ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS

18. BJT BIASING AND STABILISATION

1.

The d.c. load line of a transistor circuit

(a) is a graph between IC and VCE
(c) does not contain the locating point

(b) is a graph between IC and IB

(d) is a curved line

2.

The positive part of the output signal in a transistor circuit starts clipping. if Q-point of the circuit moves
(a) towards the saturation point
(b) towards the cut-off point
(c) towards the center if the load line
(d) none of the above

3.

The negative part of the output signal in a transistor circuit starts clipping. if Q-point of the circuit moves
(a) towards the saturation point
(b) towards the cut-off point
(c) towards the center if the load line
(d) none of the above

4.

The voltage divider biasing circuit is used in amplifies quite often because it
(a) limits the a.c. signal going to the base
(b) makes the operating point almost independent of
(c) reduces the d.c. base current
(d) reduces the cost of the circuit

5.

Which of the following components are used for bias compensation in transistor circuits
(a) resistors
(b) rectifier diodes
(c) thermistors
(d) both (b) and (c) above

6.

To avoid thermal run away in the design of analog circuit, the operating point of the BJT should be such that it satisfies the
condition
(a) VCE = 1/2 VCE
(b) VCE = 1/2 VCC
(c) VCE > 1/2 VCC
(d) VCE 0.78 VCC

7.

In the case of a BJT amplifier, bias stability is achieved by

(a) keeping the base current constant
(b) changing the base current in order to keep the IC and VCB constant
(c) keeping the temperature constant
(d) keeping the temperature and base current constant

8.

For a transistor amplifier with self-biasing network, the following components are used R1 =4 kOHMS, R2 = 4 kOHMS and RE
= 1 kOHMS, the approximate value of the stability factor S will be
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1.5

9.

A transistor circuit employing base bias with collector feedback has greater stability than the one without feedback because
(a) IC decrease in magnitude
(b) VBE is decreased
(c) of negative feedback effect
(d) IC becomes independent of

10. The universal bias stabilization circuit is most popular because

(a) IC does not depend on transistor characteristics
(c) voltage divider is heavily loaded by transistor base
11. Improper biasing of a transistor circuit leads to
(a) excessive heat production at collector terminal
(c) faculty location of load line

(b) its b-sensitive is high

(d) IC equals to IE

(b) distortion in output signal

(d) heavy loading of emitter terminal

12. The negative output swing in a transistor circuit starts clipping first when Q-point
(a) has optimum value
(b) in near saturation point
(c) ins near cut-off point
(d) is in the active region of the load line
13. When a BJT is employed as an amplifier, it operates
(a) in cut-off
(b) in saturation

(c) well into saturation

(d) over the active region

14. Which of the following method used for biasing a BJT in integrated circuits is considered independent of transistor beta?
(a) fixed biasing
(b) voltage divider bias
(c) collector feedback bias
(d) base bias with collector feedback
15. The voltage V0 of the circuit shown in Fig. 18.54 is,
(a) 5.1 V
(b) 3.1 V

(c) 2.5 V

(d) zero

19. SINGLE-STAGE BJT AMPLIFIERS

1.

For a common emitter amplifier having a small unbypassed emitter resistance (RE) the input resistance is approximately equal to
(a) RE
(b) hfe
(c) hfe . RE
(d) RE/ hfe

2.

The voltage gain of a common base amplifier is

(a) zero
(b) less than unity

(c) unity

(d) greater than unity

3.

For a common base transistor amplifier having input resistance (Ri) and output resistance (R0), which of the following statements
holds good
(a) Ri is low, R0 is high
(b) Ri is high, R0 is low
(c) Ri and R0 are both medium

4.

The current gain of an emitter follower is

(a) zero
(b) greater than unity

5.

(c) less than unity

(d) all of them

Which of the following transistor amplifiers has the highest voltage gain
(a) common-base
(b) common-collector
(c) common-emitter

(d) none of them

6.

In an ac amplifier, larger the internal resistance of the ac signal source

(a) greater the overall voltage gain
(b) greater the input impedance
(c) smaller the current gain
(d) smaller the circuit voltage gain

7.

