Process Control

( Contributed by J. Herschfield of Alberta, Canada)

1. In any process application feedback control requires ?
a. a remote loop
b. an open loop,
c. a closed loop
d. an internal loop
2. An ON-OFF control system can not solve critical process control problems because
it has:
a. only two possible outcomes
b. to large an output range
c. too small an output range
d. too slow an output
3. A proportional controller has a proportional band of 380% . The gain will be?
a. 7.60
b. 0.263
c. 3.80
d. 0.132
4. The rate of integral setting on a controller are often graduated in repeats per minute,
which other term is used?
a. sensitivity per min
b. minures per repeat

c. gain per min

d. proportional per sec.

5. A locally mounted temperature controller is controlling the temperature of distillate

from an overhead condenser, which uses cooling water as the manipulated variable.
The temperature range of the controller is 2 to 200 degrees C. and the normal control
temperature is at mid range, the controller has a proportional band setting of 58 % and
a reset time of 3 minutes. If the cooling water temperature increases as a step change
by 21 degrees c. after 2.56 minutes by how much will the output of the controller
change, considering open loop situation.
a. 3.99psi
b. 4.57psi
c. 4.04psi
d. 4.03psi
6. In on-off control, the value of the controler output depends only upon:
a. the amount of offset in the system
b. the sign of the error
c. the rate at whichthe eror has occurred
d. how long the error has existed
7. A process load change will cause a pure proportional control system to have:
a. offset
b. dead zone
c. no noticable effect
d. continuous cyclic action
8. A high controller gain setting is the same as:

a. A minimum offset
b. high reset
c. low sensitivity
d. narrow proportional band

9. Automatic process control is, generally speaking:

a. a collection of gadgetry which the Instrument department takes care of
b. a "black box" on the instrument panel,
c. a system of components consisting only of instruments
d. a system of control that does not need constant human intervention

10. The mathematical relationship k2

modes?

e dt refers to which of the following control

a. positive feedback integral term

b. negative feedback proportional term
c. positive feedback derivative term
d. negative feedback integral term

11. A controller with settings PB = 110%, Reset = 1.5 minutes is the same controller
with setting of:

a. k1 = 1.1, k2 = 1.5 rpts/min.

b. k1 = 110, k2 = 1.5 min.

c. k1 = 0.91, k2 = 0.67 rpts/min.

d. k1 = 1.1, k2 = 0.67 rpts/min.

12. A controller with settings PB = 180%, Reset = 2.3 min is subjected to a 20% step
change at time t = 0, after 2 min the controller output change in percent will be?
(consider open loop only)
a. 20.8%
b. 1.45%
c. 11.6%
d. 67.3%

13. An error signal that can be represented by the function e = At . psi/min where A
= 1.4, n = 1.89 and t = time in mins., is transmitted to a direct acting controller having
a PB = 24%, and an integral setting of 1.6 repeats/min. If the system is in an open
loop situation, what is the output from the controller after 1.81 min when the initial
value of the output was 7.3 psi
a. -28.54 psi
b. 52.64 psi
c. 43.14 psi
d. 77.05 psi

14. An error signal that can be represented by the fuction e = At psi/min where A =
1.6, n = 1.62 and t = time in mins, is transmitted to a reverse acting controller having a
PB = 350%, and an integral setting of 1.2 min/repeat. If the system is in an open loop
situation, what is the output from the controller after 1.36 min when the initial value
of the output was 10 psi

a. 8.395 psi
b. 8.922 psi
c. 8.490 psi
d. 11.28 psi
n

15. An error signal that can be represented by the function e = At psi/min where A
= 1.88 and t = time in mins., is transmitted to a reverse acting controller having a PB =
440%, and an integral setting of 1.2 min/repeat. If the system is in an loop situation,
what is the output from the controller after 0.729 min when the initial value of the
output was 8.0 psi
a. 3.695 psi
b. 7.742 psi
c. 9.354 psi
d. insufficient data
n

16. An error signal that can be represented by the function e = At psi/min where A
= 1.8, and t = time in mins., is transmitted to a reverse acting controller having a PB =
410%, and an integral setting of 0.74 min/repeat. If the system is in as open loop
situation, what is the output from the controller after 0.798 min when the initial value
of the output was 8.0 psi
a. 7.272 psi
b. 8.462 psi
c. 7.443 psi
d. 7.451 psi
17. The main purpose for reset action in a control loop is to:
a. increase controller gain
b. eliminate offset

c. decrease controller gain

d. speed up response
18. Automatic controllers operate on the difference between set point and
measurement, which is called:
a. feedback
b. bais
c. error
d. offset
19. All control systems that fit into the usual pattern are:
a. non self-regulating
b. closed loop
c. on / off
d. open-loop
20 Gain and proportional band are:
a. controller functions calibrated in time units
b. two different control modes
c. reciprocally related
d. adjusted independently of one another

21. A proportional controller will have an offset difference between set point and
control point:
a. that depends on process load
b. at all times

c. that will eventually vanish

d. equal to the proportional band setting

22. If it were possible for a proportional controller to have true 0 % proportional band,
the controller gain would have to be:
a. 0
b. unity
c. 100
d. infinite
23. If the proportional band of the controller is adjusted to minimum possible value,
the control action is likely to be:
a. on/off
b. with maximum off/set
c. excelent
d. inoperative
24. All process control systems may be assumed to be:
a. linear
b. nonlinear
c. linear for the purpose of initial consideration but with the full knowledge that
this may not be the case.
d. nonlinear for the purpose of analysis with the exception that the system may
prove to be linear

