MCQ,s SURGERY

Q1; All of the following homones regulate the Ebb Phase of metabolic response except
a. Glucagon
b. Cortisol
c. Aldosterone
d. Catecholamines
Q2; Compartment syndrome is characterized by
a. Typically occur in closed fracture of lower limb
b. Mild pain
c. Pain on active movement
d. Compartment pressure less than 30mm Hg.
Q3 Daily Na requirement of adult
a. a)70- 90 mM/day
b. b) 50-70 mM/kg
c. c) 90- 110mM/kg
d. 30-40mM/kg
Q4. Identification of which of the following is NOT an essential part of the primary survey?
a. A: Tension Pneumothorax
b. B: Open Pneumothorax
c. C: Flail Chest
d. D: Cardiac Tamponade
e. E: Rib Fractures
Q5. Entonox is mixture of
a. O2 and CO2
b. O2 and N2O
c. O2 and Xenon
d. O2 and Halothane
e. O2 and air
Q6. 30 years old man heavy smoker came to you with severe pain in calf after a walk of 500m
and relieved by rest means
a. Claudication
b. b) sciatica c) myalgia
c. disc prolapse
d. No one of the above
Q7 A patient with history of fall from 30 feet hight came to ER in shook,decreased chest
movement and hyper resonant percussion note on right side,diagnosis his.
a. a)Massive Hemothorax
b. b) tension Pneumothorax
c. c)Cardiac temponate
d. Lung contusion
e. a and c
Q8: Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of cardiac tamponade?
a. A: Distended neck veins.
b. B: Hypotension.
c. C: Kussmauls sign.
d. D: Pulsus Paradoxus.
e. E: Bradycardia.

Q9. 40 year old man suddenly fell down in hot climate and has no pulse
a. a)start CPR
b. b) primary survey
c. c) call 112 for help
d. give oral water and remove all clothes
e. start CPR and call 112
Q10. Damage control surgery is decided when
a. Coagulopathy

b. b) acidosis
c. c) hypothermia
d. all of above
e. none of above
Q11. All are immediate life threatening chest injuries except
a. Tension pneumothorax
b. massive hemothorax
c. cardiac temponade
d. pulmonary contusion
e. flail chest
Q12. Regarding polytrauma do all initially except .
a. Oxygen inhalation
b. connect pulse oxilator
c. Fluid resuscititon
d. Cervical collar
e. Hypothermia
Q13 18 years medical student came in ER after RTA, When we call him by name , he opens his
eyes and obeys the command but confused .His GCS
a. 11
b. 13
c. 9
d. 3
Q14. A patient with history of fall from 30 feet hight came to ER in shook,decreased chest
movement and hyper resonant percussion note on right side,diagnosis his.
a. a)Massive Hemothorax
b. b) tension Pneumothorax
c. c)Cardiac temponate
d. Lung contusion
e. a and c
Q15. Which one of the following will not exacerbate the metabolic response to surgery
a. Hypothermia
b. Hypertension
c. Starvation
d. Immobilization
Q16 Which one of the following promotes the hepatic acute phase response in injury
a. IL-4
b. IL-5
c. IL-6
d. IL-9
Q17 In wound healing following factors attract neutrophils to the wound in inflammatory phase
a. PDGF
b. Platelets
c. TGF- beta
d. Bacteria
Q18.Order of Cells to a wound healing
a. Platelets --- PMNs----Macrophases----Fibroblast
b. PMNs--- Macrophases--- Fibroblast----- Platelets
c. Platelets---Lymphocytes---PMNs---- Macrophases
d. Lymphocytes---Monocytes---PMNs-- Fibroblast
Q19. Ratio of type 1 to type 3 Collagens in Normal healed scar
a. 4:1
b. 6:1
c. 8:1
d. 16:1
Q20. ATLS o f trauma mostly is focused on prevention of
a. Immedite death
b. b) early death