The main use of an emitter follower is as

(a) power amplifier
(c) low-input impedance circuit

(b) impedance matching device

(d) follower of base signal

An ideal amplifier is one which

(a) has infinite voltage gain
(c) has positive feedback

(b) responds only to signal at its input terminals

(d) gives uniform frequency response

8.

9.

The voltage gain of a single stage amplifier is increased when

(a) its ac load is decreased
(b) resistance of signal source is increased
(c) emitter resistance RE is increased
(d) as load resistance is increased

10. When emitter bypass capacitor in a common-emitter amplifier is removed, its is considerably reduced.
(a) input resistance
(b) output load resistance
(c) emitter current
(d) voltage gain
11. Unique features of a CC amplifier circuit is that it
(a) steps up the impedance level
(c) acts as an impedance matching device

(b) does not increases signal voltage

(d) all of the above

20. HYBRID PARAMETERS

1.

The h-parameter are called hybrid parameters because they

(a) are different from y- and z- parameters
(b) are mixed with other parameters
(c) apply to circuits contained in a box
(d) are defined by using both open-circuit and short-circuit terminations

2.

Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the h-parameters of a transistor
(a) the values of h-parameters can be obtained from transistor characteristics
(b) their values depends upon the transistor configuration
(c) their values depend on operating point
(d) they are four in number

3.

Which of the following four h-parameters of a transistor has a greatest value?

(a) hi
(b) hr
(c) ho
(d) hf

4.

Which of the following four h-parameters of a transistor has a smallest value?

(a) hi
(b) hr
(c) ho
(d) hf

5.

The typical value hic of is

(a) 1 kOHMS

6.

(b) 40 kOHMS

The smallest of the four h-parameters of a transistor is

(a) hi
(b) hr

(c) 100 kOHMS (d) 2 mOHMS

(c) ho

(d) hf

7.

The input impedance h11 of a network with output shorted is given by the ratio
(a) v1/i1
(b) v1/v2
(c) i2/i1
(d) i2/v2

8.

The h-parameters of a transistor depends on its

(a) configuration
(b) operating point

9.

(c) temperature

(d) all of the above

The output admittance h0 of an ideal transistor connected is common-base configuration is siemens

(a) 0
(b) 1/r
(c) 1/re
(d) -1

10. A transistor has hfe =100, hie = 5.2 kOHMS, and rbb =0.
At room temperature, VT =26mV. The collector current, IC will be
(a) 10 mA
(b) 5 mA
(c) 1 mA

(d) 0.5 mA

21. MULTISTAGE BJT AMPLIFIERS

1.

The gain of a cascaded amplifier is equal to the

(a) product of individual gains
(c) ratio of stage gains

(b) sum of individual gains

(d) none of these

2.

Two stages of a multistage amplifier have a gain of 50 and 20. The dB voltage gains is
(a) 3
(b) 30
(c) 300
(d) 1000

3.

The resistance-capacitance coupling is popular in audio amplifiers because

(a) it provides an output signal in phase with the input signal
(b) it needs low voltage collector supply
(c) it has better audio frequency response
(d) none of these

4.

The major advantages of a direct coupled amplifier is that

(a) it uses less number of components
(b) it has a very good temperature stability
(c) it does not use frequency sensitive components (d) it can amplify direct current and low frequency signals

5.

In a Darlington pair,
(a) the two transistors are connected in parallel
(b) the emitter of the first transistor feeds the base of the second
(c) the collector of the first transistor feeds the base of the second

6.

Cascading two amplifiers will result in

(a) reduction in overall gain and increase in overall bandwidth
(b) reduction in overall gain and reduction in overall bandwidth
(c) increase in overall gain and increase in overall bandwidth
(d) increase in overall gain and reduction in overall bandwidth

7.

The overall bandwidth of two identical voltage amplifiers connected in cascade will
(a) remain the same as that of a single stage
(b) be worse than that of a single stage
(c) be better than that of a single stage
(d) be better if stage gain is low and worse if stage gain is high

8.

RC coupling is popular in low-level audio amplifies because it

(a) has better low frequency response
(b) is inexpensive and needs no adjustments
(c) provides an output signal in phase with the input signal
(d) needs low voltage battery for collector supply

9.