25. A proportional controller is employed to control a process that is subject to a load

change. Narrowing the proportional band will:
a. never causes cycling
b. always cause cycling
c. not change the offset
d. decrease the offset
26. The most common combination of control modes found in the typical process
plant is:
a. proportional plus integral
b. on / off
c. proportional only
d. proportional, plus integral and derivative

27. The integral dial on a controller is calibrated in:

a. integral units
b. gain units
c. percentage
d. minutes or repeats/min

28. What some manufactures call rate others call derivative.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

29. If the closed loop control system has too much gain it will cycle. The only loop
component that has a conveniently adjustable gain is the:
a. valve operator
b. measuring transmitter
c. process
d. controller

30. A P & I controller with an error of 9%, a gain of 2.3 and a reset of 0.94 min/repeat
in open loop would produce an output signal that would ramp at the rate of :
a. 42.7%/min
b. 19.5%/min
c. 20.7%/min
d. 22.0%/min

31. The response of derivative action to a step input is:

a. a step
b. a sinewave
c. a ramp
d. a spike
32. When the damping coeffcient ( ) is unity, the system is
a. overdamped
b. critically damped
c. underdamped

d. highly fluctuating
33. A stable system is
a. for which the output response is bounded for all bounded input
b. which exhibits an unbounded reponse to a bounded input
c. which satisfies the conditions of a dynamic system
d. which can be easily controlled

34.The number of poles in a system with transfer function [1/ ( s 2 + 2s + 1) ] is

a. 2
b. 3
c. 0
d. infinte

35.The reaction rate of a process is determined by :

a. the slops of its reaction curve
b. the period of oscillation
c. the time of the dead time (or time lag)
d. the maximum point of its reaction curve

36. The lapse time between the moment of the step change is made and the moment
the recorder first begins to reflect that change is called :

a. process rate
b. integral time
c. dead time
d. error

37. During the start-up of the hypochlorate plant you have the opportunity to tune the
three mode level controller installed on the inlet separator. Using the Ultimate
Sensitivity Method you establish that the system oscillates with aperiod of 1.26 min.
The proportional setting that creates the oscillations is 190 %. The optimum settings
for good control ( One quarter amplitude decay QAD ) using the Ziegler and Nichols
method will be :

a. Proportional band = 317, Reset = 0.630 min/repeat, and 0.157 Rate-min

b. Proportional band = 422, Reset = 0.504 min/repeat, and 0.180 Rate-min
c. Proportional band = 380, Reset = 1.59 min/repeat, and 0.210 Rate-min
d. Proportional band = 238, Reset = 0.840 min/repeat, and 0.140 Rate-min

f.

e. CONTROL AND INSTRUMENTATION

Contributed by Professor B.B.Paira, Director, Heritage Institute
of Technology

g.
h.

1. Laplace transform of e-at sin t u(t) is

i.

j.

k.
l.

m.
n.

2. L-1
(a) sin t

is
(b) cos t

(c) sin t

(d) cos t

o.
p.

3.L-1 A is

q.
r.

(a) A
u(t) (e) A-1 u(t)

s.
t. 4. L 1 F (s-a) is
u. a) e at f (t) u(t)

at

(b) A (t) or A (t) u (t)

b) e

-at

f(t) u(t),

c) e

(d) A t

at

f (t-a) u(t),

d)

f (t a)

v.
w.

5.

is

x.

y.
z.

6. ex is

aa.

ab.
ac.
ad.
ae.

7. sin x is

af.
ag.

ah.
ai.
aj.

8.

is defined as Laplace transform of f(t) when

ak.
al.

am.
an.
ao. 9. Tick
ap. System

the characteristics of the following systems :

of these

aq.

coefficient
ar. OPTION
d

Characteristics
Both
Time
Characteristics
a

None
a and b
b

constant

Damping
c

as.

i) Zero Order
au. ii) First Order
av. iii) Second Order
aw. iv) Third Order
at.

ax.
ay.
az.

10. Time constant is :

(a) Time taken by the response (measured variable) to
attain 63.2 percent of its ultimate value (total charge)

ba.
bb.

(b) Time taken by the response (controlled variable) to

attain 63.2 percent of its ultimate value (total charge)

bc.
bd.
be.
bf.
bg.

(c)Synonymous with transfer lag

(d) Same as time delay
11. Transfer function is defined as :
ratio of Laplace transforms of output deviation variable to
input deviation variable

bh.
bi.

ratio of Laplace transform of controlled variable deviation to

forcing function deviation

bj.
bk.
bl.

ratio of Laplace transform of controller output deviation to

disturbance deviation.

bm.
bn.

12. Response due to a sinusoidal input is :

bo.
bp.
bq.
br.
bs.

a) exponentially
increasing,
b) exponentially
decreasing,
c) sinusoidal,
d) an
impulse
function,
none of these,
13. Amplitude ratio for a 1st or 2nd order system is
a) 1
b) > 1,
c) < 1
d) none of
these

bt.
bu.
bv.

14. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a 1 st order

system is
a) 900
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 1800

bw.
bx.

15.. For two non interacting first order systems connected

in series, the overall transfer function is

by.
bz.
ca.
cb.
cc.

the product of individual transfer functions

the sum of individual transfer functions
the ratio of individual transfer functions
none of these

cd.
ce.
cf.
cg.

