Shortcut Methods Tips and Tricks
Shortcut Methods Tips and Tricks
Chapter - 12
D2 = 33.3
Concept of efficiency
This means, "How much work one person can do in one day (expressed in percentage)"
For example: A person can do a job in 2 days
He can do 50% work in one day
Therefore, his efficiency will be 50%
Just a 2-step concept
This concept involves two steps to calculate efficiency:
Page 3
D2 = 33.3
Concept of efficiency
This means, "How much work one person can do in one day (expressed in percentage)"
For example: A person can do a job in 2 days
He can do 50% work in one day
Therefore, his efficiency will be 50%
Just a 2-step concept
This concept involves two steps to calculate efficiency:
Page 3
Work/Day
Efficiency (%)
1/n
1
1/2
1/3
1/4
1/5
1/6
1/7
1/8
1/9
1/10
1/11
1/12
1/13
1/14
1/15
100/n
100
50
33.33
25
20
16.66
14.28
12.5
11.11
10
9.09
8.25
7.69
7.14
6.66
Example 3: A can do a job in 10 days. B can do a job in 5 days. In how many days they can complete
the job if they work together?
Solution: Consider the above table
A's efficiency = 10%
B's efficiency = 20%
A+ B efficiency = 10 + 20 = 30%
This means, In one day A and B together can do 30% of work.
Therefore, Number of days A and B together take to do 100% of work =
3.33 days
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Example 4: A and B together can do a job in 4 days. If A can do job in 12 days if he works alone, then
how many days B alone take to complete the job?
Solution: A+B take = 4 days
A+B's efficiency = 25% i.e. they together do 25% of work in one day
A takes = 12 days
A's efficiency = 8.33%
B's efficiency = (A+B) - (A)
25% - 8.33% = 16.66%
This means, B can do 16.66% work in one day
Therefore, to complete the job he will take =
6days
days
Example 5: A and B can do job in 8 days. B and C can do same job in 12 days. A, B and C together can
do same job in 6 days. In how many days A and C together can complete the job?
Solution: You are given that:
A+B's efficiency = 12.5%
B+C's efficiency = 8.33%
A+B+C's efficiency = 16.66%
we need to find A+C
Consider, 2(A+B+C) = (A+B) + (B+C) + (C+A)
2(16.66) = 12.5+ 8.33 + (C+A)
C+A = 12.49 = 12.5%
Therefore, A and C takes= . = 8 days
Hope you all understand this topic. I will soon update questions for your practice.
Trick
One simple technique is using days in denominator while solving questions. For example, A can do a
job in 3 days and B can do the same job in 6 days. In how much time they can do the job together.
Solution - 1/3 + 1/6 = 1/2, hence 2 days is the answer.
Examiner can set the question in opposite way and can ask you how much time A or B alone will take
to complete the job. It is quite easy to calculate said question by putting values in equation we
arrived in above question.
You need to understand one simple concept - If A can do a job in 10 day then in one day A can do
1/10th of job.
Now let's solve questions with this trick
Question 1 - A take 5 days to complete a job and B takes 10 days to complete the same job. In how
much time they will complete the job together?
Solution - A's efficiency = 20%, B's efficiency = 10%. If they work together they can do 30% of the job
in a day. To complete the job they need 3.33 days.
Page 5
Question 2 - A is twice as efficient as B and can complete a job 30 days before B. In how much they
can complete the job together?
Solution - Let efficiency percentage as x
A's efficiency = 2x and B's efficiency = x
A is twice efficient and can complete the job 30 days before B. So,
A can complete the job in 30 days and B can complete the job in 60 days
A's efficiency = 1/30 = 3.33%
B's efficiency = 1/60 = 1.66%
Both can do 5% (3.33% + 1.66%) of the job in 1 day.
So the can complete the whole job in 20 days (100/5)
Question 3 - A tank can be filled in 20 minutes. There is a leakage which can empty it in 60 minutes.
In how many minutes tank can be filled?
Solution Method 1
Efficiency of filling pipe = 20 minutes = 1/3 hour = 300%
Efficiency of leakage = 60 minutes = 100%
We need to deduct efficiency of leakage so final efficiency is 200%. We are taking 100% = 1 Hour as
base so answer is 30 minutes.
Method 2
Efficiency of filling pipe = 100/20 = 5%
Efficiency of leakage pipe = 100/60 = 1.66%
Net filling efficiency = 3.33%
So, tank can be filled in = 100/3.33% = 30 minutes
You can change the base to minutes or even seconds.
Question 4 - 4 men and 6 women working together can complete the work within 10 days. 3 men
and 7 women working together will complete the same work within 8 days. In how many days 10
women will complete this work?
Solution - Let number of men =x, number of women = y
Efficiency of 4 men and 6 women = 100/10 = 10%
So, 4x+6y = 10
Above equation means 4 men and 6 women can do 10% of a the job in one day.
Efficiency of 3 men and 7 women = 100/8 = 12.5%
So, 3x+7y = 12.5
By solving both equations we get, x = -0.5 and y = 2
Efficiency of 1 woman(y) = 2% per day
Efficiency of 10 women per day = 20%
So 10 women can complete the job in 100/20 = 5 days
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Question 5 - A and B together can complete a task in 20 days. B and C together can complete the
same task in 30 days. A and C together can complete the same task in 30 days. What is the
respective ratio of the number of days taken by A when completing the same task alone to the
number of days taken by C when completing the same task alone?
Solution - Efficiency of A and B = 1/20 per day = 5% per day ___________1
Efficiency of B and C = 1/30 per day = 3.33% per day_________2
Efficiency of C and A = 1/30 per day = 3.33% per day_________3
Exercise - 12
1) A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the
fraction of the work that is left is:
a) 1/4
b) 1/10
c) 7/15
d) 8/15
e) None of these
2) A can lay railway track between two given stations in 16 days and B can do the same job in
12 days, with help of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do the job in:
a) 9
b) 9
c) 9
d) 10
e) None of these
3) A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can
A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
a) 12 days
b) 15 days
c) 16 days
d) 18 days
e) None of these
4) A is thrice as good as workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less than
B. Working together, they can do it in:
a) 20 days
b) 22
c) 25 days
d) 30 days
e) None of these
5) A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for
Rs.3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to
C?
a) Rs.375
b) Rs.400
c) Rs.600
d) Rs.800
e) None of these
6) If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the
same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:
a) 4 days
b) 5 days
c) 6 days
d) 7 days
e) None of these
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7) A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C
together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it?
a) 8 hours
b) 10 hours
c) 12 hours
d) 24 hours
e) None of these
8) A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A and B
together could do it in 10 days and C alone in 50 days, then B alone could do it in:
a) 15 days
b) 20 days
c) 25 days
d) 30 days
e) None of these
9) A does 80% of a work in 20 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the remaining
work in 3 days. How long B alone would take to do the whole work?
a) 23 days
b) 37 days
c) 37
d) 40 days
e) None of these
10) A machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same number of
books in 10 hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at
9 A.M. while machine P is closed at 11 A.M. and the remaining two machines complete
work. Approximately at what time will the work (to print one lakh books) be finished?
a) 11:30 A.M.
b) 12 noon
c) 12:30 P.M.
d) 1:00 P.M.
e) None of these
11) A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days
and left the job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?
a) 5
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
e) None of these
12) 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete
it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
a) 35
b) 40
c) 45
d) 50
e) None of these
13) A and B can together finish a work 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then B
left. After another 20 days, A finished the remaining work. In how many days A alone can
finish the work?
a) 45
b) 50
c) 54
d) 60
e) None of these
14) P can complete a work in 12 days working 8 hours a day. Q can complete the same work in 8
days working 10 hours a day. If both P and Q work together, working 8 hours a day, in how
many days can they complete the work?
a) 5
b) 5
c) 6
d) 6
e) None of these
15) 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work.
How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
16) X and Y can do a piece of work in 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the work alone
and then after 4 days Y joined him till the completion of the work. How long did the work
last?
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a) 6 days
d) 20 days
c) 15 days
17) A is 30% more efficient than B. How much time will they, working together, take to complete
a job which A alone could have done in 23 days?
a) 11 days
b) 13 days
c) 20
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
18) Ravi and Kumar are working on an assignment. Ravi takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a
computer, while Kumar takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take,
working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
a) 7 hours 30 minutes b) 8 hours
c) 8 hours 15 minutes
d) 8 hours 25 minutes e) None of these
19) A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 24, 6 and 12 days respectively. Working together,
they will complete the same work in:
a)
day
b) day
c) 3
]
d) 4 days
e) None of these
20) Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than Sakshi. The
number of days taken by Tanya to do the same piece of work is:
a) 15
b) 16
c) 18
d) 25
e) None of these
21) A takes twice as much time as B or thrice as much time as C to finish a piece of work.
Working together, they can finish the work in 2 days. B can do the work alone in:
a) 4 days
b) 6 days
c) 8 days
d) 12 days
e) None of these
22) A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started doing the
work together but after 2 days B had to lea0ve and A alone completed the remaining work.
The whole work was completed in:
a) 8 days
b) 10 days
c) 12 days
d) 15 days
e) None of these
23) A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B and C can do the same work in 24 days
and C and A in 20 days. They all work together for 10 days when B and C leave. How many
days more will A take to finish the work?
a) 18 days
b) 24 days
c) 30 days
d) 36 days
e) None of these
24) A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a work in 12 days independently, the number of
days in which A and B can together finish the work in:
a) 4 days
b) 6 days
c) 8 days
d) 18 days
e) None of these
25) Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work in
fifteen days. What is the ration between the capacity of a man and a woman?
a) 3 : 4
b) 4 : 3
c) 5 : 3
d) Date inadequate
e) None of these
26) A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C
together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in:
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a) 4 days
d) 12 days
c) 8 days
27) A can finish a work in 24 days, B in 9 days and C in 12 days. B and C start the work but are
forced to leave after 3 days. The remaining work was done by A in:
a) 5 days
b) 6 days
c) 10 days
d) 10
e) None of these
28) X can do a piece of work in 40 days. He works at it for 8 days and then Y finished it in 16
days. How long will they together take to complete the work?
a) 13
b) 15 days
c) 20 days
d) 26 days
e) None of these
29) A and B can do a job together in 7 days. A is 1
done by A alone in:
a) 9
b) 11 days
d) 16
e) None of these
30) P is thrice as efficient as Q and is therefore able to finish a piece of work in 60 days less than
Q. Find the time in which P and Q can complete the work individually.
a) 90 days, 30 days
b) 60 days, 20 days
c) 65 days, 30 days
d) 85 days, 90 days
e) None of these
31) A tub can be filled in 20 minutes but there is a leakage in it which can empty the full tub in 60
minutes. In how many minutes it can be filled?
a) 10 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 40 minutes
d) 25 minutes
e) None of these
32) A can do a piece of work in 14 days while B can do it in 21 days. In how many days, working
together they will complete the whole work?
a) 10.5
b) 8
c) 8.4
d) 9
e) None of these
33) A is thrice as efficient as B. Working together they complete the work in 3 days. If B takes 8
days more than A, what is the number of days taken by A to finish the whole work, alone?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 12
d) 16
e) None of these
34) Aman can do a piece of work in 14 days, while Suneeta can do the same work in 21 days.
They started the work together but 3 days before the completion of the work, Aman left the
work. The total number of days to complete the work is :
a) 7
b) 8.5
c) 5
d) 10
e) None of these
d) 3
e) None of these
35) Karan can do a work in 10 days while Sohan can do the same work in 20 days. They started
work together. After 3 days Karan left the work and Sohan completed it. For how many days
Sohan worked alone more than the number of days required when both worked together?
a)4
b) 3
c) 2
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36) A and B undertook a work for Rs.350. A got Rs.150 more than that of B, when they worked
together. B takes 9 days more than A, when they work individually. In how many days A and
B working together can do the whole work:
a) 5
b) 4
c) 4
d) 5
e) None of these
37) When A, B and C are deployed for a task, A and B together do 70% of the work and B and C
together do 50% of the work. Who is most efficient?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
38) A contractor undertook a work to complete in 60 days. But just after 20 days he observed that
only th of the project work had been completed. To complete the work in time (i.e., in rest
days) minimum how many workers he had to increase, if there were initially 75 workers were
deployed for the task?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
39) If 2 men or 3 women or 4 boys can do a piece of work in 52 days, then the same piece of
work will be done by 1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy in :
a) 48 days
b) 36 days
c) 45 days
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
40) A contractor undertook to complete the work in 40 days and he deployed 20 men for his
work. 8 days before the scheduled time he realized that 1/3rd of the work was still to be done.
How many more men were required to complete the work in stipulated time?
a) 16
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
e) None of these
41) B and C are equally efficient, but the efficiency of A is half of each B and C. A and B started
a work and 3 days later C joined them. If A alone can do the work in 14 days, then in how
many more days the work will be completed?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4.5
e) None of these
42) A and B together can complete a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can complete the same
work in 12 days, in how many days can B alone complete that work?
a) 6 days
b) 12
c) 8 days
d) 9 days
e) None of these
43) 4 men and 2 boys can finish a piece of work in 5 days. 3 women and 4 boys can finish the
same work in 5 days. Also 2 men and 3 women can finish the same work in 5 days. In how
many days 1 man, 1 woman and one boy can finish the work, at their double efficiency?
a) 4
b) 4
c) 3
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
44) A and B undertake to do a piece of work for Rs.600. A alone can do it in 6 days while B alone
can do it in 8 days. With the help of C, they finish it in 3 days. Find the share of each.
a) Rs.80
b) Rs.75
c) Rs.90
d) Rs.82
e) None of these
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45) Tap A can fill the empty tank in 12 hours, but due to a leak in the bottom it is filled in 15
hours, if the tank is full and then tap A is closed then in how many hours the leak can empty
it?
a) 45 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 52 hours
d) 60 hours
e) None of these
46) A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 18 days. In
how many days will A alone finish the work?
a) 72 days
b) 30 days
c) 27 days
d) 32 days
e) None of these
47) Pipe A basically used as inlet pipe and pipe B is used as outlet pipe. Pipes A and B both are
opened simultaneously, all the time. When pipe A fills the tank and B empty the tank, it will
take double the time than when both the pipes fill the tank. When pipe B is used for filling the
tank, its efficiency remains constant. What is the ratio of efficiency of pipe A and pipe B
respectively?
a) 3 : 1
b) 5 : 2
c) 1 : 3
d) 3 : 2
e) None of these
48) 45 men can complete a work in 16 days. Six days after they started working. 30 more men
joined them. How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work?
a) 18 days
b) 12 days
c) 9 days
d) 6 days
e) None of these
49) Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 15 hours and 10 hours respectively. A tap C can empty
the full cistern in 30 hours. All the three taps were open for 2 hours, when it was remembered
that the emptying tap had been left open. It was then closed. How many hours more would it
take for the cistern to be filled?
a) 30 min.
b) 1.2 hours
c) 24 min.
d) 35 min.
e) None of these
50) A tyre has two punctures. The first puncture alone would have made the tyre flat in 9 minutes
and the second alone would have done it in 6 minutes. If air leaks out at a constant rate, how
long does it take both the punctures together to make it flat?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 3
d) 4
e) None of these
51) A single reservoir supplies the petrol to the whole city, while the reservoir is fed by a single
pipeline filling the reservoir with the stream of uniform volume. When the reservoir is full
and if 40,000 litres of petrol is used daily, the supply fails in 90 days. If 32,000 litres of petrol
is used daily, it fails in 60 days. How much petrol can be used daily without the supply every
failing?
a) 64000 litres
b) 56000 litres
c) 78000 litres
d) 60000 litres
e) None of these
52) A is 50% more efficient than B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone
does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in :
a) 13 days
b) 15 days
c) 20 days
d) 30 days
e) None of these
53) The total number of men, women and children working in a factory is 18. They earn Rs.4000
in a day. If the sum of the wages of all men, all women and all children is in the ratio of 18 :
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10 : 12 and if the wages of an individual man, woman and child is in the ratio 6 : 5 : 3, then
how much a woman earn in a day?
a) Rs.400
b) Rs.250
c) Rs.150
d) Rs.120
e) None of these
54) P can complete a work in 12 days working 8 hours a day. Q can complete the same work in 8
days working 10 hours a day. If both P and Q work together, working 8 hours a day, in how
many days can they complete the work?
a) 5
b) 5
c) 6
d) 6
e) None of these
55) Eklavya can do the 6 times the actual work in 36 days while Faizal can do the one-fourth of
the original work in 3 days. In how many days will both working together complete the 3
times of the originalwork?
a) 6
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15
e) None of these
56) A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then B
left. After another 20 days, A finished the remaining work. In how many days A alone can
finish the job?
a) 40
b) 50
c) 54
d) 60
e) None of these
57) Aman and Raman are two workers. Working together they can complete the whole work in
10 hours. If the Aman worked for 2.5 hours and Raman worked for 8.5 hours, still there was
half of the work to be done. In how many hours Aman working alone, can complete the whole
work?
a) 24 hours
b) 17 hours
c) 40 hours
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
58) 5 men and 2 boys working together can do four times as much work as a man and a boy.
Working capacities of a man and a boy are in the ratio :
a) 1 : 2
b) 2 : 1
c) 1 : 3
d) 3 : 1
e) None of these
59) A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it
for Rs.3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid
to C?
a) Rs.375
b) Rs.400
c) Rs.600
d) Rs.800
e) None of these
60) If there is leakage also which is capable of draining out the liquid drom the tank at half of the
rate of outlet pipe, then what is the time taken to fill the empty tank when both the pipes are
opened?
a) 3 hours
b) 3 hours
c) 4 hours
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
61) A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs.529. A and B together are supposed to
do
of the work and B and C together of the work. What amount should A be paid?
a) Rs.315
b) Rs.345
c) Rs.355
d) Rs.375
e) None of these
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days
e) None of these
days
63) A, B and C can do a piece of work in 36, 54 and 72 days respectively. They started the work
but A left 8 days before the completion of the work while B left 12 days before the
completion. The number of days for which C worked is :
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 24
e) None of these
64) A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. If B
does the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will
complete the work?
a) 10 days
b) 11 days
c) 15 days
d) 20 days
e) None of these
65) 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work.
How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
66) 12 men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days, 6 more men join them.
How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
a) 2 days
b) 3 days
c) 4 days
d) 5 days
e) None of these
67) A, B and C together earn Rs.300 per day, while A and C together earn Rs.188 and B and C
together earn Rs.152. The daily earning of C is :
a) Rs.40
b) Rs.68
c) Rs.112
d) Rs.150
e) None of these
Solutions:
1.
Option D
As 1 days work
Bs 1 days work
Option C
(A + B + C)s 1 days work
[ + ]=
= [ 4] =
= [1 ] =
=
Page 14
As 1 days work
Bs 1 days work
Cs 1 days work
So, C alone can do the work in
3.
Option B
As 2 days work
(A + B + C)s 1 days work
Work done in 3 days
]=[
=9
[
=[
=[
=
]=
2 =
+
]=
]=
Option B
Ratio of times taken by A and B = 1 : 3
The time difference is (3 1) 2 days while B take 3 days and A takes 1 day.
If difference of time is 2 days, B takes 3 days.
If difference of time is 60 days, B takes
So, A takes 30 days to do the work.
As 1 days work
60 = 90 days
=
Bs 1 days work
Option B
Cs 1 days work
= 22
]=
days
]=
+
=
=4:3:1
= Rs. 3
3200 = Rs.400
Option A
Let 1 mans 1 days work = x and 1 boys 1 days work = y
Then, 6x + 8y = and 26x + 48y =
Solving these two equations, we get : x =
and y =
]=
Option C
Page 15
As 1 hours work
[
=[
Bs 1 hours work
]=
]=
Option C
(A + B)s 1 days work
Cs 1 days work
=
=
Bs 1 days work=
= =
So, B alone could do the work in 25 days.
9.
Option C
] = 25 days
]=
=37
days
Option D
(P + Q + R)s 1 hours work
Work done by P, Q and R in 2 hours
Remaining work
(Q + R)s 1 hours work
Now,
[ + + ]=
=[
2] =
= [1 ] =
=[ + ]=
=
So,
work will be done by Q and R in
=
hours
2 hours
So, the work will be finished approximately 2 hours after 11 A.M., i.e., around 1 P.M.
11.
Option C
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Page 16
Bs 10 days work
[ 10] =
= [1 ] =
=
Remaining work
Now,
] = 6 days.
work is done by A in 18
12.
Option B
Let 1 mans 1 days work = x and 1 womans 1 days work = y.
Then, 4x + 6y = and 3x + 7y =
Solving the two equations, we get x =
1 womans 1 days work
,y=
Option D
[ 20] =
= [1 ] =
Remaining work
Option A
P can complete the work in (12 8) hrs. = 96 hrs.
Q can complete the work in (8 10) hrs. = 80 hrs.
Ps 1 hours work = and Qs 1 hours work =
[P + Q)s 1 hours work =
]=
[ ] hrs.
Number of days of 8 hours each = [
]=
So, both P and Q will finish the work in
15.
days =5
Option C
1 womans 1 days work
1 childs 1 days work
=
=
] [
days
Option B
Work done by X in 4 days
]=
4 =
Page 17
Remaining work
[
=[
]=
]=
= 1
+
= 6 days
Hence, total time taken
= (6 + 4) days = 10 days
17.
Option B
Ration of times taken by A and B
Suppose B takes x days to do the work.
Then, 10 : 13:: 23 : x
x=
As 1 days work
Bs 1 days work
= 100 : 130 = 10 : 13
x=
Option C
Number of pages typed by Ravi in 1 hour
=8
[ + 8] =
= [110 ] hours
19.
=8
Option C
Option B
[ ] days = 3
]=
= 125 : 100 = 5 : 4
5 : 4::20 : x
x=
x = 16 days
Hence, Tanya takes 16 days to complete the work.
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Page 18
21.
Option B
and
]=
=
x = 12
So, B takes (12/2) = 6 days to finish the work.
22.
Option C
[ + ]=
Work done by A and B in 2 days = [ 2] =
Remaining work
= [1 ] =
(A + B)s 1 days work
Now,
] = 10 days
Option A
2 (A + B + C)s 1 days work
So,
]=
]=
] = 18 days.