c. c) late death
d. all e) none
Q21 Hemorrhagic shock characterized by blood loss 15 to 30 %, tachycardia, hypotension &
urine less than 0.5ml/kg/hour is
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4
Q22 complications of massive blood transfusion
a. Hypothermia
b. Coagulopathy
c. Acidosis
d. Hyperkalemia
e. All of the above
Q23 Which of the following is not a cause of acute shortness of breath on the first post-operative
day
a. a)atelectasis
b. b) pulmonary embolism
c. c) myocardial infarction
d. chest infection
e. pneumothorax
Q24 Best route for nutritional support
a. Enteral nutrition
b. Total Parenteral nutrition(TPN)
c. Peripheral Parenteral nutrition(PPN)
d. combined
Q25 Reactionary haemorrhage, all true except
a. occur within 24 hours after operation
b. usually caused by slippage of ligature
c. not associated with wound infection
d. may need re-exploration5) it is usually venous
Q26 preoperative preparation includes all except
a. detailed history
b. medical condition of patient is not optimized
c. good communication
d. informed consent
Q27 Which of the following is not surgical risk in a diabetic patient
a. infection
b. myocardial infarction
c. pressure sore
d. poor wound healing
e. pain control
Q28 Fluid and electrolyte balance
a. Total body water in adult 60-70% of body weight
b. 2/3rd is intracellular
c. 1/3rd is extracellular
d. water content is highest in elderly women
Q29 Maintenance fluid therapy of healthy adult is
a. 1000ml/24hr
b. 1500ml/24hr
c. 2000ml/24hr
d. 2500-3000ml/24hr

. Q30
a.
b.
c.

Upon Identification of a Tension Pneumothorax, which is the correct management pathway?

A: A chest X-ray to confirm the clinical diagnosis.
B: Insertion of a chest drain in the 5th intercostals interspace in mid-axillary line.
C: Immediate decompression with a 14g 5cm needle in the 2 nd intercostal
interspace in mid-calvicular line.

d. D: An ECG to assess for concurrent cardiac contusion.

e. E: Completion of a secondary survey to exclude any concurrent injury.

MCQ SURGERY

Q31- 65 years old man presented with dysphagia due to carcinoma esophagus,before surgery his
nutritional assessment was done,which of the following markers is best;
abcd-

Albumin
Weight loss
Skin fold thickness
Urea

Q32A young woman with anorexia underwent laparotomy,her BMI is 18.5Kg/m2, nutritional support is
plan to start,which of following risks more likely;
abcd-

Vomiting
Diarrhea
Electrolytes imbalance
Re-feeding syndrome

Q33-A young female underwent laparotomy for Inflammatory bowel disease and had short bowel
syndrome, she is on standard TPN for 5 months at home,which of following need weekly monitoring;
abcd-

ABGS
Weight of patient
Mg, Phosphate
Blood sugar and electrolytes

Q34- Daily K requirement of an adult

abcd-

1mmol/kg/day
20mmol/kg/day
50mmol/kg/day
70mmol/kg/day

Q35- Which of following is not included in the malnutrition universal screening tool;
abcd-

BMI
Weight loss in 3-6 months
Acute disease effect
Serum proteins level

Q36-A30 year man after road traffic accident is admitted in ICU on ventilator and TPN for 3weeks , the
patient has difficulty in weaning off from ventilator,which of nutritional element need to change;
abcd-

Carbohydrate
Proteins
Lipids
Essential vitamins

Q37- Which of the following organisms is not a gastrointestinal source of peritonitis;

abcd-

E-coli
Streptococcus
Bacteriodes
Chlamydia

Q38- A characteristic feature of sebaceous cyst

abcd-

Contain sebum
It moves particularly in skin crease
Skin free except at punctum
Punctum is absent in majority of cases

Q39- The aetiological factors of diabetic foot ulcer are all except
a- Peripheral vascular disease

b- Neuropathy
c- DM diet controlled
d- Infection
Q40- All are examples of specific ulcers
abcd-

Venous ulcer
Diabetic foot ulcer
Tuberculous ulcer
Marjolin ulcer

Q41- All are examples of dermoid cyst

abcd-

Thyroglossal cyst
Ovarian cyst causing hyperthyroidism
Any cyst in midline may be dermoid
ganglion

Q42- Raised and everted edges, a characteristic feature of skin ulcer

abcd-

Neuropathic ulcer
Chronic ulcer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Bazins ulcer

Q43-Subphrenic abscess is common on right side due to all except

abcd-

Majority of diseases affect right side

Left paracolic gutter is narrow
Right paracolic gutter is large
Right lung is large