16. When the damping coefficient is less than unity, the

system is
a) Under damped
b) Over damped
c) Critically damped
d) none of these

ch.
ci.
cj.
ck.

17. Phase lag due to the frequency response of a second

order system is
a) 450
b) < 1800 c) < 900
d) > 180
0
0
e) > 90 but < 180

cl.
cm.
cn.
co.
cp.

ds

18. e
is the transfer function due to
a) Process lag
b) transfer lag
c) transportation lag
d) exponential lag
e) quadratic lag

cq.
cr. 19. The nature of the solution for the roots of the
characteristic equation lying on the left-hand half of the
complex plane would be approximated as

cs.

e at ( C1 Cos t + C2 Sin t )
cu. e at ( C1 Cos t + C2 Sin t )
cv. C1 Cos t + C2 Sin t
cw. d) none of these
ct.

cx.
cy.
cz.
da.
db.
dc.

20. For the under damped second order system

a) (decay ratio)2 =
overshoot
b) decay ratio
=
(overshoot)2
overshoot increases with increasing value of damping
coefficient
larger damping coefficient means smaller damping

dd.
de.
df.
dg.

21. Response of a linear control system for a change in load

is called
a) transient
response
b) sinusoidal
response
c) servo problem
d) regulator problem

dh.

22. A stable system is one

dj. (a) whose response is time invariant
dk. (b) for which the output is bounded for all bounded inputs
dl. (c) for which the roots of the characteristic equation lies on
the left hand half of the complex plane
dm. d) all of (a), (b) & (c)
di.

dn.
do.

23. If the response of a control system is to free of offset

and oscillation, most useful controller would be

dp.
dq.
dr.

a) Proportional
b) Proportional derivative
c) Proportional integral
d) Proportional
integral derivative

ds.

24. When the gain of a proportional controller is increased,

it
du. a) minimises offset
dv. b) eliminates offset
dw. reduces offset but increases tendency towards instability
dx. reduces offset to zero but increases oscillations
dt.

dy.
dz.
ea.
eb.
ec.
ed.

25. When an integral mode is added to a proportional

controller
it eliminates offset but increases oscillations
it reduces offset but increases oscillations
it reduces offset and oscillations
it eliminates offset and oscillations

ee.
ef.
eg.
eh.
ei.
ej.

26. When a derivative mode is added to a proportional

controller it
eliminates offset and oscillations both
reduces offset but eliminates oscillation
eliminates offset only
eliminates oscillations only

ek.

27. Which of the following controllers has maximum offset ?

em. a) P controller
b) P-D controller
en. c) P-I controller
d) PID controller
el.

eo.
ep.
eq.
er.
es.
et.

28. Which of the controllers has the least possible

deviation?
a) P controller
b) P-D controller
c) P-I controller
d) PID controller
29. Mode used for transmitting signal for one Km distance
is
a) hydraulic b) pneumatic
c) electronic
d) none
of these

eu.

30. Final control element is a

ew. a) Valve
b) Switch c) Signal
ev.

d) none of these

ex.
ey.
ez.

31. Pneumatic control valves are generally designed for

pressure upto
a) 150 psi b) 1500 psi c) 2500 psi d) 5000 psi

fa.
fb.
fc.
fd.

32. Hydraulic control valves are generally designed for

pressure upto
a) 50 psi
b) 100 psi c) 500 psi d) 5000 psi

fe.
ff.
fg.

33. Electronic controller output varies from

a) 4 mA 20 mA
b) 0 30 mA
c) upto 50 mA
(d) none of these

fh.
fi.
fj.
fk.

34. Valve top pressure in pneumatic transmission varies

from
a) 0 20 psi
b) 3 15 psi
c) 3 18 psi
d) none of these

fl.
fm.
fn.
fo.
fp.
fq.

35. The liquid used in hydraulic transmission is

a) water
b) steam
c) oil
d) any nonvolatile
liquid
36. Offset
a) Varies with time
b) Varies as the square
root of time
c) does not vary with time
d) Varies exponentially with
time

fr.
fs.
ft.
fu.
fv.

37. Regulator problem requires

a) set point to be constant
b) load to be constant
c) both set point and load are constant,
d) neither set point nor load is constant,

fw.
fx.
fy.
fz.

38. Servo problem necessitates

a) set point to be constant
c) both a and b

b) load to be constant
d) neither a nor b

ga.
gb.
gc.
gd.
ge.
gf.
gg.

39. On off control

Fully opens the valve when the measurand is below the set
point
Fully closes the valve when the measurand is above the set
point
Is a two position (fully opened or fully closed) control action
adequate to
Control a process with slow reaction rate and minimum
dead time,
none of these,

gh.
gi.

40. On-off control requires the controller gain to be

gj.
gk.

a) large
b) small
c) variable from small to large values d) none of these

gl.
gm. 41.
gn.
go.
gp.

Floating control action

is used to counteract rapid load changes
changes the position of the final control element from on to
off
moves the final control element at constant speed in either
direction in response to an error signal

gq.
gr.
gs.

42. Cascade control action is

the continuous adjustment of the set point of an automatic
control loop by a master controller

gt.
gu.

used when two or more processes are to be controlled with

a single controller,

gv.
gw.

used when the process conditions cause serious upset in the

value of the measured variable.

gx.
gy.