Frequency response characteristic at a single-stage RC coupled amplifier is shown in Fig 21-27. The fall in gain at both ends of
the characteristic is due to

(a) transistor shunt capacitances

(b) bypass and coupling capacitances of the circuit

(c) transistor shunt capacitances of the lower end and bypass and coupling capacitances at the higher end
(d) transistor shunt capacitances of the higher end and bypass and coupling capacitances at the lower end
10. The most desirable feature of a transformer coupling is
(a) higher voltage gain
(b) wide frequency range
(c) ability to provide impedance matching between the stages
(d) ability to eliminate hum from the output
11. A transformer coupled amplifier would give
(a) maximum voltage gain
(c) maximum current gain

(b) impedance matching

(d) larger bandwidth

12. In multistage amplifiers, direct coupling is especially suited for amplifying

(a) high frequency a.c. signals
(b) changes in d.c. voltages
(b) high-level voltages
(d) sinusoidal signals
13. The outstanding characteristic of a direct coupled amplifier is its
(a) utmost economy
(b) temperature stability
(c) avoidance of frequency-sensitive components
(d) ability to amplify direct current and low frequency signals
14. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is
(a) direct coupling
(b) impedance coupling
(c) RC coupling
(d) transformer coupling
15. A signal has frequency components lying in the range of 0.001 Hz to 10 Hz. Which one of the following types of couplings
should be chosen in a multistage amplifier designed to amplify this signal?
(a) RC coupling
(b) transformer coupling
(c) direct coupling
(d) double tuned coupling
16. The Darlington pair consist of the two stages :
(a) CE & CC
(B) both CE

(c) both CC

17. The Darlington pair is mainly used for

(a) impedance matching
(c) power amplification

(b) wide band voltage amplification

(d) reducing distortion

(d) CE & CB

22. FET AMPLIFIERS

1.
2.

The best location for setting a Q-point on d.c. load line of an FET amplifiers is at
(a) saturation point
(b) cut-off point
(c) mid-point

(d) none of these

Which of the following bias methods provides a solid Q-point in JFET, amplifiers
(a) gate bias
(b) self-bias
(c) voltage divider bias

(d) current source bias

3.

Which of the following techniques is used for biasing the enhancement type MOSFETs?
(a) voltage divider bias
(b) collector feedback bias
(c) current source bias
(d) self-bias

4.

The voltage gain of a common source JFET amplifier depends upon its
(a) transconductance (gm)
(b) amplification factor ()
(c) external load resistance (RD)
(d) both (a) and (c) above

5.

A common gate amplifier has

(a) high input resistance and high output resistance
(c) low input resistance and low output resistance

6.

The transconductance gm of a JFET is equal to

(a) -

7.

8.

(b) low input resistance and high output resistance

(d) high input resistance and low output resistance

2 I D SS
VP

(b)

2
VP

I DSS I D

A transconductance amplifier has

(a) high input impedance and low output impedance
(c) high input and output impedance

(c) -

2 I D SS
VP

VGS
VP

(d)

I D SS
VP

VGS
VP

(b) low input impedance and high output impedance

(d) low input and output impedance

The threshold voltage of an-n-channel enhancement mode MOSFET is 0.5V, when the device is biased at a gate voltage of 3 V,
pinch-of would occur at a drain voltage of
(a) 1.5 V
(b) 2.5 V
(c) 3.5 V
(d) 4.5 V

9.

The zero gate bias channel resistance of a junction field-effect transistor is 750 and the pinch-off voltage is 3 V. For a gate bias
of 1.5 V and very low drain voltage, the device would behave as a resistance of
(a) 320 OHMS
(b) 816 OHMS
(c) 1000 OHMS
(d) 1270 OHMS

10. If properly biased, JFET with act as a

(a) current controlled current source
(c) voltage controlled current source

(b) voltage controlled voltage source

(d) ) current controlled voltage source

16. AMPLIFIERS WITH COMPOUND CONFIGURATIONS

1.

When some input signal is applied to both the inputs of an ideal differential amplifier, the output
(a) is zero
(b) depends on CMRR
(c) depends on its voltage gain
(d) is determined by its summetry

2.

The common-mode rejection ratio of an ideal differential amplifier is

(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) less than unity

(d) greater than unity

Which of the following mode of operation is possible with a differential amplifier?

(a) single-ended input
(b) differential input
(c) common-mode input

(d) all of the above

3.
4.