Q44- The most common organisms of secondary peritonitis are all except
abcd-

H-pylori
Enterococci
Streptococci
Staphylococci

Q45- The most common type of peritonitis

abcd-

Primary peritonitis
Secondary peritonitis
Biliary peritonitis
Tuberculous peritonitis

Q46- Following tumours can occur in the abdominal wall except

abcd-

Desmoid tumour
Endometrioma
Dermoid tumour
Fibromatosis

Q17-The intra-abdominal mass which does not move with respiration

a) Kidney
b) Hepatic flexure
c) Tail of pancreas
d) Mesenteric cyst
Q48- which of following cystic swellings does not have cross- fluctuation
abcd-

Iliopsoas abscess
Plunging ranula
Tuberculous abscess
Cystic hygroma

Q49- All are the causes of uniform abdominal distention except

abcd-

Intestinal obstruction
Massive ascities
Morbid obesity
Pregnancy

Q50- A 70 year old man with diabetic foot has superficial ulceration on toes and loss of vibration sense, the
best plan is
abcd-

Start broadspectrum antibiotics

X-Ray foot to see osteomyelitis
ABI and vascular opinion
Re-vascularisation of foot

Q51 Following are true for Marjolins ulcer except

abcd-

It arises from scar tissues

It does not spread by lymphatics
It is rapidly growing
It is painless

SEQS SURGERY
Q1- A 40year old woman is admitted in general surgical ward with esophageal stricture after corrosive intake,her BMI is 18.5kg/m2;
a) How will you assess her nutritional status
b) Which method of nutritional support you will prefer and why?
c) what are complications of long term TPN
Q2- Define ulcer and its componants
Q3write clinical and pathological classification of ulcer
Q4what is Marjolin ulcer?write various types of edges of ulcer

Q5- A56 year old man presented in emergency with diabetic foot ulcer,fever and drowsy.X-Ray foot shows gas in soft tissue,how will
you manage this patient?
Q6- what is the pathophysiology of Re-Feeding syndrome
Q7- A 45year old woman presented with jaundice and mass in right upper abdomen, discuss the differential diagnosis
Q8- write aetiology, clinical features and management of acute peritonitis
Q9-( a) write indications, contraindications of enteral nutrition
(b)- what are complications of enteral nutrition
- whaat are various methods of enteral nutrition
Q10- what is pseudocyst? Write complications of cyst

1.What is normal cerebral blood flow ?

a)10ml/100gm/min
b)25ml/100gm/min
c)55ml/100gm/min
d)100ml/100gm/min
2. Cerebral auto regulation maintains normal cerebral blood flow in what range of mean aterial blood pressures ?
a) 50-150mm Hg
b) 10-50mmHg
c) 80- 200mmHg

d) 25-50mmHg
3.Cerebral perfusion pressure is defined as
a)systolic blood pressure minus diastolic blood pressure.
b)systolic minus venous pressure.
c)mean arterial blood pressure minus venous pressure.
d) mean arterial blood pressure minus intracranial pressure.
4.compensatory mechanism to maintain ICP in face of mass occupying lesion include
a)Reduction in venous blood volume.
b)increase in CSF production
c)sunsetting eyes.
d) increase in CSF volume.
5. which of the following statements regarding Glasgow coma scale.
a) the minimum score is 0
b)a GCS of 12 means patient is in coma.
c)eye opening on command is GCS 2.
d)a GCS 8 or less means patient is in coma.
6. which of the following clinical signs is evidence of basal skull fracture.
a) hemotympanum
b) Black eye.
c) Parietal hematoma.
d) Bleeding from mouth.

7.which of the following is correct regarding extradural hematoma.

a) it is not necessarily caused by skull fracture.
b)it commonly occurs in the occipital region.
c) Treatment is Burrhole.
d) There is often a lucid interval.
8. which of the following statements regarding subdural hematoma is correct
a)it is collection of blood between pia and arachanoid mater.
b) it is caused by laceration of brain.
c) it is due to laceration of middle meningeal artery.

d) its biconvex on CT scan.

