Exam #1 Key
Exam #1 Key
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2) The
__________
__________
is
made
up
of
two
concentric
membranes
and
is
continuous
with
the
membrane
of
the
endoplasmic
reticulum.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
a
nucleus.
replication
machinery.
ribosomes.
membrane
bilayers.
plasma
membrane
Golgi
network
mitochondrial
membrane
nuclear
envelope
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3) Which
of
the
following
organelles
has
both
an
outer
and
an
inner
membrane?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
endoplasmic
reticulum
mitochondrion
lysosome
peroxisome
4) Photosynthesis
enables
plants
to
capture
the
energy
from
sunlight.
In
this
essential
process,
plants
incorporate
the
carbon
from
CO2
into
high-energy
__________
molecules,
which
the
plant
cell
mitochondria
use
to
produce
ATP.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
fat
sugar
protein
fiber
Th
true
false
6) Biologists
cannot
possibly
study
all
living
species.
Instead,
they
try
to
understand
cell
behavior
by
studying
a
select
subset
of
them.
Which
of
the
following
characteristics
are
useful
in
an
organism
chosen
for
use
as
a
model
in
laboratory
studies?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11211302/Exam-1-key/
7) Select
the
answer
that
best
completes
the
following
statement:
Chemical
reactions
in
living
systems
occur
in
an
____________
environment,
within
a
narrow
range
of
temperatures.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8) Which
subatomic
particles
can
vary
between
isotopes
of
the
same
element,
without
changing
the
observed
chemical
properties?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9) The
figure
below
depicts
the
structure
of
an
atom.
Use
the
information
in
the
diagram
to
choose
the
correct
atomic
number
and
atomic
weight,
respectively,
for
the
atom.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6,
12
12,
12
6,
18
12,
6
Th
electrons
protons
and
neutrons
neutrons
neutrons
and
electrons
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optimal
organic
extracellular
aqueous
11) Sodium
fluoride
has
a
molecular
weight
of
42
grams.
What
is
the
concentration,
in
grams
per
liter
(g/l),
of
a
10
M
solution
of
glucose?
A. 420
B. 42
C. 21
D. 2.1
E. 1
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12) If
you
want
to
make
200
milliliters
of
0.1
M
sodium
fluoride
solution,
how
many
milliliters
of
5
M
sodium
fluoride
stock
would
you
need
to
add?
A. 400
B. 40
C. 20
D. 10
E. 4
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13) The
table
below
indicates
the
electrons
in
the
first
four
atomic
electron
shells
for
selected
elements.
On
the
basis
of
the
information
in
the
chart
and
what
you
know
about
atomic
structure,
which
elements
will
form
ions
with
a
net
charge
of
+1
in
solution?
atomic number
energy level (electron shell)
(a)
carbon,
sulfur
element
I
II
III
IV
(b)
helium,
neon
1 Hydrogen
2 Helium
(c)
sodium,
potassium
6 Carbon
(d)
magnesium,
calcium
7 Nitrogen
Oxygen
10 Neon
11 Sodium
12 Magnesium
15 Phosphorus
16 Sulfur
17 Chlorine
18 Argon
19 Potassium
20 Calcium
14)
Both
DNA
and
RNA
are
synthesized
by
covalently
linking
a
nucleoside
triphosphate
to
the
previous
nucleotide,
constantly
adding
to
a
growing
chain.
In
the
case
of
DNA,
the
new
strand
becomes
part
of
a
stable
helix.
The
two
strands
are
complementary
in
sequence
and
antiparallel
in
directionality.
What
is
the
principal
force
that
holds
these
two
strands
together?
(a)
ionic
interactions
(b)
hydrogen
bonds
(c)
covalent
bonds
(d)
van
der
Waals
interactions
Th
15) The
energy
used
by
the
cell
to
generate
specific
biological
molecules
and
highly
ordered
structures
is
stored
in
the
form
of
_____________.
(a)
Brownian
motion.
(b)
heat.
(c)
light
waves.
(d)
chemical
bonds.