In a single stage differential amplifier, the output offset voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of
(a) VBE, IB and
(b) VBE and IB
(c) IB and
(d) VBE and

5.

Increasing the value of RE in a differential amplifier

(a) increase the differential gain, Ad
(c) decreases CMRR

(b) increase the common-mode gain, Ac

(d) increases CMMR

17. FREQUECNY RESPONSE OF BJT- AND JFET- AMPLIFIERS

1.

In a single-stage RC coupled common emitter amplifier, the phase-shift at the lower 3 dB frequency is,
(a) zero
(b) 135
(c) 180
(d) 225

2.

If the applied a.c. power to a system is 5 W at 100 mV and the output power is 48 W, the power gain in decibels is ..
(a) 69.8dB
(b) 96.8dB
(c) 86.9dB
(d) 89.6 dB

3.

The frequency that is 1 octave above 5 kHz is

(a) 10 kHz
(b) 1 kHz

(c) 20 kHz

(d) 100 kHz

The frequency that is 2 octave above 5 kHz is

(a) 10 kHz
(b) 100 kHz

(c) 1 MHz

(d) none of these

4.
5.

The normalized gain of an amplifier is defined as

(a) Av
(b) Avmid
(c) Av/ Avmid

(d) 10 log Av/ Avmid

LARGE SIGNAL (OR POWER) AMPLIFIERS

1.

In a class-A amplifier, the current in the output circuit flows for:

(a) 360
(b) 180
(c) 90

(d) less than 90

2.

The maximum collector circuit efficiency of class-A amplifier with a transformer coupled load is
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 78.6%
(d) 95.4%

3.

Which of the following is a main function of the transformer used in the output of a power amplifiers:
(a) to increase the output power
(b) to increase the voltage gain
(c) to match the load resistance with the output resistance of a transistor
(d) none of the above

4.

Class-A power amplifiers, as compared to class-B amplifiers

(a) have more efficiency
(b) have less distortion
(c) are not susceptible to power supply hum
(d) none of the above

5.

In which of the following amplifiers, does the amplifying device becomes cooler when the input device is changed from no signal
to a rated value
(a) Class-A amplifier
(b) Class-B amplifier
(c) Class-AB amplifier
(d) Class-C amplifier

6.

High-power efficiency of a push-pull amplifier is due to the fact that

(a) each transistor conducts on different cycles of input
(b) transistors are placed in CE configuration
(c) there is no quiescent collector current
(d) low forward biasing voltage is required

7.

The circuit efficiency of a class-A amplifier can be increased by using

(a) low d.c. power input
(b) direct-coupled load
(c) low-rating transistor
(d) transformer-coupled load

8.

In a class-A amplifier, worst-case condition occurs with

(a) zero signal input
(c) high load resistance

(b) maximum signal input

(d) transformer coupling

The output of a class-A amplifier

(a) is distortion-free
(c) is like the output of a full-wave rectifier

(b) consist of positive half-cycle only

(d) comprises short-duration current pulses

9.

10. The maximum overall efficiency of a transistor-coupled class-A amplifier is .. per unit
(a) 78.5
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 85
11. A transistor audio amplifier is found to have an overall efficiency of 70 per cent. Most probably, it is a amplifier
(a) class-B push-pull
(b) single-stage class-C
(c) transformer-coupled class-A
(d) direct-coupled class-A
12. The main purpose of using transformer coupling in a class-A amplifier is to make it more
(a) distortion-free
(b) bulky
(c) costly
(d) efficient
13. A class-B push-pull amplifier has the main advantage of being free from
(a) any circuit imbalances
(b) unwanted noise
(c) even-order harmonic distortion
(d) d.c. magnetic saturation effects
14. Crossover distortion occurs in . Amplifiers
(a) push-pull
(b) class-A

(c) class-B

(d) class AB

15. The maximum overall efficiency of a class-B push-pull amplifier cannot exceed per cent.
(a) 100
(b) 78.5
(c) 50
(d) 85
16. The dissipation at the collector is zero in the quiescent. State and increases with excitation in the case of a
(a) class A series-fed amplifier
(b) class A transistor coupled amplifier
(c) class AB amplifier
(d) class B amplifier
17. Class AB operation is often used in power (large signal) amplifiers in order to,
(a) get maximum efficiency
(b) remove even harmonics
(c) overcome cross-over distortion
(d) reduce collector dissipation

18. TUNED AMPLIFIERS

1.