Useful to control flow from pressure variation,

gz.
ha.
hb.
hc.
hd.

43. The characteristic of the pneumatic

controller mechanism
is independent of the baffle- nozzle gain
is dependent on the baffle nozzle gain
does not require any baffle nozzle system

proportional

he.
hf.

44. The flow of a fluid through a control valve various from

zero to 2 Cfm when the valve is either fully closed or fully
open. The valve sensitivity is

hg.
hh.
hi.

a) 1/6 Cfm/psi
c) 24 Cfm

b) 6 psi/Cfm
d) none of these,

hj.
hk.

hl.

45. A concentration analyser indicates values of 0.0 to 0.05

lbs mole/ft3 as the pen on the controller moves from 0 to
4.00 inches. The sensitivity of the measuring element is

hm. a)
hn.
ho.
hp.

b)
c)
d)

100 inches of pen travel/lb mole / ft3

0.01 lb mole / ft3 /inches of pen travel
1.0 lb mole / ft3
none of these,

hq.
hr.
hs.
ht.
hu.

46. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has

a) higher maximum deviation b) longer response time
c) longer period of oscillation and no offset,
d) all a , b, c

hv.
hw.

47. Difference at any instant between the value of the

controlled variable and the set point is called

hx.
hy.
hz.

a) deviation
c) error ratio

b) derivative time
d) differential gap

ia.
ib.

48. The time difference by which the output of a PD

controller leads the input when the input changes linearly
with time is called.

ic.
id.
ie.

a) Error ratio
c) proportional sensitivity,

b) derivative time
d) gain

if.
ig.

49. Steady state deviation resulting from a change in the

value of the load variable is called

ih.
ii.
ij.

a) off set
c) deviation

b) error ratio
d) static error

ik.
il.

50. Time required for the output of a first order system to

change from a given value to 63.2% of its final value when a
step change of input is made, is called

im.
in.
io.

a) time constant
c) rise time

b) settling time
d) derivative time

ip.

CONTROL AND INSTRUMENTATION

Contributed by Professor B.B.Paira, Director, Heritage Institute of

Technology

51. A controller action in which, there is a continuous linear

relation between the value of the controlled variable and the rate
of change of controlled output signal is called
a) proportional action

b) integral action

c) derivative action

d) none of these

52. A controller action in which there is a constant relation

between the value of the controlled variable and the value of the
output signal of the controller is called.
a) proportional action
c) integral action

b) derivative action
d) none of these

53. Steady state ratio of the change of proportional controller

output variable and the change in actuating signal is called.
a) proportional sensitivity
c) rangeability

b) reset rate
d) off set

54. The speed of response of two non-interacting first order

systems in series when compared with the same two systems
arranged in interacting fashion is
a) faster,

b) slower,

c) same

d) can not be determined

55. Decible is (AR is amplitude ratio)

a) 20 log10 AR
c) 20 log10 1/AR

b) 20 loge AR
d) either of a or b

56. Stability of a control system containing a transportation lag

can be best analysed by
a) Routh test
c) Nyquist method

b) Root locus method

d) Bode diagram

57. Bode stability criterion is defined as

a) A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency
response exhibits an AR exceeding unity at the frequency
for which the phase lag is 1800.
b) A control system is stable if the open loop frequency
response exhibits an AR of less than, equal to unity at the
cross-over frequency.
c) The closed-loop feedback control system is stable if and
only if the open loop frequency response curve exhibits
maximum value of amplitude ratio of unity at 180 0 phase
lag, otherwise unstable.
d) All of a, b and c .
58. Bode diagram is a plot of ( is radian freqquncy)
log AR vs lag and vs log
log AR vs and log vs log

AR vs log and vs log

59. Gain Margin is equal to ]
a) amplitude ratio
ratio

b) reciprocal of amplitude

c) radian frequency

d) cyclical frequency

60. Phase Margin is equal to

a) 1800
c)

b) - 1800

+ 900

d)

- 900

61. Bode stability method utilises

a) Open loop transfer function,
Closed loop transfer function,
Either a or b
62. Typical design specifications for the gain and phase margins
respectively.
a) < 1.7 and < 300

b) >1.7 and < 300

c) < 1.7 and > 300

d) > 1.7 and > 300

63. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained

is called
a) Commer frequency

b) resonant frequency

c) cross-over frequency

d) natural frequency

64. A negative gain margin in decibel means

a) a stable system

b) an unstable system

c) critically damped system

instability

d) a system on the verge of

65. Routh stability method uses

a) Open loop transfer functions
b) Closed loop transfer functions
c) Characteristic equations
d) Either of a or b
e) Either of b or c
66. Open loop poles are same as
a) Closed loop poles
b) Closed loop zeros
Open loop zeros,
67. Number of poles in a system with transfer function

is
a) n

b) n2

c) n (n+1)

68. Overshoot of a second order system :

d) n (n-1)

decreases with increasing value of damping coefficient from

0 to 1
increases with increasing value of damping coefficient from
0 to 1
remains constant as damping coefficient changes from 0 to
1.
69. Approximate response of many process components such as
heat exchangers, fractionators can be adequately represented by

e) none of these
f) all of (a) to (d)
70. The time constants for a fractionating column in a process
industry are of the order of
a) Seconds

b) fraction of a second

c) minutes

d) hours

e) days,

f) none of these

71. The time necessary for a step change in food composition to

be observed in the top and bottoms compositions is of the order
of
a) seconds

b) minutes

c) hours

d) none of these

72. List the instruments noted below according to their

functions (Symbols : Transmitting (t), Signaling (s), Registering
(rg), Indicating (i) and Recording (rd)
a) microvoltmeter

b) clock

d) energy motor

e) telephone

g) L I C

h) tachometer

mercury-in-glass thermometer.