9. which of the the following is correct regarding third nerve palsy?
a) it causes dilated and reactive pupil.
b)it causes fixed and dilated pupil.
c)it usually occurs on the opposite side to the hematoma.
d) its never bilateral
10. Reason for low sodium after severe head injury is
a)the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion.
b)diabetes insipidus.
c)diabetes mellitus.s
d) fluid overload.
Q11- Metabolic response to injury is characterized by
abcd-

Hyper-metabolism
Increase in lean body mass
Anorexia
Immobility

Q12- All are avoidable factors that compound the response to injury
abcd-

Continuing bleeding
Hypothermia
starvation
age

Q13- The modern surgical practice is based on

abcd-

natural homeostasis by body

perioperative care
Better understanding of metabolic response to injury
all of above

Q14- All can exacerbate the metabolic response to injury

abcd-

hypotension
prolonged NPO
anaesthesia
early mobilisation

Q15- The metabolic response to trauma is

abcd-

Graded response
Transient response
Always help in survival
Not related to severity of injury

Q16- Shock can be defined as

abcd-

Hypotension
Hypoperfusion of tissues
Coma
All of the above

Q17- Clinical types of shock

abcd-

5
6
2
Many

Q18 The most common type of shock

abcd-

Hypovolemic
Cardiogenic
Septic
Obstructive

Q19- The common effect in all types of shock

abcd-

Low cardiac output

High vascular resistance
low mixed venous oxygen saturation
high base deficit

Q20- A 20 year old student was brought to E/R after motorbike accident in a prolonged state of shock,after
resuscitation,his vitals are normal but patient died after few hours, the most possible cause of death
abcd-

Ischemic-reperfusion syndrome
Irreversible shock
Cardiopulmonary arrest
Acute renal failure

Q21- The patient is in shock when there is at least loss of blood volume
abcd-

15%
15-30%
>40%
One unit of donation

Q22-After maintaining airway, breathing of shocked patient,the first line therapy is

abcd-

i/v fluids
vasopressor
antibiotics
treat the cause

Q23- The minimum monitoring for patients in shock

abcd-

Pulse oximetry
Central venous pressure
Invasive blood pressure
Cardiac output

Q24- The vasopressor of choice in septic shock

abcd-

Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Activated protein C

Q25-The best monitor of adequacy of shock therapy

abcd-

Level of consciousness
Normal B.P/ECG
Urine output
Base deficit/Lactate

Q26-Ruptured aortic aneurysm,the haemorrhage is

abcd-

Concealed
Revealed
Reactionary
Secondary

Q27- The post haemorrhoidectomy, patient is bleeding on 7th day

abcd-

Reactionary haemorrhage
Secondary haemorrhage
Surgical haemorrhage
Bleeding disorder

Q28- All are causes of secondary haemorrhage

abcd-

Clot dislodgement
Increase B.P
Slippage of ligature
Infection

Q29-All are indications of blood transfusion except

abcd-

Acute massive blood loss

Perioperative anaemia for adequate oxygen delivery
Symptomatic chronic anaemia without haemorrhage/impending surgery
Asymptomatic chronic anaemia,Hb <7gm/dl without major surgery

Q30-All are pre-requisites for emergency blood transfusion

abcd-

Confirm patient grouping, cross-matching labeling

Informed consent
Universal donor group O without cross-match can be transfused
Quality of blood eg expiry date, hep B,C,etc

Q31-All are the most common sites of bed sores except

abcd-

Ischium
Greater trochanter
Sacrum
Occiput

Q32-A young girl is operated for acute appendicitis,the type of operation by risk of infection
abcd-

Clean
Clean-contaminated
Contaminated
Dirty

Q33- In clean-contaminated operation, infection rate is

abcd-

1-2%
< 10%
15-20%
<40%

Q34-Which one is not a component of SIRS

abcd-

Hyperthermia > 38C

Tachycardia >90/min
W.B.C count > 12(10)9/L
Pus in wound

Q35-After appendectomy, patient has high grade fever,tachycardia and pelvic collection on USG, will be called as
abcd-

SIRS
Sepsis
Septicemia
Septic shock

Q36-Prophylactic antibiotics,the best time to give is

abcd-

Peroperative
Postoperative
I/V at the time of induction of anaesthesia
Mid-night

Q37-Regarding control of surgical site infection which one is best

abcd-

Aseptic surgical techniques

Postoperative and prophylactic use of antibiotics
Delayed primary, or secondary closure remains useful in contaminated wounds
All of above

Q38-The Synergistic gangrene,the most important causative agent

abcd-

Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani
Pseudomonas
Polymicrobial including coliforms,staphylococci,anaerobic streptococci,bacteriodes etc