Which of the following amplifiers should be used to amplify a radio frequency signal?
(a) audio-frequency amplifier
(b) Push-pull amplifier
(c) Video amplifier
(d) Tuned voltage amplifier

2.

An amplifier has a pass-band from 745 kHz to 755 kHz, and a resonant frequency of 750 kHz. Its bandwidth is
(a) 5 kHz
(b) 10 kHz
(c) 20 kHz
(d) none of the above

3.

If the Q-factor of a resonant circuit is doubled, its bandwidth is

(a) Halved
(b) Doubled
(c) Quadrupled

(d) Remains the same

4.

A tuned circuit has resonant frequency of 1 MHz. To get a bandwidth of 20 kHz, its Q-factor must be equal to
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 500

5.

Stagger-tuning in tuned amplifies is achieved by using

(a) Double tuned circuit

(b) Tuned circuit which are tuned to same frequency

(c) Tuned circuit which are tuned to slightly different frequencies

(d) none of the above
6.

If a Q of a single-stage tuned amplifier is doubled, than it bandwidth will

(a) remain same
(b) become half
(c) become double

(d) become four times

27. FEEDBACK AMPLIFIERS

1.

For amplifiers using negative feedback, the bandwidth

(a) lowers its input and output resistances
(b) increases its input and output resistances
(c) lowers its input resistances and increases the output resistances

2.

In a current-series feedback amplifier, the input resistance

(a) increases
(b) decreases

(c) remains unchanged

In an amplifier, if you employ voltage-shunt negative feedback

(a) the gain increases
(c) the output resistance decreases

(b) the input resistance decreases

(d) the bandwidth decreases

3.

4.

A common-emitter (CE) transistor amplifier employing an n-bypassed series emitter resistance is a case of feedback
(a) current-series
(b) voltage-shunt
(c) voltage-series
(d) current-shunt

5.

The advantage of using negative feedback in an amplifier is that its gain can be made practically independent of
(a) temperature changes
(b) age of components
(c) frequency
(d) all of the above

6.

Feedback in an amplifier always helps to

(a) control its output
(b) increase its gain

(c) decrease its input impedance

7.

The only drawback of using negative feedback in amplifiers is that it involves

(a) gain sacrifice
(b) gain stability
(c) temperature sensitivity
(d) frequency dependence

8.

Closed-loop gain of a feedback amplifier is the gain obtained when

(a) its output terminals are closed
(b) negative feedback is applied
(c) feedback loop is closed
(d) feedback factor exceed unity

9.

A large sacrifice factor in a negative feedback amplifiers leads to

(a) inferior performance
(b) increased output impedance
(c) characteristics impossible to achieve without feedback
(d) precise control over output

10. Negative feedback in an amplifier

(a) lowers its lower 3-dB frequency
(c) increases its bandwidth

(d) stabilize its gain

(b) raises its upper 3-dB frequency

(d) all of the above

11. Regarding negative feedback in amplifier which statement is WRONG?

(a) it widens the separation between 3-dB frequencies
(b) it increases the gain-bandwidth product
(c) it improves gain stability
(d) it reduces distortion
12. Negative feedback reduces distortion in an amplifier only when it
(a) comes as part of input signal
(b) is part of its output
(c) is generated within the amplifier
(d) exceed a certain safe level
13. An amplifier with no feedback has a gain-bandwidth product of 4MHz. Its closed-loop gain is 40. The bandwidth is
(a) 100 kHz
(b) 160 MHz
(c) 10 MHz
(d) 20 kHz
14. The shunt-derived series-fed feedback in an amplifier
(a) increases its output impedance
(c) increases its input impedance

(b) decreases its output impedance

(d) both (b) and (c)

15. A feedback amplifier has a closed gain of -200. It should not vary more than 50% despite 25% variation in amplifier gain A
without feedback. The value of A is
(a) 800
(b) -800
(c) 1000
(d) -1000
16. The gain of a negative feedback amplifier is 40 dB. If the attenuation of the feedback path is 50 dB, then the gain of the
amplifier without feedback is
(a) 78.92
(b) 146.32
(c) 215.51
(d) 317.23

17. In a common emitter amplifier, the unbypassed emitter resistor provides,

(a) voltage-shunt feedback
(b) current series feedback
(c) negative-voltage feedback
(d) positive-current feedback

28. SINUSOIDAL OSCILLATOR

1.

