
How many pulp horns are presented in a typical mandibular
deciduous second molar:
A.
B.
C.
D.
409.

2
3
4
5
All of the following are keratinised EXCEPT of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
410.

Crevicular epithelium
Palatal epithelium
Alveolar mucosa
Free gingiva
Attached gingiva
The MOST cause of gingiva; irritation is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
411.

Calculus
Plaque
Caries
Restorative material
How can you improve the adhesion of a fissure sealant:

A. Acid etching technique

412.
The advantage of using dental floss over rubber point
interdentally:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Remove plaque and debris in interproximal surfaces

Polish
Massage of the interdental papillae
Aid and recognise subgingivally

413.
After prophylactic treatment, you decide to change the flora to
a non-acidogenic by changing the diet. How long does it take to
achieve this change:
A. Few weeks
B. Several months or longer
414.

Which one of the following is a non-calorie sweetener:

A. Mannitol
B. Saccharin
C. Xylitol

415.
6 year old child who had a history of primary herpes simplex
has got a recurrent infection. What is the likely cause:
A. Herpes labialis
416.
A newly placed restoration interferes with occlusion. What will
be the periodontal response:
A. Thickening of the periodontal membrane
417.
In class II restoration, all of the following considered to occur
as probable causes of periodontal problems except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
418.

Angular type of bone resorption can be seen more often in:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

419.

Flat ridge
Faulty or not proper contour
Not properly polished restoration
Cervical wall is too deeply apical
Overextension of lining in cavity

Occlusal traumatism
Food particles retention
Periodontosis
All of the above
What is the most important function of periodontal ligament:

A. Keep teeth in the socket

B. Protect alveolar bone
C. Provide nutrition
420.

The periodontal ligament in a teeth without use appear to be:

A. Narrow
B. Wide
421.
Which radiographic method would you use in assessing
periodontal conditions and lesions:
A.
B.
C.
D.
422.

Bitewing
Periapical
Occlusal
Panoramic
What does CPITN stand for:

A. Community Periodontal Index of Treatment needs

423.

Vertical incision of mucoperiosteal flap should be:

A. Always extending to the alveolar mucoperiosteal
B. Bisect the middle of gingival papillae
C. Must be at the right angle of the tooth

424.
Apical migration of the epithelial attachment followed by
atrophy of marginal gingiva at the same level results in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
425.

Calculus attaches to teeth surface by:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

426.

False periodontal pocket

Periodontal pocket recession
Gingival cleft
True pocket

Acquired pellicle
Interlocking to the crystals of the tooth
Penetrated into enamel and dentine
Mechanical interlocking
All of the above
The width of normal periodontal ligament space is:

A. 0.25 to 0.5mm
B. 1mm
427.

The incision angle in Gingivectomy is:

A. 45 to the tooth in an apical direction

428.

The MOST common place for initiation of gingivitis is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Interdental papillae
The free gingival ridge
The attached gingiva
The marginal gingiva

429.
Which is the MOST local factor in the aetiology of periodontal
disease:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Occlusal trauma
Calculus
Brushing habits
Coarse food

430.
Incisive foramen when are superimposed over apex of root on
radiograph may be mistaken to be:
A. Cyst
B. Cementoma
C. Odontoma
431.
Which of the following factors can affect the shape and size of
the pulp canal:
A.
B.
C.
D.
432.

Chemical irritation and caries

Trauma and function
Attrition, wear and aging of the patient
All of the above
Following a periodontal surgery; periodontal dressing will:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Help in tissue adoption

Decrease the patients discomfort
Enhance the rate of healing
Control bleeding and maintain blood clot

433.
What is the MOST important role of saliva in preventing dental
caries:
A. Buffering action
434.
A patient comes with a lactobacillus of more than 100000. what
is your advice:

A. Reduce sugar in diet

435.

The MOST cariogenic sugar is:

A. Sucrose

436.

How to detect the furcation involvement:

A. Radiolucent area radiographically
B. Probe in mesial distal and mid facial areas of suspected tooth

437.

What is TRUE about topical fluoride:**

A. It cooperates into plaque and resits acid demineralisation
B. Fluoride prophylaxis paste has been clinically proven to be more
effective preventing caries

438.

Which of the following is correct about Nitrous Oxide N2O:

A. N2O has high analgesic property and low anastatic at its
minimum anaesthetic dose. Low MAC; Max Anaesthetic
Concentration
B. Absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
C. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia
D. It is good aesthetic and low MAC

439.

Which is CORRECT about the Lingual Nerve:

A. Lingual nerve is anterior and medial to inferior alveolar nerve

440.
Which local anaesthetic agent is preferred for a confirmed
hypersensitive patient:
A. 3% prilocaine with felypressin
B. Mepivacaine 3% without vasoconstrictor **
441.
of:

The MOST common side effects of local anaesthetic is a result

A. Intravascular injection
B. Hypersensitivity

442.

Which is TRUE about disinfectant solution:**

A. It destroys all pathogenic micro organism including high
resistant

B. It reduces the number of micro organism to a non infective level

C. It kills all pathogens but not spores.
443.
What to do with instruments after surgically treating a patient
with confirmed diagnosis of hepatitis B,**
A.
B.
C.
D.

Soak them in hypochlorite solution Milton

Sterilize, scrub and sterilize
Handle them with two pairs of household rubber gloves
Scrub them with iodine surgical solution

444.
What is the mode of action of autoclaving Moist
sterilisation:
A. Moist heat sterilization
B. Protein denaturation
445.
All of the following are requirements of an adequate mucosal
periosteal flap except:**
A. Base is wider than the free margin
B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum
C. Base containing blood supply
446.
The first thing to do after surgical removal of impacted 3rd
molar in the mandible is:**
A. Cold application from the outside
447.
A primary molar with relatively un-resorbed roots
encompassing the permanent tooth bud. What extraction technique
would you use to avoid the inadvertent removal of a developing
bicuspid
A. Section the tooth vertically and remove each root separately
448.
A young female patient presents with throbbing pain in the left
lower posterior jaw with trismus and associated lymphadenopathy.
What would be your diagnosis?
A. Tumour
B. Pericoronitis
449.
Patient presents to you with a history of local pain in the lower
right posterior region. Insisting that you extract his lower teeth. The
teeth in question are vital without any pathology. You diagnosis is:

A. Odontalgia
B. Referred pain
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
450.
Which of the following are not supplied by the mandibular
division of trigeminal:**
A. Anterior part of digastric
B. Masseter muscle
C. Buccinator
451.
30 years old male complains of painless swelling in the buccal
mucosa. It has been present for about six months. He admits playing
with it. He is concerned because this might represent cancer. The
base is narrow; the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Irritation fibroma
452.
A patient is complaining of an open sore on the buccal mucosa.
The lesion is painless, ulcerated, has indurated margins, 1.5 cm in
diameter, covered by greyish-white exudate, enlarged lymph nodes and
tender, negative tuberculin test and positive serology. The diagnosis
is:**
A. Chancre /Primary lesion of syphilis/
453.
An old male presents complaining of having numerous white
lesions in the oral cavity within past few days. Prior to this the family
physician prescribed chlorite tetracycline for an upper respiratory
infection, the patient is taking this antibiotic for the past two weeks;
lesions are relatively non-painful, slightly elevated, adhere plaques on
the lip mucosa, buccal mucosa and the tongue. MOST LIKELY to be:
A. Moniliasis /Which is candidiasis/
454.

Characteristic of Squamous Cell Carcinoma:**

A. White skinned people
B. Alcoholic and smokers
C. It reacts far simply to radiotherapy

455.
How can differentiate between a benign epithelial tumour from
a carcinomatous one:

A. Soft papillomatous mass, not indurated or not fixed /Move

freely/ and pedunculated.
456.
What is the characteristic feature of gingivitis in AIDS
patient:**

457.

A. Red band on the free gingiva associated with platelet.

B. Correlating with other pathogenesis lesions of AIDS and does not
resolve to periodontal conventional treatment.
C. Sever pain
The characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

458.

Blood metastasis
Does not erode bone
Intensive involvement / inveterately characteristic/
Radio resistant
What is the significance of erosive lichen planus:**

A. High malignant potential

B. Some malignant potential
459.
Where does the bone resorption show in a necrosis pulp of
deciduous molar:
A.
B.
C.
D.
460.

At the root apex

At the bifurcation
On the buccal side of the tooth
On the lingual side of the tooth
To extract upper deciduous molar, the movement should be:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Buccal first to move tooth

Palatal first to move tooth
Distal first to move tooth
Rotation movement
Fraction of the tooth

461.
8 years old child, on examination you find 75 with carious
exposure. On X-ray you find 35 missing. Your treatment is:
A. Extraction of 75 allowing 36 to move mesially
B. Pulpotomy on 75 and wait indefinitely
C. Extraction of 75 and place a fixed space retainer to be replaced
with fixed bridge.
D. Extraction of 65 and 75

462.

Which of the following is true:

A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis
B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal
gingivae
C. Periodontitis is the primary cause of teeth lost after the age of 35.
D. All periodontal pockets can be identified by x-ray
E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

463.

Longest lasting resin restorations are,

A.
B.
C.
D.

464.

Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
Pin Restoration with which material has the best retention:

A.
B.
C.
D.
465.

Amalgam
Gold inlay
Composite
Glass Ionomer
Acute apical abscess-emergency treatment:

A. Open and drain for two days

B. Antibiotic and analgesic
C. Clean and Ledermix
466.

TMJ dysfunction common symptom is,

A. Clicking
B. Locking
C. Pain in the muscles of mastication

467.

Gagging reflex is caused by:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Trigeminal nerve
Glossopharyngeal
Facial nerve
Recurrent laryngeal

468.
Which impression material should NOT be kept in water within
on hour: in another paper was: 30 mins before pouring

A. Polyether
B. Condensation silicone
C. Polyvinyl silicone
469.
High copper amalgam lasts longer than low copper amalgam
because of:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
470.

Increased compressive strength

Increased corrosion resistance
High creep
Increased tensile strength
Decreased setting expansion
Porosity in acrylic dentures is caused by,

A. Contraction porosity in thickest point of the denture

B. Insufficient pressure during flasking causes it
471.

The shortest facial height is when:

A. Teeth are overlapped
B. There is maximum cuspal interdigitation

472.

What is TRUE about vertical dimension:

A. Does not change for the whole life
B. Decreases when head is tilted back
C. Increases when a lower denture is placed in mouth

473.

The sterilisation of Gutta Percha is achieved by:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

474.

Heat
Chemical sterilisation
Flame
Boiling
Autoclave
Why would you cast gold in hot mould:**

A. To compensate for the expansion of investment.

475.
use:

If temporary cementation is required, which cement will you

A. ZOE
B. Zinc Polycarboxylate

C. GIC
476.

In the construction of an RPD, guiding planes are created by,

A. Perpendicular to the occlusal plane
B. Parallel side towards the path of placement.

477.

When should pour polyether impression materials:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Within 24 hours after taking impression

Within 30 minutes after taking impression
Should be stored dry and then poured
Should be stored in humid place

478.
Which of the following is a frequent cause of opaqueness in a
porcelain jacket crown:
A. Porcelain layer is too thin over the opaque layer.
B. Porcelain layer is too thick
479.

Which cement is less soluble in the oral cavity:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Polycarboxylate
Zinc phosphate
Silicate phosphate
GIC

480.
A patient with reasonable oral hygiene has a small proximal
caries on the premolar. The patient requests an aesthetic filling. Your
preparation will be:
A. Same as amalgam with cavo-surface bevels
B. Proximal caries removal with occlusal & gingival bevels
481.

A gingivally extended chrome cobalt cast clasp:

A. Can extend 0.5 under the surveyor line
B. Can extend 0.25 under the surveyor line
C. Will resist deforming forces better compared to cast gold

482.

The first molars are extracted in both arches:

A.
B.
C.
D.

The bone resorption will be the same for both arches

Resorption is more on the palatal side of maxillary molars
Resorption is more on lingual side of mandibular molars
The ridge height resorbs more in maxilla than mandible

483.
The use of nickel chromium in base plate should be judiciously
considered because:
A. A significant number of females are allergic to nickel
B. A significant number of female are allergic to chromium
C. A significant number of males are allergic to nickel
484.
A seven year old boy fell of his bicycle 2 weeks ago and broke
his maxillary central incisor. The pulp horn is visible as a pin point.
The tooth is vital. Your treatment will be:
A. Pulpectomy
B. Place calcium hydroxide and fill with composite resin
C. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
485.
During mouth preparation for RPD on tooth adjacent to
edentulous area. There is dentine exposure:
A. Restoration is required
B. Proceed with rest seat preparation and fabrication if involved
area is not more than 2mm
486.
After making an impression to reline an RPD the dentist notes
that the indirect retainers are not resting on the tooth. To avoid this
what process should have undertaken initially:
A. Ask patient to bite firmly while impression is setting
B. Hold the metal base frame against the abutment tooth while
setting
C. Fabricate new denture
D. Add impression material and close the gap
487.
Which is the only dental tissue that lose its formative cells as it
matures:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Enamel
Dentine
Pulp
Cementum

488.
The muscle responsible for maintaining the bolus of food while
chewing is:
A. Buccinator
B. Orbicularis oris

489.