Q39-Suppurative wound infection develops after surgery

abcd-

7-10 days
3-4 days
After decisive period 4hour
Related to duration of operation

Q40-The treatment of necrotisinng fasciitis

abcd-

Broadspectrum antibiotics
Immediate exploration of wound and extensive debridement
Circulatory support
abc

Q41-Preoperative skin shaving should be done to prevent SSI

abcd-

immediately before surgery in OR

night before
not useful ,most surgeons donot recommend it
antiseptic bath usually with chlorhexidine is must for all patients

Q42-The most common organism involved in hospital acquired infection

abcd-

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Shigella
Staph aureus
Atypical mycobacterium

Q43- The rate of SSI can be significantly reduced by

abcd-

Avoid perioperative hypothermia

supplemental oxygen during recovery
a and b
no one of above

Q44- The antibiotic which is not effective for pseudomonas aeruginosa

abcd-

Augmentin
Azlocilin
Ceftazidime
Gentamicin

Q45-Which one is not minimal access surgery

abcd-

Laparoscopy
Thoracoscopy
Arthroscopy
Proctoscopy

Q46-Preoperative plan that results in bad patient outcomes

abcd-

Gather and record all relevant informations

Optimize the patient medical condition
Informed consent
Emergency surgery without supervision

Q47-The following drugs are stopped before elective surgery

abcd-

Oral contraceptive pills

Aspirin
Steroids
Oral hypoglycemic agents

Q48- The patients who need thromboprophylaxis in the perioperative period

abcd-

Age < 30years

BMI > 30kg/m2
Pregnancy
Family history of DVT

Q49-Radiotherapy is best to damage cancer cells

abcd-

Hypoxic cancer cells

Well oxygenated cancer cells
By fractional doses of radiation
By radiosensitivity of cancer cells

Q50- The anti-cancer therapy given before surgery

abcd-

Adjuvant therapy
Neo-adjuvant therapy
Palliative therapy
Curative therapy

Q51-WHO surgical safety checklist,which one is not its part

abcd-

Sign in
Time out
Sign out
Risk out

Q52- Routine preoperative investigations for excision of sebaceous cyst

abcd-

CBC
UREA and CREATININE
X-RAY chest
Urine analysis

Q53- 65 year old patient came for surgery of ingrowing toe nail,which investigation is more helpful
abcd-

CBC
ECG
Blood sugar
Doppler study

Q54- 40years old woman is admitted for laparoscopic cholecystectomy, she has 4 children by c-section without
perioperative complications, which investigation is least helpful.
abcd-

CBC
LFTs
X- ray chest
Bleeding disorder

Q55- 18 years old healthy boy is admitted for inguinal hernia repair, which investigation is mandatory
abcd-

CBC, UREA/CREATINE
X-ray chest
ECG
Blood sugar random/Fasting

Q56 - 30 year old patient is admitted in emergency with generalized peritonitis in a critical state, your next step will
be
abcd-

Complete all investigations first

Optimization and shift to OR is priority
Need only informed consent
NPO of 6 hours is must

Q57- 27 year old woman is admitted with acute appendicitis, all are relevant investigations except
abcd-

LFTs
USG
Pregnancy test
CBC

Q58- All are high risk factors for perioperative mortality

abcd-

Recent MI
Emergency surgery
Morbid obesity
Age >60 year

Q59-On first postoperative day after appendectomy,patient has fever

abcd-

Check wound for infection

Check for chest infection
Send blood for malaria and typhoid
Stress response

Q60- 40 years old patient is admitted in general surgical ward with excessive vomiting, Lab shows hypokalemia,
hyponatremia, pH=7.58 and acidic urine , which shows severity of fluid and electrolyte disorder
abcd-

Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
pH=7.58
acidic urine

Q61- After laparoscopic cholecystectomy, 2nd day patient has mild puffiness of face and no other complaint. Lab shows
Na=125meq/L,other lab values are normal, what is your next step
a- observe and restrict I/V fluid

b- Give I/V hypertonic saline

c- Repeat serum electrolytes
d- ABGs for acid- base disturbance
Q62-After modified radical mastectomy, on 2nd post op-day, patient is in acute confusion and no other complaint, what is
in your mind?
a- Septic shock
b- Brain metastasis
c- Secondary haemorrhage
d- Fluid and electrolytes disorder
Q63- The post- operative vomiting, which is false
abcd-