Option A
Ratio of rates of working of A and B
So, ratio of times taken
Bs 1 days work
=2:1
=1:2
=
As 1 days work
]=
= 1
As 1 days work
Now,
[
=[
Remaining work
24.
= (10 + 2) = 12 days.
; (2 times of Bs work)
]=
Option B
(20 16) women can complete the work in 1 day.
1 womans 1 days work
=
(16 15) men can complete the work in 1 day.
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Page 19
= :
= 4 : 3 (cross multiplied)
26. Option C
(A + B + C)s 1 days work
= 2
[
=[
=
] [
]
=
So, A and C together will do the work in 8 days.
27.
Option C
[ + ]=
Work done by B and C in 3 days = [ 3] =
Remaining work
= [1 ] =
(B + C)s 1 days work
Now,
So,
28.
work is done by A in 24
] = 10 days.
Option A
Work done by X in 8 days
Remaining work
Now,
[ 8] =
= [1 ] =
=
] = 20 days.
, Ys 1 days work =
]=
Option B
[ ] = 13
days.
Page 20
As 1 days work =
30.
7 =
Option A
Efficiency of P : Q = 3 : 1
Required number of days of P : Q = 1 : 3
i.e., if P requires x days then Q requires 3x days
but
3x x = 60
2x = 60
x = 30 and 3x = 90
Thus P can finish the work in 30 days and Q can finish the work in 90 days.
31.
Option B
Filling efficiency
32.
33.
= 5%
Emptying efficiency
= 1.66%
1.66 =
Net efficiency
= 5 1.66 = 3.33%
Required time to full the tub = . = 30 minutes
Option C
Efficiency of A = 7.14%
Efficiency of B = 4.76%
Efficiency of A + B = 11.9%
Number of days required by A and B, working together =
Option A
Efficiency of A + B = 33.33% =
Ratio of efficiency of A and B = 3 : 1
Efficiency of A = 33.33 = 25%
Number of days taken by A = 4 =
34.
5=
= 8.4 days
=4
Option A
3 days before the completion of the work Aman left the work means in last 3 days only
Suneeta has worked alone.
So, in last 3 days worked done by Suneeta = 3 =
]=
Option A
/
/
=7
days
= 11
Page 21
=6
[ ]
36.
Option B
=4
days
As share
= Rs.250
Bs share
= Rs.100
It means the ratio of efficiency of A : B = 250 : 100 = 5 : 2
Ratio of days taken by A and B = 2x : 5x
Now, 5x 2x = 9
x=3
Number of days taken by A = 6 (efficiency = 16.66%)
Number of days taken by B = 15 (efficiency = 6.66%)
Therefore number of days taken by A and B, working together =
37.
Option A
A + B = 70%
B + C = 50%
=4
days
[A + B + B + C (A + B + C) = B]
70 + 50 100 = 20%
B = 20%
A = 50%
C = 30%
Hence, A is most efficient.
38.
Option C
Work done
Remaining work
=
4 (20 75) = 40 x
x = 150
Therefore 75 men should be increased.
39.
Option E
Work done by 2 men = 3 women = 4 boys
1 man = 2 boys
1 women = boys
Boys days = 4 52 (boys days)
Again 1 man + 1 woman + 1 boy = 2 + + 1 =
40.
boys
Option C
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Page 22
Work done
Remaining work
, which is half of
(20 32) = 8 x
x = 40 men
Therefore, 20 more men were required.
41.
Option A
Number of days taken by A to complete work alone
Number of days taken by B to complete work alone
Number of days taken by C to complete work alone
One days work of A and B
= + =
And one days work of A, B and C =
3 days work of A and B = 3
Remaining work
[1 ]
Option A
(A + B)s 1 days work
= 14 days
= 7 days
= 7 days
/
/
= 1 day
, As 1 days work =
Bs 1 days work=
=
Hence, B alone can complete the work in 6 days.
43.
Option E
Efficiency of 4 men and 2 boys
Efficiency of 3women and 4 boys
Efficiency of 2 men and 3 women
= 20%
= 20%
= 20%
Option B
Cs 1 days work
]=
:
=4:3:1
45.
Option D
Page 23
Option C
(As 1 days work) : (Bs 1 days work) = 2 : 1
(A + B)s 1 days work
=
Divide
in the ratio 2 : 1
=
Hence, A alone can finish the work in 27 days.
47.
Option A
Efficiency when both pipes used to fill = A + B
And efficiency when pipe A is used to fill and pipe B is used to empty the tank = A B
So, =
=
Thus, the ratio of efficiency of pipe A and B = 3 : 1
48.
Option E
(45 16) men can complete the work in 1 day.
So, 1 mans 1days work
=
45 mens 6 days work
49.
6 =
Remaining work = 1
Option C
]=
Option C
1 minutes work of both the punctures =
Option B
]=
=3
min.
Let x litre be the per day filling and v litre be the capacity of the reservoir, then
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Page 24
90x + v = 40000 90
. (1)
60x + v = 32000 60
. (2)
Solving eq. (1) and (2), we get
x = 56000
Hence, 56000 litres per day can be used without the failure of supply.
52.
Option A
(As 1 days work) : (Bs 1 days work) = 150 : 100 = 3 : 2
Let As and Bs 1 days work be 3x and 2x respectively.
Then, Cs 1 days work
So,
or x =
As 1 days work =
]=
]=
; Bs 1 days work =
]=
Option B
; Cs 1 days work =
=
= 13
days
= 3x : 2x : 4x
(18 + 10 + 12 = 40)
So, Share of each woman =
54.
= Rs.250
Option A
P can complete the work in (12 8) hrs. = 96 hrs.
Q can complete the work in (8 10) hrs. = 80 hrs.
So, Ps 1 hours work = and Qs 1 hours work =
(P + Q)s 1 hours work =
]=
[ ] hrs.
So, Number of days of 8 hours each = [
]=
So, both P and Q will finish the work in
55.
Option C
Efficiency of Eklavya
Efficiency of Faizal
Total efficiency of Eklavya and Faizal
So, they can do actual work in 4 days
So, 3 times work requires 12 days.
56.
days = 5
days
= 16.66%
= 8.33%
= 25%
Option D
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Page 25
20 =
Remaining work = [1 ] =
58.
Option B
Efficiency of Aman and Raman
= 10%
Aman worked for 2.5 hours and Raman worked separately 8.5 hours. Which means it can be
considered that Aman and Raman worked together for 2.5 hours and Raman worked alone
for 6 hours.
Thus, Aman and Raman in 2.5 hours can complete 25% work. It means the remaining (50
25) = 25% of the work was done by Raman in 6 hours.
Therefore, Raman can do 100% work in 24 hours. It means the efficiency of Raman = 4.16%
Therefore, efficiency of Aman = (10 4.16) = 5.83%
Thus, Aman require
= 17 hours to complete the work alone.
.
Option B
Option B
Cs 1 days work
=4:3:1
Option C
= 8.33% per hour
= 50 (16.66 + 8.33) = 25%
= 4 hours
Option B
Work done by A
So, A : (B + C) =
So, As share = Rs.
62.
3200 = Rs.400
Rate of leakage
Net efficiency
Time required =
61.
]=
= 1
]=
= 15 : 8
529 = Rs.345
Option B
(As 1 days work) : (Bs 1 days work) = : 1 = 7 : 4
Let As and Bs 1 days work be 7x and 4x respectively.
Then, 7x + 4x =
11x =
x=
Page 26
7 =
Option D
Suppose the work was finished in x days.
Then, As (x 8) days work + Bs (x 12) days work + Cs x days work = 1
+
+ =1
6(x 8) + 4 (x 12) + 3x = 216
So, 13x = 312 or x = 24
64.
Option C
Bs 1 days work
]= =
=[ + ]=
Option C
1 womans 1 days work =
] [
Option A
1 mans 1 days work
[
=[
6 =
18 =
Remaining work = 1
]=
] = 2 days
Option A
Bs daily earning
As daily earning
Cs daily earning
Page 27
MODULE OBJECTIVE:
The module calendar is used to find many problems related to odd days,
leap year, and counting of odd days and many.
The module clock is used to find many problems related to find angle between
hour and minute hand of a clock, at what time the hands of clock will be together and
many.
Prerequisites:
CALENDAR
Odd Days:
We are supposed to find the day of the week on a given date.
For this, we use the concept of 'odd days'.
In a given period, the number of days more than the complete weeks are called odd days.
Leap Year:
(i). Every year divisible by 4 is a leap year, if it is not a century.
(ii). Every 4th century is a leap year and no other century is a leap year.
Note: A leap year has 366 days.
Examples:
i.
ii.
iii.
Ordinary Year:
The year which is not a leap year is called an ordinary years. An ordinary year has 365
days.
Counting of Odd Days:
1. 1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day.)
1 ordinary year has 1 odd day.
SITAMS
Page 2
5 odd days.
3 odd days.
1 odd day.
0 odd day.
Similarly, each one of 800 years, 1200 years, 1600 years, 2000 years etc. has 0
odd days.
Day of the Week Related to Odd Days:
No. of days: 0
Day:
SITAMS
july 0
Aug 3
Sep 6
Oct 1
Nov 4
Dec 6
Page 3
CLOCK:
The Face or dial of a watch is a circle whose circumference is divided into 60 equal
parts, called minute spaces.
A clock has two hands, the smaller one is called the hour hand or short hand while the
larger one is called the minute hand or long hand..
i) In 60 minutes, the minute hand gains 55 minutes on the hour hand.
ii) In every hour, both the hands coincide once.
iii) The hands are in the same straight line when they are coincident or opposite to each
other.
iv) When the two hands are at right angles, they are 15 minute spaces apart.
v)When the hand's are in opposite directions, they are 30 minute spaces apart.
vi)Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs = 360.
vii)Angle traced by minute hand in 60 min. = 360.
viii)Too Fast and Too Slow: If a watch or a clock indicates 8.15, when the correct time ,
8 is said to be 15 minutes too fast.
On the other hand, if it indicates 7.45, when the correct time is 8, it is said to be 15
minutes too slow.
Solved Examples:
CALENDAR:
1. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
A.Sunday
B.Saturday
C.Friday
D.Wednesday
Answer: Option C
[ RRB 2001]
Solution:
On 31st December, 2005 it was Saturday.
Number of odd days from the year 2006 to the year 2009 = (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days.
On 31st December 2009, it was Thursday.
Thus, on 1st Jan, 2010 it is Friday.
2. What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?
A.Thursday
B.Friday
C.Saturday
D.Sunday
Answer: Option D
SITAMS
Page 4
Solution:
28 May, 2006 = (2005 years + Period from 1.1.2006 to 28.5.2006)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 400 years = 0
5 years = (4 ordinary years + 1 leap year) = (4 x 1 + 1 x 2)
Jan. Feb.
March
(31 + 28 + 31
+
April
30
+
6 odd days
May
28 ) = 148 days
1 odd day.
0 odd day.
B.Tuesday
D.Thursday
[Sathyam 2000]
Answer: Option C
Solution:
17th June, 1998 = (1997 years + Period from 1.1.1998 to 17.6.1998)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3)
April
30
+
May
31
June
17) = 168 days
SITAMS
Page 5
[ TCS 2006]
Answer: Option A
Solution:
15th August, 2010 = (2009 years + Period 1.1.2010 to 15.8.2010)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 400 years = 0
9 years = (2 leap years + 7 ordinary years) = (2 x 2 + 7 x 1) = 11 odd days
Jan. Feb.
March
(31 + 28 + 31
+
April
30
+
4 odd days.
3 odd days.
0 odd days.
SITAMS
[ I-CET-2007]
Page 6
Solution:
The year 2004 is a leap year. So, it has 2 odd days.
But, Feb 2004 not included because we are calculating from March 2004 to March 2005.
So it has 1 odd day only.
The day on 6th March, 2005 will be 1 day beyond the day on 6th March, 2004.
Given that, 6th March, 2005 is Monday.
6th March, 2004 is Sunday (1 day before to 6th March, 2005).
7. On what dates of April, 2001 did Wednesday fall?
A.1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
B.2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th
rd
th
th
th
C.3 , 10 , 17 , 24
D.4th, 11th, 18th, 25th
Answer: Option D
[INFOSYS 2003]
Solution:
We shall find the day on 1st April, 2001.
1st April, 2001 = (2000 years + Period from 1.1.2001 to 1.4.2001)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 400 years = 0
Jan. Feb. March April
(31 + 28 + 31 + 1) = 91 days
0 odd days.
SITAMS
Page 7
CLOCK:
9. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the
hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
A.144
C.168
B.150
D.180
[RRB 2009]
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Angle traced by the hour hand in 6 hours =
360
x 6 = 180.
12
10. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 10.25 is:
1
A.180
B.192
2
1
C.195
D.197
2
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
125
360 125
1
hrs =
x
= 312 .
12
12 12
2
360
Angle traced by minute hand in 25 min =
x 25 = 150.
60
1
1
1
Reflex angle = 360 - 312 - 150 = 360 - 162 = 197 .
2
2
2
Angle traced by hour hand in
11. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:
A.145
C.155
B.150
D.160
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs = 360.
Angle traced by hour hand in 5 hrs 10 min. i.e.,
SITAMS
31
360 31
hrs =
x = 155.
6
12 6
Page 8
12. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of
the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4 o'clock, the true time is:
7
A.59 min. past 3
B.4 p.m.
[AAO EXAM 2003]
12
7
3
C.58 min. past 3
D.2 min. past 4
11
11
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Time from 7 a.m. to 4.15 p.m. = 9 hrs 15 min. =
37
hrs.
4
5
B.36 min.
11
D.96 min.
Answer: Option A
[CTS 2005]
Explanation:
55 min. spaces are covered in 60 min.
60
5
x 60
= 65 min.
55
11
min.
5
16
Loss in 64 min. = 65 - 64 = min.
11
11
16 1
8
Loss in 24 hrs =
x x 24 x 60
=32 min.
11 64
11
min.
60 min. spaces are covered in
SITAMS
Page 9
14. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight
line but, not together?
2
B.5 min. past 7
11
5
D.5 min. past 7
11
Explanation:When the hands of the clock are in the same straight line but not together,
they are 30 minute spaces apart.
At 7 o'clock, they are 25 min. spaces apart.
Minute hand will have to gain only 5 min. spaces.
55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min.
5 min. spaces are gained in
60
5
x5
= 5 min.
55
min 11
5
Required time = 5 min. past 7.
15. At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock be at right angles?
5
A.43 min. past 5
11
C.40 min. past 5
7
B.43 min. past 5
11
D.45 min. past 5
[IAS 1997]
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
At 5 o'clock, the hands are 25 min. spaces apart.
To be at right angles and that too between 5.30 and 6, the minute hand has to gain (25 +
15) = 40 min. spaces.
55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min.
40 min. spaces are gained in
Required time = 43
SITAMS
60
7
x 40
=43 min.
55
11
min
7
min. past 5.
11
Page 10
Exercise Problems:
CALENDAR:
1. The last day of a century cannot be
A.Monday
C.Tuesday
B.Wednesday
D.Friday
Answer: Option C
Solution:100 years contain 5 odd days.
Last day of 1st century is Friday.
200 years contain (5 x 2)
3 odd days.
1 odd day.
[CTS-2000]
Solution:
The year 2004 is a leap year. It has 2 odd days.
The day on 8th Feb, 2004 is 2 days before the day on 8th Feb, 2005.
Hence, this day is Sunday.
SITAMS
Page 11
3. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:
A.2014
B.2016
C.2017
D.2018
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd
day.
Year
: 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017
Odd day : 1
2
1
1
1
2
1
1
1
2
1
0 odd days.
Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007.
4. Which of the following is not a leap year?
A.700
B.800
C.1200
D.2000
Answer: Option A
[TCS 2003]
Solution:
The century divisible by 400 is a leap year.
The year 700 is not a leap year.
5. On 8th Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What day of the week was it on 8th Dec, 2006?
A.Sunday
B.Thursday
C.Tuesday
D.Friday
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The year 2006 is an ordinary year. So, it has 1 odd day.
So, the day on 8th Dec, 2007 will be 1 day beyond the day on 8th Dec, 2006.
But, 8th Dec, 2007 is Saturday.
SITAMS
Page 12
B.Thursday
D.Friday
[I-CET 2005]
Answer: Option C
Solution: 16th July, 1776 = (1775 years + Period from 1st Jan., 1776 to 16th July, 1776)
Counting of odd days :1600 years have 0 odd day. 100 years have 5 odd days.
75 years = (18 leap years + 57 ordinary years)
= [(18 x 2) + (57 x 1)] odd days = 93 odd days
SITAMS
Page 13
[CTS 2003]
Answer: Option A
Solution:16th April, 2000 = (1999 years + Period from 1st Jan., 2000 to 16thA'
Counting of odd days:
1600 years have 0 odd day. 300 years have 1 odd day.
99 years = (24 leap years + 75 ordinary years)
= [(24 x 2) + (75 x 1)] odd days = 123 odd days
= (17 weeks + 4 days) = 4 odd days.
Jan. Feb. March April
31 + 29 + 31 + 16 = 107 days = (15 weeks + 2 days) = 2 odd,
Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 4 + 2) odd days = 7 odd days = 0 odd day.
Hence, the required day was 'Sunday'.
11. On what dates of Jull.2004 did Monday fall?
A.1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
B.5th, 12th, 19th, 26th
th
th
th
th
C.4 , 11 , 18 , 25
D.6th, 13th, 20th, 27th
SITAMS
Page 14
Answer: Option B
Solution:. Let us find the day on 1st July, 2004.
2000 years have 0 odd day. 3 ordinary years have 3 odd days.
Jan. Feb. March April May June July
31 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 1
= 183 days = (26 weeks + 1 day) = 1 t .
Total number of odd days = (0 + 3 + 1) odd days = 4 odd days.
:. 1st July 2004 was 'Thursday',-,Thus, 1st Monday in July 2004 _as on 5th July.
Hence, during July 2004, Monday fell on 5th, 12th, 19th and 26th. .
12. Prove that the calendar for the year 2008 will serve for the year 20ll
A.2010
B.2011
C.2014
D.2015
'
[RRB 2002]
Answer: Option C
Sol. In order that the calendar for the year 2003 and 2014 be the same, 1 st January of
both the years must be on the same day of the week.
For this, the number of odd days between 31st Dec., 2002 and 31st Dec.,2013 must be the
same.
We know that an ordinary year has 1 odd day and a leap year has 2 odd During this
period, there are 3 leap years, namely 2004, 2008 and 2012 and 8 ordinary years.
Total number of odd days = (6 + 8) days = 0 odd day.
Hence, the calendar for 2003 will serve for the year 2014.
13. Prove that any date in March of a year is the same day of the week corresponding
date in November that year.
A.Same day
B.Not same day
C.Next day
D.Day by day
Answer: Option A
We will show that the number of odd days between last day of February and last day of
October is zero.
.
March April May June July Aug. Sept. Oct.
31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31
= 241 days = 35 weeks = 0 odd day. ,Number of
odd days during this period = 0.
Thus, 1st March of an year will be the same day as 1st November of that year. Hence, the
result follows.
SITAMS
Page 15
CLOCK:
14) Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when 3.25.
A) 32o B)47*1/2o
C)49*1/2o
D)37o
Answer:B
Solution: angle traced by the hour hand in 12 hours = 360
Angle traced by it in three hours 25 min (i.e.) 41/12 hrs=(360*41/12*12) =102*1/2
angle traced by minute hand in 60 min. = 360.
Angle traced by it in 25 min. = (360 X 25 )/60= 150
Required angle = 1500 102*1/2= 47*1/2
15)At what time between 2 and 3 o'clock will the hands of a clock be together?
A) 45 min. past 2
B) 40 min. past 2
C) 120*1/11min.past 2
D)54*6/11 min.past 2
[Sathyam-2000]
Answer:B
Solution: At 2 o'clock, the hour hand is at 2 and the minute hand is at 12, i.e. they are 10
min spaces apart.
To be together, the minute hand must gain 10 minutes over the hour hand.
Now, 55 minutes are gained by it in 60 min.
10 minutes will be gained in (60 x 10)/55 min. = 120/11 min.
The hands will coincide at 120/11 min. past 2.
16) At what time between 4 and 5 o'clock will the hands of a clock be at right angle?
A) 45 min. past 4
B) 40 min. past 4
C) 40*1/11min.past 4
D)54*1/11 min.past 4
[ IAS 2000]
Answer: C
Solution:At 4 o'clock, the minute hand will be 20 min. spaces behind the hour hand,
Now, when the two hands are at right angles, they are 15 min. spaces apart. So, they are
at right angles in following two cases.
Case I. When minute hand is 15 min. spaces behind the hour hand:
In this case min. hand will have to gain (20 - 15) = 5 minute spaces. 55 min. spaces are
gained by it in 60 min.
5 min spaces will be gained by it in 60*5/55 min=60/11min.
:. They are at right angles at 60/11min. past 4.
Case II. When the minute hand is 15 min. spaces ahead of the hour hand:
To be in this position, the minute hand will have to gain (20 + 15) = 35 minute spa' 55
min. spaces are gained in 60 min.
35 min spaces are gained in (60 x 35)/55 min =40/11
:. They are at right angles at 40/11 min. past 4.
SITAMS
Page 16
17) Find at what time between 8 and 9 o'clock will the hands of a clock being the same
straight line but not together.
A) 45 min
C) 20*6/11min.past 4
B) 40 min
D)120*1/11 min.past 4
Answer:D
Solution:At 8 o'clock, the hour hand is at 8 and the minute hand is at 12, i.e. the two
hands_ are 20 min. spaces apart.
To be in the same straight line but not together they will be 30 minute spaces apart. So,
the minute hand will have to gain (30 - 20) = 10 minute spaces over the hour hand.
55 minute spaces are gained. in 60 min.
10 minute spaces will be gained in (60 x 10)/55 min. = 120/11min.
:. The hands will be in the same straight line but not together at 120/11 min.
18) At what time between 5 and 6 o'clock are the hands of a clock 3min apart?
A) 45 min. past 5
C) 346*1/11min.past 4
[LICAAO 2003]
Answer: C
Solution:At 5 o'clock, the minute hand is 25 min. spaces behind the hour hand.
Case I. Minute hand is 3 min. spaces behind the hour hand.
In this case, the minute hand has to gain' (25 - 3) = 22 minute spaces. 55 min. are gained
in 60 min.