c) grocers scale
f) T R C
i) rotameter

k)Bourdon gauge

l) Stetheoscope
73. A temperature sensing device of accuracy + 0.5% measures
temperature in the range of 500 10000C. The span of the
instrument and the true value of temperature corresponding to a
reading of 8000C are respectively
a) 5000C and 797.5 to 802.50C b) 10000C and 800 + 0.50C
c) 5000C and 796 to 8040C
1.50C
e) none of these

d) 1000C and 800 +

74. Zero drift is said to occur if

The calibration as a whole shifts,
The calibration from zero upwards shifts a proportional
amount
The calibration in the Ist part of the scale starting from zero
shifts, while the rest remains unaltered.
75. The maximum value of smallest change in measured variable
to which an instrument does not respond is its
a) dead zone

b) threshold value

c) sensitivity

d) time delay,

76. The threshold value at any point in the calibration curve

other than zero is
a) resolution
hysteresis
d) time delay

b) sensitivity

c)

e) fidelity

77. Write the opposite characteristics of

(i)
response

Lag

(a)

(ii) Static and dynamic error

(iii) Draft
(iv)
Precision

Speed

of

(b) Fidelity
(c)Reproducibility

Sensitivity

78. Identify the order of the following instruments :

(d)

(i) Meter bridge

(ii) Manometer
(iii) Bare thermocouple
(iv) Sheated thermocouple
(v) Boudon gauge
(a) 0 order

(b) 1st order (c) 2nd order (d) 3rd order

79. An instrument has a range of 500 10000C for measurement

of temperature. The temperature of an environment, 7000C say
is being measured, first with increasing values of the measurand
(i.e. from 5000C onwards) and then with decreasing values of the
measurand (i.e. from 10000C backwards).
i) Do you expect the readings to be same ?
a) yes

b) no

ii) If they differ then the difference may be due to

a) hysteresis

b) internal friction

c) external friction

d) backlash

80. Definitions of
appropriate one for

some

errors

(a) Intrinsic error

(b) Random error
(c) Instrumental error and
(d) Operational error

are

given

below. Identify

(i) Error observed when the instrument is under reference

condition
(ii) Repeated measurement of the same quantity results in
different values -(iii) Measure of precision with which the readings are taken
(iv) Carelessness in taking readings, bias attitude and lack of
experience or individual limitations (poor skill)
81. Monitoring of control devices is accomplished through
a) alarm signals
c) control values d) alarm
measuring device

b) measuring elements
signals

attached

to

the

82. Process instrumentation diagram provides

Process flow diagram,
Schematic layout of the process and plant equipment with
or without
Technical specifications,
Requisites for process system analysis and equipment
specifications
Schematic layout without specification of the process and
plant equipment but together with instrumentation
equipment
83. Signal conditioner :
Converts the transducer output to an electrical output
suitable for the function of the instrument

Conditions the signal from the instrument for the display

device
Puts a condition on the generation of signal from the
transducer in analog or digital format.
Signalling the conditions of the process to a remote place.
84. Indicate the use of analog and digital signals by A and D
respectively for the following devices :
a) Strip-chart recorder

b) Circular recorder

c) Oscilloscope

d) Teleprinter

e) Line printer

f) Paper type

g) Punch card

h) Cassette type

Floppy disc.
85. Dead zone is :
a) Same as time constant,
b) Same as transportation log
c) The maximum change in the measured variable that does
not change the reading of the instrument.
None of these
86. Degree to which an instrument indicates the changes in
measured variable without dynamic error is called
a) Speed of response

b) Fidelity

c)
Reproducibility
characteristics
87. Instrumentation in a process plant offers :

d)

Static

a) Greater safety of operation,

product
c) Greater operation economy

b) Better quality of
d) All a, b and c.

88. Resistance of a gas in a bellows (with usual notations) is

89. Which of the following error integral is considered as the

optimum criterion in controller settings :

d) None of these
90. Which of the following
measurement accuracy ?
a) Static and dynamic error

factors

does

not

influence

b) Reproducibility
c) Dead zibe
d) None of these
e) All of these
91. Pick out the symbol for Locally mounted instrument in
instrumentation diagram:

92. Which is the symbol for Pneumatic control valve

93. Representation
diagram is :

of

capillary

tube

in

instrumentation

94. Which of the following laws enables insertion of measuring

devices and connecting wires in the thermoelectric circuit ?
a) Law of homogeneous circuit,
b) Law of intermediate metals,
c) Law of intermediate temperature.
95. Which of the
thermocouples ?