16) Your
body
extracts
energy
from
the
food
you
ingest
by
catalyzing
reactions
that
essentially
burn
the
food
molecules
in
a
stepwise
fashion.
What
is
another
way
to
describe
this
process?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
reduction
oxidation
dehydration
solvation
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19) The
figure
below
is
an
energy
diagram
for
the
reaction
XY.
Which
equation
below
provides
the
correct
calculation
for
the
amount
of
free-energy
change
when
X
is
converted
to
Y?
b
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
a
+
b
c
a
b
a
c
c
a
reaction pathway
!
20) For
the
reaction
YX
at
standard
conditions
with
[Y]
=
1
M
and
[X]
=
1
M,
G
is
initially
a
large
negative
number.
As
the
reaction
proceeds,
[Y]
decreases
and
[X]
increases
until
the
system
reaches
equilibrium.
How
do
the
values
of
G
and
G
change
as
the
reaction
equilibrates?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21) On
the
basis
of
the
two
reactions
below,
decide
which
of
the
following
statements
is
false.
1:
2:
A.
Reaction
1
is
favorable
because
of
the
large
negative
G
associated
with
the
hydrolysis
of
ATP.
Reaction
2
is
an
example
of
an
unfavorable
reaction.
If
reactions
1
and
2
are
coupled
reactions,
when
they
take
place
together,
reaction
2
will
proceed
in
the
forward
direction.
Reaction
2
can
be
used
to
drive
reaction
1
in
the
reverse
direction.
B.
C.
isomerization.
oxidation.
reduction.
protonation.
free energy
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
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18) Seed
oils
are
often
dehydrogenated
and
added
back
into
processed
foods
as
partly
unsaturated
fatty
acids.
In
comparison
with
the
original
oil,
the
new
fatty
acids
have
additional
double
carboncarbon
bonds,
replacing
what
were
once
single
bonds.
This
process
could
also
be
described
as
_____________.
Th
17) How
do
protein,
nucleic
acid
and
polysaccharide
molecules
polymerize
(grow)?
A.
By
condensation
reactions
B.
By
hydrolysis
reactions
C.
By
oxidation
reactions
D.
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11211302/Exam-1-key/
G
=
100
kcal/mole
G
=
50
kcal/mole
22) You
are
studying
a
biochemical
pathway
that
requires
ATP
as
an
energy
source.
To
your
dismay,
the
reactions
soon
stop,
partly
because
the
ATP
is
rapidly
used
up
and
partly
because
an
excess
of
ADP
builds
up
and
inhibits
the
enzymes
involved.
You
are
about
to
give
up
when
the
following
table
from
a
biochemistry
textbook
catches
your
eye.
hydrolysis
reaction
creatine + ATP
ATP + H2O
pyrophosphate + H2O
enzyme C
enzyme D
+ 3 kcal/mole
ADP + phosphate
7.3 kcal/mole
2 phosphate
7 kcal/mole
glucose + phosphate
3.3 kcal/mole
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enzyme B
DG
!
Which
of
the
following
reagents
are
most
likely
to
revitalize
your
reaction?
(a)
a
vast
excess
of
ATP
(b)
glucose
6-phosphate
and
enzyme
D
(c)
creatine
phosphate
and
enzyme
A
(d)
pyrophosphate
glucose 6-phosphate + H2O
enzyme A
23) The
correct
folding
of
proteins
is
necessary
to
maintain
healthy
cells
and
tissues.
Unfolded
proteins
are
responsible
for
such
neurodegenerative
disorders
as
Alzheimers
disease,
Huntingtons
disease,
and
CreutzfeldtJakob
disease
(the
specific
faulty
protein
is
different
for
each
disease).
What
is
the
ultimate
fate
of
these
disease-causing,
unfolded
proteins?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
24) Molecular
chaperones
can
work
by
creating
an
isolation
chamber.
What
is
the
purpose
of
this
chamber?