May be due to severe pain

Best treated by NG in all abdominal operation,
Anti-emetics may help
May be due to drugs

Q64-A diabetic patient complain of leg pain at night and relieved by sitting esp when feet are hanged down
abcd-

Claudication
Rest pain due to severe ischemia
Diabetic neuropathy
Sciatica

Q65- A diabetic patient complain of severs pain in buttocks while exercising , he is married for 3years but no children due
to severe impotency,the most likely diagnosis
abcd-

Diabetic neuropathy
Leriche syndrome
External iliac arteries stenosis
psychological

Q66- A 20 year old girl has large swelling on Left shoulder,firm,non-tender and mobile, visible scar of previous
surgery,according to her mother,this started after BCG vaccination in childhood and 8month before was removed by
surgeon, on work up no distant metastasis found,the most likely diagnosis
abcd-

lipoma
keloid
cold abscess
Marjolin tumour

Q67- Which of following is an indication of surgery in varicose veins in our country

abcd-

Skin changes like ulcer,lipodermaosclerosis

Itching
Cosmesis
DVT

Q68- A young female patient presents with small punched out,painful ulcers over the dorsum of her foot,likely diagnosis
abcd-

Venous ulcer
SLE
Tuberculous ulcer
Raynauds phenomenon

Q69- 5 days after cholecystectomy, an asymptomatic patient has serum Na=125mEq/L,your appropriate plan
abcd-

Use normal saline

Restriction of free water
Dialysis
Observation

Q70- one week after appendectomy,a young girl c/o fever102F, B.P100/70,pulse110/min and respiratory rate26/min. USG
shows pelvic abscess,she is in metabolic state
abcd-

SIRS
Sepsis
Septic shock
MODS

Q71-A patient with abnormal coagulation studies requires urgent cholecystectomy.A transfusion of FFP is planned.e what
is optimal time for this transfusion?
abcd-

Day before surgery

Night before surgery
On call to surgery
Intraoperative

Q72- An acutely injured patient becomes hypotensive shortly after induction which one is responsible
abcd-

N2O
Morphine
Succinylcholine
Atracurium

Q73- All initiate afferent impulses to CNS which then triggers neuroendocrine response
abcd-

Alkalosis
Hypothermia
Pain
Bleeding

Q74- An unconscious patient with systolic B.P=80mmHg and pulse74,most likely has
abcd-

Cardiogenic shock
Hemorrhagic shock
Neurogenic shock
Septic shock

Q75-Most common indication for intubation in a trauma patient

abcd-

Altered mental status

Neck injury
Facial injury
Confusion

Q76-Massive hemothorax is
abcd-

500ml blood
>1000ml blood
blood1500ml
500 ml in both pleural cavities

Q77- One feature which differentiate keloid from malignant growth

abcd-

Recurrence
Excessive growth into normal skin
Increased angiogenesis
Metastasis

Q78-Chronic scar can change into

a- Martorells ulcer
b- Marjolin ulcer
c- Meleney ulcer

d- Malignant melanoma
Q79-The ideal solution to clean the wound is
abcd-

Saline
Povidone
Hydrogen peroxide
Eusol

Q80- which hormone level does not rise during injury

abcd-

ACTH
Adrenaline
Glucagon
Thyroxine

Q81-Albumin level decreases during stress response because of

abcd-

Decreased production
Decreased intake due to anorexia
Liver failure
Increased capillary permeability

Q82- The ideal treatment of carbuncle is

abcd-

Drainage
Incision and drainage
Excision
Aspiration

Q83- Following are true for carbuncle except

abcd-

Nape of neck is the commonest site

Cribriform appearance is diagnostic
Abscesses are not communicating with each other
Staphylococcus is the commonest organism

Q85-Treatment of cold abscess is

abcd-

Excision
Incision and drainage
Marsupialization
Nondependent aspiration

Q86-Following facts are false in gas gangrene except

abcd-

It is caused by Clostridium welchii

It is caused by Clostridium perfringens
It is caused by beta hemolytic streptococci
Brownish fluid has foul odour

Q87- Following are true for terminal pulp space infection except
abcd-

It is called felon
May cause digital artery thrombosis
Not so painful
Treated by volar longitudinal incision