22 min. are gaineg in (60*22)/55min. = 24 min.
:. The hands will be 3 min. apart at 24 min. past 5.
Case II. Minute hand is 3 min. spaces ahead of the hour hand.
In this case, the minute hand has to gain (25 + 3) = 28 minute spaces. 55 min. are gained
in 60 min.
28 min. are gained in (60 x 28_)/55=346/11
The hands will be 3 min. apart at 346/11 min. past 5.
19) Tbe minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 65 minutes of the
correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose?
A) 450 min.
C) 440/43 min
B) 470 min
D)546 min
[SCRA 1996]
Answer: C
SITAMS
Page 17
Solution:In a correct clock, the minute hand gains 55 min. spaces over the hour hand in 60
minutes.
To be together again, the minute hand must gain 60 minutes over the hour hand. 55 min.
are gained in 60 min.
60 min are gained in 60 x 60 min =720/11 min.
55
But, they are together after 65 min.
Gain in 65 min =720/11-65 =5/11min.
Gain in 24 hours =(5/11 * (60*24)/65)min =440/43
The clock gains 440/43 minutes in 24 hours.
20) A watch which gains uniformly, is 6 min. slow at 8 o'clock in the morning Sunday
and it is 6 min. 48 sec. fast at 8 p.m. on following Sunday. When was it correct?
A.Sunday
C.Tuesday
B.Wednesday
D.Friday
[RRB 2010]
Answer: Option B
Solution: Time from 8 a.m. on Sunday to 8 p.m. on following Sunday
= 7 days 12 hours = 180 hours
The watch gains (5 + 29/5) min. or 54/5 min. in 180 hrs.
Now 54/5 min. are gained in 180 hrs.
5 min. are gained in (180 x 5/54 x 5) hrs. = 83 hrs 20 min. = 3 days 11 hrs 20 min.
Watch is correct 3 days 11 hrs 20 min. after 8 a.m. of Sunday.
It will be correct at 20 min. past 7 p.m. on Wednesday.
21) A clock is set right at 6 a.m. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the
true time when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on 4th day?
A)12 am
B)06 am
C)11 p.m
D)10 p.m
Answer:C
Solution: Time from 5 a.m. on a day to 10 p.m. on 4th day = 89 hours.
Now 23 hrs 44 min. of this clock = 24 hours of correct clock.
356/15 hrs of this clock = 24 hours of correct clock.
89 hrs of this clock = (24 x 31556 x 89) hrs of correct clock.
= 90 hrs of correct clock.
So, the correct time is 11 p.m.
SITAMS
Page 18
22) A clock is set right at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours will be the true
time when the clock indicates 1 p.m. on the following day?
A) 45 min. past 12
B)48 min. past 12
C) 40 min.past 12
D)54min.past 12
Answer:B
Solution: Time from 8 a.m. on a day 1 p.m. on the following day = 29 hours.
24 hours 10 min. of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock.
145 /6 hrs of this clock = 24 hrs of the correct clock
29 hrs of this clock = (24 x 6/145 x 29) hrs of the correct clock
= 28 hrs 48 min. of correct clock
The correct time is 28 hrs 48 min. after 8 a.m.
This is 48 min. past 12.
23) The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is
4.20, is:
A.0
B.10
C.5
D.20
[AAO EXAM 2003]
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
13
360 13
hrs =
x = 130.
3
12 3
360
Angle traced by min. hand in 20 min. =
x 20 = 120.
60
Angle traced by hour hand in
SITAMS
21
360 21
1
hrs =
x =157
4
12 4
2
Page 19
360
x 15 = 90.
60
1
1
Required angle = 157 - 90 = 67
2
2
25) At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of:
A.120
B.125
C.130
D.135
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs. = 360.
Angle traced by it in
11
360 11
hrs =
x = 110.
3
12 3
360
x 40 = 240.
60
SITAMS
Page 20
Explanation:
17
360 17
hrs =
x = 255.
2
12 2
360
Angle traced by min. hand in 30 min. =
x 30 = 180.
60
Angle traced by hour hand in
SITAMS
60
6
x 50
min.
55
min. or 5411
6
min. past 4.
11
Page 21
30) At what time between 9 and 10 o'clock will the hands of a watch be together?
A.45 min. past 9
B.50 min. past 9
1
2
C.49 min. past 9
D.48 min. past 9
11
11
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
To be together between 9 and 10 o'clock, the minute hand has to gain 45 min. spaces.
55 min. spaces gained in 60 min.
60
1
x 45
min.
55
min or 4911
1
The hands are together at 49 min. past 9.
31) At what time, in minutes, between 3 o'clock and 4 o'clock, both the needles will
coincide each other?
1
4
A.5 "
B.12 "
11
11
4
4
C.13 "
D.16 "
11
11
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
At 3 o'clock, the minute hand is 15 min. spaces apart from the hour hand.
To be coincident, it must gain 15 min. spaces.
55 min. are gained in 60 min.
60
4
x 15
=16 min.
55
11
min
4
The hands are coincident at 16 min. past 3.
11
SITAMS
Page 22
Explanation:
The hands of a clock coincide 11 times in every 12 hours (Since between 11 and 1, they
coincide only once, i.e., at 12 o'clock).
AM
12:00
1:05
2:11
3:16
4:22
5:27
6:33
7:38
8:44
9:49
10:55
PM
12:00
1:05
2:11
3:16
4:22
5:27
6:33
7:38
8:44
9:49
10:55
The hands overlap about every 65 minutes, not every 60 minutes.
The hands coincide 22 times in a day.
33) How many times in a day, the hands of a clock are straight?
A.22
B.24
C.44
D.48
Answer: Option C
Explanation:In 12 hours, the hands coincide or are in opposite direction 22 times.
SITAMS
Page 23
36)The quarter of the time from midnight to present time added to the half of the time
from the present to midnight gives the present time. What is the presenttime?
Answer:
9hrs past 36 minutes AM
37) A, B, C, D&E are having their birthdays on consecutive days of the week
not necessarily in the same order. A 's birthday comes before G's as many days as B's
birthday comes after E's. D is older than E by 2 days. This time G's birthday came on
Wednesday. Then find the day of each of their birthdays?
SITAMS
Page 24
38) A clock showing 6 o'clock takes 30 secs to strike 6 times.How long will it take to
strike 12 at midnight?
[infosys, 2006]
Answer:
66 Secs
39) Light glows for every 13 seconds . How many times did it between 1:57:58 and
3:20:47 am
Answer:
383 + 1 = 384
[infosys, 1997]
40)when the actual time pass 1hr wall clock is 10 min behind it .when 1 hr is shown by
wall clock, table clock shows 10 min ahead of in when table clock shows 1 hr the alarm
clock goes 5minbehind it, when alarm clock goes 1 hr wrist watch is 5 min ahead of it
assuming that all clocks are correct with actual time at 12 noon what will be time shown
by wrist watch after 6 hr
Answer: 5:47:32.5
(n X 60 )50/60 X 70/60 X 55/60 X 65/60
[infosys, 1999]
41)A man walks from 9.15 to 5.15 from Monday to Friday and 9.00
to 12.00 on saturday.Each day 0.45 min lunch. How much time he walks in a week.
Answer: 39hrs15min
[Citil]
42)If a clock takes 7seconds to strike 7, how long will the same clock take to strike 10?
Answer: The clock strikes for the first time at the start and takes 7 seconds for 6
intervals-thus for one interval time taken=7/6.
Therefore, for 10 seconds there are 9 intervals and time taken is 9*7/6=10 and 1/2
seconds.
[VIT]
SITAMS
Page 25
43)Given that April 1 is Tuesday.A, B, C are 3 persons told that their farewell party was
on A - May 8, Thursday
B - May 10,Tuesday C - June 5, Friday .Out of A, B, C
only one made a completely true statement concerning date, day andmonth. Of the rest
one told the day right and the other the date right. What are correctdate, month, and day?
Answer:B - (May 10) SUNDAY.
C - June 6 (Friday).
[VIT]
44)Fifty minutes ago if it was four times as many minutes past three o'clock, how many
minutes is it to six o'clock?
Answer: 26 minutes.
[VIT]
45)A clock strikes '6' in 5 seconds. How long does it take to strike '12'?
11 seconds
[VIT]
Answer: There is an interval of 1 second between each stroke. If the clock strikes 6,
there are 5 intervals. If the clock strikes 12 there are 11 intervals.
[VIT]
46) How many birth days does the average man have?
Answer:One, he may have many Birthdays, but only one birth day!
b) Monday
c) Saturday
d) Sunday
2.First January, 1981 was Sunday. What day of the week was 1st Jan 1980?
a) Tuesday
b) Monday
c) Saturday
d) Friday
b) 4, 11, 18, 25
c) 5, 12, 19, 26
d) 3, 10, 17, 25
4.The year next to 1973 having the same calendar as that of 1973 is ____
a) 1976
b) 1977
c) 1978
d) 1979
5.The year next to 1988 having the same calendar as that of 1988 is ____
a) 2016
SITAMS
b) 2010
c) 2004
d) 1999
Page 26
6.Any day in April is always on the same day of the week as the corresponding day is
a) May
b) March
c) June
d) July
7.One of the following day which cannot be the last day of the century
a) Sunday
b) Monday
c) Wednesday
d) Saturday
b) Monday
c) Tuesday
d) Wednesday
b) Monday
c) Tuesday
d) Wednesday
10.How many days are there from 2nd Jan 1993 to 15th March 1993?
a) 73 b) 71 c) 37 d) 80
11.Find the number of odd days in 200 days.
A)2
B)4
C)5
D)6
B)4
C)5
D)6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Thursday
15.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October, 1869. What day was it of the week?
a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Saturday
d) Sunday
SITAMS
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday
Page 27
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday
b) Friday
c) Sunday
d) Saturday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Saturday
21. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2004. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2005?
A.Sunday
B.Saturday
C.Friday
D.Wednesday
22. On 8th March, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the day of the week on 8th , 2004?
A.Tuesday
B.Monday
C.Sunday
D.Wednesday
23. The calendar for the year 2005 will be the same for the year:
A.2010
B.2011
C.2012
D.2013
24. On what dates of April, 2001 did Sunday fall?
A.1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
B.2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th
th
th
th
th
C.4 , 11 , 18 , 25
D.6th, 13th, 20th, 27th
25. What will be the day of the week 1st January, 2010?
A.Friday
B.Saturday
C.Sunday
D.Monday
26.What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998?
A.Monday
C.Wednesday
B.Tuesday
D.Thursday
27. What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2003?
A.Thursday
B.Friday
C.Saturday
D.Sunday
SITAMS
Page 28
B.Wednesday
D.Friday
30)A clock is started at noon.By 10minutes past 5,the hour hand has turned through:
A)145 degrees
B)150 degrees
C)155 degrees
D)160 degrees
31) An accurate clock shows 8o clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will
the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2o clock in the afternoon?
A)144 degrees
B)150 degrees
C)168 degrees
D)180 degrees
32)At 3.40 , the hour and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of :
A)120 degrees
B)125 Degrees
C)130 degrees
D)135 Degrees
33)The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is
8.30am is:
A)80 degrees
B)75 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D)105 degrees
34) The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is
4.20 is:
A)0 degrees
B)10 degrees
C) 5 degrees
D)20 degrees
35)At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
A) 58*1/2o
B)64o
C)67*1/2o
D)72*1/2o
B)192*1/2o
C)195o
B)192*1/2o
SITAMS
B)21
C)22
D)24
Page 29
38) How many times in a day, the hands of the clock are straight?
A) 22 B)24
C)44
D)48
39) How many times do the hands of the clock are at right angle in a day?
A) 22 B)24
C)44
D)48
40) How many times in a day do the hands of the clock in straight line but opposite in
direction?
A) 20 B) 22
C)24
D)48
41) How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide every 64 minutes?
A)32* 8/11 min
B)36*5/11min
42) At what time, in minutes, between 3o clock and 40 clock,both the needles will
coincide with each other
A)5*1/11
B)12*4/11
C)13*4/11
D)16*4/11
43) At what time, between 9o clock and 100 clock will the hands of watch be together
A) 45 min. past 9
C) 49*1/11min.past 9
B) 50 min. past 9
D)48*2/11 min.past 9
44) At what time, between 7o clock and 80 clock will the hands of clock be in straight
line but, not together
A) 5 min. past 7
C) 5*3/11min.past 7
B) 5*2/11min. past 7
D)5*5/11 min.past 7
45)At what time, between 4o clock and 50 clock will the hands of watch point in
opposite directions
A) 45 min. past 4
C) 50*4/11min.past 4
B) 40 min. past 4
D)54*6/11 min.past 4
46)At what time, between 5.30 and 60 clock will the hands of clocks be at right angles
A) 43*5/11 min. past 5
B) 43*7/11 min. past 5
C) 40min.past 5
D)45 min.past 5
47)A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min 48
sec fast at 2pm on the following Monday.when it is correct?
SITAMS
Page 30
48)A watch, which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes, was set right at 7 a.m. in the afternoon
of the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4o clock,the true time is:
A) 59*7/12 min.past 3
C)58&7/11min.past 3
B)4 p.m
D)2*3/11 min.past 4
c).6
d).4
e).75
50) There were two clock one is getting slow by two minutes/hr and
another one is gaining 1 minute every hour and exactly after how many hours
there two clock has a 1hr difference.
[infosys, june 2003]
a).14 hrs
b).12 hrs
c).16 hrs
d)20hrs
Answers
1.A
2.D
3.C
4.D
5.A
6.D
7.D
8.B
9.B
10.A
11.B
12.A
13.C
14.D
15.C
16.A
17.B
18.D
19.D
20.C
21.B
22.B
23.C
25.C
26.C
27.B
28.D
29.C
30.C
31.D
32.C
33.B
34.B
35.C
36.D
37.C
38.C
39.C
40.B
41.A
42.D
43.C
44.D
45.D
46.B
47.B
48.B
49.E
50.D
SITAMS
24.A
Page 31
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Directions (Q. 1-5) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
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b) G
e) None of these
c) F
b) D
e) None of these
c) B
b) E
e) None of these
c) F
5. Who among the following pairs may not be seated adjacent to each other?
a) AH
b) DC
c) EB
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 6-11) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre
or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR,
Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G. G faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the
person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits
between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in
Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in
Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to
the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits
to the immediate left of the person who works for Operations Department.
6. For which of the following departments does B work?
a) Finance
b) Marketing
c) HR
d) Corporate Finance e) Operations
7. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales Department?
a) Immediate right
b) Third to the left
c) Second to the right
d) Second to the left
e) Fourth to the right
8. Who sits to the immediate right of E?
a) The person who works for Marketing Department
b) C
c) B
d) The person who works for HR Department
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e) A
9. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR
Department?
a) B
b) The person who works for Marketing Department
c) The person who works for Operations Department
d)D
e) G
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10. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment
Banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for
Marketing Department?
a) F and G
b) E and C
c )C and B
d) F and D
e) B and D
11. How many people sit between the person who workds for Operations Department and A,
when counted from the right hand side of A?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 12-19) Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight persons from different banks viz., Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank,
Bank of Baroda, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Dena Bank, Union Bank of India and Bank of
Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an
equal distance between adjacent persons. The names of these persons are A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.
Each members seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given
above does not necessarily represents the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
A faces north and seated second to the left of the person, who is from Punjab National Bank.
The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce is opposite to one who is second to the left of
H.
The persons from Bank of Baroda is not near to H and F and not at the end of the row. The
person from Canara Bank is opposite to the person who is from Dena Bank.
The person from Bank of India is not at the end of the row but left of the person who is from
Canara Bank.
D is immediately right of the person who is from Bank of Maharashtra. The person from
Canara Bank faces north while D faces South and opposite to B.
The person from Union Bank of India is not opposite to E. The person from Canara Bank is opposite
to C.
12. Which of the following is true regarding E?
a) The person from Bank of Maharashtra faces E
b) The person from Dena Bank is an immediate neighbour of E
c) The person who is second to the right of G faces E
d) E is from Union Bank of India
e) E sits at one of the extreme end of the row
13. Who is seated between G and the person from Bank of Maharashtra?
a) The person from Bank of Baroda
b)H
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c) F
d) E
e) The person from Dena Bank
14. Who amongst the following sit at extrememe end of the row?
a) A and the person from Bank of Maharashtra
b) The person from Punjab National Bank and Union Bank of India
c) The person from Dena Bank and E
d) The person from Union Bank of India and C
e) G and B
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15. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Baroda?
a) The person from Bank of India
b) F
c) A
d) The person from Union Bank of India
e) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
16. B is related to Dena Bank in the same way as F is related to Bank of Baorda on the
given arrangement, who amongst the following is G related to following the same pattern?
a) Oriental Bank of Commerce
b) Punjab National Bank
c) Bank of India
d) Canara Bank
e) Union Bank of India
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement
and thus form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Canara Bank
b) C
c) Union Bank of India
d) Oriental Bank of Commerce
e) Bank of Maharashtra
18. G is from which of the following banks?
a) Oriental Bank of Commerce
b) Dena Bank
c) Bank of Maharashtra
d) Canara Bank
e) Punjab National Bank
19. Who amongst the following is from Punjab National Bank?
a) E
b) H
c) G
d) C
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 20-26) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that
follows.
Eight persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line from East to
West. Some are facing North direction and some are facing South direction.
H sits to the third left of C and faces South. F is sitting at one of the extreme ends and is
facing North. B and G are facing in same direction and person sitting between them is facing in
opposite direction. A is sitting third from left end and is facing South direction. A is sitting adjacent to
E and both are facing in opposite direction. D is sitting to the right of B and both are facing in same
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direction. C is facing in North direction. A and D are not neighbours. Neighbors of H are facing in
same direction which is opposite to the direction of H is facing. E sits to the right of A.
20. Who is sitting between A and H?
a) F
b) E
b) B
e) None of these
c) G
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21. Which of the following pairs has the person facing the same direction?
a) E, A
b) G, H
c) A, G
d) H, D
e) B, D
22. How many persons are facing in North direction?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
23. Who is sitting third from the eastern end of the arrangement?
a) E
b) G
c) B
d) C
e) None of these
24. How many persons are sitting between E and B?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
25. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a) A sits between G and B
b) D sits to thesecond left of H
c) H and B are facing same direction
d) Person sitting to the left of A faces direction
e) All of the above
26. Who sits 3rd to the left of A?
a) B
b) D
d) G
e) None of these
c) H
Directions (Q. 27-31) Study the following information and answer the question given below.
Eight people E, F, G, H, J , K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
Each of them is of a different profession Chartered Accountant, Colomnist, Doctor, Engineer,
Financial Analyst, Lawyer, Professor and Scientist but not necessarily in the same order. F I s sitting
second to the left of K. The Scientist is an immediate neighbour of K. There are only three people
between the Scientist and E. Only one person sits between the Engineer and E. The Coloumnist is to t
he immediate r ight of the Engineer. M is second to the right of K. H is the Scientist. G and J are
immediate neighboursof each other. Neither G nor J is an Engineer. The Financjial Analyst is to the
immediate left of F. The Lawyer is second to the right of the Coloumnist. The Professor is an
immediate neighbour of the Engineer. G is second to the right of the Chartered Accountant.
27. Who is sitting second to the right of E?
a) The Lawyer
b) G
c) The Engineer
d) F
e) K
28. Who amongst the following is the Professor?
a) F
b) L
d) K
e) None of these
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c) M
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29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and
hence from a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
a) Chartered Accountant
b) M Doctor
c) J Engineer
d) Financial Analyst L
e) Lawyer - K
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31. Which of the following statements is true according to the given arrangement?
a) The Lawyer is second to the left of the Doctor
b)E is an immediate neighbour of the Financial Analyst
c)H sits exactly between F and the Financial Analyst
d)Only four people sit between the Coloumnist and F
e)All of the given statements are true
Directions (Q. 32-36) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:D, E, F, H and I are seated in a circle facing the centre. A, B and C are also seated in the same
circle but two of them are not facing the centre. F is second to the left of C. E is third to the right of A.
B is third to left of D, who is immediate neighbor of H and I. C is second to the right of D and third to
the right of B.
32. Which of the following pairs is not facing the centre?
a) BC
b) AC
c) CA
d) BD
e) None of these
33. What is the position of D with respect to F?
a) Second to the right
b) Third to the left
c) Fifth to the right
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
34. Who among the following is second to the left of B?
a) A
b) H
c) I
d) Either H or I e) None of these
35. If H is on the immediate right of E then what is Hs position with respect to C?
a) Third to the left
b) Third to the right
c) Fifth to the left
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
36. Which of the following is/are the possible position(s) of I with respect to A?
a) Fourth to the right
b) Second to the left
c) Fourth to the left
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d) Only a and c
e) All of the above
Directions (Q. 37-41) Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in a school sports competition participated in a game
in which they were sitting around a circular ring. The seats of the ring are not directed towards the
centre. All the eight students are in four groups I, II, IIII and IV, i..e two students I n each group, but
not necessarily in the same order. These s tudents are from different sport houses, viz. Maharishi
Vyas, Aryabhatt, Vashistha, Shankaracharya, Balmiki, Dhruv and Dayanand.
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No two students of the same group are sitting adjacent to each other except those of group III.
Students from group IV are sitting opposite each other.
D is neither in Dayanand nor in Aryabhatt house.
The student from Dhruv house is sitting on the immediate right of the students from
Dayanand house.
C, who is in Vashistha house, is in group I. She is sitting on the immediate right of F, who is
in group III.
F is not in Aryabhatt house and she has also participated in other sports.
B from Vyas house is neither in group IV nor in group I or II.
B is sitting opposite E. Only Balmiki participant A is sitting b etweenDhruvparticipaint E and
t heShankaracharya participant.
Both the students of group II are sitting adjacent to students of group IV.
c) H
c) Maharishi
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Directions (Q. 42-46) Read the following information carefully and answer the questioins that
follow.
Twelve friends are sitting in two squares. One square is inside another. P, Q, R, S, T and V
are in the outer square facing inward. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in the inner square facing
outward. They all are s itting in such a way that in each square four persons are sitting in the middle
of the sides and two persons are sitting on diagonally opposite corners. Each friend in the inner square
is facing another friend of the outer square. There are exactly two persons sitting between P and T. E
sits second to the left of A. R is on the immediate left of the one who is f acing A. Neither E nor A
faces either T or P. S is facing F an d Q is not opposite R in the outer square. T is not sitting adjacent
to S. B is not facing P. Between B and D there are as many persons as between R and V.