(a)
(b)
Th
(c)
(d)
The
chamber
acts
as
a
garbage
disposal,
degrading
improperly
folded
proteins
so
that
they
do
not
interact
with
properly
folded
proteins.
This
chamber
is
used
to
increase
the
local
protein
concentration,
which
will
help
speed
up
the
folding
process.
This
chamber
serves
to
transport
unfolded
proteins
out
of
the
cell.
This
chamber
serves
to
protect
unfolded
proteins
from
interacting
with
other
proteins
in
the
cytosol,
until
protein
folding
is
completed.
25) Why
are
a
helices
and
b
sheets
common
folding
patterns
in
polypeptides?
A.
The
unique
amino
acid
sequences
that
generate
these
folding
patterns
are
common
in
polypeptides.
B.
Molecular
chaperones
tend
to
fold
polypeptides
in
these
common
folding
patterns.
C.
Amino
acid
side
chains
are
not
involved
in
forming
the
hydrogen
bonds,
allowing
many
different
sequences
to
adopt
these
folding
patterns.
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26) The
stable
wrapping
of
one
helix
around
another
is
typically
driven
by
________________
interactions.
(a)
hydrophilic
(b)
hydrophobic
(c)
van
der
Waals
(d)
ionic
27) You
have
two
purified
samples
of
protein
Y:
the
wild-type
(nonmutated)
protein
and
a
mutant
version
with
a
single
amino
acid
substitution.
When
washed
through
the
same
gel-filtration
column,
mutant
protein
Y
runs
through
the
column
more
slowly
than
the
normal
protein.
Which
of
the
following
changes
in
the
mutant
protein
is
most
likely
to
explain
this
result?
(b)
(c)
affinity
ion-exchange
gel-filtration
any
of
the
above
(a)
Allosteric
regulators
are
often
products
of
other
chemical
reactions
in
the
same
biochemical
pathway.
Allosteric
regulation
is
always
used
for
negative
regulation
of
enzyme
activity.
Binding
of
allosteric
molecules
usually
locks
an
enzyme
in
its
current
conformation,
such
that
the
enzyme
cannot
adopt
a
different
conformation.
Th
(b)
(c)
the
loss
of
a
binding
site
on
the
mutant-protein
surface
through
which
protein
Y
normally
forms
dimers
a
change
that
results
in
the
mutant
protein
acquiring
an
overall
positive
instead
of
a
negative
charge
a
change
that
results
in
the
mutant
protein
being
larger
than
the
wild-type
protein
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(a)
30) The
nucleotide
sequence
of
one
DNA
strand
of
a
DNA
double
helix
is
5-GGATTTCG-3.
What
is
the
sequence
of
the
complementary
strand?
A.
5-GGATTTCG-3
B.
5-GCTTTAGG-3
C.
5-CGAAATCC-3
D.
5-CCTAAAGC-3
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31) The
complete
set
of
information
found
in
a
given
organisms
DNA
is
called
its
____________.
(a)
genetic
code.
(b)
coding
sequence.
(c)
gene.
(d)
genome.
32) The
human
genome
is
divided
into
linear
segments
and
packaged
into
structures
called
chromosomes.
What
is
the
total
number
of
chromosomes
found
in
each
of
the
somatic
cells
in
your
body?
(a)
22
(b)
23
(c)
44
(d)
46
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33) What
evidence
suggests
that
the
large
amount
of
excess
junk
DNA
in
a
genome
may
serve
an
important
function?
A.
All
organisms
have
excess
junk
DNA.
B.
A
portion
of
junk
DNA
is
highly
conserved
in
its
DNA
sequence
among
many
different
eukaryotic
species.
34) The
core
histones
are
small,
basic
proteins
that
have
a
globular
domain
at
the
C-terminus
and
a
long,
extended
conformation
at
the
N-terminus.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
true
of
the
N-
terminal
tail
of
these
histones?
(a)
It
is
subject
to
covalent
modifications.
(b)
It
extends
out
of
the
nucleosome
core.
(c)
It
binds
to
DNA
in
a
sequence-specific
manner.