Q88-Pyogenic granuloma is due to

a- Bacterial infection
b- Viral infection
c- Fungal infection

d- Trauma
Q89- Following are the principles of treatment of hand infections except
abcd-

Hand elevation
Early splinting
Tetanus prophylaxis in high risk patient
Pencillins are the drug of choice

Q90-HIV associated lymphoma can be following except

abcd-

B cell lymphoma
Diffuse large cell
Burkittlymphoma
Hodgkinlymphoma

Q91-Characteristic feature of critical limb ischemia is one

abcd-

Intermittent claudication
Ankle pressure is less than70 mm of Hg
Toe systolic pressure is less than 30 mm of Hg
Absent pulses

Q92- Following are true for subclavian artery except

abcd-

Cervical rib can compress the artery

It gives internal mammary artery
Adsons test is used to check subclavian artery compression by cervical rib
Post-stenotic dilatation called venture effect

Q93- About Cervical rib

abcd-

It is of 4-types
Type4 is easily seen in X ray neck
It is excessive development of transverse process of 7 th cervical vertebra
Common in young patient

Q94- Dry gangrene, all are true except

abcd-

Slow occlusion of the arteries

Line of demarcation is present
Dry, shrivelled and mummified
Emergency amputation to prevent sepsis

Q95-Trendelenburg test is done to find out

abcd-

Sapheno-popliteal incompetency
Sapheno- femoral incompetency
Deep vein thrombosis
Site of perforators

Q96 Following are true for venous perforators except

abcd-

Communicate superficial and deep veins

Mostly present in the legs
They do not have valves
SEPS is the endoscopic surgery done on perforators

Q97- The most common complications of varicose veins except

a- Venous ulcer
b- Bleeding
c- Lipodermaosclerosis

d- DVT
Q98-Characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is
abcd-

Keratin pearls
Orphan Annie nucleoli
Skip lesions
Excellent prognosis

Q99-About melanoma, all are true except

abcd-

Malignant tumour of melanocytes

More common in white skinned people
May occur after renal transplantation
Melanoma 3mm thickness has good prognosis

Q100- Malignant melanoma, all are true except

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Painless ulcer
Edges are irregular
Induration is absent
Always pigmented as black

Q102- Regarding diagnosis of malignant melanoma

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Mostly diagnosis is clinical

Alpha fetoproteins are raised
Excision biopsy
Sentinel lymph node biopsy

Q103-An albinism patient was admitted in surgical ward with melanoma on sole of foot about 0.76mm in thickness,
according to Breslow staging, it is
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Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4

Q104- Breslow stage 2 melanoma needs wide excision with resection margin as
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1cm
2cm
3cm
5cm

Q105- Following factors contribute to burn shock except

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Increased capillary permeability

Increased plasma oncotic pressure
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Depressed myocardial function

Q106-Tangential excision of burn refers to

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Excision and leaving the wound open immediately after admission

Excision within 6 hours and primary closure
Excision after 2-3 days and skin grafting
Excision after 10 days

Q107-Following are true for split skin graft except

a- It is partial thickness graft
b- It is called Thiersch graft

c- Humbys knife is often used

d- Cosmetically superior to full thickness graft
Q108- A malignant tumour was removed by surgery and histopathological report was R0.what does it mean?
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Resection margins are clear

Resection margins are not clear
Macroscopic residual tumour
Need fresh frozen facility

Q109-Following are radiosensitive tumours except

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Oral cancer
Seminoma
Carcinoma breast
Malignant chordoma

Q110- which one of the following is commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndrome?
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Carcinoma stomach
Carcinoma colon
Carcinoma pancreas
Carcinoma lung

Q111- polycythemia as paraneoplastic syndrome is seen in

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Hepatoma
Wilms tumour
Apudoma
Hypernephroma

Q112-Which one is more commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndrome?

abcd-

Hypernatraemia
Hyponatraemia
Hypercalcaemia
Hypocalcaemia

Q113- All are transluminant swellings in the body

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Cystic hygroma
Ranula
Vaginal hydrocele
Thyroglossal cyst

Q114-Which one of the following swelling does not contain cholesterol crystals?
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Branchial cyst
Sebaceous cyst
Dental cyst
Hydrocele

Q115- Componants of Horners syndrome are all except

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Miosis
Ptosis
Anhydrosis
Exophthalmos

e- Induration is absent
f-

e-