Which muscle contracts during the tongue protrudes:

A. Mylohyoid
B. Genioglossus
C. Digastric

490.
Which of the following is the most significant factor regarding
filler in composite for increased strength:
A. Particle size 1-3 micron
B. Sub micron sized particles
C. High concentration of the filler particles
491.
A patient has a small incisal fracture of the maxillary incisor.
Which is the best material to resist fracture at the acid etched tooth
composite interface:
A.
B.
C.
D.
492.
to:

Micro-filled composite
Hybrid composite
GIC
Silicate
The principal factor involved in oral Para-function is related

A. Periods of stress
B. Occlusal pre-maturities during mandibular closure
493.

During manual palpation, the mucosa is thin in:

I. Midline of the palate
II. Mylohyoid region
III. Over torus palatinus
A.
B.
C.
D.

494.
on:

I, II and III
None of the above
I and II
II and III
The path of condyle during mandibular movements depends

A. Articular eminence, meniscus/capsule of TMJ and muscle

attachments

495.
While doing RCT you gave dressing with a paper point wetted
with..??...solution. The patient arrives the next day with severe pain.
There is no swelling but the tooth is tender to percussion. You will:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

Replace with similar dressing and prescribe antibiotic

Replace with corticosteroid past
Retrieve paper point surgically
Remove the dressing and leave for several days before replacing
it.
E. Provide incision and drainage
496.
The area of the posterior palatal seal includes which of the
following:
A. [left][right]
B. Hamular notch
497.

The best method of cleaning and toilet cavity:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Alcohol
Citric acid
Water
Organic acid

498.
Herpetic infection is an iatrogenic infection spreads by the
infected:
A. Serum
B. Vesicle
C. Vesicle fluid and saliva
499.
by:

Periapical abscess is differentiated from periodontal abscess

A. Pulpal radiology
B. History and vitality test
C. X-ray and history

500.
of:

You may suspect poor reaction to bleeding if there is a history

A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Hypertension

501.

Maxillary central incisor located palatally causes :

A. Prolong stay of primary central incisor

B. Supernumerary teeth
502.

Toxicity of anaesthetic is assessed by:

A. Dose which is given
B. Percentage of solution
C. Vasoconstrictions amount

503.
Children born with cleft palate, microdontia and glossoptosis
have:
A. Christian disease
B. Trenches-Collins Syndrome
C. Pierre-Robin Syndrome
504.
Which of the following penicillin are readily destructed by
stomach acid:
A.
B.
C.
D.
505.

Methicillin
Cloxacillin
Phenoxy methyl
Penicillin G
What is not correct about Long Buccal Nerve:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
506.

Passes through two heads of pterygoids muscles

Supplies mucosa over lower and upper molars
Supplies the buccinator muscle
Supplies skin over buccinator
N2O excretes through:

A. Urine
B. Lungs
507.

Radiopaque lesions are seen in:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Multiple myeloma
Pagets disease
Hyperparathyroidism
Chronic renal failure

508.
The causative organism in localised juvenile periodontitis is
Actinomyces actinomycete comitans which is:**

A. Gram positive facultative aerobic

B. Gram positive facultative anaerobic non-motile rod
C. Gram negative facultative anaerobic non-motile
509.
Which of the following is NOT significant factor in
determining virulence of a.a.??** //I think a.a. stands for Anaerobic
Bacteria/
A.
B.
C.
D.
510.

Density of film is decreased by increasing the :

A.
B.
C.
D.

511.

It effects chemotaxis
Produces leukous toxins
Destroys collagen
It is immuno-suppressive

MA
Exposure time
Developing time
Rinsing time
The best space maintainer is:

A. Lingual holding arch

B. Pulpectomised primary tooth
C. Band and loop maintainer
512.

The laboratory findings in Pagets disease show:

A. Elevated calcium, elevated phosphate, and elevated alkaline
phosphate.
B. Normal calcium, normal phosphate and elevated alkaline
phosphate
C. Decreased calcium, increased phosphate and elevated alkaline
phosphate
D. Increased calcium, normal phosphate and decreased alkaline
phosphate
E. Normal calcium, increased phosphate and elevated alkaline
phosphate

513.

While giving CPR which of the following is considered:

A. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per
minute
B. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations per
minute

C. You have to check compression point by thumping before

starting compression
D. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial
pulse.
514.
A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in
breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is:
A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright
position
B. Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve
in ECG
C. No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG
D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG
515.
On inspection of lateral boarder of the tongue at the base,
which structure would you expect to find:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Filiform papillae
Fungiform papillae
Taste buds
Lymph nodes
Circumvallate papillae

516.
Delayed eruptions of at least part of the dentition is a
recognised feature in:**
A. Dentino-Genesis imperfecta
B. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
C. Rickets
517.
Which of the following is a radiographic feature of dentinogenesis imperfecta:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Small pulp chambers and root canals, normal enamel

Enamel is missing but dentine formation is normal
Enamel and dentine show disturbances
Pulp is normal but dentine is abnormal

518.
A 10 year old boy presents with non-vital, non-mobile tooth.
Treatment is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pulpectomy with calcium hydroxide

Pulpectomy with Zinc oxide eugenol
Pulpotomy with formocresol
No treatment is required if tooth is asymptomatic

519.
A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without
resulting in fracture. The pulp:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Immediate necrosis
Becomes non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long
Becomes non vital irrespective of treatment
No changes is seen later if fracture does not occur

520.
In the case f malignant melanoma occurring intra orally,
which of the following is true:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally

Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis
The 5 years survival rate is 20%
The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin
Commonly occurs intra orally

521.
Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be
performed. Which of the following is NOT true:**
A. Post operative bleeding can be reduced somehow by using
tranexemic acid
B. Prothrombin values of at least 2.5 is required to perform
extraction
C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take affects
D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous
522.

Community water fluoridation MOST effectively achieves is:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

523.

90-95% reduction of caries

45-55% reduction of caries
Reduces pit and fissures caries more than smooth surfaces
Reduces smooth surfaces more than pit and fissures
Patient presents with caries in many teeth. you will advise that:

A. Fluoride toothpaste does not effectively prevent caries and

topical fluoride is required.
524.
What is the primary consideration in providing
nutrition/dietary counselling to a patient:
A. Secure details of patients eating habits
B. Have the patient to fill in a diet survey
C. Eliminate sugar from diet

525.
Which of the following is true in regards to periapical
cementoma:
A. Teeth are vital.
B. Teeth are not vital
526.

Which of the following is not a side effects of lignocaine:

A. Angioneurotic oedema
B. Nervousness

527.
A physician refers a nine year old boy to you to confirm
diagnosis. The boy has a fever of 40C and coughing. When you focus
your light into his eyes he turns away. Intra-orally there are white
spots surrounded by red margins. The disease and lesions are:
A. Measles and Kopliks spots
B. AHGS vesicles
528.
In periodontal scalers and curettes; the blade is formed by
which two surfaces:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Two lateral surfaces

Lateral surface and face
Lateral surface, face and shank
Lateral surface, face, back and shank

529.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE in regards to lateral
periodontal cyst**
A.
B.
C.
D.

It is more common in anterior region

It occurs more in maxilla than mandible
Probable origin is from dentigerous cyst which develops laterally
Encountered in the cuspid-premolar region of the mandible,
derived from the remnants of the dental lamina

530.
Middles aged woman gives a history of intermittent unilateral
pain in the sub mandibular region, most probable cause is,
A.
B.
C.
D.
531.

Calculus in the salivary duct resulting in sialolithiasis.

Ranula
Cyst
Mucocele
What is TRUE in regards to branchial cyst:

A. Situated on the anterior boarder of sternocleidomastoid muscle

532.

Damage/injury to which nerve causes dilation of pupils:

A. Oculomotor
B. Ansa cervicalis
C. Abducens

533.
After an inferior alveolar nerve block; the patient develops
paralysis of eyelid, upper lip and lower lip on that side. This means
that the L.A was deposited in:
A. The parotid gland
534.

Aspirin reduces pain by which of the following mechanism:

A. It is anti inflammatory by the release of histamine
B. It blocks the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.

535.
Patient with haemophilia presents which of the following
findings:**
A. Increased prothrombin time
B. Increased bleeding time
C. Increased clotting time
536.
The pulpal floor of the Class II cavity for a mandibular first
premolar should be:**
A. Parallel to occlusal plane
B. Perpendicular to long axis
C. Tilted lingually
537.
Marginal leakage at the proximal gingival cavosurface of a
recently restored class II can be caused by:
I. Insufficient condensation
II. First proximal increment was too large
III. Neglecting to wedge the matrix
IV. Hand manipulation instead of mechanical
V. Debris contamination
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, V

D. None of the above

E. All of the above
538.
What are the dangers of using air as a cooler during cavity
cutting:
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Odontoblast is drawn into the tubule
539.

In RCT the ideal root filling:

A. Ends at the apex
B. Extends beyond apex to achieve a good seal
C. Ends at the dentino-cemental junction

540.

Where is the narrowest part of the pulp:

A. At the radiographic apex
B. At the dentino-enamel junction
C. At the orifices

541.
Which of the following is MOST useful in differentiating
between apical abscess and periodontal:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Percussion
Vitality tests
Cold tests
Heat tests

542.
What is the ideal length for a post in post-core in an
endodontically treated tooth:
A.
B.
C.
D.
543.

2/3 of the tooth length

of the tooth length
1.5 times that of the crown
Same as the anticipated crown
Which is correct in regards to shade selection of crowns:

A.
B.
C.
D.

It should be selected before starting preparation

Chroma is the lightness/darkness of colours
Value is the colour itself
Hue is the concentration of colours

544.
How many mg of fluoride ions are obtained from 2.2 mg tablet
of NaF

A.
B.
C.
D.
545.

0.5mg
1 mg
1.5mg
10mg
Strain is defined as :**

A. An external force
B. An internal force to oppose external load
C. Deformity opposed the applied load
546.

Size of pulp chamber within the tooth is influenced by:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Age
Parafunctional
History of the tooth /abrasion, erosion, caries/
All of the above

547.
Self polymerising acrylic resins differs from heat cured resins
because they exhibit:
A. Higher molecules weight
B. Higher content of residual monomers
548.

The advantage of firing porcelain in vacuum:**

A. Reduces size of air-bubbles incorporated thus decreasing
porosity
B. Removes water before firing, increasing the hardness of
porcelain
C. Significantly lowers firing temperature

549.

The contraction (Gaseous) porosity in inlays is related to:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

Overheating of the alloy

Molten gases
Diameter of the sprue
Overheating of investment

550.
Where would you expect to find the Mylohyoid on relation to
periphery of complete denture:
A. Mandibular buccal in the midline
B. Mandibular lingual in the midline
C. Mandibular disto buccal area

551.

Class V lesion may originate:

A. In lingual pits
B. In buccal fissures
C. Poor oral hygiene

552.
Retention for occlusal amalgam cavity in premolars is BEST
provided by
A. Slightly undercutting of walls with inversed cone bur
B. Mesial and distal undercuts
C. Buccal and lingual undercuts
553.

What is true in regards to lateral mandibular incisor

A.
B.
C.
D.

554.
to:

20% have 2 canals with one foramen

20% have 2 canals with two foramina
40% have two canals with 10% ending in two foramina
40% have two canals with only one ending in two foramina
Splinting the adjacent teeth in fixed bridge is primarily done

A. Distribute the occlusal load

B. Achieve better retention
555.
Porcelain must not be contaminated by handling between
which two stages:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Pre-soldering and heat treatment

Heat treatment and opaque /bake/ stages
Opaque and bisque stages
Bisque and glazing stages
First opaque bake and second opaque bake

556.
What is the relationship of the retentive portion of the partial
dentures retainers to the survey line of abutment:
A. Gingival /Below/
B. Occlusal /Above/
C. No relation
557.
Which of the following liquids is not suitable for prolonged
immersion of cobalt chrome partial dentures:

A.
B.
C.
D.
558.

Alkaline peroxidase
Hypochlorite solutions
Soap solutions
Water
Dentures hyperplasia is generally attributed to:

A. Poor oral hygiene

B. Denture movement
559.

In complete dentures, cheek biting is most likely a result of:

A. Reduced Overjet of posterior
B. Increased vertical dimension
C. Teeth have large cusp inclines

560.

Resting face height in edentulous patients:

A. Decreases when head is tilted back
B. Increases when lower denture is inserted
C. Does not change over time

561.

Ala-Tragal line is:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

The line running from the tragus of the nose to ala of the ear
A guide used to orient the occlusal plane
Parallel to Frankfurt horizontal plane
A guide to the occluding face height in complete denture.