(d)
It
helps
DNA
pack
tightly.
Th
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37) The
chromosomes
we
typically
see
in
images
are
isolated
from
mitotic
cells.
These
mitotic
chromosomes
are
in
the
most
highly
condensed
form.
Interphase
cells
contain
chromosomes
that
are
less
densely
packed
and
__________________________.
(a)
occupy
discrete
territories
in
the
nucleus.
(b)
share
the
same
nuclear
territory
as
their
homolog.
(c)
are
restricted
to
the
nucleolus.
(d)
are
completely
tangled
with
other
chromosomes.
38) DNA
replication
is
considered
semiconservative
because
____________________________.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
after
many
rounds
of
DNA
replication,
the
original
DNA
double
helix
is
still
intact.
each
daughter
DNA
molecule
consists
of
two
new
strands
copied
from
the
parent
DNA
molecule.
each
daughter
DNA
molecule
consists
of
one
strand
from
the
parent
DNA
molecule
and
one
new
strand.
new
DNA
strands
must
be
copied
from
a
DNA
template.
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39) What
part
of
the
DNA
replication
process
would
be
most
directly
affected
if
a
strain
of
bacteria
lacking
the
exonuclease
activity
of
DNA
polymerase
were
used
to
make
the
cell
extracts?
(a)
initiation
of
DNA
synthesis
(b)
Okazaki
fragment
synthesis
(c)
leading-strand
elongation
(d)
lagging-strand
completion
40) Which
of
the
following
statements
about
the
newly
synthesized
strand
of
a
human
chromosome
is
true?
(a)
It
was
synthesized
from
a
single
origin
solely
by
continuous
DNA
synthesis.
(b)
It
was
synthesized
from
a
single
origin
by
a
mixture
of
continuous
and
discontinuous
DNA
synthesis.
(c)
It
was
synthesized
from
multiple
origins
solely
by
discontinuous
DNA
synthesis.
(d)
It
was
synthesized
from
multiple
origins
by
a
mixture
of
continuous
and
discontinuous
DNA
synthesis.
Th
41) DNA
polymerases
are
processive,
which
means
that
they
remain
tightly
associated
with
the
template
strand
while
moving
rapidly
and
adding
nucleotides
to
the
growing
daughter
strand.
Which
piece
of
the
replication
machinery
accounts
for
this
characteristic?
(a)
helicase
(b)
sliding
clamp
(c)
single-strand
binding
protein
(d)
primase
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11211302/Exam-1-key/
A.
B.
C.
43) Several
members
of
the
same
family
were
diagnosed
with
the
same
kind
of
cancer
when
they
were
unusually
young.
Which
one
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
explanation
for
this
phenomenon?
It
is
possible
that
the
individuals
with
the
cancer
have
_______________________.
5 end
O
P O
_
O O
3 end
O
P O
O
O P
_
O O
O
_
O P O
O
P O
O_
P O
O
5 end
3 end
45) Imagine
meiosis
in
a
diploid
organism
that
only
has
a
single
chromosome.
Like
most
diploid
organisms,
it
received
one
copy
of
this
chromosome
from
each
of
its
parents
and
the
two
homologs
are
genetically
distinct.
If
only
a
single
homologous
recombination
event
occurs
during
meiosis,
which
of
the
following
choices
below
correctly
describes
the
four
gametes
formed.
Th
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
None
of
the
gametes
will
contain
chromosomes
identical
to
the
chromosomes
found
in
the
original
diploid
cell.
All
four
of
the
gametes
will
have
chromosomes
identical
to
the
chromosomes
found
in
the
original
diploid
cell.
Three
of
the
gametes
will
have
chromosomes
identical
to
the
chromosomes
found
in
the
original
diploid
cell,
while
one
of
the
gametes
will
have
chromosomes
that
are
different.
Two
of
the
gametes
will
have
chromosomes
identical
to
the
chromosomes
found
in
the
original
diploid
cell,
while
two
of
the
gametes
will
have
chromosomes
that
are
different.
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