following

laws

enables

calibration

of

a) Law of homogeneous circuit,

b) Law of intermediate metals,
Law of intermediate temperature.
96. Which of the following relates the absorption and evolution
of heat at the junctions of a thermocouple to the current flow in
the circuit ?
a) Seebeck effect

b) Peltier effect

c) Thomson effect

d) Joule-Thomson effect

97. Most suitable instrument for measuring temperature of a

furnace is
a) Platinum resistance thermometer
c) Optical
thermometer

pyrometer

b) Thermocouple
d) Bimetallic

98. Which of the following shows maximum dip effect (reverse

direction of temperature change) ?
a) Thermocouple

b) Radiation pyrometer

c) Mercury thermometer

d) Resistance thermometer

99. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring

a) Liquid temperature only
b) Very high temperature only
c) Very low temperatures only
d) Both high and low temperatures
100. Thermal wells are used in temperature measurement to
Guard against corrosive
thermocouple materials

and

oxidising

action

on

Reduce measuring lag

Increase the sensitivity
CONTROL AND INSTRUMENTATION
Contributed by Professor B.B.Paira, Director, Heritage Institutue of
Technology

101. Most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the

range of 400C to + 4000C is
a) mercury thermometer
thermometer
c) optical pyrometer

b)

bimetallic

d) none of these

102. Emf generated by thermocouples is of the order of

a) mV

b) MV

c) V

d) KV

103. Measurement of sub-zero temperature in industry is done

by
a) thermocouple
c) gas thermometer
thermometer

b) resistance thermometer
d)
bimetallic

104. In oceanographic exploration very small temperature

differences of the order of 0.0010C are to be measured, which
sensors would you recommend ?
a) Quartz crystal thermometer
b) Platinum resistance thermometer
c) Si semiconductor sensors
105. How are the stellar temperatures measured ?
a) Using Doppler phenomenon
b) Using Wiens law
c) Using Stefan-Boltzmanns law
106. Starting temperature of optical or radiation pyrometer is
a) 8000C

b) 4000C

c) 12000C

d) 16000C

107. Which thermocouple can be used to measure temperature

around 14000C ?
a) Copper constantan,
b) Chromel alumel
c) Platinum-Rhodium-Platinum d) none of these
108. Mask the materials below with the + or Ve sign for the
temperature coefficient of resistance
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Platinum +
Nickel +
Copper +
Thermistor
Silicon semiconductor .

109. Which
of
the
following
is
suitable
for measuring the temperature of a red hot moving object ?
a) Thermocouple
c) Radiation pyrometer

b) Thermistor
d) none of these

110. Thermocouples
a) have very slow speed of response
b) cannot be connected to the measuring
remotely located
need cold junction compensation

instrument

c) are much less accurate compared to bimetallic or filled

system thermometer
111. Selection of material for thermocouple depends on
a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid,
b) minimum and maximum temperature
c) pressure and velocity condition of the hot fluid
d) none of these
112. Radiation pyrometers
a) have very slow speed of response
b) need not see the source whose temperature it is to
measure
c) cannot measure temperature of objects without making
physical contact
113. Mercury, alcohol, toluene, pentane and creosote are some
of the thermometric liquids used in filled system expansion
thermometers. The ranges for which each is used are given
below. Write the name of the liquid in the blanks.
Range, 0C
Liquid
35 to + 510
80 to + 70
80 to + 100

200 to 30
5 to 200
114. Full compensation in filled-system thermometers means
(a) Compensation for changes of temperature of the
capillary tube and that within the instrument case
(b) Compensation in temperature for the full length of the
capillary tube, if used
(c) None of these
115. Self-heating in resistance thermometer is minimised when
a) The resistance is immersed in a high thermal conductivity
fluid
b) The current is kept low
c) Several sensore are provided in series
d) None of these
e) all of a, b and c
116. Piezo electric effect is
a) Conversion of a changing pressure into electrical voltage
signal
b) Creation of a voltage by the movement of a coil within a
magnetic field
c) Generation of an emf or current through the use of photoelectric effect.
117. What is the standard of reference in the range of 0
6000C,
a) gas thermometer
b) platinum resitance thermometer
c) platinum/Rhedium 10 Platinum thermocouple
118. Which thermocouple would you choose for use in an
oxidising environment ?
a) copper constantan

b) iron-constantan
c) charomel-alumel,
119. The brightness of a hot object is the basis of temperature
measurement in certain instruments Guess,
a) optical pyrometer
b) radiation pyrometer
c) pyrometric cones
d)
resistance
pyrometers
120. The low expansion and high expansion materials of a
bimetallic strip are respectively
a) Chromel and alumel
c) brass and invar

b) invar and brass

d) aluminium and invar

121. In process industries, the environment requires the

approximately
the
measurement
of
the
following
temperatures. Choose
appropriate
temperature
sensing
instrument.
i) 1000C : a) liquid filled sensor,
b) thermistor
c) vapour filled sensor
d) gas thermometer
e) Si-semiconductor f)copper-constantan
thermocouple
g) Platinum resistance thermometer
ii) 00C :

a) Platinum resistance thermometer

b) Gas filled thermometer
c) bimetallic thermometer
d) iron-constantah thermocouple
e) thermistor,

iii) + 2000C:
a) gas filled thermometer
b) mercury filled thermometer
c) bimetalic thermometer
d) resistance thermometer

iv) + 4500C:
a) liquid filled thermometer
b) gas filled thermometer
c) bimetallic thermometer
d) copper constantan thermocouple
e) iron-constantan thermocouple
f) platinum
Rhodium
10

thermocouple
g) platinum resistane thermometer
h) optical pyrometer
i) chromel alumel thermocouple

platinum

v) + 5500C: a) - i) as above
vi) + 8000C: a) Chromel-alumel thermocouple
b) Chromel-constantan thermocouple
c) Platinum & Rhodium 10 +
thermocouple
d) Optical pyrometer
e) Radiation pyrometer
f) Platinum resistance thermometer