562.
Decision to employ cusped or without cusps teeth is influenced
by:**
A. Reverse Overjet
B. TMJ problems
C. Cranio mandibular skeletal relationship
563.

The first forming microbial elements of plaque are:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

564.

Aerobic gram positive G+

Aerobic gram negative GAnaerobic gram negative GSpirochetes
Anaerobic gram positive G+
Extracellular polysaccharides in plaque are formed by:

A. Bacteria from sucrose

B. Precipitated from carbohydrate
C. Precipitated from glycoproteins
565.
What is important requisite for fillers in dental composite
restorative resins in load bearing area:
A. Sub micro sized particles
B. High coefficient of thermal expansion
C. High in content (High filler)
566.
Sensitivity to hot and cold foods soon after cavity preparation
and placement of GIC and composite resin in an upper incisor tooth is
due to:
A. Mechanical trauma due to cavity preparation
B. Chemical
C. Heat from GIC settings
567.
After completing pulp extirpation, debridement and placing a
dressing; apical periodontitis is because:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Over instrumentation extending into periapical area

Irritation from chemicals used
Entrapped bacteria
One or any combination of the above

568.
It is desirable to major connectors of upper partial dentures
to:**
A. At least 5 mm away from the gingival margin
B. Cover the anterior palate
569.

Which of the following statements is true:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Last secretion of odontoblast forms cementum

Last secretion of odontoblast forms acquired enamel cuticle
Remnants of ameloblasts form primary enamel cuticle
Remnants of odontoblasts form primary enamel cuticle

570.
When you tries to seat a crown on tooth you find a discrepancy
of 0.3mm at the margin; you will:
A. Reduce inner surface of crown
B. Remake a new crown
C. Smooth the enamel at the margin

D. Hand burnish crown margins

571.

In regards to Chlorhexidine mouth wash:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

572.

Is anionic
Used in 0.02% concentration
Used in 0.12 concentration
Penetrates the gingival crevice/pocket
Glycerine trinitrate given to an angina patient acts by:

A. Gives relief of pain by decreasing venous return

B. Decreases blood pressure and causes headache
573.
Which of the following is NOT complication of radiation to
head and neck area:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Xerostomia
Mucositis
Increased caries
Heightened taste sensation
Increased risk of osteomyelitis

574.
A female patient is diagnosed with Addisons disease which of
the following does not confirm this:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Weakness, lassitude
Anorexia, nauseas, fatigue
Hypotension
Bony expansion
Amenorrhea

575.
Which of the following conditions is not associated with
periodontal destruction in primary teeth:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
576.

Downs syndrome
Steven Johnsons syndrome
Hypophosphatasia
Papillon-Lefebvre syndrome
Cyclic neutropenia
In patient with exposed root surfaces:

A. Ask to use low abrasive dentifrices

B. It is because of dental hypersensitivity

577.
Which of the following is the best index to evaluate gingival
health:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Gingival index by Loe and Silness

Periodontal index
Periodontal disease index
OHI-S

578.
In surveying; calibration of examiners data is important
because:
A. It reduces the errors in gathered data.
579.
Patient is resistant to caries but has periodontal disease. In this
case, sucrose in diet is important because:
A. Sucrose is greatly involved in plaque development
B. S. mutans produces Levans frictions which are used by
periodontal pathogens
C. The streptococcus mutans cannot survive with a continual supply
of sucrose
D. Existing plaque must continue to get sucrose in order to grow
580.
Cariogenicity of Streptococcus mutans is because of the
production of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
581.

A child consumes a toxic dose of fluoride. You will:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

582.

Glucans
Levans
Fructans
Sucrose

Induce vomiting
Gives a lot of fluids
Gives a lot of fluids and sodium bicarbonates
Ask patient not to eat for 45 minutes
Gives milk, calcium tablets or magnesium tablets
Collimation is done to:

A. Reduces the size of the beam, so it is easy to visualise the central

X ray.
B. Avoids unnecessary exposure to radiation of surrounding tissues
of the patient

583.

In X rays filtration is used to:**

A. Remove low energy X rays
B. Reduce exposure time
C. Reduce size of the beam

584.
In calculus formatio, the epitaxic concept is one of the
theories. Which of the following is true:
A. Mineralisation occurs when calcium and phosphate content is
high
B. The presence of matrix would start initiate formation of nucleus
C. The amorphous materials would convert to calcium phosphate
and hydroxy phosphate
585.

Gemination is:**
A. Division of single tooth, twining
B. Fusion of two or more crowns of teeth
C. Fusion of two or more roots

586.
In primary teeth, failure of Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy is MOST
likely to produce:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
587.

External resorption
Internal resorption
Necrosis of the pulp
Ankylosis
A raised dot on X ray film is present to:

A. Orient exposure side

B. Differentiate between left and right side
C. Dip during developing
588.

What does the fixes solution in developing X rays do:

A. Removes unexposed silver halide crystals
B. Removes exposed silver halide
C. Fixes the developed film

589.
When the developing solution is correctly mixed and x ray film
is being developed for normal time; but the solution is too warm, the
outcome film will be:
A. Too light

B. Too dark
C. Fogged
590.

Kaposis sarcoma:
A. Seen on buccal mucosa in HIV as purple lesion
B. Seen on palate of most HIV patient
C. Should be biopsy

591.

What is characteristic feature seen in pyloric stenosis:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

592.

Erosion of maxillary central incisors

Vomiting of undigested food
Loss of appetite
Weakness
At birth, the oral cavity usually contains:

A.
B.
C.
D.

S. mutans only
No micro organism
S. mutans and S. salivavis
Lactobacilli and S. mutans

593.
The papillae that are few in numbers, associated with MOST
taste buds, associated with Von Ebners glands are:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

Fungiform
Circumvallate
Foliate
Filiform

594.
In class II preparation it is difficult to place the gingival seat
when preparation is extended too gingivally because the:
A. Enamel rods are directed occlusally
B. Marked cervical constriction
595.

In maxillo fracture, if intra cranial pressure increases:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

596.

It is normal
Typically associated with tachycardia
Associated with blood pressure
Usually subsides spontaneously
Typically associated with constricted and un-reactive pupil
Moist heat sterilization is achieved by:

A. Denaturation of protein
597.

In regards to Benzodiazepines:
A.
B.
C.
D.

598.

Increases R.E.M. sleep

Has a hangover effects because of active metabolism
Includes carbamazepine
Can be used safely on children as it achieves reliable effects
Which is NOT CORRECT in regards to lingual nerve:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

It is posterior and medial to the inferior alveolar nerve

It passes close to the mandibular 3rd molar
It may be anaesthetised by the mandibular nerve block
It provides supply to the lingual gingiva
Supplies anterior 2/3 of the tongue

599.
The maxillary and mandibular teeth get their blood supply
from:**
A. Separate branches of S. Palatina artery
B. Separate branches of maxillary artery
C. Branches of maxillary and mandibular arteries
600.

Haemophilia is characterised with:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

601.

Daughters affected from their carriers fathers

Presents on y chromosome
Hemarthrosis is common finding
Deficiency of factor VII
Neutrophil defect
In minor oral surgery which is TRUE in regards to antibiotic:

A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection

B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power
C. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling
602.

In regards to third molars surgery:

A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours
B. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swelling
C. Antibiotic cover is compulsory

603.
A 65 year old patient needs extraction of 44; he has taken
insulin in the morning. What preoperative advice you should give:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Take more sugar

Maintain normal diet
Antibiotic 2 hours before
Medication increases preoperatively

604.
Patient with prosthetic heart valve taking 7.5 mg warfarin. She
has????. Patient needs extraction. What is your management:
A. 3g Amoxil, suture after surgical removal
B. 3g Amoxil, suture when bleeding has stopped
C. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover, stop warfarin, give heparin and
suture later
D. Ampicillin cover, stop warfarin, give heparin and suture later
E. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover, stop warfarin and suture later
605.

Loss of the gingival attachment is measured between:

A. CEJ to base of pocket
B. Top of the gingiva to the base

606.

Absence of clearly defined crystal lamina dura is because:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Pathognomonic of periodontal disease

Indicative of attachment loss
Associated with periodontal pocket
Commonly related to radiograph angulation

607.
A patient 37 year old; with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that
he thinks is related to his maxillary posterior teeth. The pain comes in
recurrent bursts and aggravated by stress and alcohol. Oral exam is
negative. The probable diagnosis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Migraine
Cluster headache
Trigeminal neuralgia
Temporal neuritis

608.
A mandibular permanent first molar had to be extracted, this
will affect:
A. Adjacent teeth
B. Teeth in the same quadrant
C. Both arches the same side

D. Full mouth
609.

The places for new erupted mandibular molars are created by:
A. Resorption of anterior ramus and apposition posteriorly
B. Apposition of alveolar process
C. Apposition of inferior boarder of mandible

610.
A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of
parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains
of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be:
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Carcinoma of the parotid
C. Lymphoma of parotid
611.
What is the histopathology of the pathogenesis of the plaque
following 21 days of plaque accumulate:
A.
B.
C.
D.
612.

Primarily infiltrate of plasma cells

Primarily infiltrate of lymphocytes
Infiltrate of plasma cells and early bone involvement
Infiltrate of neutrophils
What is INCORRECT in HIV associated periodontitis:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

Picture of ANUG superimposed with RPP

Spontaneous bleeding interproximal
Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytes
Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis

613.
What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes
simplex:**
A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the
prodromal phase
B. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topically
C. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient
614.

The MOST common cause of gingival enlargement is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Hereditary
Drug induced
Plaque induced
Leukaemia

615.
A 13 year old has enlarged gingivae; gives a history of Dilantin
sodium what is you treatment:
A. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplasty
B. Oral prophylaxis, scaling, root planning
C. Stop medication
616.
A patient has improperly formed DEJ, reduction in size of pulp
chamber, chipping and attrition of enamel that would MOSTLY be:
A. Fluorosis
B. Amelogenesis imperfecta
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
617.

Which is wrong in regards to (water jet spray) hydrotherapy:

A. Does not harm gingivae
B. Removes plaque
C. Removes required pellicle

618.

Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characteristic by:**

A. Hypodontia or anodontia

619.
During extraction of maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is
fractured; however, it remains in place attached to the
mucoperiosteum. Which of the following procedures should be
employed:**
A. Remove the tuberosity and suture
B. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if required
C. Remove the tuberosity and fill the defect with Gelfoam then
suture.
D. If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm, leave in place and
suture
620.
An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically
suspicious lesion in 50 years old female reveals chronic inflammation;
you would:**
A. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct
the patient to return in six months
B. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not
malignant
C. Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses for
re-examination

D. Repeat the biopsy

621.
What is the MOST common consequence of an allergic
response to medication:
A. Skin rash dermatitis with swelling of lips and eyes
622.
How many time do you breath in mouth to mouth
resuscitation:
A. 10-12 times a minute
B. 4-6 times a minute
623.

What cause a reduce of pulmonary ventilation:

A. Laryngeal muscle paralysis
B. Air way obstruction

624.

What would you do if the systole is elevated:**

A. Calm down the patient

625.

What would you do if the diastole is elevated:

A. Investigate systemic cause

626.

Which are non-calcified areas in the childs cranium:

A. Fontanelles

627.

Kopliks spots are associated with one of the following:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

628.

Viral infection
Diabetes
Measles
Rubella
Candidosis
What is Von Reckling hausen disease:

A. Neurofibroma
B. Necrosis of bone produced by ionizing radiation
629.

How do treat the cause of airway obstruction:

A. Extension of the neck

B. Flexion of the neck

630.
How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before
extraction:
A. 6000000 units of benzoyl penicillin
B. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively
631.
Which is LEAST likely to cause bleeding after surgical
operation:
A.
B.
C.
D.
632.

Antibiotic therapy
Poor surgical techniques
Aspirin
Codeine
Acute pyogenic bacteria infection may result in:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Leucopoenia
Neutropenia
Leukocytosis
Lymphocytosis
Eosinophilia

633.
Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated in patient
before oral surgery with:
A. Herpes simplex
B. Whooping cough
C. Bacterial endocarditis
634.

Oral mucosa and skin pigmentation occurs in patient with:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Diabetes mellitus
Addisons disease
Multiple myeloma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Brights disease
Cushings disease

635.
Patient has fainted, the signs are, blanched face, weak pulse,
moist skin, shallow respiration; your first management is:
A. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneously
B. Mouth to mouth respiration
C. Nitro glycerine sub lingually

D. Recumbent position; supine

636.

Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by:

A. Oedema
B. Haemorrhage
C. Acute infection

637.
Patient who has WBC count of just over 100000 is most likely
suffering from:**
A. Leucopoenia
B. Leukaemia
C. Polycythemia
638.