An electronic oscillator is
(a) just like alternator
(c) an amplifier with amplifier

(b) nothing but an amplifier

(d) a converter of a.c. to d.c. energy

2.

The frequency of oscillation of an elementary LC oscillatory circuit depends on

(a) coil resistance
(b) coil inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) both (a) and (c)

3.

For sustaining oscillations in an oscillator

(a) feedback factor should be unity
(c) feedback should be negative

4.

(b) phase shift should be 0

(d) both (a) and (b)

If Barkhausen criterion is not fulfilled by an oscillator circuit, it will

(a)
(b) produce damped waves continuously
becomes an amplifier
(d) produce high-frequency whistles

(c)

5.

For sustained oscillations in an oscillator, the loop gain should be

(a) zero
(b) less than unity
(c) greater than unity

6.

Which of the following factors do not affect the frequency stability of an oscillator?
(a) output load
(b) inter-element capacitances and stray capacitances
(c) temperature variation
(d) coil size

7.

A transistor Hartley Oscillator uses

(a) resistive feedback
(c) capacitive feedback

(b) inductive feedback

(d) none of the above

8.

Crystal oscillators are superior to tuned LC oscillators mainly because of their

(a) exceptionally high degree of frequency stability (b) high value of Q-factor
(c) size of the crystal
(d) both (a) and (b) above

9.

In a RC phase-shift oscillator, the expression for frequency of oscillation is :

(a) f = 1 /2 LC
(b) f = 1 /(2 RC 6 ) (c) f = 1/ CR

(d) none of the above

10. In a transistor Hartley oscillator

(a) inductive feedback is used
(c) entire coil is in the output circuit

(b) untapped coil is used

(d) no capacitor is used

11. A Hartley oscillator is used for generating

(a) very low frequency oscillation
(c) microwave oscillation

(b) radio-frequency oscillation

(d) audio-frequency oscillation

12. A Colpitts oscillator uses

(a) tapped coil

(c) tapped capacitance

(b) inductive feedback

13. In RC phase-shift oscillator circuits

(a) there is no need for feedback
(c) pure sine wave output is possible

(d) no tuned LC circuit

(b) feedback factor is less than unity

(d) transistor parameters determine oscillation frequency

14. Wien bridge oscillator is most often used whenever

(a) wide range of high purity sine waves is to be generated
(b) high feedback ratio is needed
(c) square output waves are required
(d) extremely high resonant frequencies are required
15. The primary advantage of a crystal oscillator is that
(a) it can oscillated at any frequency
(b) it gives a high output voltage
(c) its frequency of oscillation remains almost constant
(d) it operates on a very low d.c. supply voltage

16. The RC network shown in Fig.28-29 can provide a maximum theoretical phase-shift of
(a) 90
(b) 180
(c) 270
(d) 360
17. Which one of the following circuit is most suitable as an oscillator at a frequency of 100 Hz.
(a) Hartley oscillator
(b) colpitts oscillator
(c) Crystal oscillator
(d) Wein bridge oscillator
18. The Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillation is given by
(a) A =1
(b) A 1
(c) A <1

(d) <A = 180

19. An oscillator always needs an amplifier with

(a) positive feedback
(c) both types of feedback

(b) negative feedback

(d) an LC tank circuit

20. Crystal oscillators are often used for providing

(a) square wave output
(c) stable carrier wave in radio transmitters

(b) triangular wave output

(d) frequency multiplication

21. A CE amplifier can be converted into an oscillator by

(a) providing adequate positive feedback
(b) phase shifting the output by 180 and feeding this phase shifted output to the input
(c) using only a series tuned circuit as a load in the amplifier
(d) using a negative resistance device as a load on the amplifier
(e) all of above

29. NON-SINUSOIDAL OSCILLATORS

1.

When a transistor is driven into saturation, its collector voltage is

(a) zero
(b) VCE(sat)
(c) VCC

(d) none of the above

2.