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c) T
c) A
c) P
45. Four of the five are alike in a certain manner. Select the one which is not similar to the other
four.
a) R, E
b) A, S
c) D, T
d) F, Q
e) C, E
46. Who is sitting second to the left of D?
a) A
b) E
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
c) F
Directions (Q. 47-51) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are eight feiends sitting around a circle facing the centre, but not
necessarily in the same order.
I is second to the left of F, who is next to the right of L. J is not the neighbour of F or K, and
is on the immediate left of H.
47. Which of the following pairs represents the neighbours of G?
a) H, F
b) E, H
c) J, K
d) I, E
e) None of these
48. Who among the following is on the immediate left of J?
a) K
b) H
c) I
d) L
e) None of these
49. Who among the following is on the immediate right of E?
a) F
b) L
c) G
d) H
e) None of these
50. Which of the following statements is true with respect to H?
a) Immediate left of J
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b) Opposite L
c) Second to the right of F
d) All are true
e) None of these
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c) Two
Directions (Q. 52-56) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questiions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre,
not necessarily in the same order. Three people are sitting between A and D. B is sitting second to the
right of A. C is to the immediate right of F. D is not an immediate neighbour of either F or E. H is not
an immediate neighbour of B.
52. What is Es position with respect to G?
a) Third to the left
b) Second to the right
c) Third to the right
d) Second to the left
e) None of these
53. Four of the following are based on above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does
not belong to the group?
a) GE
b) DC
c) AF
d) AB
e) CE
54. Who is sitting third to the right of the one who is sitting to the immediate right of H?
a) A
b) B
c) E
d) C
e) G
55. Which of the following is true regarding the given arrangement?
a) E is second to the left of C
b) B is an immediate neighbour of G
c) H is an immediate neighbour of A
d) D is not an immediate neighbour of H
e) None of these
56. How many people are sitting between H and A when counted from the right side of H?
a) Three
b) None
c) More than three
d) One
e) Two
Directions (Q. 57-61) Study the following Information to answert these questions.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
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d) U is between V and Q
e) None of these
58. Which of the following pairs has its second member sitting to the immediate left of first
member?
a) VT
b) PQ
c) SU
d) UV
e) None of these
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61. Which of the following pairs has members sitting adjacent to each other?
a) PS
b) QU
c) UT
d) TR
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 62-66) Study the following information and answer the questions which follow.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
c) K
c) K
66. Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the other two?
a) NQL
b) PMK
c) MOP
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d) POK
Directions (Q. 67-72) Study the follow ing information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. B is second to the
right of H and third to the left of A. D is not an immediate neighbuor of either B or H and is second
to the right of F. C is fourth to the right of G.
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67. If E and F interchange their places, who will be second to the right of B?
a) F
b) C
c) D
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
68. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first
person?
a) BC
b) HE
c) FA
d) GD
e) None of these
69. Who is 4th to the right of H?
a) B
d) Data inadequate
b) A
e) None of these
c) F
c) H
c) D
b) F
e) None of these
72. In a row of 45 boys facing South, T is 8th to the right of H, who is 10th from the right end. H is
14th to the left of R. What is Rs position from the left end?
a) 21st
b) 23rd
c) 24th
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 73-78) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
P, M, D, A, F, H, R and B are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. R is 4th to the right
of A, who is 3rd to the right of P. M is second t o the l eft of H, who is 2nd to the left of P. D is 3rd to
the right of B.
73. Who is 3rd to the left of H?
a) M
b) A
d) F
e) Data inadequate
c) B
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a) F
d) Data inadequate
b) R
e) None of these
c) B
c) D
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78. In a row of 40 children, Q is 14th from the left end and there are 16 children between Q and
M. What is Ms position from the right end of the row?
a) 11th
b) 10th
c) 30th
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 79-83) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is to the
immediate right of B who is 4th to the right of K. P is 2nd to the left of B and is 4th to the right of W.
Q is 2nd to the right of D who is 2nd to the right of H.
79. Who is 3rd to the right of B?
a) W
b) M
d) H
e) None of these
c) K
c) K
c) K
c) W
Directions (Q. 84-88) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
A, M, D, P, R, T, B and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is 3rd to the left of
Awho is 2nd to the left of T. D is 2nd to the right of H who is 2nd to the right of T. R is 2nd to the right
of B who is not an immediate neighbour of T.
84. Which of the following combinations represents the first and the second to the left of B
respectively?
a) MD
b) DH
c) AM
d) AR
e) DM
85. Who is 3rd to the right of T?
a) D
b) B
d) M
e) None of these
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c) H
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c) T
c) M
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88. In which of the following combinations 3rd person is 2nd to the left of 2nd person?
a) BAR
b) DBM
c) TPH
d) PMH
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 89-93) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below
10 people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there
is an equal distance between adjacent people. In row-1, Q, R, S, T and U are seated and all of them
are facing north. In Row-2, L, M, N, O and P are seated and all of them are facing south. Therefore in
the given sitting arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
S is sitting 2nd to the left of Q. Q is not sitting at any of the ends of the line. There are two
persons between P and L. The person who faces T is to the immediately left of M. M is sitting at the
extreme right end. Q is an immediate neighbour of U. The person who faces U is an immediate
neighbour of both P and N.
89. Who among the following is sitting 2nd to the right of O?
a) P
b) M
c) L
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
90. Who among the following sits exactly between Q and S?
a) T
b) U
c) R
d) There is no person between Q and S
e) Cannot be determined
91. Who among the following is sitting at the extreme right end of the Row-1?
a) Q
b) U
c) S
d) R
e) Cannot be determined
92. Which of the following statements is true regarding R?
a) R is at the extreme left end of the row
b) R is an immediate neighbor of U
c) R is sitting second to the right of T
d) R is sitting exactly between T and U
e) There two persons between R and S
93. Who among the following is not seated at any extreme end of Row-1 and Row-2?
a) P
b) S
c) M
d) R
e) O
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Directions (Q. 94-98) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below
8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L - are sitting around a circle at equidistance but not
necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing towards the centre while some others are
facing outside the centre. L is sitting 3rd to the left of K. Both K and L are facing towards the outside.
H is not an immediate neighbour of K or L. J faces the just opposite direction of H. (It implies that if
H is facing towards the centre, J would face outside the centre). J is sitting 2nd to the left of H. Both
the immediate neighbours of G face just opposite direction of G. E is an immediate neighbour of K.
Both the immediate neighbour of H face just opposite direction of H. E faces towards the centre and
he is an immediate n eighbour of both K and I. I faces towards the centre.
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94. Who amongst the following are not facing towards the centre?
a) E, F and I
b) F, G and J
c) H, K and L
d) G, I and J
e) None of these
95. What is the position of G with respect to E?
a) 2nd to the left
b) 3rd to the right
c) 4th to the left
d) 2nd to the right
e) 5th to the right
96. Who among the following is sitting exactly between F and K?
a) J
b) I
c) E
d) G
e) None of these
97. How many persons are sitting between H and K if we move clockwise starting from H?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Two
e) One
98. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the given sitting arrangement?
a) L is sitting exactly between G and I
b) H is sitting 3rd to the right of K
c) F and I are sitting just opposite to each other
d) E is sitting 3rd to the left of G
e) All are true
Directions (Q. 99-103) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. A sits fourth to the
right of H while second to the left of F. C is not the neighbour of F and B. D sits third to the right of
C. H never sits next to G.
99. Who amongst the following sits between B and D?
a) G
b) F
c) H
d) A
e) C
100.
Which of the following pairs sit between H and G?
a) BH
b) EF
c) CE
d) DB
e) None of these
101.
Four of the following are alike I n a certain way based on their positions in the sitting
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) AE
b) HF
c) BD
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d) GE
102.
Who is immediate right of A?
a) C
b) D
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
103.
a) A
d) E
c) G
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Who sits second to the right of B?
b) C
e) None of these
c) D
Directions (Q. 104-108) Study the following carefully and answer the questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. E and G always sit
next to each other. D sits third to the right of C. F sits to the left of H. C never sits next to A while D
never sits next to G. H is not the neighbour of D and C.
104.
a) D
d) A
c) B
105.
Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the sitting
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) CH
b) BA
c) FE
d) DG
e) AC
106.
Which of the following pairs sits between B and F?
a) HB
b) FD
c) BG
d) GC
e) AH
107.
a) F
d) E
c) A
108.
a) B
d) E
c) C
Directions (Q. 109-113) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Ashwini, Priya, Sudha, Rani, Meeta, Geeta and Mukta are sitting around a circle facing the
centre. Ashwini is third to the left of Mukta and to the immediate right o f Rani. Priya is second to the
left of Geeta who is not an immediate neighbour of Meeta.
109.
Who is to the immediate right of Priya?
a) Meeta
b) Sudha
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of the above
110.
Who is second to the left of Rani?
a) Ashwini
b) Meeta
d) Sudha
e) None of these
c) Mukta
c) Priya
111.
Which of the following pairs of persons has the first person sitting to the immediate
left of second person?
a) Rani-Meeta
b) Ashwini-Geeta
c) Sudha-Priya
d) Geeta-Sudha e) None of these
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112.
Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other two?
a) Meeta-Ashwini-Geeta
b) Sudha-Rani-Geeta
c) Mukta-Priya-Rani
d) Mukta-Priya-Sudha
e) None of these
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113.
Which of the following is the correct position of Rani with respect to Mukta?
i)
Third to the right
ii)
Third to the left
iii)
Fourth to the left
iv)
Fourth to the right
a) i) only
b) ii) only
c) Both i) and ii)
d) Both ii) and iv)
e) Both i) and iii)
Directions (Q. 114-118) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is third to the right of
C and second to the left of H. D is not an immediate neighbour of C or H. E is to the immediate right
of A, who is second to the right of G.
114.
a) A
d) D
115.
Who is to the immediate right of C?
a) A
b) B
d) B or D
e) None of these
c) E
c) D
116.
Which of the following pairs of persons has first person sitting to the right of the
second person?
a) CB
b) AE
c) FG
d) HA
e) DB
117.
a) H
d) E
c) F
118.
Which of the following is the correct position of B with respect to H?
I.
Second to the right
II.
Fourth to the right
III.
Fourth to the left
IV.
Second to the left
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) Both II and III
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 119 - 123) Study the following information carefully to answer the question that
follow.
Six couples have been invited to a dinner party. They are Nitika, Geetika, Lajwanti, Rekha,
Savitri, Chameli and Faizal, Harbhajan, Akshay, Tirlochan, Ranveer, Aamir. They are seated on a
circular table facing each other.
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119.
Which of the following statements is correct:
a) Lajwanti is on Tirlochan's right
b) Aamir is on Chameli's right
c) Geetika is on Hari's right
d) Geetika is on Faizal's left
120.
If looked in an anti-clockwise manner, who are seated between Tirlochan and Faizal:
a) Savitri, Ranveer, Chameli, Aamir and Nitika
b) Savitri, Ranveer, Rekha, Akshay and Lajwanti
c) Savitri, Ranveer, Geetika, Harbhajan and Lajwanti
d) Savitir, Ranveer, Lajwanti, Akshay and Harbhajan
121.
Which of the following close neighboring arrangements is correct:
a) Aamir, Chameli and Ranveer
b) Tirlochan, Ranveer and Aamir
c) Nitika, Faizal and Lajwanti
d) Harbhajan, Geetika and Akshay
122.
Who sits between Geetika and Lajwanti:
a) Faizal
b) Akshay
c) Tirlochan
d) Ranveer
e) None of The Above
123.
Who sits to the second left of Nitika:
a) Savitri
b) Ranveer
c) Chameli
d) Tirlochan
e) None of The Above
Directions (Q. 124 130) Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight friends Prem, Queen, Rajan, Sooraj, Taksh, Vaani, Waqar and Yousuf are sitting around
a square table. Out of eight, four persons are sitting at the corners of the table and other four are
sitting at the mid - points of each side of the table. Persons at the corners are facing the center while
the persons at the mid - points of side are facing outside. Sooraj is third to the right of Prem.
Prem is facing the center. Yousuf is not sitting beside Prem or Sooraj. Taksh is third to the
right ofRajan. Rajan is not sitting at the mid - point of any side of the table. Rajan is also not beside
Yousuf. There is only one person between Prem and Vaani. Queen is not sitting beside Vaani.
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124.
If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction starting
from Prem, then the position of how many persons remains the same (Excluding Prem)?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) Four
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125.
Which among the following is true regarding Yousuf?
a) Taksh is not sitting beside Yousuf.
b) Yousuf is sitting at the mid - point of a side.
c) Rajan is second to the left of Yousuf.
d) Prem and Vaani are beside Yousuf
e) None of The Above
126.
Who is 4th to the left of Vaani?
a) Yousuf
b) Rajan
c) Taksh
d) Queen
e) None of The Above
127.
What is the position of Queen in respect of Rajan?
a) Immediate Left
b) Second to the Left
c) Third to the Left
d) Third to the Right
e) Immediate Right
128.
Four out of following five are some how same and therefore they form a group.
Which one of the following does not come into this group?
a) Yousuf
b) Waqar
c) Vaani
d) Rajan
e) Prem
129.
Who is third to the right of Waqar?
a) Rajan
b) Sooraj
c) Queen
d) Yousuf
e) Can Not Be Determined
130.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) None
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Directions (Q. 131 - 135) Read the following information carefully to answer the given
questions.
Vicky, Urgit and Toni are sitting around a circle. Amar, Balu and Charu are sitting around the
same circle but two of them are not facing center (they are facing the direction opposite to center).
Vicky is second to the left of Charu. Urgit is second to the right of Amar. Balu is third to the left of
Toni. Charu is second to the right of Toni. Amar and Charu are not sitting together.
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131.
Who among the following is not facing center:
a) Balu and Amar
b) Charu and Amar
c) Balu and Charu
d) Can Not Be Determined
e) None of The Above
132.
Which of the following is the position of Toni in respect of Balu:
a) Third to the right
b) Second to the right
c) Third to the left
d) Third to the left or right
e) None of The Above
133.
What is the position of Vicky in respect of Charu:
a) Second to the right
b) Third to the left
c) Fourth to the right
d) Fourth to the left
e) Can Not be determined
134.
Which of the following statement is correct:
a) Amar, Balu and Charu are sitting together
b) Vicky, Urgit and Toni are sitting together
c) Sitting arrangement of two persons can not be determined
d) Those who are not facing center are sitting together
e) Only two people are sitting between Vicky and Toni.
135.
What is the position of Amar in respect of Urgit:
a) Second to the left
b) Second to the right
c) Third to the right
d) Can not be determined
e) None of The Above
Directions (Q. 136 -140) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
Twelve friends are sitting in two squares. One square is inside another. Paras, Qurbaan, Rajat,
Singh, Tom and Vinod are in the outer square facing inward. Amar, Birbal, Chinku, Deep, Eshika and
Farukh are sitting in the inner square facing outward. They all are sitting in such a way that in each
square four persons are sitting in the middle of the sides and two persons are sitting on diagonally
opposite corners.
Each friend in the inner square is facing another friend of the outer square. There are exactly
two persons sitting between Paras and Tom. Eshika sits second to the left of Amar. Rajat is on the
immediate left of the one who is facing Amar. Neither Eshika nor Amar faces either Tom or Paras.
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Singh is facing Farukh and Qurbaan is not opposite Rajat in the outer square. Tom is not sitting
adjacent to Singh. Birbal is not facing Paras. Between Birbal and Deep there are as many persons as
between Rajat and Vinod.
136.
Who is sitting opposite Birbal?
a) Vinod
b) Qurbaan
c) Tom
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
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137.
Vinod is facing which of the following persons?
a) Eshika
b) Deep
c) Amar
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
138.
Who is sitting on the immediate left of Rajat?
a) Amar
b) Singh
c) Paras
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
139.
Four of the five are alike in a certain manner. Select the one which is not similar to
the other four.
a) Rajat and Eshika
b) Amar and Singh
c) Deep and Tom
d) Farukh and Qurbaan
e) Chinku and Eshika
140.
Who is sitting second to the left of Deep?
a) Amar
b) Eshika
c) Farukh
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 141 - 145) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below
8 persons Ekam, Ford, Gabbar, Himmat, Inpreet, Johny, Karma and Loveleen - are sitting
around a circle at equidistance but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing towards
the centre while some others are facing outside the centre. Loveleen is sitting 3rd to the left of Karma.
Both Karma and Loveleen are facing towards the outside. Himmat is not an immediate neighbour of
Karma or Loveleen. Johny faces the just opposite direction of Himmat. (It implies that if Himmat is
facing towards the centre, Johny would face outside the centre). Johny is sitting 2nd to the left of
Himmat. Both the immediate neighbours of Gabbar face just opposite direction of Gabbar. Ekam is
an immediate neighbour of Karma. Both the immediate neighbour of Himmatface just opposite
direction of Himmat.Ekam faces towards the centre and he is an immediate neighbour of both Karma
and Inpreet. Inpreet faces towards the centre.
141.
Who amongst the following are not facing towards the centre?
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142.
What is the position of Gabbar with respect to Ekam?
nd
a) 2 to the left
b) 3rd to the right
c) 4th to the left
d) 2nd to the right
e) 5th to the right
143.
Who among the following is sitting exactly between Ford and Karma?
a) Johny
b) Inpreet
c) Ekam
d) Gabbar
e) None of these
144.
How many persons are sitting between Himmat and Karma if we move clockwise
starting from Himmat?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Two
e) One
145.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding the given sitting
arrangement?
a) Loveleen is sitting exactly between Gabbar and Inpreet
b) Himmat is sitting 3rd to the right of Karma
c) Ford and Inpreet are sitting just opposite to each other
d) Ekam is sitting 3rd to the left of Gabbar
e) All are true
Directions (Q. 146 - 150) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below
10 people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there
is an equal distance between adjacent people. In row-1, Qartar, Rohan, Sooraj, Tarun and Uday are
seated and all of them are facing north. In Row-2, Lucky, Manav, Neeraj, Opendra and Parkash are
seated and all of them are facing south. Therefore in the given sitting arrangement each member
seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
Sooraj is sitting 2nd to the left of Qartar. Qartar is not sitting at any of the ends of the line.
There are two persons between Parkhash and Lucky. The person who faces Tarun is to the
immediately left of Manav. Manav is sitting at the extreme right end. Qartar is an immediate
neighbour of Uday. The person who faces Uday is an immediate neighbour of both Parkash and
Neeraj.
146.
147.
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e) Cannot be determined
148.
Who among the following is sitting at the extreme right end of the Row-1?
a) Qartar
b) Uday
c) Sooraj
d) Rohan
e) Cannot be determined
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149.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Rohan?
a) Rohan is at the extreme left end of the row
b) Rohan is an immediate neighbor of Uday
c) Rohan is sitting second to the right of Tarun
d) Rohan is sitting exactly between Tarun and Uday
e) There two persons between Rohan and Sooraj
150.
Who among the following is not seated at any extreme end of Row-1 and Row-2?
a) Parkash
b) Sooraj
c) Manav
d) Rohan
e) Opendra
Directions (Q. 151 - 155) Study the following information and answer the question given below.
Eight people Elan, Ford, Gliver, Hamilton, Joseph , Kelvin, Levis and Montek are sitting
around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them is of a different profession Chartered
Accountant, Colomnist, Doctor, Engineer, Financial Analyst, Lawyer, Professor and Scientist but not
necessarily in the same order. Ford is sitting second to the left of Kelvin.
The Scientist is an immediate neighbor of Kelvin. There are only three people between the Scientist
and Elan. Only one person sits between the Engineer and Elan. The Columnist is to the immediate
right of the Engineer. Montek is second to the right of Kelvin. Hamilton is the Scientist. Gliver and
Levis are immediate neighbors of each other. Neither Gliver nor Levis is an Engineer. The Financial
Analyst is to the immediate left of Ford. The Lawyer is second to the right of the Columnist. The
Professor is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer. Gliver is second to the right of the Chartered
Accountant.
151.
Who is sitting second to the right of Elan?
a) The Lawyer
b) Gliver
c) The Engineer
d) Ford
e) Kelvin
152.
Who amongst the following is the Professor?
a) Ford
b) Levis
c) Montek
d) Kelvin
e) None of these
153.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement
and hence from a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
a) Ford - Chartered Accountant
b) Montek Doctor
c) Joseph Engineer
d) Financial Analyst Levis
e) Lawyer - Kelvin
154.
What is the position of Levis with respect to the Scientist?
a) Third to the left
b) Second to the right
c) Second to the left
d) Third to the right
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e) Immediate right
155.
Which of the following statements is true according to the given arrangement?
a) The Lawyer is second to the left of the Doctor
b) Elan is an immediate neighbor of the Financial Analyst
c) Hamilton sits exactly between Ford and the Financial Analyst
d) Only four people sit between the Coloumnist and Ford
e) All of the given statements are true
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Directions (Q. 156 -160) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Balwinder, Deepinder, Manjinder, Kulwinder, Pushwinder, Qartar, Waktawar and Harjit are
sitting around a circle facing at the centre. Manjinder is to the immediate right of Balwinder who is
4th to the right of Kulwinder. Pushwinder is 2nd to the left of Balwinder and is 4th to the right
of Waktawar. Qartar is 2nd to the right of Deepinder who is 2nd to the right of Harjit.
156.
Who is 3rd to the right of Balwinder?
a) Waktawar
b) Manjinder
d) Harjit
e) None of these
c) Kulwinder
157.
Which of the following represents the immediate neighbours of Deepinder?
a) Pushwinder, Qartar
b) Kulwinder, Harjit
c) Pushwinder, Harjit
d) Kulwinder, Qartar
e) Pushwinder, Kulwinder
158.
Who is 3rd to the right of Waktawar?
a) Pushwinder
b) Deepinder
c) Kulwinder
d) Rajinder
e) Data inadequate
159.
Who is 2nd to the left of Pushwinder?
a) Deepinder
b) Harjit
c) Kulwinder
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
160.