Which of the following is TRUE:

A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of ANUG
B. Trauma of occlusal factors causes cleft or fibrous thickening of
marginal gingivae
C. All Perio pockets can be detected by x rays
D. Periodontitis is the most common problem in teenage
E. Perio disease is a primary cause of loss of teeth after 35 years of
age.

639.
In regards to the conditions where you have to prescribe
antibiotic prior to dental treatment:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
640.

Rheumatic fever
Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis
By pass
Valve replacement
Uncontrolled diabetes
All of the above
Herpangina is caused by:

A. Coxsackie virus
641.

The main vitamin to synthesis prothrombin is:

A. Vitamin K

642.
The immediate concern in the management of facial trauma
should be:

A.
B.
C.
D.
643.

Securing a blood units to replace any loss

Fixation of fractures
Checking the breath and insure a free airways
Neurological consultation
What is NOT A SIGN of neurological trauma:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.

Excitement
Shock
Improper eye sight
Leaning
Sever headache
Vomiting
Euphonia
Fixed dilated pupils

644.
A young patient presented with rheumatic fever and suspected
allergy to penicillin. The antibiotic of choice is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
645.

Chloromycetin
Sulphonamide
Buffered penicillin
Erythromycin
Achromycin
Patient under treatment with corticosteroids may develop:

A. Adrenal suppression
646.

Disorder of steroid will result in:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Adrenal suppression
Delayed healing
Osteoporosis
All of the above

647.
Esophagitis, herpes simplex, colitis during 5 weeks. You will
find the same signs of:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Erythema multiforme
C. AIDS
648.

What does not show in Cleidocranial dysplasia:**

A. Defective formation of clavicles

B.
C.
D.
E.

Delayed closure of fontanelles

Retention of maxilla
Delayed eruption of permanent teeth
None of the above

649.
In regards to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or Paterson and
Kelly syndrome:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Iron deficiency is a feature

Atrophic oral and gastric mucosa
Dysphagia and angular cheilitis
Predisposing oral cancer
All of the above

650.
Steam under pressure sterilisation is the best method to kill
microorganisms. How does it work:
A. Coagulation of plasma protein
B. Dehydration of DNA
651.
Patient with morphine coma; what is the medication of choice
to reverse its act:
A.
B.
C.
D.
652.

Bradykinin
Epinephrine
Amphetamine
Naloxone
Why are streptococci resistant to penicillin:**

A. They produce penicillinase.

653.
When comparing the mesio distal length of second deciduous
molar with the length of 2nd premolar; we will find the deciduous tooth
is:
A. Longer
B. Shorter
C. Near the same size
654.

How do you diagnose trigeminal neuralgia MOST accurately:

A. History

655.
How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrands
disease:**

A. Like a normal child

B. Like a diabetic child
C. Like a haemophilic child
656.

The zygomatic process serves as:

A.
B.
C.
D.

657.

Origin of masseter muscle

Origin of temporalis
Protects parotid gland
Insertion of lateral pterygoid
Treatment of patient with herpes simplex:**

A. Symptomatic treatment and acyclovir

B. Idoxuridine
658.
is:

Painless bluish lump filled with fluid on the lips; MOST likely
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

659.

The diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris is confirmed by:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

660.

Smokers keratosis
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mucocele
Fibroma
Fibro-epithelial polyp

Tzanck cells
Test dose of corticosteroid
Test of anti body
Histological immunofluorescence
Serological test for auto antibody
Pagets disease under microscope shows:

A. Mosaic pattern
661.

Ameloblastoma on x-rays shows as:

A. Soap bubbles

662.

Ankyloglossia is caused by:

A. Edentulous ridge
B. Short lingual frenum

C. Short labial frenum

663.
What is NOT CHARACTERISTIC finding in carcinoma of the
mouth:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Elevation
Fixation
Invasion
Verrucoid appearance
Pain

664.
Blow to the mandible resulted in deviation to the left on
opening; x-rays show unilateral fracture, where would you expect the
fracture:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
665.

Neck of the left condyle

Neck of the right condyle
Body of the left condyle
Body or the right condyle
Marble bone disorder is:**

A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteopetrosis
666.
In regards to dentinogenesis imperfecta on x-rays, What is
TRUE:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
667.

Short and blunted roots

The pulp canal is obliterated
Big pulp chamber, thin dentine and normal enamel
Type III, characteristic shell teeth
All of the above
Exfoliative cytology will not help in the diagnosis of:

A. Herpes simplex infection

668.

Treatment of Anaphylactic shock:

A. Adrenalin 1mp IV

669.

The treatment of angioneurotic oedema:

A. Anti histamine 10mg IV
B. Chlorphenamine maleate as Piriton by Allen

C. Hydrochloride 25 mg IM
D. Corticosteroid drugs or with adrenaline.
670.

Most congenitally missing teeth are:

A. Mandibular 3rd molars
B. Mandibular 2nd premolars
C. Maxillary lateral incisor

671.

Which of the following is secondary to immune deficiency:

A.
B.
C.
D.

672.

Pseudo membrane deficiency

Herpes simplex
Squamous cell carcinoma
Elevated Epstein bar viruses incidence
Odontogenic cyst develop from the following structures except:

A.
B.
C.
D.
673.

Reduced enamel epithelium of tooth crown

Dental lamina dura
Epithelium trapped after sutures
Hertwigs root sheath
The definition of Leeway space is:

A. It is the difference in mandibular width between C, D, E and 3, 4,

5
674.
If the focal spot to film distance is increased from 20cm to
40cm, the intensity of radiation is reduced by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
675.

1/3
1/5
Which vitamin is not produced and stored in organisms:

A. Vitamin C
676.

The initial priority in treatment of horizontal fracture is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Preservation of pulp
Immobilisation
Root canal treatment
Calcium hydroxide treatment

677.

Healthy dental pulp responds to injury by:

A. The formation of reparative dentine at the pulpal surface
corresponding to area of irritation

678.

In full dentures; porosity in the most thickest area is due to:**

A. Gaseous porosity
B. Shrinkage porosity

679.
The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II
dental amalgam restoration is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
680.

Delayed expansion
Inadequate depth at the isthmus area
Inadequate width at the isthmus area
Moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement
The definition of incompetent lips is:

A. Lips can not close in rest position

681.

Which drug may cause respiratory depression:

A. Barbiturate

682.

What is Hutchinsonian triad:

A. Combination of Hutchinsons teeth, interstitial keratitis and nerve
deafness in children with congenital syphilis.

683.
For a 5 years old child who lives in a NON WATER
FLUORIDATED are. What is the recommended intake of fluoride:
A.
B.
C.
D.
684.

0.25mg
0.10mg
0.50mg
1.00mg
Nitrous Oxide in contraindicated in:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Heart disease
Asthma
Mental retardant
Sickle cell anaemia

685.

Green stain on tooth surface is due to:**

A. Chromogenic bacteria

686.

Spread of infection 12, 22 is MOST LIKELY to be:

A. Labial
B. Palatal

687.

Sinus tract is indication of:

A. Chronic lesion

688.

The MOST common tumour of the parotid is:

A. Pleomorphic oedema

689.

What does DOUBLE BLIND mean:

A. A kind of clinical study in which neither the participants nor the
person administering treatment know which treatment any
particular subject is receiving. Usually the comparison is
between an experimental drug and a placebo or standard
comparison treatment. This method is believed to achieve the
most accuracy because neither the doctor nor the patient can
affect the observed results with their psychological bias.

690.
After 4 to 7 days, what type of cells you would find
predominately in gingivitis:
A. Leukocytes
B. Plasma cells
691.
What the age of patient who has all incisors, some premolars
and some canine erupted; note that no 2nd molars showing:
A.
B.
C.
D.
692.

8 years
11 years
13 years
14 years
Patient with Class II div I malocclusion has ANB of:

A. +2
B. -2

C. +8
D. -8
693.

In hairy tongue you will find:

A. Elongated filiform papillae

694.

Which muscle has insertion in the pterygoid raphe:**

A. Superior constrictor of the pharynx
B. Middle constrictor of the pharynx
C. Inferior constrictor of the pharynx

695.
Which micro-organisms in periapical lesion you would find
microscopically:
A. Aerobes
B. Aerobes to mainly anaerobes
696.

What is ESR? erythrocyte sedimentation rate

A. A test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle
through a column of liquid. A non-specific index of inflammation

697.
The first thing to do when syncope occurs in apprehensive
patient:
A. Head should be lowered
698.

Which of the following is staphylococcal infection:

A.
B.
C.
D.

699.

Scarlet fever
Pericarditis
Pancreatitis
Carbuncle
What is TRUE about Chrome-Cobalt partial denture:

A. No immersion of dentures in hypochlorite

700.

Patient with eruption cyst; your treatment would be:

A. Observation, mostly it bursts spontaneously

701.
The expected age of patient with rapid progressive
periodontitis:

A. Between 15 and 25 years of age

702.
Which of the following has proven to be the MOST important
in community preventive program:
A. Dental awareness of the community
B. Institution of oral hygiene measures
C. Water fluoridation
703.
The water fluoridation is 0.5ppm; what is the recommended
supplemental fluoride concentrations for 3 year old child:
A.
B.
C.
D.
704.

0.25mg
0.50mg
1.00mg
0mg
Rhomboid glossitis is:

A. Candidal infection
705.

The image of x ray is too pale the MAIN cause is:

A. Old expired film

706.

The beam that goes from cathode to anode is consisted of:

A. Electrons

707.
In the mouth of new born baby; what sort of bacteria you
expect to find:
A. None
708.

The transmission of RNA into DNA called:

A. Transcription

709.

How often a bitewing should be taken for children:

A. Every visit routinely
B. Every year after parents permission

710.
To obtain the MOST accurate X rays of teeth; the tooth film
distance should be (Close/far) as anatomical restriction will permit.
What is TRUE in this regard:
A. The paralleling technique favours the bisecting technique.
711.

The pregnancy enlargement of gingivae is a result of:

A. Hormonal disturbance

712.

Why do you give atropine in general:**

A. To reduce the salivary secretion

713.

Pathogenic means:
A. Pathological conditions of the disease

714.

Periodontitis is usually severe in patient with:

A. Defective neutrophils

715.

Halothane anaesthetic by:

A. Hepatotoxic reaction

716.

Sedation in children can be achieved by:

A. Diazepam

717.
Which lymph node is involved in carcinoma of the lip: or the
first metastasis of carcinoma of lips
A. Submental node
B. Submandibular node
718.
Which of the following could cause the overall cellular damage
to be greater:
A. The specified dose delivered all at once
B. The same fatal dose given in divided smaller doses over a period
of time
719.
Which of the following conditions would be considered for
antibiotic prophylaxes:

A. Malignancy recently removed

B. Congenital valve heart disease
C. Functional heart murmur
720.
All of the following should be considered for systemic
antibiotic except:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Extraction of tooth with acute dento alveolar abscess

Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) unless it is acute.
Extraction of 38 or 48 with acute pericoronitis
Full mouth extraction for a patient with perio disease

721.
The tissue response to oral hygiene after periodontal treatment
is BEST assessed by:
A. Decrease in the tendency to bleed on probing
722.

In regards to Metronidazole:**
A. It is effective for the treatment of AUG/NUG

723.

The mode of act of drug may be defined as:

A. How it produces its action

724.

Class III cavity is :

A. Proximal cavity slightly gingival to the contact area

725.

Terminal Hinge Axis can be obtained by:

A. Face bow
B. Kinematic face bow
C. Articulator

726.
part:

Incisal colour differs from gingival colour in that the gingival

A. Is thicker that the incisal part

B. Has dentine background
727.

Alveolar bone resorption is not seen in:

A. Steven-Johnson syndrome (Erythema multiforme)

728.
The silver bromide crystals in x rays films after being
expressed to radiation forms:
A. Latent image
729.

The best radiograph for maxillary sinus is:

A. PA skull x ray
B. Occipitomental radiograph
C. Towns view

730.

Fluoride in water community of 4ppm will result in:

A. No mottling
B. Mottling in almost all permanent teeth except some molars
C. Mottling in permanent premolars only

731.

Hydrotherapy Water Jet is used to:

A. Remove pellicle from tooth surface
B. Remove dental plaque
C. Causes no harm to gingiva

732.
Which of the following is not considered in the estimation of
gingival index:
A. Nasmyths membrane
733.
When examining intra orally between the side of the tongue
and the lateral border of the mandible, you expect to:
A. Palpate the lymph nodes
B. Palpate the borders of the tongue
734.

Black hairy tongue is MOSTLY seen in:

A. HIV patient

735.

What is TRUE about water fluoridation:

A. Will have no effects after the eruption of permanent teeth

736.
When there is a fracture on condyle, the muscle responsible for
elevation of condyle is:
A. Lateral pterygoid muscle

B. Medial pterygoid muscle

C. Masseter muscle
737.

Dentinogeneses imperfecta develops in:

A.
B.
C.
D.

738.