An astable multivibrator is also called free-running relaxation oscillator because it

(a) oscillates continuously between two unstable states
(b) requires no d.c. power for its operation
(c) runs and relaxes alternately
(d) none of the above

3.

The frequency of oscillation of an astable multivibrator depends on

(a) transistor current gain (hFE)
(b) value of collector load resistors
(c) duration of he input pulse
(c) values of R and C

4.

A monostable multivibrator
(a) gives one output pulse for one input trigger pulse (b) gives two output pulse for one input trigger pulse
(c) has one stable state
(d) both (a) and (c) above

5.

A bistable multivibrator
(a) has two stable states
(b) has two unstable states
(c) oscillates between two stable states without any trigger pulse
(d) is used for generating square wave

6.

Non-sinusoidal waveforms
(a) are departments from sine waveforms
(c) are much easier to generate

(b) have low mark-to-space ratio

(d) are unfit to digital operation

A relaxation oscillator is one which

(a) has two stable states
(c) produces non-sinusoidal output

(b) relaxes indefinitely

(c) oscillates continuously

A square pulse has a mark-to-space ratio of

(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2

(c) 2:1

7.

8.
9.

(d) 1:4

Which of the following statements is WRONG? In a multivibrator

(a) output is available continuously
(b) feedback between two stages is 100%
(c) positive feedback is employed
(d) when transistor is ON, the other is OFF

10. An monostable multivibrator circuit

(a) has no stable states
(c) returns to its stand-by states automatically

(b) gives two output pulse for one input trigger pulse
(d) has no energy-storage element

11. A bistable multivibrator circuit

(a) has two unstable states
(c) switches between its

(b) has one energy-storage element

(d) is not an oscillator

12. The frequency of oscillation of an astable multivibrator depends mainly on the

(a) value of collector load resistors
(b) RC values of the circuit
(c) value of transistor
(d) width of the input pulse
13. An monostable multivibrator is frequently used
(a) in memory and timing circuits
(c) in counting circuits

(b) for producing triangular waves

(d) for regeneration of distorted waves

14. A bistable multivibrator is a oscillator

(a) triggered
(b) free-running

(c) sine-wave

15. A blocking oscillator

(a) is atriggeres oscillator
(c) generates sinusoidal waves

(b) is an amplifier with negative feedback

(d) produces sharp and narrow pulse

16. In an astable multivibrator

(a) =1

(c) >1

(b) A=1

(d) sawtooth

(d) < 1

17. In order to generate a square wave from a sinusoidal input signal one can use
(a) Schmitt trigger circuit
(b) Clipper and amplifiers
(c) Monostable multivibrator
(d) both (a) and (b)
18. In every practical oscillator, the loop-gain is slightly larger than unity and the amplitude of the oscillators is limited by the
(a) magnitude of the loop gain
(b) onset of non-linearity
(c) magnitude of the gain of the amplifier
(d) feedback transmission factor
19. In an astable multivibrator, the base resistor of 100 kOHMS and capacitors of 100 pF are used. The frequency of output will be
(a) 1.2 kHz
(b) 5.5 kHz
(c) 6.9 kHz
(d) 12.8 kHz
20. For a Schmitt trigger invertor the upper and lower trip voltage are 3V and 1 V and higher and lower states are 15V and 2V. The
output for a sinusoidal input of 10V peak will be between
(a) 1 V and 3 V
(b) 2V and 15 V
(c) 3V and 15 V
(d) 10V and 15 V
21. A transistor used as a switches is operated in
(a) active region
(b) cut-off region

(c) saturation region

(d) cut-off and saturation region

30. LINEAR WAVE SHAPING CIRCUITS

1.

The criteria for a good differentiating circuit is that its time constant ( =R.C) should be
(a) much larger than the period of the input waveform
(b) less than or equal to the period of the input waveform
(c) much smaller than the period of the input waveform

2.

If the input to a differentiating circuit is a triangular wave, then the output wave will be
(a) square wave
(b) rectangular wave
(c) sawtooth wave

3.

The criteria for good integrating circuit is that its time constant ( =R.C) should be
(a) equal to the period of the input waveform
(b) much larger than the period of the input waveform
(c) much smaller than the period of the input waveform

4.