Platinum

vii) + 14000C:
a)
Platinum
/
Rhodium
10
/
Platinum
thermocouple
b) Optical pyrometer
c) Radiation pyrometer
d) Tridium / Rhodium-Iridium thermocouple
viii) + 20000C:
a) Tungston / Rhenium Thermocouple
b) Platinum / Rhodium 10 thermocouple
c) Optical pyrometer
d) Radiation pyrometer
122. Gas analysis is commonly done using

Platinum

a) thermal conductivity cell

c) mass spectrometer
spectrometer

b) X-ray diffraction
d)
emission

123. Psychrometer determines :

a) humidity of gases
c) water of crystallisation
solids

b) moisture content of solids

d) hygroscopic nature of

124. Continuous measurement of moisture content of paper in

industry is done by measuring
a) thermal conductivity through the paper
b) electrical resistance through the paper
c) magnetic susceptibility
d) distribution of components in paper chromatography
125. Optical activity of a solution can be determined using a
a) polarimeter
c) dilatometer

b) polarograph
d) refractometer

126. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is

done by
a) hydrometer,
b) contact-type electric indicators
c) displacement meter
d) both a and c
127. Dilatometer is used to measure
a) Stress
b) Strain
c) deflection
d) Contraction/expansion due to changes in temperature
128. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of
a) Kinematic viscosity

b) surface tension
c) refractive index
d) optical activity
129. Stroboscope is used for the measurement of
a) rpm of a flywheel
b) frequency of light
c) depression of freezing point
d) liquid level under pressure
130. Small depression of freezing point of a liquid solvent on
addition of a solid solute can be accurately measured by
a) Beckman thermometer
b) dilatometer
c) mercury thermometer
d) thermocouple
131. Pitot tube measures
a) average velocity
b) maximum velocity
c) point velocity
d) static pressure
132. Hotwire anemometer is used for the measurement of
a) flow rates of fluids
b) flow rates of granular solids
c) very high temperature
d) thermal conductivity of gases
133. Flow rate through an orifice is
a) proportional to the pressure differential
b) inversely proportional to the pressure differential
c) proportional to the square root of pressure differential

d) inversely proportional to the square rot of pressure

differential
134. Which of the following flow-measuring instruments is an
area meter ?
a) Venturimeter
b) rotameter
c) Pitot tube
d)
Hot
wire
anemometer
135. Flow rate of sludge is measured by
a) V notch
b) rectangular notch
c) circular pipe
d) Kennison nozzle
136. In case of orifice meter, the pressure differential is
proportional to
a) Q2
b) Q
c) Q
Q being volumetric flow rate

d) 1 / Q

137. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of liquid in

a) an open channel
b) vertical pipe line
c) a non-circular cross-section closed channel
138. Which of the following is not a head flow meter ?
a) Segmental orifice plate
b) pitot tube
c) rotameter,
d) flow nozzle
139. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids can be best
measured by
a) pitot tube
c) eccentric orifice

b) concentric orifice
d) rotameter

140. Orifice plates for flow measurement

a) incurs very low permanent pressure loss
b) has poor accuracy on high orifice ratios

c) can be easily interchanged and is best for very large

flows and pipelines
141. Pitot tube is used
a) for highly accurate flow measurement
b) when the fluid contains lots of suspended materials
c) when the line is large and the velocity is high
d) none of these
142. In an areameter (rotameter), the flow rate is
a) proportional to the square root of the differential
pressure
b) inferred from the changes in area of an annular area in
the flow line across which the pressure differential is
constant
c) inferred from change in flow cross-section across which
the pressure differential is zero
143. A rotameter
a) incurs constant and small permanent pressure drop
b) incurs constant but very large permanent pressure drop
is inaccurate for low flow rates
c) need not be mounted vertically always
144. Most suitable flow measuring device for a gas stream
flowing at 50 lit/min in a 1 cm. i.d. stainless steel tube would be
a) rotameter
c) venturimeter

b) pitot tube
d) segmental orifice meter

145. Flow rate of clear water stream flowing at 1 lit/min in a 1.5

cm i.e. horizontal copper tube can suitably be measured by a
a) rotameter

b) pitot tube

c) venturi meter

d) orifice meter

146. Specify a suitable flow measuring device out of the

following for a slurry flowing at 3 lit/min in a 2 cm i.d. horizontal
glass tube
a) segmental orifice meter
c) magnetic flowmeter

b) pitot tube
d) rotameter

147. Best flow measuring device for molten polythene flowing in

a 2 schedule 40 steel pipe would be
a) Orifice meter
c) Pitot tube

b) Venturi meter
c) Magnetic flowmeter

148. What are standards of reference for flow measuring devices

?
a) Volume, mass and time measurements
b) pitot tube
c) rotameter
d) wet gas meter
e) venturi meter
f) flow nozzle.
149. In a fluid flow line, there occurs a pressure drop around
the venturi which is recovered downstream. Still then the flow is
maintained from a low pressure to high-pressure side because
a) total energy of the fluid upstream the venturi is higher
than that downstream,
b) velocity head determines the direction of flow,
c) total pressure upstream still remains larger than that in
the downstream,
150. A rectangular orifice is not recommended because
a) it changes the velocity profile

b) it causes larger pressure drop

c) it eliminates vena contracta
CONTROL AND INSTRUMENTATION
Contributed by Professor B.B.Paira, Director, Heritage Institutue of
Technology