Initial stage
Proliferation stage
Histodifferentiation stage
Morphology stage
Compared to dental plaster all die stones:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Require less gauging water

Require more gauging water
Require the same quantity of gauging water
Are beta-hemihydrate
None of the above

739.
The MOST effective manner to produce a hard surface on a
cast is by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Employ as much water as possible on mixing

Employ as little water as possible on mixing
Adding 2% of borax to the mix
Adding calcium tetraborate
None of the above

740.
When dry cast is immersed in water saturated with calcium
sulphate:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
741.

There is contraction
There is negligible expansion
There is definite expansion
There is no change
None of the above
Fusion temperature of impression compound should occur:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Below mouth temperature

Above mouth temperature
As of the skin temperature
At the room temperature
None of the above

742.
The flow of the following percentage is allowable for
impression compound (type I) at the oral temp of 37

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

6%
10%
2%
20%
None of the above

743.
The disadvantage of heating the impression compound in a
water bath is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

It may become brittle

It may become grainy
Lower moles with constituents are leached out
The plasticity of the compound may be altered
All of the above

744.
Generally there is ???? zinc oxide eugenol impression pastes
between flow are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
745.

Dental impression material are hydrocolloids of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

746.

The emulsoid type

The suspension type
The sol type
The get type
None of the above
Elastomers are:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
747.

Working time
Accelerator
Setting time
Composition
None of the above

Hydrophilic
Hydrophobic
Water-loving impression material
Potassium alginates
None of the above
The polysulfide rubber impression material are:

A. Not sensitive to temperature when curing

B. Quite sensitive to temperature when curing
C. Less sensitive to temperature than silicone rubber

D. The same sensitivity to temperature as silicone rubber

E. None of the above
748.

The elastic properties of rubber impression material:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Improves with time

Deteriorates with time
Deteriorates when exposed to temperature
Improves when exposed to temperature
None of the above

749.
The effect of temperature rise above 100C on heat cured
denture base acrylic resins is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
750.

The principle cause of failure of amalgam restoration is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

751.

Improperly prepared amalgam

Improper cavity preparation
Perio involvement
Particles of amalgam
None of the above
Reduced occlusal area means:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
752.

Produces porosity on the external portion of the resin.

Produces porosity on the internal portion of the resin.
Produces porosity on the surface of the resin.
Prevents porosity on the interior of the resin

More fracture potential for amalgam

Less fracture potential for amalgam
Pulpal involvement
Perio involvement
None of the above
The less mercury remaining in condensed amalgam:

A. The stronger the restoration which contains fewer matrixes alloys

and fewer voids
B. The weaker the restoration is
C. The more matrixes alloys
D. The more voids
E. None of the above
753.

High copper amalgams are superior if:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
754.

Copper is available for a secondary reaction

Copper is not available for a secondary reaction
Copper is burnished
Copper is fractured
None of the above
Concerning condensation of restorative gold:

A. It may vary widely vary widely and has no influence on the final
restoration
B. The degassing procedure is not important
C. It is the Achilles heel of direct gold restoration
D. Clinical tech are more important than the physical properties of
restorative gold
E. All of the above
755.

In regards to the enamel surface:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

756.

It is a perfect substance for bonding

It does not conform to the bonding requirements
It is the most inorganic, rough part
It is free from contamination and roughness
None of the above
Acid conditioning of enamel and eroded dentine:

A. Provides an none traumatic, conservative clinical approach to the

bonding of restorative material
B. Is traumatic approach to bonding materials
C. Is not safe and simple method of bonding
D. Bonding fails to produce a highly significant retention and good
marginal integrity and clinical durability
E. None of the above
757.
The effectiveness of the acid etch is dependent on which of the
following factors:
A. Material must be used to clean the surface of the tooth prior to
etching
B. The effectiveness of the itchant
C. The chemical and physical nature of the tooth
D. The area and surface of the enamel to be itched
758.

Creep in amalgam is the greatest in:

A. Low copper lathe cut alloy

759.

The surface of enamel rods prisms in permanent teeth is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

760.

Perpendicular to the outer surface of the tooth

Parallel to the outer surface of the tooth
Parallel to enamel contour
Parallel to enamel-dentine contour
All of the following are properties of fluoride except:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Crosses the placental barrier

It deposits rapidly in bone
It is excreted rapidly by kidneys
It is bacteriostatic
It produces extrinsic tooth stain

761.
A patient indicates that he takes methyldopa (Aldomet) he is
being probably treated for:
A. Hypertension
B. Angina pectoris
C. Myocardial infection
762.
A patient with history of angina suffers an attack while in the
dental chair. Prompt relief can be anticipated in MOST instances
from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
763.

Oral administration of short acting barbiturates

Intra muscular administration of morphine sulphate
Subcutaneous administration of epinephrine
Sublingual administration of glyceryl bi-nitrate
Putting the patient in upright position
Proximal caries on x rays appear:

A. Smaller than clinically seen

B. Larger than clinically seen
C. The same
764.

The lamina dura is absent in which condition:

A. Von Recklinghausen
B. Pagets
C. Periapical granuloma

765. You notice radiolucent area close to the apex of central incisor, on
a second x ray the radiolucent are moves; it is likely to be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
766.

Cyst
Abscess
Granuloma
Incisive foramen

Treatment of Osteoradionecrosis is:

A. Antibiotic coverage
B. Conservative treatment including antibiotic coverage and
resection of jaw segment.
C. Conservative treatment with sequestrectomy

767.

Widening of perio membrane can be seen in:

A. Osteosarcoma
B. Scleroderma

768.

Lamina dura is actually:

A.
B.
C.
D.

769.

Cortical bone
Spongy bone
Immature bone
Cribriform plate perforated by nutrient carnally

Bitewing x rays are taken to assist in the detection of caries :**

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Occlusally
Lingually
Buccally
Gingivally
Interproximally

770. A periapical x ray of 11 and 12 region shows the vimen, floor of

the nasal fossa and the median palatine suture. The other feature that
can be seen is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
771.

Maxillary sinus
Incisive foramen
Zygomatic process
Wall of maxillary sinus

At the end of four years, the x rays reveal calcification of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
772.

The diagnosis of ortho cases is by:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

773.

Measurement of cranium size

Recording profile
The relation of dentition and the jaw to the cranium
Determination of overbite size
Determination of jaw size

Full mouth x ray survey at birth reveals:

A.
B.
C.
D.

774.

All deciduous and first permanent molars

All permanent except of 3rd molars
All deciduous
All permanent

Ten teeth are present

Twenty teeth are present
Twenty four teeth are present
Twelve teeth are present

When adhesive is used with polysulphide impression material:

A. Should be thin and dry

775.

When a probe penetrate between tooth and amalgam:

A. not always an indication of caries

776. Reversible hydrocolloids impression material in comparison to

alginate are:
A. Better for undercuts areas
777.

You can increase the retention of Maryland bridge by:

A. Incorporate mesh work in wax pattern
B. Perforation techniques in the metal cast

778.

Maryland bridges are made of:

A. Nickel chrome

779. Initiation of curing process in self cure acrylic resin is achieved

by:**
A. Benzyl peroxide

780.

The objective of pulp capping is to:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

781.

The objective of pulpotomy is to:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

782.

Accidental exposure on vital young molars

When inflammation of radicular pulp is already present
When roots are greatly curved and tortuous
When anterior tooth is vital and immature with wide open apices
None of the above

Tow successive negative cultures are:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

784.

Preserve vitality of coronal pulp

Preserve vitality of entire pulp
Preserve vitality of radicular pulp
Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp
None of the above

What contra indicate pulp capping:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

783.

Preserve vitality of coronal pulp

Preserve vitality of entire pulp
Preserve vitality of radicular pulp
Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp
None of the above

Absolutely necessary for successful endodontic treatment

Not always necessary for successful endodontic treatment
Not questioned today as a dogmatic requirement in endodontics
Unquestioningly it adhered for successful endodontic treatment
None of the above

What indicates for a periapical surgery:

A. Where performing an endodontic treatment on existing root canal
filling may lead to fracture of the root
B. When root canal treatment is faulty
C. When there is danger of involving other structures
D. When the bony defect is so extensive that the edges of the
incisors will collapse
E. None of the above

785.

In regards to external resorption:**

A. Continues after successful endo treatment

B. Stops in most cases following successful endodontic treatment

C. Continues only in mandibular incisors after successful endo
treatment
D. Stops in maxillary lateral incisors after successful endodontic
treatment
E. None of the above
786. The concomitant perio-periapical lesion as the cause of endodontic
failure:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
787.

Cannot be discovered prior to endo treatment

May be discovered prior to endo treatment
Is most commonly found in maxillary teeth
Is most commonly found in mandibular teeth
None of the above

X rays are used in endodontic treatment to:

A. Aid in the diagnosis of periapical hard tissue lesion
B. Determine the number, location, shape, size and direction of
roots and root canals
C. Confirm the length of root canals
D. Evaluate the adequacy of the complete root canal filling
E. All of the above

788. To achieve optimum cavity preparation which of the following

factors of internal anatomy must be considered:
A. Outline form
B. The age and shape of pulp chamber; in addition to the direction
of individual root canals.
C. Internal external relationship
D. Intra-coronal preparation
E. None of the above
789. Irrigation in root canal treatment, should be undertaken at
frequent intervals during instrumentation to:**
A. Removes cementum falling from the canal
B. Remove noxious material since it may be forced to the apical
foramen resulting in periapical infection
C. Destroy all micro organism in the canal
D. Stop instruments from going beyond the apical foramen
E. None of the above
790.

The length of the tooth is established by:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Good undistorted pre-operative x ray

Adequate coronal access to all canals
Adjustable endo millimetre ruler
Definite repeatable plane of reference to anatomical landmark on
tooth
E. All of the above
791.

Which of the following Gold casting alloys are available:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Medium alloy Type II

Hard alloy Type III
Extra Hard alloy Type IV
All of the above

792. Which of the following varieties should be made in the proximal

occlusal cavity preparation in deciduous teeth compared to permanent
ones:
A. The occlusal isthmus should be proportionally wider
B. The occlusal lingual walls need not to be extended to self
cleansing areas
C. It is not necessary to include fissures in the occlusal outline
D. The lingual angle should be sharper
E. The axio pulpal line angle should not be bevelled
793. 10 years old boy looses permanent mandibular molar; what is
affected:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Teeth adjacent to extracted teeth

Teeth on both arches on same side
The remaining teeth in the mouth
Teeth directly opposite to the extracted tooth
Teeth on the same quadrant

794. MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of

deciduous molars is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Loss of arch length

Loss of speech sound
Loss of facial contour
Loss of vertical height
Loss of free way space

795. During teeth eruption, the reduced enamel epithelium merges with
the oral epithelium and consequently.????

A. Down growth of oral epithelium which replaces the reduced

enamel epithelium
B. Proliferation of inner enamel epithelium
C. Proliferation of outer enamel epithelium
D. Down growth of oral epithelium which undermines the reduced
enamel epithelium
E. Gradual transformation of the reduced enamel epithelium
796.

Essential for the diagnosis and treatment plan of orthodontics is:

A. Classifications
B. X rays
C. Plaster models

797. As a general practitioner; you decide at an initial appointment that

you can not handle a child due to lack of co-operation. Which of the
following approaches would seem to be your alternative:
A. Refer child to pedodontist
B. Send child home until he/she has to co-operate
C. Schedule child for General Anaesthetic session
798. The most common reason to refer a child to a pedodontist is
problem with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
799.

Rampant caries
Behaviour management
Endodontic treatments in primary teeth
Space maintainers

A very quick and wide separation of teeth causes:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Gingival inflammation
Vasodilation
Wider spaces
Necrosis of bone

800. A patient who has lost several teeth in an otherwise healthy mouth,
can get:
A. TMJ dysfunction
B. Changes in the vertical dimension
C. Change in the interocclusal dimension
801.

The final deposition of ameloblast occurs:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
802.

Primary enamel cuticle

Secondary enamel cuticle
Acquired enamel cuticle
Cementum

Oral epithelium fused with reduced epithelium to form:

A. Junctional enamel epithelium

803.

The increase of mandible about year 5 and 6 is mainly at:

A. Depth
B. Width
C. Length

804. 8 years child has a badly broken deciduous molar what is the best
material to restore it:
A.
B.
C.
D.
805.

When tooth is twisted along its long axis; it is called:

A.
B.
C.
D.

806.

Amalgam
Gold
Composite
GIC

Mesio version
Disto version
Lingo version
Torsion

A full x rays is recommended in children by age of:**

A. 2 years- first visit
B. 2 years for uncooperative kids
C. 3-5 years

807. The percentage of malocclusion after early loss of deciduous teeth

is:
A. 60%
808.

A tooth is expected to erupt when root development is:

A. of its full development

809.

Crowding of anterior permanent teeth is directly affected by:

A. Premature loss of deciduous molars

810.

Hawley appliances are used:**

A. To close midline diastema
B. Maintain the normal relationship of the adjacent teeth until the
canine erupts

811.