The main function of a clipping circuit is to

(a) remove a certain portion of the input signal above or below a certain level
(b) restore d.c. level to the signal
(c) suppress amplitude variations in the input signal voltage
(d) both (a) and (c) above

(d) none of the above

5.

The clamper circuit is used to

(a) introduce a d.c. level to a.c. signal
(b) suppress variations in amplitude the input signal
(c) obtain an output which is integral of the input signal

6.

A capacitor of 100 F is charged to 10 V through a resistance of 10 kOHMS. It will be fully charged in

(a) 5s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 1 s
(d) 0.5 s

7.

An integrator has a transfer function whose

(a) amplitude increases linearly with the frequency
(c) amplitude remains constant

(b) amplitude varies inversely with the frequency

(d) amplitude decreases linearly with the frequency

A triangular waveform can be generated by

(a) differentiating a square waveform
(c) differentiating a sinusoidal waveform

(b) integrating a square waveform

(d) integrating a sinusoidal waveform

8.

34. REGULATED POWER SUPPLIES

1.

Which of the following is not an essential element of d.c. power supply.

(a) rectifier
(b) filter
(c) voltage regulator

(d) voltage amplifier

2.

A voltage regulator is a circuit which

(a) converts the a.c. voltage to d.c. voltage
(b) Smoothens the a.c. varistion in d.c. output voltage
(c) Maintains a constant d.c. output voltage in spite of the fluctuations in a.c. input voltage or load current
(d) none of the above

3.

The percentage voltage regulation of voltage supply providing 100 V unloaded and 95 V at full load is
(a) 5.3%
(b) 5.0%
(c) 0.53%
(d) none of the above

4.

Which of the following voltage regulator is preferred for providing large values of load current?
(a) zener diode shunt regulator
(b) Transistor series regulator
(c) Transistor shunt regulator
(d) none of the above

5.

A pre-regulator is used with a transistor series regulator in order to

(a) increase the input resistance of the series transistor
(b) decrease the input resistance of the series transistor
(c) increase the output resistance of the series transistor
(d) increase the current gain of the series transistor

6.

The main job of a voltage regulator is to provide a nearly . Output voltage

(a) sinusoidal
(b) constant
(c) smooth

(d) fluctuating

7.

A 10-Vd.c. regulator power supply has a regulation of 0.005 per cent. Its output voltage will vary within an envelope of .
millivolt.
(a) 2.5
(b) 0.5
(c) 5
(d) 0.05

8.

An ideal voltage regulator has a voltage regulation of

(a) 1
(b) 100

9.

(c) 50

(d) 0

In a Zener diode shunt voltage regulator, the diode regulates so long as it is kept in condition
(a) forward
(b) reverse
(c) loaded
(d) unloaded

10. The power efficiency of a switching voltage regulator us much higher than that of a linear regulator because it operates
(a) in saturation
(b) in cut-off
(c) like a switch
(d) on high duty cycle
11. A transistor series voltage regulator is called emitter-follower regulator because the emitter of the pass transistor follows the
.. voltage.
(a) output
(b) input
(c) base
(d) collector
12. In an Op-amp series voltage regulator, output voltage depends on
(a) Zener voltage
(b) voltage divider resistors
(c) output voltage
(d) both (a) and (b)

13. In a feedback series regulator circuit, the output voltage is regulated by controlling the
(a) magnitude of input voltage
(b) gain of the feedback transistor
(c) reference voltage
(d) voltage drop across the series pass transistor
14. An Op-amp shunt regulator differs from the series regulator in the sense that its control element is connected in
(a) series with line resistor
(b) parallel with the resistor
(c) parallel with load resistor
(d) parallel with input voltage
15. A switching voltage regulator can be of the following type:
(a) step-down
(b) step-up
(c) inverting

(d) all of the above

16. In an inverting type switching regulator, output voltage is .. input voltage

(a) lesser than
(b) greater than
(c) equal to

(d) opposite to

17. The output voltage of a step-down type switching voltage regulator depends on
(a) input voltage
(b) duty cycle
(c) transistor on time

(d) all of the above

18. As compared to voltage regulators made up of discrete components, IC regulators have the inherent advantages of
(a) self protection against over-temperature
(b) remote control
(c) current limiting
(d) all of the above