Who is to the immediate left of Balwinder?
a) Qartar
b) Pushwinder
c) Waktawar
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Directions (161 165) - Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Six People Aksar, Bashir, Chishti, Dullah, Eijaz and Faizal are seating on the ground in a
hexagonal shape. All the sides of the hexagon, so formed are of same length.
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161.
Which of the following is not a correct neighbor pair?
a) Aksar and Faizal
b) Dullah and Faizal
c) Bashir and Eijaz
d) Chishti and Faizal
e) None of The Above
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162.
Who is at the same distance from as Dullah as Eijaz is from Dullah?
a) Faizal
b) Bashir
c) Chishti
d) Aksar
e) None of The Above
163.
If one neighbor of Aksar is Dullah, who is the second one?
a) Bashir
b) Chishti
c) Eijaz
d) Faizal
e) None of The Above
164.
Who is placed opposite to Eijaz?
a) Bashir
b) Chishti
c) Dullah
d) Faizal
e) None of The Above
165.
Who is placed opposite to Aksar?
a) Dullah
b) Chishti
c) Faizal
d) Bashir
e) None of The Above
Directions (Q. 166 170) Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Akram, Bakhtawar, Changez, Dayud, Ekam, Farah, Gulrejr and Humayun are seated in
straight line facing north.
Changez sits fourth to the left of Gulrej. Dayud sits second to right of Gulrej.
Only two people sit between Dayud and Akram. Bakhtawar and Farah sits adjacent to each
other.
Humayun is not an immediate neighbor of Dayud.
166.
Who among the following sits exactly in the middle of the persons who sit fifth from
the left and the person who sits sixth from the right?
a) Changez
b) Humayun
c) Ekam
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d) Farah
e) None of The Above
167.
Who among the following sits third to the right of Changez?
a) Bakhtawar
b) Farah
c) Akram
d) Ekam
e) None of The Above
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168.
Which of the following represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
a) Changez and Dayud
b) Akram and Bakhtawar
c) Bakhtawar and Gulrej
d) Dayud and Humayun
e) None of The Above
169.
What is the position of Humayun with respect to Farah?
a) Third to the Left
b) Immediate Right
c) Second to Right
d) Fourth to Left
e) None of The Above
170.
How many persons are seated between Akram and Ekam?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of The Above
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Option D
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option C
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21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option C
Option E
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option E
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Page 25
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76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
Option A
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option C
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94. Option C
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Page 26
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E is facing towards the centre. G is 2nd to the right or 5th to the left of E.
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96. Option A
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option D
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119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
Option B
Option A
Option A
Option B
Option C
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Page 28
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125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
Option C
Option A
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option A
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131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option E
Option A
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141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option E
Person
Montek
Hamilton
Kelvin
Gliver
Levis
Profession
Columnist
Scientist
Professor
Financial Analyst
Lawyer
Ford
Elan
Doctor
Chartered Accountant
Joseph
Engineer
151. Option B
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152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option A
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
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Option A
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option D
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166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option A
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Page 32
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NE
SW
SE
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
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10. A man walks 10 km towards north. From there he
walks 6 km towards south. Then he walks 3 km towards east. How far and in which direction is he with
reference to his starting point?
(1) 7 km east
(2) 5 km west
(3) 5 km north-east
(4) 7 km west
(5) None of these
11. One morning after sunrise, Sumesh and Ratheesh were
standing on a lawn with their backs towards each
other. Sumeshs shadow fell exactly towards his left
hand side. Which direction was Ratheesh facing?
(1) East
(2) West
(3) North
(4) South
(5) North-east
12. A watch reads 4.30 if the minute hand points east, in
what direction does the hour hand point?
(1) North
(2) North-west (3) South-east
(4) North-east
(5) None of these
7. (5)
8. (1)
9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (3)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test No. 8
1.
25m
2.
3.
4.
25 m
5.
20km
25km
15m
C
... Rekhas distance from D
7m
the starting point A
= AD = BC = 7 m.
A
15m
B
(1) The movements of Radhika are as shown in the
figure. Thus she is now moving in the direction
DA i.e. North-west.
A
D
50m
30m
B
6.
20km
-----
20m
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7.
A
30m
30m
20m
D
8.
------
30m
S
E
40m
30m
9.
5m
80m
50m
70m
4km
starting point PD = PC + CD
P
= 42 + 32 = 16 + 9 = 5 km.
11. (4) Since Sumeshs shadow fell towards left, Sumesh
is facing north. As, Ratheesh is standing with his
back towards Sumesh, he will be facing south.
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450
(
--------
10m
10m
E
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Speed mathematics 2
First rule of the mathematics:
The easier the method you use to solve a problem, the faster you will solve it with less chance of making a
mistakes.
96 x 97 = 9300
-4
+ 12
9312
=> 9300+12=9312
-3
Steps involved:
Just take an example of multiplying 96 X 97
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+4
+ 24
11,024
92 x 93 = 8500
-8
-7
+ 56
-2
-3
8556
Suppose on subtracting the given numbers with the reference number we getting higher
number, we need to do the same procedure for the number (which we will get on
subtracting the main number from the reference number.
98 x 135 = 13300
-2
+35
-70
13230
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easy to multiply by 20, as 20 are 2 times 10. And it is simple to multiply by 10 and by 2.
This is called multiplication by factors, as 10 and 2 are factors of 20.
20
23 x 31 = 680
+3 +11
(23+11=31+3=34, )
33
713
Just do the same procedure.
(23+11=31+3=34, )
(34 x 20=> 34x 10=340, 440x 2= 680)-> multiplication by factors
3*11 gives 33 and 680+33 gives you 713 tats the answer.
7. MULTIPLYING BELOW 20
20 19 x 16 = 300
-1 -4
(19-4=16-1=15,)
04
364
8 x 37 = 290
-2
-8
-3
6
296
In this problem we have two reference nos. , for 8, the reference no is 10 and for 37, the
reference no is 40.
Its shows the reference no of 8 is four times the reference number of the 37.
Just subtract the no from its reference no. (8 - 10= -2, 37- 40= -3)
Then multiply the first difference (2) by 4 ( the multiplies of the reference no 10) , -> -2 x 4 = -8,
Then -8+37 = 29 , and multiply by the main reference no 10., 29x10 = 290.
Then -2 x -3 = 6, 290+6 = 296.
The answer is 296.
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EASY MULTIPLICATION BY 9
9X486 = ?
(10 x 49)
9 x 486 = 4370
-1
-4
-49
+4
4374
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So both LHS and RHS are equal. Hence our answer is correct.
DOUBLING AND HALVING NUMBERS
To use 20 and 50 as reference numbers, we need to be able to double and halve numbers easily.
To halve 78, 78 = (80-2). and half of (80-2) is 40-1 = 39
To double 78, do it the reverse manner. (80-2). Double of (80-2 ) is 160-4 = 156
MULTIPLYING THE DECIMALS:
1.3 X 1.4 =?
Ignore the decimal point in the calculation.
1. 10
13 14
+3 +4
170
12
182
In order to put the decimal points, count the number of digits after the decimal point in the given
question.
Here two digits after the decimal points. Hence place the decimal point after two digits ( 1.82 is the
answer)
2. 8 x 68 =?
Let take 8.0 x 68 =?.
100
80 x 68 = 4800
-20
-32
640
5440
Let same principle for multiplying we got the answer 5440
Let count the no of digits, its 1
Then answer is 544.0.
Lets try 9 x 83 = , 9 x 67 =
MULTIPLICATION BY 11
To multiply a two digit number by 11, simply add the two digits together and insert the result in
between.
For example, to multiply (23 x 11), add (2+3= 5), and insert the 5 in between 2 and 3, the answer is
235.
MULTIPLYING MULTIPLES OF 11.
EG: 330 x 12 = ?
330 = 3 x 10 x 11 ( ignore the zero now)
3 x 11 x 12 = 11 x 36 = 396
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digit is low,
With two digit mental addition you add the tens digit of each number first, then the units. If the
digit is high, round off the number upwards and then subtract the difference. If you are adding47, add
50, and then subtract 3.
To add 35, 67, and 43 together you would begin with 34, add 70 to get 105, subtract 3 to get 102, add
10 to get 142 then the 3 to get your answer of 145.
ADDING THREE DIGIT NUMBERS:
355+752+694 =?
355+700 = 1055
1055+50+2 = 1107
1107+700-6 = 1807-6 = 1801
OR
You may prefer to add from left to right; adding the hundreds first, then the tens and then the
units.
ADDITING LARGER NUMBERS:
8461
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+5678
We begin with the thousands column.8+5 = 13, since we are dealing with thousands, our
answer is 13 thousand.
Observe that the numbers in the hundreds column conveniently add to 10, so that gives us
another thousand. Then answer is 14000.
Then add 61 to 14000, we getting 14061.
Add 80 to and subtract 2. To add 80 add 100 and subtract 20, (14061+100-20-2) = 14161-202=14141-2=14139 is the answer.
An easy rule is: when adding a column of numbers add pairs of digits to make tens first, then
add the other digits.
SUBTRACTION:
To subtract mentally, try and round off the number you are subtracting and then correct the answer.
To subtract 9, take 10 and add 1: to subtract 8, take 10 and add 2; to subtract 7, take 10 and add 3,
1. Eg: 56-9 =
-1
(To take 9 from 56 in your head, the easiest and fastest method is to subtract 10, (46) and add1 we get 47.)
2. 54-38 = 16
+2
44-40, plus 2 makes 16
3. 436-87 =
+13
Take 100 to get 336. Add 13 and we will get 349 easy.
SUBTRACTING ONE NUMBER BELOW A HUNDREDS VALUE FROM ANOTHER WHICH IS JUST
ABOVE THE SAME HUNDREDS NUMBERS.
THREE DIGIT SUBTRACTIONS:
1. 461 -275 =
25
161+25 = 160+20+5+1 = 186
2. 834 286 =
14
534+14 = 530+10+4+4 = 540+8 = 548
SUBTRACTION METHOD ONE:
1. 7254-3897 =
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6 1 4
7 2 5 4
3 3 9 7
3 3 5 7
Subtract 7 from 4. We
Cross out the 5 and write 4.
digit of the answer)
digit answer.
the final digit of the answer.
SUBTRACTION METHOD TWO:
7 2 5 4
3 8 9 7
3 3 5 7
Subtract 7 from 4. We
from 10, add 4 on top gives 7, the first digit of the number.
milar fashion. Ten from 15 is 5 or 10 is zero,
plus 5 is 5.
Four from 7 is 3. You have your answer.
SUBTRACTION FROM A POWER OF 10:
The rule is : SUBTRACT THE UNITS DIGIT FROM 10, THEN EACH SUCCESSIVE DIGIT FROM 9, THEN SUBTRACT 1
FROM THE DIGIT ON THE LEFT.
1. 1000
-574
10-4=6,
9 - 7 = 2,
9 - 5 = 4,
1-1=0
The answer is 0426
SUBTRACTING SMALLER NUMBERS:
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If the number we are subtracting has fewer digits than the one you are subtracting from, then add zeros
before the number (at least, mentally) to make the calculation:
For instance:
23 000 46 =
23 000
0 046
22 954
Use the same principle as subtraction method 2.
SQUARING THE NUMBERS:
1. Squaring the numbers ending with 5.
352 =
Separate the 5 from the digits in front. in this case there is only a 3 in front of the 5.
Add 1 to 3 get 4 (3+1= 4)
Multiply these numbers together: 3 x 4 = 12
Write the square of 5 (25) after 12. We will get 1225.
135 2 = ??
Take 13, add 1 to it we will get 14.
Then 13 x 14 = 182
Add the square of 5 next to it. We will get 18225.
SQUARING THE NUMBERS NEAR TO 50:
1. 462 =
Forty six squared means 46 x 46. Rounding upwards, 50 x 50 = 2500.
Take 50 and 2500 as our reference points.
50 462
-4
46 = 50-4, so 4 is a minus number.
So we take 4 from the 25 hundreds.
(25-4) x 100= 2100
To get the rest of the answer, we square the number in the minus. ( 4 2= 16)
Add 2100 and 16 we will get 2116 is the answer.
562 =
Fifty six squared means 56 x 56. Rounding upwards, 50 x 50 = 2500.
Take 50 and 2500 as our reference points.
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50 562
+6
56 = 50+4, so 6 is a positive number.
So we add 6 to 25 hundreds.
(25+6) x 100= 3100
To get the rest of the answer, we square the number in the minus. ( 62= 36)
Add 3100 and 36 we will get 3136 is the answer.
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x 58
8
Add 4 + 8 = 12
Halve the answer 12/2 = 6
Add that answer to 25 , we will get 25+6 = 31 (31 hundreds)
Multiply ( 4 x 8 = 32)
Add (3100 + 32 = 3132)
2. 46 x 48 =
50 46 x 48
-4
-2
Add (-4 -2 = -6)
Halve the answer (-6/2 = -3)
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Reasoning
BLOOD RELATIONSHIP
Questions on Blood Relationship are related to our day
to day life. We are bound by our kith and kin through a
chain of relationships. The examiner defines the simple
relationships by using rather complicated set of definitions
and expects from us to comprehend these definitions rather
quickly. In order to solve these problems, analyse the given
statements carefully and systematically. For examples :
(i) My father's only child means I (Myself).
(ii) Ritu's husband's father-in-law's only daughter means
Ritu (Herself).
Pay particular attention to the information given in the
question itself without your personal biases and preconceived notions and assumptions coming to the fore.
Questions on Blood Relationship can be solved by any of
the following methods:
(i) Deduction Method and
(ii) Pictorial Method
While attempting questions on Blood Relationship, first
read all the pieces of information as quickly as possible
and then point out the two persons between whom
relationship is to be established. Finally, try to co-relate
the given relationships. While concluding relationship
between two persons be careful about the sexes of the
persons involved. Majority of the students tend to define
or derive relationship without caring for sex of the persons.
Is it possible to define relationship between two persons
without knowing their sex? Consider the following
illustration:
A is the child of P and Q.
From this statement can we conclude that P is the
father of A. No, it is not possible. Without knowing the sex
of either P or Q, it is not possible to conclude that P is the
father of A. What we can conclude from the above statement
is that'P and Q are parents of A.
Thus, we see that the knowledge about the sex of
persons is necessary to conclude relationship between the
two persons.
Some Important Tips:
(i) First of all choose the two persons, between whom
relationship is to be established.
' (ii) Next, pin-point the intermediate relationship i.e.,
such relationship through which long drawn relationship
can be established between the required persons.
(iii) Finally, conclude the relationship directly between
the two persons as per the requirement of the question.
(iv) From a particular name we cannot ascertain the
sex (gender) of that person. The name does not always
show the gender beyond reasonable doubt.
For example, we often hear the same name for male
and female in the Punjabi community.
Brother
Sister
Uncle
Aunt *
Grandmother
Grandfather
Daughter-in-law
Sister-in-law
Nephew
Niece
Cousin
Brother-in-law
Sister-in-law
Father or Uncle
Mother
Mother or Aunt
Father
Mother
Aunt
Grandfather
Grandmother
Great
Grandfather
Great
Grandmother
Mother
Mother
Father
TYPR-I
Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is
the only daughter of my mother". How is the woman
related to man?
(1) Mother
(2) Grandmother
(3) Sister
(4) Daughter
(5) None of these
Ex.2.
TYPE-Il
Ex.1.
ANSWERS W I T H EXPLANATION
1. (4) A is the brother of B. (A is male)
B is sister of C. (B is female)
C is father of D. (C is male)
The sex of D is not known.
A and C are brothers of B.
A is the uncle of D.
Since, sex of D is not clear, we cannot determine what
is D to A.
2. (1) P is brother of Q. (P is male)
R is sister of Q. (R is female)
Therefore, P is the brother of R.
3. (4) Aparna's mother is the daughter of Vishnu's sister.
Therefore, Vishnu's mother is the grandmother of Aparna's mother.
PICTORIAL METHOD
EXPLANATIONS
1. (2) The word Deteriorate (Verb)
means : to become worse, decline
degenerate.
Look at the sentence :
His health deteriorated rapidly and
he died shortly afterwards.
2. (1) The word Susceptible (Adjective) means : Very likely to be influenced, harmed or affected by
somebody/something: easily infiu
enced by feelings and emotions;
impressionable: responsive.
Look at the sentences :
Salt intake may lead to raised blood
pressure in susceptible adults.
He is highly susceptible to flattery.
3. (3) The word Compression (Noun)
means : pressure; to be pressed
or squeezed to bring together; condensation; reduction of something
to fit it into a smaller space.
Look at the sentence:
Her lips became a thin line under
compression.
4. (4) The word Obese (Adjective)
means ; very fat, in a way that is
not healthy,
5. (1) The word Dehydration (Noun)
means : removal of water from
something especially food; loss of
water from your body.
Look at the sentence :
One. should drink lots of water to
avoid dehydration.
6. (3) T h e w o r d C o m p l i c a t i o n
(Noun) means : a thing that makes
a situation more difficult: illness
that makes treatment of a previous one more difficult.
EXPLANATIONS
1. (2) The word Deteriorate (Verb)
means : to become worse, decline
degenerate.
Look at the sentence :
His health deteriorated rapidly and
he died shortly afterwards.
2. (1) The word Susceptible (Adjective) means : Very likely to be influenced, harmed or affected by
somebody/something: easily infiu
enced by feelings and emotions;
impressionable: responsive.
Look at the sentences :
Salt intake may lead to raised blood
pressure in susceptible adults.
He is highly susceptible to flattery.
3. (3) The word Compression (Noun)
means : pressure; to be pressed
or squeezed to bring together; condensation; reduction of something
to fit it into a smaller space.
Look at the sentence:
Her lips became a thin line under
compression.
4. (4) The word Obese (Adjective)
means ; very fat, in a way that is
not healthy,
5. (1) The word Dehydration (Noun)
means : removal of water from
something especially food; loss of
water from your body.
Look at the sentence :
One. should drink lots of water to
avoid dehydration.
6. (3) T h e w o r d C o m p l i c a t i o n
(Noun) means : a thing that makes
a situation more difficult: illness
that makes treatment of a previous one more difficult.
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Contents
Inequality
Syllogism
Sitting Arrangement
Machine Input Output
Puzzles
Blood Relation
Series
Data sufficiency
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Today I am going to share King Soldiers and Public technique to solve Inequalities. By using this
technique, you can solve any question from Inequalities within 10 seconds. In every exam, at least 5
questions are asked from this topic.
Points to remember
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Soldier means or
Public means =
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Suppose there is a war going on between two kings.Whenever the two kings faces each other
means war. In other words conclusion will be wrong.
Note: Two signs opposite to each other will make the conclusion wrong But again if the signs are in
same manner that will not make it wrong.
like this
If A > B <C > D then A < C = False , C > A = False.
But
If E > F > G > H then E > G = True , F > H = True , E > H = True.
Statement: A < D > C < E > B
Conclusions:
C > B False
A < E False
D > B False
In simple way ,Whenever these two sign comes in opposite direction the answer will be false.
Whenever the soldiers face each other means again war(same apply here). In other words
conclusion will be wrong.
Note: Two signs opposite to each other will make the conclusion wrong But again if the signs are
same then it will be true.
like this
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But
If A B C then A C = True , C A = True.
Example
Statement: B D A F C
Conclusions :
I. A C False
II. B F False
III. D C False
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Statement: P R > Q = T S
Conclusions :
I. P Q False
II. P > Q True
III. Q S True
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III. K M True
IV. K < P False
V K = P False
Statement IV & V Apply Either Or
Case 5. Protocols
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There are some rules in battle field which is that king only fights with king andsoldier
only fights with soldier.
So Whenever you find two conclusions which are false Just check for these two
symbols.In Most of case where two conclusions are false and these two
similar signsare not there respectively then that statement you can call it as Either
Or but should check there variable it should same.
#Case Either Or :
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Note : First thing you need to check whether in your conclusion any 2 or more
conclusions are wrong
then if it is there then check whether the two variables are same If It happens then
write it as 'Either or' but after checking their symbols.
Rules:
1. Both conclusion should False
2. Should have Same Predicate or Variable
3. Check the symbols
If 3 Condition is satisfied then write it as " Either Or' Other wise leave it.
Solved Questions :
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By Ramandeep Singh
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There are some rules in battle field which is that king only fights with king andsoldier
only fights with soldier.
So Whenever you find two conclusions which are false Just check for these two
symbols.In Most of case where two conclusions are false and these two signs
are notthere respectively then that statement you can call it as Neither Nor.
Note : First thing you need to check whether in your conclusion any 2 or more
conclusions are wrong
then write it as 'Neither Nor' but before checking their symbols.
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Rules:
1. Both conclusion should False
2. Check the symbols
If Both Conditions are satisfied then write it as " Neither Nor' Other wise leave it.
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By Ramandeep Singh
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#1
Statements N B, B $ W,W # H, H M
Conclusions:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
M@W
H@N
WN
W#N
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Only I is true
Only III is true
Only IV is true
Only either III or IV is true
Only either III or IV and I is true
#2
Statements R D, D $ J, J # M, M @ K
Conclusions:
I.
K#J
II.
D@M
III.
R#M
IV.
D@K
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
None is true
Only I is true
Only II is true
Only III is true
Only IV is true
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#3
Statements H @ T, T # F, F E, E V
Conclusions:
I.
V$F
II.
E@T
III.
H@V
IV.
T#V
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
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#4
Statements D @ R, R K, K @ F, F $ J
Conclusions:
I.
J#R
II.
J#K
III.
R#F
IV.
K@D
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
#5
Statements M $ K, K @ N, N R, R # W
Conclusions:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
W@K
M$R
K@W
M@N
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In the following questions, the symbol @,,%, and $ are used with the following meaning as
illustrated below.
P Q means P is not greater than Q.
P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q.
P Q means P is neither greater than nor equals to Q.
P % Q means P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
three conclusions, 1,2,3 given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
#6
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Statement : D @ M, M $ B, B R, R % T
Conclusion:
I.
BD
II.
B@D
III.