Helical spring is used to:

A. Ectopically erupting permanent molars

812.

The function of varnish:

A. To reduce initial marginal leakage Short-term leakage
B. To prevent long term leakage

813.

Turners tooth is:**

A. Due to infection of primary tooth

814.

The outcome of rapid wax burn out is:

A. Cracking of the investment
B. Back pressure porosity

815.

The MAIN purpose of burnishing is:

A. To help eliminating excess mercury
B. To condense margins
C. Polishing of filling

816.

What happen to etched composite after settings:

A.
B.
C.
D.

817.

Expand
Contract
Contract and expand
Expand and contract
Which of the following muscles elevates the lower lip:

A. Orbicularis oris
818.

The MOST common cause for midline fracture is:

A. Impact
B. Fatigue
819.

The function of face bow is:

A. Orient maxilla to TMJ

820.

Hypoplasia as seen in x rays:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

821.

Thick enamel surface

Thin enamel surface
Sometimes large pulp chamber
Can not be detected on X rays
Function of matrix band:

A. Substitute for the missing wall so adequate condensation forces

can be applied
B. Permit re-establishment of proper contact lines
C. Restrict extrusion of amalgam and prevent formation of an
overhang
D. Provide adequate physiological contour for the proximal surface
E. Provide an acceptable surface texture to the proximal surface
F. All of the above
822.

Which composite is used in load bearing areas:**

A. Hybrid composite

823.

The palatal canal of maxillary molars is found Under:

A. Disto lingual cusp
B. Mesio lingual cusp

824.

Obturator in cleft palate plate is maintained by:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Cohesion
Atmospheric pressure
Retention in the defect
Patient support it with the tongue

825.
In a fixed moveable bridge where should the moveable
connectors non rigid be placed:???
A. Distal to anterior retainers

B. Mesial to posterior retainers

826.
What do expect after successful pulpectomy in the periapical
area:
A. Apical foramen is closed by cementum calcified tissues
827.

Frenum is consisted of what kind of tissues:

A. A fold of mucous membrane

828.
What is the minimal labial reduction for porcelain metal
crowns:
A. 1mm
B. 1.5mm
C. 0.5mm
829.

What is the function of flux:

A. To protect alloy from oxidation, and distribute metallic oxides as
they are formed

830.

What is TRUE:
A. Boiling point of acrylic > boiling point of water
B. Boiling point of acrylic is similar to that of water
C. Boiling point of acrylic < boiling point of water

831.

Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest:

A. In compression
B. In tension

832.

What is the MOST adverse reaction to lignocaine:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Drug interaction with patients medicines

Injecting into vein
Hypersensitivity
Toxicity

833.
A 29 year old lady presents with mandibular second molar
associated with radiolucency of 1 cm diameter and paraesthesia of
mental nerve. There is no other symptoms:
A. Extraction and curettage

B. Root canal treatment and antibiotics

C. Blood test, extraction and biopsy
D. Extract and pack with white heads varnish
834.

Periodontitis is a disease that has:

A.
B.
C.
D.

835.

A slow progression
Rapid progression
Cyclic or burst progression active and inactive phases
Intermittent progress
In regards to apically displaced flap; which is TRUE:

A.
B.
C.
D.
836.

Does not preserve attached gingivae

Does not lengthen crown of tooth
Is a pocket elimination procedure
A& C
Which is NOT TRUE about occlusal trauma:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Cemental tears
Bone loss
Mobility
True pocket formation
Bleeding in periodontal ligament

837.
Which is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal
disease:**
A. Bleeding
B. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva
838.

Hypodontia can be seen in:

A.
B.
C.
D.

839.

Cleidocranial dysplasia dysostosis

Downs syndrome
Papillon le fever syndrome
Rickets
Hyperdontia can be seen in:

A. Downs syndrome
B. Cleidocranial dysplasia dysostosis

840.
Which of the following does not carry a risk of infection from
hepatitis B patient:
A. HBs Ag antigens
B. HBs Ag
C. HBe Ag
841.
Which is the MOST conservative treatment for periodontal
disease:
A. Oral hygiene, sub-gingival debridement, regular review and
maintenance
B. Surgery, sub-gingival debridement, regular review and
maintenance
C. Oral hygiene, sub-gingival debridement
842.

Filter is used in x ray machine to:

A. Reduce exposure time
B. Removes low energy x rays

843.
A patient 8 years old has 3 of first premolars erupted with
swelling on the ridge of the un-erupted premolar. X ray shows a fully
developed crown and roots development with no other pathology.
What is your management:
A. Remove the dentigerous cyst
B. Soft tissues recision to allow eruption
C. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to
help with eruption
844.
Loss of the first deciduous molar in 10 years old child
required:
A. Band and loop to maintain space
B. Evaluate the case radiographically and then decide whether space
maintainer is needed or not
C. No treatment
845.
Palatal root displaced into the antrum while extracting; what is
your decision to retrieve it:
A. Through the alveolar
B. Surgical opening of canine fossa
C. Nasal antrostomy

846.

Which one of the following is expansile lesion of jaw bone:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

Odontogenic keratocyte
Central haemangioma
Radicular cyst
Osteomyelitis

847.
The MOST frequent retained deciduous teeth in permanent
dentition are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Upper lateral incisors

Upper central incisors
Lower central incisors
Second lower molars
Second upper molars

848.
The MOST frequently synthesized substance by Streptococcus
mutans is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Liven
Fructose
Glucan
Glycogen

849.
Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for
oral sedation in dentistry DOES NOT give:
A.
B.
C.
D.
850.

A good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions

Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam
Post operative headache
There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
Formcresol fixation is used in deciduous dentition in:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Necrotic pulp
Carious exposure
Mechanical exposure
Periapical disease

851.
After you have successfully treated an Angles Class II division
I malocclusion. The ideal Class I incisor relationship has been
produced and 14, 24 were extracted. The arches are now well aligned.
What molar occlusion will there be at the end of treatment when all
spaces are closed:
A. Full unit Class II

B.
C.
D.
E.
852.

unit class II
Class I
unit Class III
Full unit Class III
The tonsillar nodes are located at:

A.
B.
C.
D.
853.

The mandible angle

The jugular-digastric interaction
Mylohyoideus intersection
Internal carotid level
Herpangina is the MOST reliable diagnosis is by:**

A. Immunofluorescence
B. Microscopy
C. Serology
854.

Metallic Plate backing the intra oral films are for:**

A. Reduces the flexibility of films
B. Reduces patient exposure to x rays
C. Increases the bending capacity of films

855.

The fixing time for dental x ray should be:

A.
B.
C.
D.

856.

The developing time for dental x ray should be:

A.
B.
C.
D.

857.

5 minutes at 20C
At least 10 minutes
Until it clears up
2 minutes at 40C
What is the range of the visible light cure beam:

A.
B.
C.
D.
858.

5 minutes at 20C
At least 10 minutes
Until it clears up
2 minutes at 40C

100-120 nm
200-300 nm
400-430 nm
470 nm or 450-500 nm
When is LEAST required gingival groove:

A.
B.
C.
D.

When restoring with GIC for abrasion

When restoring with GIC for root caries
When restoring with GIC base and composite lamination
When restoring with amalgam

859.
Corrosion and discolouration of amalgam restorations is
usually caused by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
860.

Sulphur oxides
Oxygen
Chlorides
Over trituration
When you find ditching in an amalgam filing you would:

A. Replace the defective filing

B. Repair defect with unfilled resins
861.

What is the reason that pulp calcified after trauma:

A. The intensity of the blow was too low to cause pulp death

862.

Which is TRUE in regards to the preparation of occlusal rests:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Use an inverted cone bur

Use a flat fissure bur
Parallel to occlusal plane
At right angle to the long axis of tooth
None of the above

863.
Patient presents with fever of 39C, pain, swelling of upper lip
and nose. Radiograph shows an enlargement of periodontal ligament
space of 11 which has a large restoration without a base. What would
your treatment be:
A. Recision and antibiotic
B. Antibiotic, analgesic followed by root canal treatment after
remission of acute phase.
C. Complete debridement of root canal, analgesic and antibiotic
D. Remove restoration, apply a sedative dressing with
corticosteroids
864.
Cervical finish line of full veneer crown preparation should be
placed:

A.
B.
C.
D.
865.

Just supragingival whenever is possible

According to the depth of gingival crevice
Subgingival to reduce ability of recurrent caries
At the junction of tooth and amalgam core
Why do we etch enamel for composite restorations:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

To increase surface area

To decrease surface area
Does not really change the surface area
Increase the chemical bonding capability
Decrease the chemical bonding capability

866.
All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap
except of:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Base is wider than free margin

Mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteum
Base has an adequate blood supply
Flap wider than bony defect that will be present at conclusion of
operation
E. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone
867.
Which of the following will NOT be used in determination of
vertical dimension:
A.
B.
C.
D.
868.

Aesthetic
Phonetics
Gothic arch tracing
Swallowing
Zinc oxide impression material:

A. May cause irritation to mucosa

B. Is a thermoplastic material
869.
The adhering of tissues on the surgical electrode usually
means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
870.

Current intensity is too high

Current intensity is too low
Dispersion plate not applied to patient
None of the above
How do remove the smear layer in root canal treatment:

A. Use of 0.5% hypochlorite sodium

B. Hedstrom file
C. EDTA
871.

Why do you over pack amalgam:

A. To ensure excess mercury reaches the surface

872.
A lateral incisor labial to the arch needs to be restored in
normal alignment with PFM retraction. How will the tooth appear:
A.
B.
C.
D.
873.

Too wide
Too short
To narrow
To long
Which of the following is more prone to crack:

A.
B.
C.
D.
874.

Buccal of lower molars

Lingual of lower molars
Lingual of upper molars
Buccal of upper molars
Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm depends on:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Length
Cross section
Material
Degree of taper
All of the above

875.
In vital pulp therapy; what is the optimum depth for a pin hole
in a tooth:
A.
B.
C.
D.

4-5mm
Approximately 2mm
Less than 2mm
1-1.5mm

876.
Proximal cavosurface walls in Class II preparation for the
reception of an amalgam. Should be finished at which angle to
external surface:
A. Acute angle
B. Right angle
C. Obtuse angle

D. 45 angle
877.

Why are three tripod marked on a cast being surveyed:

A. To orient cast to articulator
B. To orient cast to surveyor
C. To provide guide planes

878.
An irregular shaped void on surface of a gold cast would
indicate that:

A.
B.
C.
D.
879.

A fragment of investment had been carried into the mould

Air carried into mould
Burning out of wax was inadequate
The powder/water ratio for the investment was too high
The MAJOR disadvantage of Gutta Percha is:

A. Soluble in chloroform
B. Too weak for narrow canals
880.

What effect do fissure sealants have on caries progression:

A. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of freshly
established caries
B. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of existing caries

881.
In regards to connectors on dentures; which of the following is
correct:
A. Major connector should be rigid as possible
B. Minor connector should engage undercuts
882.
What control tooth or teeth should be used when testing a
suspected pulpally involved tooth:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Adjacent tooth and contralateral teeth

Contralateral and opposing teeth
Opposing and adjacent teeth
Test only suspected tooth/teeth
All of the above

883.
What is CORRECT in regards to periodontal surface area in
mandibular teeth:

A. First molar> first premolar> second premolar

B. Canine> first premolar> second premolar
C. Canine> lateral incisor> central incisor
884.
Cast crown fits on die but not on tooth; discrepancy is about
0.3mm what would you do:
A.
B.
C.
D.
885.

Relieve cast from the inside

Take a new impression and make new crown
Burnish margins
Use thick mix of cement
In regards to marginal leakage in amalgam:

A. The wider the gap the better the chance of secondary caries
B. Seal the margin with fissure sealant would prevent further
breakdown
C. Secondary caries may develop
886.

Pit and fissure caries start at:

A. bottom of the fissure
B. walls of the fissure

887.
fold:

What interferes with maxillary denture in posterior vestibular

A. Coronoid process
B. Condyle
C. Masseter muscle
888.

In regards to shade; Chroma is:

A. Brightness
B. Saturation of hue
C. Value

889.
Acrylic self-cure special trays; how long should have been
made prior taking impression:
A. 12 hrs
B. Immediately after fabricating it
C. After been left in water for an hour

D. Wait for an hour before pouring

890.

The MAIN CAUSE of gingivitis in partial dentures patients is:

A. Placement of dentures
B. Plaque accumulation

891.
Movable component of the non-rigid connector in a fixed
bridge is placed. Which of the following is TRUE:
A. Should be placed on the longer retainer
B. Mesial drift causes unseating of the distally placed connector
892.
When lateral incisor is lost; patient has Class II Division II
type with deep bite. Which of the following is contra indicated:
A. Fixed bridge with canine and central incisor as abutment
B. Non-rigid connector with central incisor as abutment
893.

Which is the neutral zone:

A. The zone where displacing forces are neutral
B. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced

894.