151. For the measurement of flow of raw sewage, raw and

digested sludge, and industrial wastes in partially filled pipes and
channels, which of the following meters be recommended ?
a) rotameter
meter
c) gyro mass meter

b)

oscillating

piston

type

d) nozzle

152. Which of the following is called domestic water mete

r for measurement of flow ?
a) reciprocating piston type meter
b) dry gas meter
c) nutating disc meter
d) sealed drum meter
153. In petroleum industry, which of the flow meters is normally
used for heavy liquids characterised by high viscosity ?
a) nutating disc meter
b) orifice meter
c) nozzle
d) rotating vane/lobe meter
e) angular momentum meter
154. Out of all arrangements of pressure tape for the orifice,
which one would give maximum pressure differential ?
a) flange taps
b) pipe taps

c) vena contracts taps

155. Tick correct position of different pressure taps with respect
to the orifice face. Pipe diameter is D say
i) Vena contracta :

Up stream Down stream

a) ID
Varying with orifice to

pipe dia.
ratio : (0.3D 0.8D).
1D
8D

b) 1
c) 10
ii) Flange tap :

a) Varying with
size of orifice
b)
1
c)
1D

Varying with
size of pipe
1
1D

ii) Pipe tap :

a) 2.5 D
D
c)

8D

b) 2
4D
D

8D

156. A barometer measures

a) absolute pressure
b) gauge pressure
c) both absolute and gauge pressure d) dynamic pressure
157. Pirani gauge is used for
a) measurement of very high pressure
b) measurement of high vacuum
c) liquid level at atmospheric pressure
158. Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is done by
a) Bourdon gauge
c) Pirani gauge

b) U-tube manometer
d) Inclined tube manometer

159. Pressure of 0.01 psia can be measured by

a) Lonisation gauge
b) Pirani gauge
c) Mcleod gauge
160. Pressure of 0.0001 psia can be measured by
a) Mc leod gauge
b) Pirani gauge
c) Thermocouple gauge
161. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is
a) 20 psi

b) 30 psi

c) 40 psi

d) 50 psi

162. The method of measuring pressure exerted by corrosive,

sticky, flocculent material with excessive amount of solids is to
exclude the material from the pressure gauge. Choose three
common methods.
a) liquid seal
c) purge system
e) bell type

b) Capsule type seal

d) strain gauge
f) well type.

163. Why Bourdon tubes cannot actuate a control or other

device while bellows and diaphragm can ?
a) Bourdon tubes employ all their energy to deform the
spring like member and therefore have no capacity for
applying any significant force to actuate a control or other
device if the gauge is to indicate correctly. Bellows and
diaphragms have relatively large areas and can thus
develop relatively large forces they may retain their
accuracy of indication while performing other tasks.
b) Bourdon tubes are comparatively small devices and
unsuitable for actuation, which however is not with others.

c) An actuating mechanism suitable for Bourdon gauge has

yet to be developed.
d) Bourdon tubes may actuate to control system provided it
is modified with a manipulating element.
164. What are the standards of reference for (i) absolute and (ii)
differential pressure measurement ?
a) dead weight
manometers
c) Bourdon gauges
e) Strain gauges,

tester

b)

precision

d) diaphrgm gauges

165. What gauge would you recommend for measuring pressure

in the range of 10-4 to 10-6 m Hg ?
a) Alphatron
b) Cold cathode gauge
c) Ionization gauge
166. The level or a liquid under pressure can be measured by
a) bubbler system
manometer
c) diaphragm box system

b)

differential

pressure

d) air-trap system

167. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured by

a) float
b) manometers of float type
c) U-tube manometer
168. What gauge do you recommend for measurement of depths
of very hot liquids ?
a) gas purge
c) diaphragm

b) liquid purge
d) U tube

e) Ekstrom gauge
169. Determination of the level of a liquid by weighing the tank
with its contents or that of a solid by weighing solids in bins or
on conveyor belts is a method recommended for the materials to
be
a) too corrosives
c) injurious to health

b) too viscous,
d) chemically inert

170. In a process plant, an open-tank reservoir of a solvent has

an open-end manometer for level indication. Suddenly it was
realised that the tank has to be closed to prevent loss of
solvent. Suggest minimum modification for gauging the level of
the tank.
a) insert a diaphragm bore type gauge
b) switch over to bubbler system
c) connect the open end of the manometer to the top of the
tank
d) insert a pressure gauge at the bottom
171. A 8-bit microprocessor has
a) 8 bit address bus
c) 16 bit data bus

b) 8 bit control bus

d) 8 bit data bus

172. A microprocessor processes informations

a) in discrete manner (digitally)
b) in continuous (analogue) manner
c) in hybrid manner (both analogue means and digitally)
d) none of these above
173. An A/D converter converts
a) Digital signal to Analogue from
b) Amplitude of a signal to the width
c) Analogue signal to discrete levels
d) Voltage to current

174. A proportional band signifies

a) how much a controller and the load variation has
influence over the process
b) how much noise and the load can interfere with the
system
c) how controller and the process has influence over the
load disturbance
d) none of these
175. RTD is a pressure transducer
a) yes

b) no

176. Thermister is a temperature transducer

a) yes
b) no
177. Strain gauge is a flow transducer
a) yes
b) no
178. In a binary system you have only
a) 0 and 1
b) 0, 1 and 2
c) 0 to 9
d) none of the above