TM
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
None is true
Only I is true
Only II is true
Only III is true
Only either I or II is true
#7
Statement : W F, F @ D, D K, K $ J
Conclusions: I. K % W
II. D $ W
III. F K
#8
Statements R * K,K M,M % T,T $ J
Conclusions: : I. J * M
II. R * M
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III. K J
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only I and II are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of the above
#9
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Only I is true
Only II is true
Only III is true
All I, II and III are true
None of the above
#10
Statements T $ N, N % B,B @ W,K W
Conclusions: I. K $ B
II.K $ T
III. T % B
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only III is true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of the above
#11
Statements Z % V, V * J,J M,M @ R
Conclusions: I. R % V
II.M % V
III. Z % M
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of the above
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#12
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Statements N O P = Q > R
Conclusions
I. N > R
II. R = N
#13
Statements W X < Y = Z >A;W<B
Conclusion
I. B > Z
II. W < A
#14
Statements : H > I > J > K ; L > M < K
Conclusions
I. I > M
II. L < H
#15
Statements : C < D < E ; D > F G
Conclusions
I. C G
II. F > E
#16
Statements : R > S T U; V < T
Conclusions:
I. V U
II. V < R
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Some
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NO
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Let!
You have 1000 $ in your pocket.One of your friend needs 600 $ to pay his Bill.He wants to
borrows money from you.He comes to you and say,"Do you have 600 $ ?.What would you say," Of
course Yes!".Even if He ask for 1 $, or 999 $ .Your answer will always "Yes!".
So Overall you had 1000 $ which is called "All " or All of the money you had & What is your friend
want some of the money like here 600 or it could be 1$ or 999 $ and what we call that some portion of
money out of it.or " Some".
That's why In " All " Case, "Some" is always true.
Example:
Statement : All A are B.
Possible Diagram
Conclusion
All A are B
Some A are B
Some B are A
Some A are not B
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Now Here we can see that A contains set of numbers. So we call it is as Set A and Same for B 'Set B'.
All the numbers in A is contains by B hence All A is B true But All the numbers in B is not in A or
not contain by A so All B is A False.
Now Let understand How All A is B True But All B is A False
Let Box A & Box B . Here We can see that Box B is inside the Box A Hence Box B can fit into Box A but
Box A cannot fit into Box B.
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Case #
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Assume you have given the exam & you passed with some marks that means you got some marks and
some or not.even if you passed the exam with 99% marks still you missed the 1%. So Even 99% is
count under the some case.and 1% is also count under some case.hence In 'Some' case 'Some Not' is
true.
Statement : Some A are B
Possible Diagram
Conclusion
All B areA
Some
No
B
A
are
is
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Explanation
Here we see that Set A & Set B has some common values hence we can say that Some A is B & Some
B is A But there also some values which are not common in both A & B.So We can also say that
Some A are not B & Some B are not A.
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Case #
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Assume You have no money in your pocket.So if you got no money.It means also that some money is
not in your pocket.Having No means also some not.
Simple Case
Statement
Conclusion
Some
All
,
No
,
Some,Some Not [ True ]
All
No
,
Some
Some , All [ True ]
Some Not
No
Some
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Not
All
False
False
False
Page 20
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Possibility
Statement
Conclusion
Some
No
,
Some
All , Some Not [ True ]
All
No
False
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Some Not
Some
Not
,
Some , No [ True ]
All
False
Some Examples
Statement : Some A are B, Some B are C , All C are D
Conclusion
Some A are not D
Some B are D
Some A are C
Conclusion
Some B are not D
Some D are not B
Some A are C
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Conclusion
Some B are not E
Some A are not E
No C is E
No A is E
No E is A
Conclusion
Some C are not A
Some B are not D
Some A are E
All B are D
No A is E
Some C are A
All B are E
No B is E
are
there
Example
Statement All A are B , All A are C , All A are D , No D is E, Some F is C
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Conclusion
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Conclusion
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Exception
1. In case of Universal (like 'All &No' ) Conclusion Complementary pair does not work
2. In this type of Question " Neither Nor "
Statement Some A are B, All B are C, No C is D
Conclusion
Some A are not D
No B is D
Some A are C
Some D are B
Conclusion
Some A are not D
No D is B
No A is C
No A is D
No D is A
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Possibility
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Conclusion
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Now talk about conclusion F which says Some A are not c which we don't know but it says let it is a
'possibility' so anything could be possible which doesn't make our statement wrong or contradict with
statement.If we make it like this below:
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We talk here about possibility which could be anything which especially not contradict with our
statement.So F which was False in Simple Case but When we talk about possibility is became true.
Let another example for this.Now Let There is a cloudy sky outside your home.Someone comes to
you and say ," There is a possibility that there might be rain today",Now you have no idea whether it
rain today or not.So you might be say ," Bro! It is possible".Now here you cannot talk about negative
because in Syllogism Negative Answer will never be there.
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Today I am going to share technique to share seating arrangement (sitting arrangement) question sets.
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Circle is the most important case from the exam point of view. Most of the times Circle kind of
statements are there in exams.
From the exam point of view ,In most cases they give 8 person sitting in the circle.
But Before Solving the important thing is their ' Sitting position '.
Step 1 . Knowing NEWS! N= North , E= East , W=West , S= South
To remember this just remember combination ' North - South ' & ' West - East ' which comes together
to each other respectively.
So remember " WE are Not Smokers" for combination
Now just place like this on paper
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Facing Center
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Facing Outside
If It is mention in the statement that all is facing outside then just do opposite of above like this:
Clock wise = Right & Anti- clock wise = Left
Step 3: Solving Step Wise the statement or Following the statement
Example :
Eight people E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the center.Each of
them is of a different profession Charted Accountant, Columnist, Doctor, Engineer, Financial Analyst,
Lawyer, Professor and Scientist but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of
K. The Scientist is an immediate neighbor of K. There are only three people between the Scientist and
E. Only one person sits between the Engineer and E. The Columnist is to the immediate right of the
Engineer. M is second to the right of K. H is the Scientist, G and J are immediate neighbor of each
other. Neither G nor J is an Engineer. The Financial Analyst is to the immediate left of F. The lawyer
is second to the right of the Columnist. The Professor is an immediate neighbor of the Engineer. G is
second to the right of Charted Accountant.
Before solving remember
1. No of Persons = 8 , No of Profession = 8
2. Facing Center
3. 8 persons 8 profession
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Persons
Professions
E
F
G
H
J
K
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L
M
Step 4 : Break statement into Shortcuts
Statement: F is sitting second to the left of K.
We can write it as:
[ Note : The Above diagram shows that there is one place vacant between F & K ]
Will get like this:
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In 1(a) & 1(b) We are unable to position the person G & J.So 1(a) & 1(b) diagram is not possible.Now
Move to 2(a).
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In 2(a) Engineer cannot be placed next to F.So 2(a) diagram is not possible.
# Patterns
1. Pattern Based On Shifting
2. Pattern Based On Arrangement
3. Pattern Based On Mathematical Operation
4. Miscellaneous Approach Or Other Patterns
1. Based On Shifting
In this pattern ,you will find the elements are shifting from one place to other.
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move in backward or reverse order which is not possible in some of the other type of
problems.
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Shifting of element can easily be understood by marking them equivalent to number like
Boy = 1,Crazy = 2, Guy = 3, Other = 4, Help = 4, Charm = 5.
Input can be written as 1 2 3 4 5 6
Step 1, 2 and 4 interchanged
Step 2. 3 & 5 interchanged
Step 3. 1 & 6 interchanged
Step 4. Step 1, 2 & 3 are repeated again.
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2. Based on Arrangement
Rules :
1. Previous Step can never be determined.Let we have given Step VI & then ask to find Step V or
IV or III ,so this is clear gives you the answer 'Cannot be determined'
2. Let Total No. Of element or words or numbers in input is 8. So take n = 8 then Maximum step
can be made through this input is ( n - 1).It will only happen in the case of Arrangement.
3. To find particular step ( Let x) for any input , logically pick 1st x alphabetical word or numbers
in increasing order and just place them before the remaining word or numbers.This is the case
Apply when given Input is an 'Increasing Order' & For Decreasing Order last x word or
numbers should be picked.We will do this through example later in this article.
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From Right
Left-Right Alternate Arrangement
Increasing/Decreasing Arrangement of Numbers
Left-Right Alternate Arrangement of Numbers
Arrangement of word & Number simultaneously
1. From Left
2. From Right
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4. Increasing/Decreasing Arrangement
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Case 2.
Case 3.
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Case 4.
Example:
Input vain istanbul tomorrow mind blowing gesture of the elbow
Step 1. blowing vain istanbul the mind gesture of elbow
Step 2. blowing elbow vain istanbul the mind gesture of
Step 3. blowing elbow gesture vain istanbul the mind of
Step 4. blowing elbow gesture istanbul vain the mind of
Step 5. blowing elbow gesture istanbul mind vain the of
Step 6. blowing elbow gesture istanbul mind of vain the
Step 7. blowing elbow gesture istanbul mind of the vain
1. Input ' is you are again famous on this' Find the Step 3.
a) again are famous is you on this b) on this you is famous are again c) this on you is famous areagain
d) famous this on you is are again e) None of these
2. If given, Step 4 'option pen rose Seema tape yolk ' , what will be the input?
a) pen option rose tape Seema yolk b) yolk Seema tape rose option pen
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5. Input 'when men ten gain rain'.What would be the second step for this input?
a) gain when men ten rain b) gain men when ten rain c) rain ten men when gain
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
Sol:
1. Applying Rule 3. Pick Alphabetically 3 words in forward order ( again, are , famous)
and place them before the remaining word that will give you :
Step 3.again are famous is you on this
2.Applying Rule 1. Hence Cannot be determined
3.Applying Rule 3. Step 1 : fame no gum to sum game Option e is correct.
4. Applying Rule 2. Total No of words = 6. n=6 then n-1 which is 6-1=5
Hence total No of Step can be made is 5. So Option a),b) & c) is wrong.
Now Apply Rule 3
Input : He is a great Indian cricketer.
In alphabetical order : A=1 , Cricketer =2, Great =3 , He = 4, Indian =5, Is= 6
Clearly After removing 1,2,3&6 ( four words) the remaining words come in order
So, Total Steps = 4, Total words Removed = 4 & Last Step = 4.
Step 4 : A cricketer great he indian is.
5. Applying Rule 3
Step need to find = 2, Total Word = 2
Input : When men ten gain rain
Now pick the word alphabetically it will be men gain,Now placed them at front in ascending order
before the other words like this : gain men and Now other words are when ten rain.
So it became Step 2: gain men when ten rain.
By Ramandeep Singh
15
14
Page 37
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Step 2
56
20
10
48
Step 3
961
2025
7569
2916
625
4624
Step 4
29791
91125
658503
157464
15625
314432
Step 5
6.5
17.4
10.8
13.6
Step 6
Step 7
33
47
89
56
27
70
Step 8
26
40
82
49
20
63
Step 9
93
135
261
162
75
204
Step 10
18
30
18
14
28
Step 11
Step 12
81
225
81
100
196
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4. Misc. Problems
There is no fixed pattern in regard of statement. Statement under this category will come before you
as a real surprise.Such question are complete mind game.
By Ramandeep Singh
Page 38
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Sometimes you might have encountered a situation where having solved a puzzle
, when clicking on options, you find that after 2-3 questions (where you were able to find your
correct option), in the 4/5th questions your answer according to your arrangement is not their in the
options at all!
Has anyone of you encountered such a frustrating situation? I know I have, and many of friends have
too.
It all happens because of tension. At home we dont take tension = puzzles get solved correctly. In
exam we take a lot of tension = puzzles get more puzzled!
So let us try not to take tension and learn how to solve puzzles in an easy manner.
By Ramandeep Singh
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Once you have the basic structure of arrangement, then keep reading and after every line, arrange the
information given in that sentence.
Go one sentence at one time. Arrange the information given in one sentence and only then move on
the next one.
5. Use tables
To solve puzzles of days/subjects/floors/persons where there is no seating order.
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This is a great way to solve puzzles and youll see that your questions will start looking easy once
you have all the information nicely arranged in a tabulated manner.
6. Indirect clues
After arranging as per the direct information available in question, youll see that some are left unarranged.
These will require your logical reasoning abilities to be able to solve these indirect relations.
Everyone can do it. You can do it. But the difference between a successful candidate and the
unsuccessful one is presence of mind/clarity of thinking/ and keeping calm and composed.
That said, here is one practice question to help you kick start your battle against the puzzles!
EXAMPLE
Four people were being interviewed for the same job, on the same day but in different rooms(R1, R2,
R3 and R4), at different time and by different interviewers.(First sentence what do you do? Make a
table!)
Determine which candidate was interviewed by whom, at which time and in which room.(What can
be arranged first in the table? What can logically be the first coloumn? Room numbers, because
other information cannot be logically arranged!)
(i) Teenas appointment was just after Mr. Sharmas, which was just after that of the person in room
R2.
(ii) Mr. Narurkars appointment was atleast two hours later than Bimals.
(iii) Mr. Joshis appointment was just after the person who had an interview in room R4, who had an
appointment just after Chirag.
(iv) Three of the four people were: (1)Deepak, (2) the one with interview in room R1, and (3) the one
who was interviewed at 1 p.m.(this is a crazy one!)
(v) Interview times were 11 a.m., 12 noon, 1 p.m., and 2 p.m.(This could be a row heading.)
(vi) Sharma, Narurkar, Joshi and Zaidi were interviewers and Teena, Bimal, Chirag and Deepak were
the interviewees.
By Ramandeep Singh
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Interviewer
Sharma
Zaidi
Joshi
Narurkar
R1
R2
R3
R4
11 a.m.
X
Definite
X
X
12 p.m.
Definite
X
X
X
1 p.m.
X
X
X
Definite
2 p.m.
X
X
Definite
X
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Generation
Male
Female
Great
grandfather
Maternal great grandfather
Great grandfather-in-law
Great
Maternal
Great
Grandfather
Maternal
grandfather
Grandfather-in-law
Grandmother
Maternal
grandmother
Grandmother-in-law
grandmother
great grandmother
grandmother-in-law
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Father,
Uncle,
Maternal uncle, Father-in-law
Mother,
Aunt
Maternal aunt, Mother-in-law
Current generation(Self)
Husband,
Brother
Cousin, Brother-in-law
Wife,
Cousin, Sister-in-law
Son
Nephew
Son-in-law
Daughter
Niece
Daughter-in-law
Grandson
Grandson-in-law
Grand
daughter
Grand daughter-in-law
Great
grandson
Great grandson-in-law
Great
grand
daughter
Great grand daughter-in-law
Sister
Great grandfather
Daughter of father or
mother
Sister
Mother of grandfather or
grandmother
Great grandmother
Step brother
Father of
mother
father
or
Grandfather
Step sister
Mother
mother
father
or
Grandmother
Son/daughter
uncle/aunt
Cousin
Wife of grandfather
Grandmother
Brother of husband or
wife
Brother-in-law
Husband of grandmother
Grandfather
Sister-in-law
of
By Ramandeep Singh
of
Page 42
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Father-in-law
father/mother
of
Grandfather
Husband of sister/sisterin-law
Brother-in-law
Mother-in-law
father/mother
of
Grandmother
Son of father
Oneself/Brother
Father
Mother of son/daughter
Oneself/Wife
Only daughter-in-law of
fathers
father/fathers
mother
Mother
Father of daughter/son
Oneself/husband
Husband of mother
Father
Son
of
son
of
grandmother/grandfather
Brother/Oneself
/Cousin
Wife of father
Mother
Daughter of son of
grandmother/grandfather
Cousin/Oneself
/Sister
Step mother
Nephew
Brother of father
Uncle
Daughter of brother/sister
Niece
Brother of mother
Maternal Uncle
Grandson
father/mother
of
Son/Nephew
Sister of father
Aunt
Granddaughter
father/mother
of
Daughter or Niece
Sister of mother
Maternal Aunt
Husband of daughter
Son-in-law
Husband of aunt
Uncle
Wife of brother/brotherin-law
Sister-in-law
Wife of uncle
Aunt
Wife of son
Daughter-in-law
Son
of
grandfather/grandmother
Father/Uncle
Son of son/Daughter
Grandson
Daughter of father-inlaw/mother-in-law
of
father
Mother/Aunt
Daughter
son/Daughter
Father of wife/husband
Father-in-law
Sons/Daughters
grandson
Great Grandson
Mother of wife/husband
Mother-in-law
Sons/Daughters
granddaughter
Great granddaughter
Fathers
only
father/mother
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By Ramandeep Singh
of
Granddaughter
Page 43
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Siblings
Fathers/Mothers
son/daughter
Oneself
only
Brother
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Father-Son
Father-Daughter
Mother-Son
Mother-Daughter
#Types
Based on Dialogue or Conversation
Based on Puzzles
Based on Symbolically Coded
# Conversation or Dialogue
In this type of question.the one person talking to or doing chit -chat with other person giving
information throw pointing to some picture or person.
Madhu said, pointing to Shreya, " His mother is my fmother's only daughter".HowMadhu is related to
Shreya?
a) Father b) Son c) Grandson d) Mother e) None of these
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Pointing to a man in a photograph, a man said to a woman, "His mother is the only daughter of your
father".How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
a)Sister b) Mother c) Wife d) Daughter e) None of these
# Based on Puzzles
In this type of question ,You have to conclude the relation between two given person based on more
than one information given in the question.
Example:
Direction:
A is the mother of B. B is the sister of C. D is the son of C. E is the brother of D. F is the mother of E.
G is the granddaughter of A. H has only two children B and C.
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Q1. How F related to H?
a) Son-in-law
b) Daughter-in-law
c) Father-in-law
d)Granddaughter
e) Cannot be determined
Q2. How is C related to E?
a)Father
b) Son
c) Mother
d) Cousin brother
e) Cannot be determined
Q3. Who is the mother of G?
a) C
b) B
c) F
d) Either B or F
e) Either C or F
Solution
(1)
Sol: Option (b)
From the above diagram it is clear that F is daughter-in-law of H.
(2)
Sol: Option (a)
From the above diagram.It is clear that C is father of E.
(3)
Sol: Option (b)
From the above diagram it is clear that B is mother of G.
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# Symbols
In this type of question information are coded in the form of #$%&*+ etc,..
Direction:
Read the following information carefully and then answer the question given below.
a)AB means A is mother of B
b) A $B means A is sister of B
c) A*B means A is father of B
d) A #B means A is brother of B
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Solution
By Ramandeep Singh
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Types of series on the basis of Logic :1. Simple addition and subtraction series
2.
3.
4.
5.
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2) 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, ?
All are prime numbers so next number in the series will be 29.
3) 5,7,10,15,22, ?
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6) 3, 5, 9, 15, 23, ?
By Ramandeep Singh
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1) Read the given problem. Don't assume anything except universal facts.
2) Take the first statement and combine it with main statement. Try to find the answer.
3) If you are unable to find the answer using 2nd step then combine second statement and
combine it with main statement and try to find answer.
4) If you are unable to find an answer using second statement then add both statements with
main statement and try to find answer
5) If even now you can't find answer, simply tick both statements are insufficient.
Directions :Marks A as answer if statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
Marks B as answer if statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
Marks C as answer if statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question but
neither statement aloneis sufficient to answer the question
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Statement II : x is divisible by 84
Answer. Using statement I - x is divisible by 4 and 5
Using statement II - x is divisible by 3,4, and 7.
By using both statements we can conclude that x is divisible by 28 ( 4*7), hence answer is C.
Question 4. P,Q,R,S and T are five friends. Their mean age is 18. What is the age of R ?
Statement I : P's age is 18
Statement II : Q's age is 2 years less than T and T's age is 6 years less than S.
Statement III : R's age is 6 years more than B's age and 4 years more than T's age.
Answer : P+Q+R+S+T = 90
From Statement I : Q+R+S+T = 72
From Statement II : Q = T - 2 and T=S - 6
So S = T + 6
Statement III : R = Q+6 and R = T + 4
Age of every friend can be defined in terms of T's age by using all three statements. So we
can reach the answer using all three statements. Hence answer is C.
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Never try to reach final answer as it is not asked. You need to find whether the
information provided is enough to solve the given problem or not.
Never make any assumption. Use only universal rules { eg. a + b = a + b - (a U b) }
Try to solve questions by using above strategies
Solve question step by step. First try to find answer using first statement then second
and finally with both. Then mark the answer
Even if you find answer with only one statement, then try to find answer with
remaining statement as sometimes there is an option that answer can be find with
both statements separately.
Move on quickly and mark answer can't be found in case you are unable to reach any
conclusion with information provided.
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SET 1
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Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons namely Paramjit, Tarun, Morya, Jeeva, Vaani, Ram and Waqar are good
friends and are studying in M.Com, M.A. and M.Sc courses. Three are doing M.Com, two are in M.A.
and another two are in M.Sc. Each of them has a very distinct and favorite color choice ranging from
blue, red, yellow, white, black, pink and brown but not necessarily in the same order. None doing
M.Com like either red or black. Morya is doing M.A. and he likes blue. Ram is doing M.Sc and likes
brown. Jeeva is doing M.Com and likes yellow. Paramjit who does not like red is in the same
discipline of Ram. Tarun is in the same discipline of Morya. Vaani does not like pink.
Q1. Which among the following groups is doing M. Com?
a) Jeeva, Vaani and Waqar
b) Vaani, Waqar and Tarun
c) Jeeva, Vaani and Tarun
d) Jeeva, Paramjit and Ram
Q2. What is the color combination choice of those who are in M.Sc discipline?
a) Brown and Pink
b) Black and White
c) Black and Brown
d) Yellow and Black
e) None of The Above
Q3. Which color does Vaani like?
a) Yellow
b) Pink
c) White
d) Brown
e) None of The Above
Q4. What is the color combination choice of those who are in M.A. discipline?
a) Red and Black
b) Blue and Red
c) Blue and Black
d) None of The Above
Courses
Colors
Jeeva
M.Com
Yellow
Vaani
M.Com
White
By Ramandeep Singh
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Waqar
M.Com
Pink
Morya
M.A.
Blue
Tarun
M.A.
Red
Ram
M.Sc.
Brown
Paramjit
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Answer 1.
Answer 2.
Answer 3.
Answer 4.
Answer 5.
(Option A)
(Option C)
(Option C)
(Option B)
(Option B)
M.Sc.