What is the Bilaminar Zone:

A. Formed of, or having, two laminae, or thin plates. Which is the
distal attachment of superior hard lateral plate

895.
Which of the following DOES NOT cause depression of the
mandible:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Contraction of lateral pterygoid

Contraction of temporalis
Contraction of the suprahyoid muscles
Contraction of the infrahyoid muscles
Relaxation of all muscles so that the only forces on the mandible
are the forces against the gravity

896.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate related to
hardness:
A. Tungsten carbide>Porcelain>Human enamel>acrylic
B. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten carbide>amalgam>acrylic
C. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten Carbide>Amalgam>Acrylic

897.
How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with
amalgam onlay:
A. 2 mm to achieve a good retention form
B. 2mm to achieve a good resistance form
C. 1mm
898.
How long it would take to notice significant reduction in
radiolucency after finishing a root filing for a tooth with a periapical
lesion:
A. 6 months
B. 1 month
C. 3 months
899.

The major cause of mentalis muscle hyperactivity is:

A. Class II Division I
B. Tongue thrust

900.
When treating a tooth with a non-vital pulp with a fistula
presented; fistula should be treated by:
A. Surgical incision
B. Antibiotic coverage
C. The usual root canal procedures for non-vital teeth and no special
procedures for fistula
901.

To increase the setting time of phosphate cements you would:

A. Use a cold glass slab

902.
27 years old female; shows sudden oedematous rash and
collapses after an injection of barbiturates. Your management is:
A. I.M. o.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline with oxygen administration
903.
Which of the following procedures will not achieve
sterilization:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hot air at 160C 320F for 90mins

Boiling water at 100C 210F for 2 hours
Autoclave at 121C 250F under 15psi for 20 mins
Dry heat at 177C 350F for 60mins
All of the above will achieve sterilisation

904.
50 years old man presented after a full mouth extraction
complaining that he bled all night. Which of the following pre
existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative
bleeding:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
905.

Blood pressure reading of 180/110

Gastric ulcer
Elevated prothrombin time
A & D are correct
None of the above
Long bone growth by:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Mitosis in osteoblast
Mitosis of osteoblast
Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysis
Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis

906.
What is TRUE in regards to oral lesions of reticular lichen
planus:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Never accompanied with skin lesions

Always accompanied with skin lesions
Lesions may present anywhere
Lesions may present on legs
Lesions may present on arms

907.
Bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenetic
potential is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Lymphocytic bone graft

Freeze-dried bone graft
Heltozygo?? Marrow graft
Cortical bone graft
Cancellous bone graft

908.
A patient states that for ALMOST a year now, she has had a
rubbery, firm, painless nodule within the substance of parotid gland.
This MOST likely is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Mucocele
Lymph node
Benign mixed tumour
Squamous cell carcinoma
Sialolith with encapsulations

909.

The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is:

A. Use lead collimator

910.
The best reading on radiograph to diagnose ankylosis in
deciduous molar is:
A. Density of lamina dura
911.
Which is NOT CHARCTERISTIC of dentinogenesis
imperfecta:
A. Dentinal tubules are more than usual
912.
Child with less than normal number of teeth, mandibular
lateral incisor is larger than usual; on x rays it shows with two roots
and two roots canals; your diagnosis is:**
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
913.

Dilaceration
Gemination
Fusion
Concrescence
Taurodontism
The MOST stable area to evaluate the craniofacial growth is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Nasal floor
Cranial vault
Occlusal plane
Naso maxillary complex
Anterior cranial base

914.
7 years child with Class I malocclusion, slight version of
maxillary Class I; adequate arch length. What is your management:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
915.

Oral screen
Head cap therapy
Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teeth
Hawley plate
Expansion screw plate
Tongue thrust with tongue to lip swallow is seen in:

A. Incompetent lips
916.

Clinical indications of pathogenic chronic periodontitis:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Mobility
Dull pain on closing
Presence of true pocket
Apical migration of gingival epithelium
Presence of subgingival calculus
C, D & E

917.
To prevent exposure of a ?????? on a permanent root; the
dentist BEST approach for elevating flap is to use:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
918.

Double flap
Stripping procedure
Full thickness flap
Apically positioned flap
Split thickness flap
What is TRUE in regards to primary occlusal trauma:

A. Mobility caused by excessive forces on normal periodontal

ligament
919.
In advance periodontitis with marked mobility; teeth should be
splinted:
A. To improve comfort and function
920.
Examination reveals area of gingival recession, exposed wide
area of dental roots. Which is the procedure of choice to obtain
coverage of the root surface:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
921.

What does contra indicate distal wedge in molars area:

A.
B.
C.
D.

922.

Free gingival autograft

Sub-epithelial tissue graft
Apically positioned graft
Free gingival graft
Modified wide flap

Distal fluting
Long attached gingiva
Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molars
Supra bony pockets distal to molars
Which of the following is not a property of Fluoride ion:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Crosses placental barrier

Deposits in bone
Excretes rapidly by kidney
Bacteria static
Produces extrinsic tooth stain

923.
Two conditions of enamel facilitate post eruptive uptake of
fluoride element:
A. Hyper mineralisation and surface dentine
B. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisation
C. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities
924.

In regards to topically applied fluoride :

A. Effective in incorporated into dental plaque
B. Inhibits acid demineralisation of enamel

925.

Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm Does not relate to:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

926.

Length
Cross section
Material
Degree of taper
Under cut area
Protrusive movement in wax:

A. Can not be perforated

927.

LEAST use of blood count:

A. Infectious mononuclears

928.

The FIRST advantage of using 100000 rpm and over rotors is:
A. Less vibration on patient

929.
How long it would take to see the dentinal bridge after direct
pulp capping by using Calcium hydroxide:**
A.
B.
C.
D.

6-8 weeks
4 weeks
6-8 months
4 months

930.

The OPTIMUM crown to root ratio for abutment tooth is:**

A. 2:3
B. 1:1

931.

What does contraindicate bridge works:

A. Long edentulous span which will lead to damage of abutments

932.

Elasticity of impression material will lead to ideally:

A. Prevents distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth

933.
Patient has been coming to your clinic for several times
complaining about soreness under the denture; what would you do:
A. Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps
934.
What is the difference between arcon and non arcon
articulator:
A. In arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment
935.
Purplish lesions on the buccal mucosa that have been there
since birth; the diagnosis is:
A. Haemangioma
936.

Elevators are not used in:

A. Dividing third lower molars roots

937.
What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for
pulp capping:
A. Accidental exposure of pulp
B. Carious exposure of pulp in otherwise asymptomatic tooth
C. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks
938.

How would you treat hyperaemia hyperaemic tooth:**

A. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cement
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Corticosteroid paste

939.
Patient comes to you complaining of pain in a tooth, the tooth
is filled with composite long time ago; what would you do:
A. X ray, remove filling and restore with temporarily filling
940.

Use of inhalation general anaesthesia:

A. Halothane should not be less than 5%
B. Oxygen must not be less than 30%

941.
Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is
likely to be caused by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Acromegaly
Pagets disease
Giant cell lesion
Primordial cysts
Dental cysts

942.
For fissure and sealant treatment to be a part of the primarily
retentive care:
A. Place sealant on teeth which are at high risk of caries
B. Place sealant on newly erupted teeth
943.

Periodontal pocket is measured between:

A. CEJ to base of pocket
B. Top of the gingiva to the base

944.

When you apply a pressure of 0.25N to measure pocket depth:

A. 4 mm indicates periodontitis

945.
Which of the following elements is not found in normal
periodontal membrane:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Fibroblast
Epithelial cells
Erythrocytes
Vest cells of malaise
Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes

946.
Which of the following situations make periodontal disease
more sever:

A. Enough proximal surface

B. Too wide bucco lingual embrasure
C. Missing proximal contacts
947.
The auxiliary occlusal rest on tooth for partial denture should
be placed:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Away from edentulous space

Adjacent to edentulous space
Near fulcrum line
Away from fulcrum line

948.
A vital tooth has a crown cemented to a pin retained amalgam
cored; where does failure occur:
A.
B.
C.
D.
949.

Between crown and cement

Between core and cement
In the crown and the root
In the core and the margin preparation
Which is NOT a result of toxic dosage of local anaesthetic:

A.
B.
C.
D.
950.

Angioneurotic oedema
Hypotension
Respiratory depression
Hypertension
Swallowing will aid in the diagnosis of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
951.

Branchial cyst
Thyroglossal duct cyst
Ranula
Retention cyst
Globulomaxillary cyst
What is not true about tobacco smoking:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Redox potential favours growth of anaerobic bacteria

It is caries immuno-suppressive
It is adrenergic
Affects neutrophils and chemotactic factors

952.
On X ray you found the Gutta Percha cone extending 1mm
beyond the apex without any symptoms; what would you do:

A. Remove restoration material until you are able to withdraw the

Gutta Percha cone
B. Apiectomy
C. Leave as is until any complications occur
953.
On X ray you found the cement of previous root canal
treatment is extending 1mm beyond the apex without any symptoms;
what would you do:
A. Remove restoration material and retreat
B. Apiectomy
C. Leave as is until any complications occur
954.
What is the main purpose of using corticosteroids in pulpal
obturation material:
A. For their antibiotic action
B. For their antiinflammatory action
C. To relief pulp pressure
955.

What nerve supplies upper first molars:

A. Posterior and mid superior alveolar nerve:

956.

The roughest surface on cut tooth structure:

A. Cross cut fissures at ultra speed

957.
is:

The main of damaged gingival tissues after placing rubber dam

A.
B.
C.
D.

958.

The distance between holes is big

The distance between holes is small
The punctured holes are too big in size
Not using lubricant when placing rubber dams
The advantage of using the lingual plate on lingual bar is:

A. It acts as indirect retention

959.

Retention in precision attachment is achieved by:

A. Frictional resistance

960.

How much under cut area a clasp arm should engage:**

A. As much under the undercut as possible

B. Anywhere beyond the survey line
C. A predetermined amount of undercut
961.

What is characteristic of fibrotic gingivitis:

A. Is phenytoin induced gingivitis and only seen on intra lateral
papilla
B. Can only be treated surgically

962.

Bone is characterised by:**

A. Haversian canal around bony canals
B. Irregularly arrayed tabullae??

963.

Why we do not use porcelain in long span bridge works:

A. Because of the high casting shrinkage of porcelain

964.
You have patient with Class II division 2; which of the
following is contraindicated:
A. Cantilever bridge
B. Maryland bridge
965.
How will cover buccal bicuspid for lower premolar when
making a metallic porcelain crown:
A. Cover the occlusal and buccal cuspid by porcelain
B. Cover just buccal cuspid by porcelain
966.

What is the main cause of bilateral cheilosis:

A. Short vertical dimension
B. Vitamin B deficiency

967.

What sort of alloys do you use for bridges:

A. Ductile
B. Hard
C. High sensitivity

968.
What sort of material do you use for the fabrication of
Maryland bridges:
A. Single phase materials

B. Multi phase materials

C. Extra hard
D. The same as bonding martial
969.
When the neck of the condyle is fractured; what muscles
determine the movement of the superior segment:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Lateral pterygoid
Medial pterygoid
Temporalis
Mylohyoid

970.
Patient with prosthetic heart valves, with INR value of 3.0;
requires surgery, what is the your management:

A. Give Amoxicillin or Vancomycin and suture carefully

B. Stop warfarin, start heparin, carefully suture and give
Amoxicillin or Vancomycin
C. Stop warfarin, carefully suture and give Amoxicillin or
Vancomycin
971.
Chronic oral antral fistula for some time after the extraction of
maxillary first molar. What is your management:
A. Surgical closure
B. Anti-biotic and nasal decongestant
C. Wash the antrum
972.

Pigmented naevus can undergo malignant:

A. Always
B. Never
C. 10 to 15%

973.
The MOST common sites for squamous carcinoma in the oral
cavity are:**
A. Palate and gingivae
B. Tongue and floor of the mouth
C. Tongue and palate
974.
A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy
report shows acantholysis and supra basilare; your diagnosis is:

A.
B.
C.
D.
975.

Pemphigus vulgaris
Bulla lichen planus
Erythema multiform
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Oral mucosal pigmentation; what is TRUE:

A.
B.
C.
D.
976.

Commonly seen in ethnic groups

Commonly an amalgam tattoo
Commonly oral melanoma
Commonly melanotic naevus
What I TRUE in regards to osteogenesis imperfecta:

A. Manifests with blue sclera

B. May be associated with deafness
C. Sex linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage
977.
Increase which of the following will decrease density of
radiograph:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
978.

Milliampere
Time
KvP Kilovoltage
Object-film distance
Focal spot-object distance
Which of the following will increase sharpness:

A. Larger focal spot

B. Smaller focal spot
C. Increase object-film distance
979.

The MOST common staphylococcal infections is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

980.