Black
SET 2
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
M, K, J, T, R, D and W are seven members of a family. There are two married couples among them
belonging to two different generations. Each of them has a different choice of cuisine - Chinese,
Continental, Thai, Punjabi, South India, Gujarati and Malwani. The grandfather in the family likes
Gujarati food. None of the ladies likes Continental or Thai food. T is the son of M, who likes Chinese
food. W is J's daughter-in-law and she likes South Indian food. K is grandfather of D, who likes
Punjabi food. J is mother of R, who likes Continental food.
1) How is R related to D?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(e) None of these
(c) Uncle
3) Which of the following group contains one each from the same generations?
(a) JRT
(b) JRW
(c) MRD
(d) MWT
(e) None of these
4) Which food does T like ?
(a) Gujarati
(b) Thai
(e) None of these
(c) Malwani
5) Which of the following combinations represents favourite food of the two married ladies ?
(a) Malwani, South Indian
(b) South Indian, Punjabi
(c) Punjabi, Malwani
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
ANSWERS
1. (c) R is the brother of M, who is father of D. So, R is uncle of D.
2. (d) We can not determine because there is nothing mentioned about D in the question.
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3 (a) J belongs to 1st generation, R belongs to 2nd generation and T belongs to 3rd generation.
4 (b) Thai food
5 (a) J likesMalwani and W likes South Indian.
SOLUTION
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PERSON
K(MALE)
CUISINE
GUJARATI
GENERATION
1st
J (FEMALE)
M (MALE)
W (FEMALE)
R (MALE)
D(MALE/FEMALE)
MALWANI
CHINESE
SOUTH INDIAN
CONTINENTAL
PUNJABI
1st
2nd
2nd
2nd
3rd
T (MALE)
THAI
3rd
RELATIONSHIPS
FATHER OF M AND
R
GRANDFATHER
OF D AND T
WIFE OF K
SON OF K AND J
WIFE OF M
BROTHER OF M
SON/DAUGHTER OF
M &W
SON OF M
SET 3
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it.
Six friends Abhi, Deep, Myank, Prince, Rambo and Sumit married within a year in the months
of February, April, July, September, November and December and in the cities of Ahmedabad,
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Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata but not necessarily following the above order. The
brides names were Geetu, Jasmeet, Harman, Bindia, Inpreet and Vanshika, once again not following
any order. The following are some facts about their weddings.
(i) Myanks wedding took place in Chennai, however he was not married to Geetu or Vanshika
(ii) Abhis wedding took place in Ahmedabad and Rambos in Delhi; however neither of them was
married to Jasmeet or Bindia.
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b) Deep
e) Myank
c) Rambo
c) Kolkata
Q3. In Mumbai, the wedding of one of the friends took place in the month of
a) April
b) September
c) November
d) December
e) July
Q4. Sumits wedding was held in
a) Bengaluru
b) Chennai
d) Delhi
e) Mumbai
Q5. Geetu was married to ____
a) Mayank
c) Princ
c) Kolkata
b)
Deep
d) None of these
Solution
Answer 1.
Answer 2.
Answer 3.
Answer 4.
Answer 5.
Option c)
Option c)
Option d)
Option a)
Option b)
Husband
Wife
Place
Month
Abhi
Vanshika
Ahmedabad
July
Deep
Geetu
Kolkata
February
Myank
Inpreet
Chennai
November
Prince
Bindia
Mumbai
December
By Ramandeep Singh
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Rambo
Harman
Delhi
April
Sumit
Jasmeet
Bengaluru
September
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SET 4
Directions (Q. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below :Five friends Pawan, Qureshi, Rajan, Sultan and Tango are Musician, Architect, Doctor,
Engineer and Artist by profession and like White, Blue, Red, Yellow and Green colour but not
necessarily in that order. Their hobbies are Net Surfing, Gardening, Reading, Painting and Dancing
but not necessarily in the same order.
The person whose hobby is dancing preferred lemonade to cola while others preferred cola to
lemonade in beverages.
The four friends who took cola were Pawan, the one who is an Engineer, the person whose
favouritecolour is Green and the one whose hobby is net surfing.
Sultan did not take lemonade and his favouritecolour is White.
Qureshisfavouritecolour is Blue. He did not like lemonade.
Tangos hobby is not painting, reading or gardening.
Sultan clicks a picture of his friend who is an Engineer.
The person whose favouritecolour is Red likes painting and the person who is artist likes
gardening.
Sultan is not a doctor. The person who is a doctor takes cola. The person who is an Engineer
likes Blue colour.
The musicians favouritecolour is not Yellow. Rajansfavouritecolour is Green.
c) Sultan
c) Gardening
b) Painting
e) None of these
c) Engineer
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e) None of these
Answers
Q 1) B
Q 2) A
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Q 3) C
Q 4) A
Q 5) A
SET 5
Question:Arti, Baby, Chandni, Dolly, Esha, Falguni, Gopi and Himani are sitting around a square table in such
a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four
sides. The one who sits at the four corners face the centre of the table while those who sit in the
middle of the sides faces outside.
Each of them likes a different subject - Mathematics, Hindi, English, Biology, Chemistry, Physics,
History and Geography. (None of the information given is necessarily in the same order)
Chandni sits third to the left of the person who likes Geography.The one who likes
Geography faces outside.There are only two persons sit between Chandni and Himani.
Dolly sits on the immediate left of the one who likes Physics. Gopi does not likes Physics.
Esha likes History. Esha is not immediate neighbour of Arti.
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(A) Who among the following sits diagonally opposite the one who likes Mathematics?
1) The one who likes Hindi
2) Dolly
3) Arti
4) The one who likes English
5) The one who likes Biology
(B) Who among the following represent the immediate neighbours of the one who likes Chemistry?
1) Baby, Falguni
2) Chandni, Esha
3) Baby, Esha
4) Dolly, Falguni
5) Falguni, Himani
(C) Who among the followings select exactly between Himani and Baby?
1) Chandni
2) The one who likes Hindi
3) The one who likes Biology
4) Gopi
5) Arti
(D) Which of the following is true regarding Baby?
1) Baby is one of the immediate neighbours of Dolly
2) The one who likes Geography is an immediate neighbour of Baby
3) Baby sits second to the left of Himani
4) Baby likes History
5) Baby is the immediate neighbour of the one who like Mathematics.
(E) What is the position of the one who likes Physics with respect to Gopi?
1) Second to the Left
2) Third to the right
3) Fourth to the left
4) Second to the right
5) Third to the left
(F) Which of the following subjects does Dolly like?
1) Biology
2) Mathematics.
3) Hindi
4) Chemistry
5) English
(G) Who among the following likes Geography?
1) Baby
2) Faguni
3) Himani
4) Arti
5) Dolly
By Ramandeep Singh
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ANSWERS
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 5
(E) 5
(F) 1
(G) 2
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SOLUTION
SET 6
Question:Four people were being interviewed for the same job, on the same day but in different rooms(R1, R2,
R3 and R4), at different time and by different interviewers.(First sentence what do you do? Make a
table!)
Determine which candidate was interviewed by whom, at which time and in which room.(What can
be arranged first in the table? What can logically be the first coloumn? Room numbers, because
other information cannot be logically arranged!)
By Ramandeep Singh
Page 8
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(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Teenas appointment was just after Mr. Sharmas, which was just after that of the person
in room R2.
Mr. Narurkars appointment was atleast two hours later than Bimals.
Mr. Joshis appointment was just after the person who had an interview in room R4, who
had an appointment just after Chirag.
Three of the four people were: (1)Deepak, (2) the one with interview in room R1, and (3)
the one who was interviewed at 1 p.m.(this is a crazy one!
Interview times were 11 a.m., 12 noon, 1 p.m., and 2 p.m.(This could be a row heading.
Sharma, Narurkar, Joshi and Zaidi were interviewers and Teena, Bimal, Chirag and
Deepak were the interviewees.
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Interviewer
Sharma
Zaidi
Joshi
Narurkar
By Ramandeep Singh
R1
R2
R3
R4
11 a.m.
X
Definite
X
X
12 p.m.
Definite
X
X
X
1 p.m.
X
X
X
Definite
2 p.m.
X
X
Definite
X
Page 9
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SET 7
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
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B works in department M and earns more than 20,000. Person who is 28 years old works in
department Q. 32 years old person earns at least 20,000.
The person who is 26 years old earns 25,000. A earns 15,000, but does not work in
department N or P.
Person who is 30 years old earns highest salary but does not work in department M and N. E
does not work in department P or Q, and his age is not 32. The salary of D is less than 20,000.
1.
2.
If the name of the person represents its salary then which of the following is true?
a) A + B = C
b) C + D = B
c) D + E = B
d) Cant be determined
e) None of these
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
c) O
Answers:
Option D
Option E
Option D
Option C
SET 8
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
it
Six exams Maths, science, History, Economics, English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from
2nd March and ending on 8th march wit Sunday being an off day, not
By Ramandeep Singh
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necessarily in the same order. Each of the exam has different time duration: 40 mins, 50 mins, 60
mins, 75 mins, 90 mins and 100 mins, again not necessarily in the same order.
8th march is not sunday and an exam of 40 mins is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less than
60 mins and is scheduled immediately before English exam. There are two exams scheduled between
Hindi exam which is for 100 mins and History exam which is for 60 mins. English exam is before
Sunday and there are two days between sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is for 75
mins is not scheduled on 2ndmarch. The exam schedules on saturday is of 100 mins.
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Solutions
Solutions (1-5):
Date
2nd
March
3rd
March
4th
March
5th
March
6th
March
7th
March
8th
March
Day
Exam
Time Duration
Wednesday
History
60 mins
Thursday
Maths
50 mins
Friday
English
90 mins
Saturday
Hindi
100 mins
Sunday
Off
Off
Monday
Economics
75 mins
Tuesday
Science
40 mins
1. (5)
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2. (2)
3. (4)
4. (1)
5. (4)
SET 9
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Directions (6-12): Each of these questions are based on the information given below:
P, Q, R, S, W, X, Y, Z are sitting around a circle facing centre but not necessarily in the same order.
The husband of Z is sitting second to the right of Q who is sitting between two males. X sits second to
the left of the daughter of S. X is the sister of Y. X is not an immediate neighbour of Z's
husband. Only one person sits between P and X. P is the father of Y. S who is brother of Z sits to the
immediate left of his mother. Only one person sits between Z's mother and W. Only one person sits
between Z and Y. Y is mother of R. Y is not an immediate neighbour of W.
6. Which of following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(1) R is the cousin of W
(2) Z and Z's husband are immediate neighbour of each other.
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of R.
(4) Z sits third to the left of her daughter.
(5) Q is the mother of Z.
7. What is the position of P with respect to his grandchild?
(1) immediate right
(2) third to the right
(3) third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) fourth to the right
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way. Which one does not belong to that group?
(1) X
(2) R
(3) W
(4) Z
(5) Y
9.
Solutions (6-12):
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6. (5)
7. (1)
8. (2)
9. (4)
10. (3)
11. (3)
12. (1)
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SET 10
Direction (1 5): Read the following information and answer the questions that follow:
(1) There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G based in Delhi. Each of them is from a different
state, has a different profession, and plays a different instrument.
(2) C, a doctor, is from Bihar.
(3) E and F play mandolin and violin, though not necessarily in that order.
(4) A is not from Kerala.
(5) The person from Kerala is an engineer and plays guitar.
(6) The lawyer plays sitar.
(7) The businessman from UP plays violin.
(8) The teacher and the cricketer play flute and piano, though not necessarily in that order.
(9) F is a pilot.
(10) The Maharashtrian is a teacher.
(11) The Gujarati plays piano.
(12) G, a Punjabi, does not play sarod.
(13) B is a cricketer.
1. Which state does A belong to?
A) Gujarat
B) Kerala
C) Maharashtra
D) Cant say
E) None of these
2. Which instrument does B play?
A) flute
B) piano
C) sarod
D) Cant say
E) sitar
3. Which instrument does C play?
A) mandolin
B) sitar
C) violin
D) None of these
E) sarod
4. What is Ds profession?
A) Engineer
B) Lawyer
C) Teacher
D) Cant say
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E) Cricketer
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SET 11
Directions (6 -10): Study the following information and answer the given question.
Eight friendsJ, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily
in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is
numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. J lives on floor numbered 4. Only
one person lives between J and L. O lives on the floor immediately below L. Only one person lives
between O and P. P lives above O. O lives on floor numbered 5. Only one person live between K and
N, M lives on an even numbered floor but does not live on floor numbered 8. K lives below Qs
floor.
6. Four of the following five are alike as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of
the following does not belong to that group?
(A) PO
(B) QL
(C) MJ
(D) LJ
(E) MN
7. Who lives exactly between the floors on which L and J live?
(A) K
(B) P
(C) O
(D) N
(E) M
8. Who amongst the following lives on floor numbered 2?
(A) M
(B) L
(C) O
(D) Q
(E) P
9. Which of the following is true about M as per given arrangement?
(A) M lives on the lowermost floor.
(B) K lives on one of the floor below M.
(C) All the given statements are true.
(D) Only two people live between M and O.
(E) M lives on an odd numbered floor.
10. If L and Q interchange their places and so do M and J, who amongst the following will live
between the floors on which M and P live, as per the given arrangement?
(A) Only Q
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(B) No one
(C) Only L
(D) Both P and L
(E) Both Q and O
Answers
1. c
2. b
3. e
4. a
5. c
6. e
7. c
8. a
9. d
10.e
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SET 12
Directions (Questions 1 - 5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Madan and Rohit are in the same team of hockey. Parth defeated Rohit in badminton but lost to
Sachin in tennis. Nitin teams with Sagar in football and with Sachin in hockey. Rohit defeated Sachin
in chess. Those who play cricket do not play badminton, volleyball or tennis. Madan and Parth are in
opposite teams of basketball. Nitin represents his state in cricket while Sagar does so at the district
level. Boys who play chess do not play football, basketball or volleyball. Madan and Parth are
together in the volleyball team. Boys who play football also play hockey.
1. Name the boys who do not play football.
(a) Sachin, Nitin
(b) Rohit, Sagar
(c) Rohit, Sachin
(d) Rohit, Nitin
(e) None of these
2. Who plays both hockey and tennis?
(a) Sachin
(b) Rohit
(c) Nitin
(d) Parth
(e) None of these
3. Which is the most popular game with this group?
(a) Cricket
(b) Hockey
(c) Football
(d) Badminton
(e) None of these
4. Who plays the largest number of games?
(a) Sagar
(b) Rohit
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(c) Parth
(d) Nitin
(e) None of these
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Answers
Hockey
Badminton
Tennis
Chess
Football
Basketball
Volleyball
Cricket
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. b
Madan
Y
Y
Y
Rohit
Y
Y
Y
N
N
N
Parth
Y
Y
Y
Y
Sachin
Y
Y
Y
N
N
N
Nitin
Y
N
N
Sagar
Y
N
N
N
Y
N
Y
SET 13
Directions (Questions 6 - 10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven boys A, D, Y, U, P, Q and J live in three different buildings Ashiana, Top-view and Ridge.
Each of them is flying kites of different colours i.e. red, green, blue white, black, yellow and pink, not
necessarily in that order. Not more than three or less than two stay in any of the buildings. Q is flying
a pink and does not live in Ridge building. U does not live in the same building as A or P and is flying
a yellow coloured kite. D lives in Ridge building with only one more person and is flying a green kite.
None in the Top-view building flies a white kite. P does not fly a blue kite.
6. Who live in Ridge building?
(a) D, U
(b) D, A, P
(c) Y, A, P
(d) A, P
(e) None of these
7. Who is flying the blue kite?
(a) A
(b) J
(c) P
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
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Building
Top-View
Ridge
Top-View
Ridge
Top-View
Ashiana
Ashiana
Kite
Blue
Green
Black
Yellow
Red
Pink
White
6. a
7. a
8. c
9. e
10. b
SET 14
Direction (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing towards the centre of the table
in a restaurant. They have ordered for different items (Pizza, Strawberry, Vanilla, Burger, Pastries and
Patties) as their lunch. They are wearing T-shirts of different colours, i.e. white, black, green, red,
yellow and blue. Order of items for the lunch and colours of T-shirts are not necessarily according to
the order of their names.
I.
The persons who have ordered for Pizza, Vanilla and Pastries are neither in white T-shirt
nor in black.
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II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.
VIII.
The persons who are in green and yellow T-shirts have neither ordered for Pizza nor for
Vanilla.
A is neither in white T-shirt nor on the immediate left of the person who has ordered for
Burger.
The only person who is between E and F eats Strawberry. The person who is on the left
side of the person in white T-shirt does not eat Patties.
D has ordered Burger and the colour of his T-shirt is green. He is facing the person who
has ordered for Strawberry.
One who has ordered for Pizza is seated opposite to the person wearing blue T-shirt,
while the person whose T-shirt is of green colour is on the left of the person who has
ordered for Pastries.
One who has ordered for Patties is on the immediate right of the person in white T-shirt
but on the immediate left of the person who has ordered for Vanilla.
C has not ordered for Vanilla while F has not ordered for Pizza.
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4. C
5. D
SET 15
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Directions (Questions 6 to 8): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
(i)
There are five types of cards viz. A, B, C, D and E. There are three cards of each type. These
are to be inserted in envelopes of three colours Red, Yellow and Brown. There are five
envelopes of each colour.
(ii) B, D and E type cards are inserted in red envelopes. A, B and C type cards are to be inserted
in yellow envelopes and C, D and E type cards are to be inserted in brown envelopes.
(iii) Two cards each of B and D type are inserted in red envelopes.
6.Which of the following combinations of types of cards and the number of cards and colour of
envelope is definitely correct?
a) A-2, B-2, C-1 : Yellow
b) C-2, D-1, E-2 : Brown
c) C-1, D-2, E-2 : Brown
d) B-2, D-2, A-1 : Red
e) None of these
7.Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is definitely
correct in respect of E-type cards?
a) Red - 1, Yellow -2
b) Yellow 1, Brown - 2
c) Red - 2, Brown - 1
d) Red - 2, Yellow -1
e) None of these
8.Which of the following combinations of the type of cards and the number of cards is definitely
correct in respect of yellow coloured envelopes?
a) A - 2, E - 1, D - 2
b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 2
c) A - 3, B - 1, C - 1
d) B - 1, C - 2, D - 2
e) None of these
Answers
6. b
7. e
8. c
Directions (Questions 9 to 10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Three persons A, B and C wore shirts of black, blue and orange colours (not necessarily in that order)
and pants of green, yellow and orange colours (not necessarily in that order). No person wore pant and
shirt of the same colour. Further, it is given that
1) A did not wear shirt of black colour.
2) B did not wear shirt of blue colour.
3) C did not wear shirt of orange colour.
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SET 16
Direction (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it :
There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one
compulsory subject and the other optional subject. Ds optional subject was History while three others
have it as compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. Fs compulsory subject
is Mathematics which is an optional subject of both C and E. History and English are As subjects but
in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they are just reverse of those of Ds. Chemistry is an
optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the school has English as her
compulsory subject.
1.What is Cs compulsory subject ?
(a) History
(b) Physics
(c) Chemistry
(d) English
(e) Mathematics
2.Who is a female member in the group ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
3.Which of the following has same compulsory and optional subjects as those of Fs ?
(a) D
(b) B
(c) A
(d) C
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4.Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same two
subject combination as F ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) D
(e) None of these
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a
d
e
c
d
SET 17
Direction (6-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi,
Bangalore and Hyderabad by different modes of transport of Bus,Train, Aeroplane, Car
and Boat from Mumbai.
The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat
R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane
S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train
Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai
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SET 18
Directions (Q. 1 - 5): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions:
A building has eight floors from 1 to 8 in such a way that ground floor is numbered 1, the above floor
is numbered 2 and so on. The top most floor is numbered 8. Eight persons G, P, M, R, Q, A, D and C
are staying each on one of these floors. A is staying on floor 6. There is a gap of three persons
between G and R. C is staying on the topmost floor. Neither P nor M is staying on the floor 5. Q is
staying middle of P and M. R is staying on the floor 1. M is not an immediate neighbor of G.
Q1. Who is staying on the floor no. 7?
1) A
2) P
3) D
4) R
5) M
Q2. How many persons are staying between D and P?
1) Three
2) Four
3) Two
4) One
5) None of these
Q3. Who is staying on the second floor?
1) Q
2) M
3) P
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4) A
5) Q or M
Q4. If all persons are arranged in alphabetical order such as A occupies floor 1 then who will occupy
floor 5?
1) G
2) Q
3) R
4) M
5) P
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Persons
C
D
A
5
4
3
2
1
G
P
Q
M
R
SET 19
Directions (Q. 6 - 10): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions:
Eight friends Romil, Ramesh, Rakesh, Rohit, Rahul, Abhijit, Abhishek and Anil are sitting around
a circular table, not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing inside others are facing
outside. They are belong to eight different cities Bhopal, Patna, Kolkata, Delhi, Gwalior, Bengaluru,
Chennai and Rajkot, but not necessarily in the same order.
Abhijit faces the Centre and sits third to the right of Rakesh. Rohit belongs to Kolkata and faces the
person who belongs to Bengaluru. Abhishesk sits third to the right of Ramesh, who stays in Bhopal.
The persons who belong to Delhi and Gwalior are facing to the same direction (inside or outside).
Rahul is sitting between the person who belongs to Kolkata and the one from Rajkot respectively.
Romil belongs to Gwalior and Rakesh belongs to Patna. The person who belongs to Chennai is facing
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outward and immediate neighbor of Rajkot. Anil is immediate neighbor of the persons who belong to
Gwalior and Chennai. Rahul is immediate left of Rohit.
Q6. Who belongs to Bengaluru?
1) Romil
2) Rohit
3) Anil
4) Abhishek
5) Rahul
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SET 20
Directions for questions: These questions are based on the information given below.
Eight members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W of a family are sitting around a circular table. The family
members belong to three generations and each couple has at least one daughter and one son.
Q, the grandfather of U, has more number of children than the number of grandchildren. S is opposite
his mother T, who is adjacent to her granddaughter. V is to the immediate left of her brother-in-law.
Ps daughter R, is to the immediate right of her aunt W. P is third to the right of his sister.