A localised purulent infection of the skin

Diffuse purulent infection of the skin
Staphylococcal osteomyelitis
Impetigo
What is TRUE in regards to Basal Cell Carcinoma

A.
B.
C.
D.

Metastases is common
Erodes bone
More common in oriental races
Cannot occur in oral mucosa according to definition

981.

In severe periodontitis; probe:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

982.

Get stopped by calculus

Goes beyond connective tissues of junctional epithelium
Touches coronal end of junctional epithelium
Touches the middle of junctional epithelium
Touches sulculuar epithelium
Characteristic of mucogingival involvement:

A. A pocket of more than 4 mm depth

B. Only 1mm of attached gingiva remains
C. Pocket extends to the mucogingival junction
983.

The role of Guided Tissue Regeneration G.T.R. is:

A. Prevents apical migration of junctional epithelium
B. Allow the growth of connective tissue in contact with surface
C. Prevent apical migration of junctional epithelium

984.

The critical plaque PH is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

6
5.5
4
4.5

985.
When it is acceptable for patient to hold radiographic film
packet in the patients mouth:
A.
B.
C.
D.
986.

Patient is very young and can not understand direction

Patient is physically handicapped and unable to hold the film
Film should never be held by the dentist
There is a lack of time and radiograph is essential
Common cause of poor diagnosis in avulsion replantation:

A. External resorptive defects

987.

Posterior vital molar with core the best material to restore it is:
A. Amalgam

988.

The function of incisor pin of an articulator:

A. Horizontal and vertical overlap

989.
Which of the following is important consideration when
deciding whether to design an upper partial denture without anterior
flang:
A. The amount of labial alveolar bone resorption
990.

Zinc Oxide and eugenol impression paste:

A. Can not be used in areas with undercuts

991.
When restoring with composite resins, why do we do the cavo
surface bevelling:
A. Aesthetic
992.

In regards to denture stomatitis:

A. Due to over growth of some normal commensal of oral cavity

993.

The MOST unfavourable root fracture:

A. Cervical third

994.

The GREATEST reliable finding to confirm a necrotic pulp is:

A. Area of radiolucency surrounding the apex of tooth

995.
When preparing Class II cavity, you notice a hard dark brown
spot on the adjacent tooth just below the contact point; MOST
LIKELY it is,
A. Demineralised enamel
996.

When opening the mouth; in TMJ area:

A. Initial rotation followed by translation of condyle

997.

In cavity preparation 1mm below DEJ what is seen:

A.
B.
C.
D.

More dentinal tubules, some intertubular and peritubular

Some dentinal tubules, more intertubular and less peritubular
More peritubular, some intertubular and dentinal tubular
Equal amount of dentinal tubules, intertubular and peritubular

998.

Pulp with multiple microabscesses will cause eventually:

A. Necrosis

999.
Endodontic therapy completed on tooth with periapical
radiolucency. Marked reduction in size of radiolucency is expected in
approximately:
A. One year
1000.

Well constructed complete denture:

A. Needs little maintenance
B. Less than a week for adjustment and total success
C. Adverse effects and decrease taste sensations

1001.

To prevent cervical resorption defects following bleaching:

A. Remove Gutta Percha at least 2mm below CEJ or above the crest
of alveolar bone and isolate

1002.
Which muscle acts on the disto lingual contour of lower
denture:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mentalis
Masseter
Mylohyoid
Buccinator

1003.
The MOST common curvature of palatal root of maxillary first
molar is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1004.

Distal
Mesial
Buccal
Palatal
The reason that endodontically treated teeth are weak is:

A. Loss of blood supply

B. Loss of coronal tissues
1005.
58 years old male has had a 60 yo WM course of radiation
given for carcinoma of tongue. Patient complains of pain associated
with poor dentition. The dental management would be:

A. Immediate extraction of any poor teeth under local anaesthetic

with antibiotic coverage
B. Segmental dental clearance and closure to eliminate problems
C. No dental treatment may be due to neuronic of neoplasms
D. Clearance of poor dentition followed by hyperbaric oxygen
treatment plus a primary closure of wounds under antibiotic
coverage
E. No extraction as radionecrosis is an important sequelae
1006.
On examination of composite restoration you find a dark
attain:
A. Replace the composite
B. Repair with unfilled resin
C. Apply topical fluoride at the margin
1007.
Occasional sensitivity in a shallow class I amalgam restoration
after two days would be managed by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1008.

Replace old filing immediately

Oxide Zinc and eugenol
Using thicker mix of cements
Tell patient the discomfort will disappear after 4 t o6 weeks
Ledermix
Pulp capping in mature tooth may be followed by:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
1009.

Pulpalgia
Internal resorption
Hypercalcification within root canals
All of the above
The MOST common occurrence after direct pulp capping is:

A. Signs of reversible pulpitis

1010.
When should not contaminate metallic framework during
fabrication of porcelain fused to metal crown:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Between bisque stage and glazing stage

Between preheat and opaque stages
Between opaque and bisque stages
Between one opaque and two opaque stages

1011.
Pop off of a porcelain veneer from under the lying gold
crown is due to:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
1012.

Too thick application of pure gold surface conditioner

Contamination at the porcelain metal interface
Under firing the opaque layer
All of the above
Attrition in elderly, why do teeth maintain contact:

A. Building bone around the fundus of alveolar bone and deposition

of cementum
B. Increased interocclusal distance
C. Formation of dentine
1013.

The MOST likely factor contributes to tooth eruption is:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

The growing root

Bone growth
Vascular pressure
The developing periodontal ligament

1014.
Initial condylar guidance of 25 degree was wrong is changed to
45 degree. What changes will you make to achieve balanced
occlusion:
A. Decrease incisal guidance
B. Reduce cusps height
C. Increase compensate curve
1015.
Good oral hygiene and fluoridation is LEAST useful in
preventing caries of:
A. Pit and fissure
B. Smooth surface
C. Inaccessible area
1016.
Patient complains of sensitivity; on examination you found a
composite restoring a good cavity preparation without any secondary
caries; what is your next step:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1017.

Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamed

Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulp
Ask patient to come back in six months
Repeat restoration
What is the shape of occlusal rest:

A. Spoon shape with rounded margin

1018.

Regeneration periodontal surgery:

A. Regeneration of cementum
B. Long junctional epithelium

1019.

What is NOT TRUE about gingivitis:

A. Mobility

1020.
Why is the frequency of carbohydrates intake more important
quantity:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1021.

Low number of streptococcus mutans

Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentration
Homo formation is better at high sugar intake
Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque
Gingivitis is not caused by:

A. Diabetes
B. Viral infection
1022.

The elimination half life of Diazepam is in the range of:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

1023.

2-5 hours
5-12 hours
12-30 hours
30-48 hours
48-96 hours
Myxoedema occurs due to:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

Hypersecretion of the thyroid

Hypersecretion of the adrenal
Hyposecretion of thyroid-hypothyroidism
Hyposecretion of the adrenal

1024.
Ulcers, necrosis and plasma cells at the basal membrane with
atrophic thin areas, reduced rete pegs will be diagnosed as:
A. Desquamative gingivitis
1025.
Which of the following is seen in benign mucosal membrane
pemphigoid:**

A.
B.
C.
D.
1026.

Tzanck cells
Intraepithelial vesicles
Histopathology like aphthous ulcer
Scarring of the conjunctiva
In syphilis:

A. Primary lesion is not contagious

B. Oral lesions are not seen in less than 1%
C. Spirochetes disseminate in 24 hours
1027.

Which of the following is TRUE about syphilis:

A. The spirochetes disseminate rapidly throughout the body within
24hour after contact
B. Both the primary chancre and the secondary mucous patch stages
of the disease are highly infectious
C. Only the lesions of the primary and secondary stages are
contagious
D. All of the above

1028.

Which of the following is not true about warfarin,

A.
B.
C.
D.

INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction

Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time
Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly
It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of
coumarin

1029.
Staphylococcus aureus can cause which of the
following infection:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Thyroiditis
Pancreatitis
Osteomyelitis
Scarlatina
Pneumonia

1030.
A 10 year old child presents with crowding of the
dentition and desires correction. What your next step would be:
A. Perform mixed dentition analysis
B. Extract the deciduous teeth
C. Ask the patient to come after the deciduous teeth fall off and
complete permanent dentition erupts

D. Apply a fixed appliances

E. Review in yearly intervals
1031.

In regards to paracetamol:
A. Liver damage in mild overdose

1032.

In regards to periapical lesions, what is TRUE:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Are predominantly anaerobic

Must be treated by antibiotics
Must always treated by surgery
Change fro aerobic into anaerobic

1033.
Patient with weak pulse, moist skin and dyspnoea; what
is the first thing to do:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Maintain airway and place in supine position

Give insulin injection
Administer oxygen
Inject adrenaline

1034.
Single retroclined upper incisor in 9 years old, space is
sufficient. What is your management:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1035.

Anterior inclined plane on mandibular teeth

Bite plane
Expansion screw
Hawley appliance
The angle of blade for closed curettage is:**

A.
B.
C.
D.

Less than 35 degree

Less than 45 degree
Less than 90 degree
Less than 100 degree

1036.
In which of the following conditions vesicles/bullae are
never seen prior to ulceration:
A. HSV 1
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Pemphigus

1037.
Patient complains of finger-like growth on the lateral
aspect of the tongue. The lesion is painless and of normal colour. The
MOST PROBABLE diagnosis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1038.

Thiamine is useful in:

A.
B.
C.
D.

1039.

Folate papillae
Filiform papillae
Neurofibroma
Papilloma

Collagen synthesis
Clotting factor production
Epithelial integrity
Cellular energy production
Topical fluorides are MOST beneficial when:

A. Directly applied on decalcified enamel

B. Applied after eruption
1040.
Child presented to you with sore throat, fever and joint
swelling; the MOST probable diagnosis is:

A. Rheumatic fever
B. Rheumatic arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
1041.

End product of amino acids metabolism is:

A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Allantoin

1042.
Patient shows a lesion on the tongue adjacent to sharp
tooth. You rounded off the sharp area and recall patient after one
month to see the lesion turning smaller in size. What your next step
would be:
A. Keep observing
B. Perform an excision biopsy
C. Prescribe Kenalog and Orabase

1043.
On HIV patient which of the following IS NOT
RECOGNISED:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1044.
is:

Squamous cell carcinoma

HIV gingivitis
Osteosarcoma
External lymphoma
Kaposi sarcoma
The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient

A.
B.
C.
D.

Prescribe antibiotics
Debridement and antimicrobial rinses
Gingivoplasty
Flap surgery

1045.
A patient on dicoumarol treatment needs extraction.
Which of the following is MOST valuable in evaluating surgical risks:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1046.

Clotting time
Bleeding time
Prothrombin time
Sedimentation rate
Complete blood cell count
Infection with new bone formation is:

A. Garrs osteomyelitis
B. Condensing osteitis
C. Torus
1047.
You want to place a post on an endodontically treated
tooth which has a good silver point Ag point; there is no evidence of
failure of the previous root filing. What would you do:
A. Remove and replace the Ag point with Gutta Percha before the
post preparation.
1048.
The placement of metal stops at a location remote to
direct retainers to increase retention is termed:
A. Indirect retainers

1049.
The hamular notch is important in full dentures
construction because it aids in the setting position of the artificial
teeth
A. First statement is true, but the reason given is false
1050.
When setting up teeth for complete dentures having
bilateral balanced occlusion, separation of posterior teeth during
protrusion is done by:
A. Increasing the anterior posterior occlusal curve
B. Decreasing the angle orientation of the occlusal plane
1051.
When patient bites in protrusion you notice that
posterior teeth do not meet, what would you do to solve this:
A. Increase the compensatory curve
B. Decrease the angle of the occlusal plane
1052.

The MOST common reason for full denture failure:

A. Inadequate interocclusal clearance

1053.
A complaint of burning tongue in an elderly female
would be a result of:
A. A systemic allergy
B. Allergy because of denture
C. Psychogenic
1054.
In posterior crossbite situation which are the
supporting cusps:
A. Upper buccal and lower lingual cusps
1055.

The bilaminar zone in reference to TMJ refers to:

A. The upper and lower joint spaces
B. The distal attachments of the lateral pterygoid to the condyle

1056.
What is the MOST COMMON configuration of the
mesial buccal canal of upper first molar:**
A. Two canals and one foramina
1057.

What does SYNERESIS in prosthodontics mean:

A. Loss of water and contraction

1058.
Why would you invest the wax pattern as soon as
possible in an indirect inlay fabrication:
A. Minimise distortion
B. Avoid contraction
C. Avoid expansion
1059.
Upon palpation which of the following areas would be
found to have overlying mucosa:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.

Midline of the palate

Mylohyoid ridge
Mental foramen
Incisive foramen
Tori

A. I and II
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, V
D. None of the above
E. All of the above.
1060.

Why do people with cleft palate/lip have speech

difficulties:
A. Difficulties in keeping the intraoral pressure.