1. What is the position of R with respect to T?
1) Immediate left
2) Immediate right
3) Second to the left
4) Second to the right
5) Either (1) or (2)
2. How many couples are there in the family?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) Cannot be determined
3. What is the position of Q with respect to S?
1) Second to the left
2) Immediate right
3) Second to the right
4) Immediate left
5) Cannot be determined
4. How is S related to U?
1) Uncle
2) Mother
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3) Father
4) Aunt
5) Grand mother
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Solutions
1) 1
2) 2
3) 5
4) 1
5) 5
SET 21
Directions (1-5) Study the following information and answer the following questions.
A, B, C, D, E, G, and I are seven friends who study in three different standards namely 5th, 6th, 7th
such that not less than two friends study in the same standard. Each friend also has a
differentfavourite subject namely History, Civics, English, Marathi, Hindi, Maths and Economics but
not necessarily in the same order.
A like Maths and studies in 5th standard with only one other friends who likes Marathi. I studies with
two other friends. Both the friends who study with I like language (here languages include only Hindi,
Marathi and English).
D studies in 6th standard with only one person and does not like Civics. E studies with only one
friend. The one who likes history does not study in 5th or 6th standard. E does not like languages. C
does not like English, Hindi or Civics.
1. Which combination represents Es favourite subject and the standard in which he studies?
(1) Civics and 7th
(2) Economics and 5th
(3) Civics and 6th
(4) History and 7th
(5) Economics and 7th
2. Which of the following is Is favourite subject?
(1) History
(2) Civics
(3) Marathi
(4) Either English or Marathi
(5) Either English or Hindi
3. Who amongst the following studies in 7th standard?
(1) G
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(2) C
(3) E
(4) D
(5) Either D or B
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Answers:
1 (3)
2 (1)
3 (1)
4 (3)
5 (2)
SET 22
There are 5 houses in 5 different colours. In each house lives a person of a different nationality. The 5
owners drink a certain type of beverage, smoke a certain brand of cigar, and keep a certain pet.
Using the clues below can you determine who owns the fish?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
h)
i)
j)
k)
l)
m)
n)
o)
Answer:
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This puzzle is usually attributed to Einstein, who may or may not have written it.
The German owns the fish and the table below details the full answer:
Nationality
Color
Beverage
Smokes
Pet
Norweg
Yellow
Water
Dunhill
Cats
Dane
Blue
Tea
Blend
Horses
Brit
Red
Milk
Pall Mall
Birds
German
Green
Coffee
Prince
Fish
Swede
White
Chocolate
Blue Master
Dogs
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If in a cricket one day match, there were no wide balls, no wides, no extras and no overthrows.
What is the maximum number of runs that a batsman can score in an ideal case scenario?
Solution
1653
Explanation:
For an ideal case, the batsman will hit a six on each ball. But if he hits six on the last ball of the over,
the strike will change in the next over. Thus, the best he can do in the last ball is run 3 runs so that he
retains the strike even in the next over. Thus the total runs that he can score in each over:
6 * 5 + 3 = 33
But this will have to go like it only till the 49th over. In the last over, he can hit a six in the last ball as
well
as
that
will
be
the
last
ball
of
the
match.
Thus runs for the last over will be 6 * 6 = 36.
Hence the maximum runs = 33 * 49 + 36 = 1653
SET 23
Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends left for 7 different cities Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad,
Bangalore, Kolkata, Chandigarh and Jaipur, each one on a different day of the week. C left for Jaipur
on Monday. On the last day of the week, the person left for Bangalore. E left the next day of A who
left for Chandigarh and on the previous day of G. D left for Kolkata on Friday. B didnt leave for
either Hyderabad or Bangalore and G left for Delhi.
1. On which day of the week did B leave ?
A)Sunday
B)Saturday
C)Monday
D)Tueday
E)None of these
2. Who left for Bangalore ?
A)E
B)B
C)G
D)F
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E)None of these
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
B
D
A
C
D
SET 24
Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are 7 friends who travel to college everyday by a particular train which
stops at 5 stations 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively after it leaves base stations. 3 among them get in the
train at the base station. S gets down at the next station at which U gets down. Q gets in with 2
persons and does not get down with either P or T. V alone gets in at station 3 and gets down with R
after 1 station. P travels between only 2 stations and gets down at station 5. None of them gets in at
station 2. R gets in with U but does not get in with either Q or S. T gets in with 2 others and gets down
alone after S. Q and S going to same college and they get down together at station 3. None of them
gets down at station 1.
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Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
B
C
D
A
A
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#1 SIMPLIFICATION
Q1.
812 162 of 323 256 = 2?
Sol :
(23)12 (24)2 of (25)3 16 = 2
236 28 of 215 24 = 2?
217 = 2?
? = 17
Q2.
108 36 of 1/4 + 2/5 31/4 = ?
Sol :
108 9 + 2/5 13/4 = ?
12+13/10
? = 133/10
Q3.
331/3% of 633 + 129 = 662/3% of = ?
Sol :
1/3 633 + 129 = 2/3 ?
( 211+129 )3/2 = ?
? = 3403/2 = 1703 = 510
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#2 NUMBER SERIES
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Q1.
In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the Wrong number.
5531, 5506, 5425, 5304, 5135, 4910, 4621 (IBPS PO 2012)
Hint: -72, -92, -112
Hint : 1+12,2+22
2.5,3.5,6.5,15.5,41.25,126.75 (Allahabad Bank PO 2010)
Hint : 1/2+1/2, 1+1 , 3/2+3/2 ....
#3 PERCENTAGE
Basic Concepts Starts Here : Click Here
Q1.
If the income of Ram is 10% more than that of Shayam's income. How much %
Shyam's income is less than that of Ram's income ?
Method I.
By using formula
less% = r/100+r 100 = 10/100+10 100
= 10/110 100 = 9 1/11%
Method II.
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Q2.
A man spends 40% on food, 20% on house rent, 12% on travel and 10% on
education. After all these expenditure he saved Rs. 7200. Find the amount spent
on travel ?
Method I.
Let total income x
total expenditure
= x (40%+20%+12%+10%)
= x 82%
Total saving = x - x 82%
= x 18%
Then x 18% = 7200
x = 7200/18100 = 40,000
Expenditure on travel = 12%
x 12% = 40,00012/100 = Rs. 4800
Method II.
Total income = 100% - represent total
Q3.
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Method II.
Given Fraction = 5/8
Original fraction = 5/880/110
= 5/11 Ans.
Q4.
If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and breath is decreased by 10%.
Find the net% change in the area of that rectangle.
Sol:
net% change = x+y+ xy/100
(+20)(-10)/100
= +10-2
=8
Increase % = 8% Ans.
Q5.
A reduction of 10% in the price of tea would enable and purchase to obtain 3 Kg.
more for 2700 Rs. Find the reduced rate (new rate ) of tea ?
Sol :
10% 2700 = Rs. 270
Rs. 270 is the rate of 3 kg. of tea
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Statement
Q1.
A person purchased an article for Rs. 80 and sold it for Rs. 100.Find his % profit.
Sol:
CP of the article = Rs. 80
SP of the article = Rs. 100
Profit of the person = 100-80 = Rs. 20
% Profit of the person = Profit /CP100
%P = 20/80100
%P = 25%
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Page 5
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Trick:
%P = 20/80100 = 25%
Q2.
A dishonest shopkeeper sells goods at his cost price but uses a weight of 900 gm
for a kg. weight. Find his gain percent.
Sol:
The Cp of Shopkeeper = 900 gm
The Sp of Shopkeeper
= 1000 gm ( 1kg = 1000 gm )
The profit of shopkeeper
= 1000 -900 = 100 gm
% profit shopkeeper
= Profit of shopkeeper/CP of shopkeeper100
%P = 100/900100 = 111/9%
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Q3.
A person got 5% loss by selling an article for Rs. 1045. At what price should the
article be sold to earn 5% profit ?
Sol:
Trick :
New SP = 1045/95105 = 1155
Q4.
A person sold an article at profit of 12%. If he had sold it Rs. 3.60 more, he would
have gain 18%. What is the cost price ?
Sol:
Trick :
CP = 3.60/6100 = Rs. 60
Q5.
If the CP of 12 articles is equal to the SP of 9 articles. Find the gain or loss.
Sol : Let the CP of each article be Rs. 1
Then CP of 9 articles = Rs. 9
SP of 9 articles = Rs. 12
Gain % = 3/9100 = 331/3%
Page 6
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Q1.
At what rate of interest per annum will a sum double itself in 8 years ?
Sol:
Trick :
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Q2.
A sum of money double itself at compound interest in 15 years. In how many
years will it become eight times.
Trick :
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Page 7
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t2 = 45 years
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The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectabgular field is 5:4
respectively. If the perimeter of that field is 360 meters. what is the breadth of
that field in meters ?
Sol :
Perimeter = 2(5+4) = 18
Mean value of 18 = 360
Breadth = 360/18 4 = 80 meters
Q2.
A bag contains 50 P, 25 P and 10 P coins in the ratio 5:9:4 amounting to Rs. 206.
Find the number of coins of each type.
Sol:
Let the number of 50P,25P and 10P coins be 5x,9x and 4x respectively
5x/2+9x/4+4x/10 = 206
50x + 45x + 8x = 4120
103x = 4120
x = 40
No. of 50 P coins = 540 = 200
No. of 25 P coins = 440 = 160
No. of 10 P coins = 940 = 360
Q3.
A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio of 4:3. If 5 liters of water is
added to the mixture the ratio becomes 4:5. Find the quantities of alcohol in the
given mixture.
Sol:
Let the quantity of alcohal and water be 4x liters and 3x liters respectively.
4x/3x+5 = 4/5
8x =20
x = 2.5
Q4.
A:B = 5:9 and B:C = 4:7 Find A:B:C.
Sol:
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#7 TIME AND WORK
Q1.
A and B together can complete a piece of work in 4 days. If A alone can complete
the same work in 12 days, in how many days can B alone complete that work
?(S.S.C.2003)
Sol:
Q2.
X and Y can do a piece of work in 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the
work alone and then after 4 days Y joined him till the completion of the work.
How long did the work last ?
(Bank PO,2004)
Sol:
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Q3.
A is thrice as good a workman as B and together is able to finish a job in 60 days
less than B. Working together, they can do it in ?
Sol :
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CONCEPTS
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Problem 2: A boy travelling from his home to school at 25 km/hr and came back at 4 km/hr. If whole
journey took 5 hours 48 min. Find the distance of home and school.
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Page 11
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Problem 3: Two men start from opposite ends A and B of a linear track respectively and meet at point
60m from A. If AB= 100m. What will be the ratio of speed of both men?
Solution: According to this question, time is constant. Therefore, speed is directly proportional to
distance.
SpeedDistance
Problem 4: A car travels along four sides of a square at speeds of 200, 400, 600 and 800 km/hr. Find
average speed.
Solution: Let x km be the side of square and y km/hr be average speed
Using basic formula, Time = Total Distance / Average Speed
x/200 + x/400 + x/600 + x/800 = 4x/y 25x/ 2400 = 4x/ y y= 384
Average speed = 384 km/hr
By Ramandeep Singh
Page 12
Number system
Natural Numbers: 1, 2, 3, 4..
Whole Numbers: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4..
Integers: .-2, -1, 0, 1, 2 ..
Divisibility Rules
A number is divisible by: 2, 4 & 8 when the number
formed by the last, last two,last three digits are
divisible by 2,4 & 8 respectively. 3 & 9 when the sum
of the digits of the number is divisible by 3 & 9
respectively.
Laws of Indices
( )
/
Algebraic Formulae
=
=1
= (a b) (
ab + ). Hence,
divisible by ((a b) and (
ab + ).
is
= (a b) ( + b +
++
= (a + b) ( +
) (n even). Hence,
b for even n.
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b+
+
is divisible by a +
Page 2
= (a + b) (
(n odd). Hence,
+
for odd n.
+
b+
++
is divisible by a + b
+
+
3abc = (a + b + c) (
+
ab
ac bc) Hence,
+
+ = 3abc if a + b +c = 0
Average
Simple Average
CAGR = (
100
1)
% Profit = (
Weighted Average =
Discount % =
100
100
Geometric Mean = 1 2
Harmonic Mean =
Percentage
Percentage
50%
33.33%
25%
20%
16.66%
14.28%
12.5%
Fraction
1/9
1/10
1/11
1/12
1/13
1/14
1/15
Percentage
11.11%
10%
9.09%
8.33%
7.69%
7.14%
6.66%
Interest
Population formula P = P 1
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& a
b then
100
Page 3
Circular Races
Proportion
Time for 1st meeting =
a, b, c , d are said to be in proportion if
Geometry
Lines and Angles
Page 4
Fact
Triangles
Median
A Median of a triangle is a line segment
joining a vertex to the midpoint of the
opposing side. The three medians intersect in a
single point, called the Centroid of the
triangle. Centroid divides the median in the
ratio of 2:1
Altitude
An Altitude of a triangle is a straight line
through a vertex and perpendicular to the
opposite side or an extension of the opposite
side. The three altitudes intersect in a single
point, alled the Orthocenter of the triangle.
Perpendicular Bisector
A Perpendicular Bisector is a line that forms a
right angle with one of the triangle's sides and
intersects that side at its midpoint. The three
perpendicular bisectors intersect in a single
point, called the Circumcenter of the triangle.
It is the center of the circumcircle which
passes through all the vertices of the triangle.
Angle Bisector
An Angle Bisector is a line that divides the
angle at one of the vertices in two equal parts.
The three angle bisectors intersect in a single
point, called the Incenter of the triangle. It is
the center of the incircle which touches all
sides of a triangle.
Theorems
Mid Point Theorem: The line joining the midpoint of
any two sides is parallel to the third side and is half
the length of the third side.
= x Base x Height
= x Product of sides x Sine of included angle
=
here s is the semi
perimeter
[s = (a+b+c)/2 ]
= r x s [r is radius of incircle]
=
[R is radius of circumcircle]
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Apollonius Theorem:
= 2(
Page 5
30-60-90 Triangle
Area =
ADB BDC
= AD x DC and AB x BC = BD X DC
30-30-120 Triangle
Area =
Equilateral Triangle:
All angles are equal to 60. All sides are equal also.
Similarity of Triangles
Two triangles are similar if their corresponding angles
are congruent and corresponding sides are in
proportion.
Isosceles Triangle:
Angles equal to opposite sides are equal.
Area = 4
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Page 6
Congruency of Triangles
Two triangles are congruent if their corresponding
sides and angles are congruent.
Cyclic Quadrilateral
Regular Polygon :
If all sides and all angles are equal, it is a
regular polygon.
Area =
is the semi perimeter s =
Parallelogram
Facts
1 2 Sin
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where s
; Exterior =
Quadrilaterals :
Page 7
Kite
Rhombus
Area =
1 2
Trapezium / Trapezoid
Area = d x
Rectangle
A parallelogram with all angles equal (90) is a
Rectangle. Its diagonals are congruent.
Area =
Perimeter = 2(l+b)
Area = lb
Square
A parallelogram with sides equal and all angles equal
is a square. Its diagonals are congruent and bisect at
90.
Perimeter = 4a
Area =
Diagonals = a 2
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Fact
+ 2 AB CD
Isosceles Trapezium
Page 8
Circles
Perimeter = 6a;
Area =
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2r
Page 9
PA PB =
= [m(Arc AC) - m(Arc BC)]
Alternate Segment Theorem
Common Tangents
PA PB = PC PD
= [m(Arc AC) m(Arc BD)]
Two Circles
No. of Common
Tangents
One is
completely
inside other
Touch internally
Intersect
Touch externally
One is
completely
outside other
3
4
1
2
Distance
Between
Centers (d)
< r1 r2
= r1 r2
r1 r2 < d < r1
+ r2
= r1 + r2
> r1 + r2
PA PB = PC PD
= [m(Arc AC) + m(Arc BD)]
Properties
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RT = SU =
( 1 + 2)
Venn Diagram: A venn diagram is used to visually
represent the relationship between various sets. What
do each of the areas in the figure represent?
Addition Rule:
P (A U B) = P(A) + P(B) P(AB)
+ (n 1)d
Geometric Progression
Case1: If a thief wants to enter via a door or window,
he can do it in (d+w) ways.
=
=
!
!
Probability
P(A) =
For Complimentary Events: P(A) + P(A) = 1
For Exhaustive Events: P(A) + P(B) +P(C) = 1
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Page 11
Introduction
In many research studies involving the use of participatory tools, much of the information gathered is
of a qualitative nature. Some of this will contribute to addressing specific research questions, while
other parts provide a general understanding of peoples livelihoods and constraints. The aim of this
paper is to focus on the former. The paper concentrates on some quantitative analysis approaches
that can be applied to qualitative data. A major objective is to demonstrate how qualitative information
gathered during PRA work can be analysed to provide conclusions that are applicable to a wider
target population. Appropriate sampling is of course essential for this purpose, and it will be assumed
in what follows that any sampling issues have been satisfactorily addressed to allow generalization of
results from the data analysis to be meaningful.
Most emphasis in this paper will be given to the analysis of data that can be put in the form of ranks,
but some analysis approaches suitable for other types of qualitative data will also be considered. The
general questions of why and when are discussed first, but the main focus will be on issues relating to
the how component of data analysis. It is not the intention to present implementation details of any
statistical analysis procedures, nor to discuss how output resulting from the application of statistical
software could be interpreted. The aim is to highlight a few types of research questions that can be
answered on the basis of qualitative information, to discuss the types of data format that will lend
themselves readily to appropriate data analysis procedures and to emphasise how the data analysis
can be benefited by recognizing the data structure and paying attention to relevant sources of
variation.
2.
Quantitative methods of data analysis can be of great value to the researcher who is attempting to
draw meaningful results from a large body of qualitative data. The main beneficial aspect is that it
provides the means to separate out the large number of confounding factors that often obscure the
main qualitative findings. Take for example, a study whose main objective is to look at the role of
non-wood tree products in livelihood strategies of smallholders. Participatory discussions with a
number of focus groups could give rise to a wealth of qualitative information. But the complex nature
of inter-relationships between factors such as the marketability of the products, distance from the
road, access to markets, percent of income derived from sales, level of women participation, etc.,
requires some degree of quantification of the data and a subsequent analysis by quantitative
methods. Once such quantifiable components of the data are separated, attention can be focused on
characteristics that are of a more individualistic qualitative nature.
Quantitative analytical approaches also allow the reporting of summary results in numerical terms to
be given with a specified degree of confidence. So for example, a statement such as 45% of
households use an unprotected water source for drinking may be enhanced by providing 95%
confidence limits for the true proportion using unprotected water as ranging from 42% to 48%. Here it
is possible to say with more than 95% confidence that about half the households had no access to a
protected water supply, since the confidence interval lies entirely below 50%.
Likewise, other statements which imply that some characteristic differed across two or more groups,
e.g. that infant mortality differed significantly between households with and without access to a
community based health care clinic, can be accompanied by a statement giving the chance
(probability) of error (say p=0.002) in this statement, i.e. the chance that the conclusion is incorrect.
Thus the use of quantitative procedures in analysing qualitative information can also lend greater
credibility to the research findings by providing the means to quantify the degree of confidence in the
research results.
3.
Quantitative analysis approaches are meaningful only when there is a need for data summary across
many repetitions of a participatory process, e.g. focus group discussions leading to seasonal
calendars, venn diagrams, etc. Data summarisation in turn implies that some common features do
emerge across such repetitions. Thus the value of a quantitative analysis arises when it is possible to
identify features that occur frequently across the many participatory discussions aimed at studying a
particular research theme. If there are common strands that can be extracted and subsequently
coded into a few major categories, then it becomes easier to study the more interesting qualitative
aspects that remain.
For example, suppose it is of interest to learn about peoples perceptions of what poverty means for
them. It is likely that the narratives that result from discussions across several communities will show
some frequently occurring answers like experiencing periods of food shortage, being unable to
provide children with a reasonable level of education, not owning a radio, etc. Such information can
be extracted from the narratives and coded. Quantitative approaches provide the opportunity to study
this coded information first and then to turn to the remaining qualitative components in the data.
These can then be discussed more easily, unhindered by the quantitative components.
Quantitative analysis approaches are particularly helpful when the qualitative information has been
collected in some structured way, even if the actual information has been elicited through participatory
discussions and approaches. An illustration is provided by a daily activity diary study (Abeyasekera
and Lawson-McDowall, 2000) conducted as part of the activities of a Farming Systems Integrated
Pest Management Project in Malawi. This study was aimed at determining how household members
spend their time throughout the year. The information was collected in exercise books in text format
by a literate member of a household cluster and was subsequently coded by two research assistants
by reading through many of the diaries and identifying the range of different activities involved. Codes
1, 2, 3, 4, were then allocated to each activity. In this study, the information was collected in quite
a structured way since the authors of the diaries were asked to record daily activities of every
household member by dividing the day into four quarters, i.e. morning, mid morning, afternoon and
late evening, and recording the information separately within each quarter.
4.
Data Structure
The data structure plays a key role in conducting the correct analysis with qualitative data through
quantitative methods. The process is greatly facilitated by some attention to the data structure at the
time of data collection. This does not imply any major change to the numerous excellent
methodologies that researchers undertake when gathering qualitative information. Data structure
refers to the way in which the data the can be visualized and categorized in different ways, largely as
a result of the method of data collection. For example, many research studies involve a wealth
ranking exercise, and data may be collected from each wealth group. Your data is then structured by
wealth categories. During data collection, additional structure may arise, for example, by villagers
level of access to natural resources.
You may also find that your data are structured in many other ways, for instance, (a) by community
level variables such as by the presence/absence of a community school or a health care clinic; (b) by
focus group variables such as the degree of women participation in the discussions, the degree of
agreement with respect to specific issues, etc; and (c) by household level variables such as their
primary source of income, gender of household head, etc.
Thinking about the data structure forces the researcher to focus on what constitutes replicates for
data summarization, and it helps to identify the numerous factors that may have a bearing on those
components of the qualitative information that cannot be coded. Often the replicates may be several
focus group discussions. If the data are to be later summarised over all groups, then some effort is
needed to ensure that the information is collected in the same systematic way each time. For
example, a member of the research team may record the information that emerges from any
participatory discussions in a semi-structured way. This systematization helps in regarding the
sample, consisting of many focus groups, as a valid sample for later statistical analysis.
Considering the data structure also helps the researcher to recognize the different hierarchical levels
at which the data resides, e.g. whether at community level, focus group level or household level. The
data hierarchy plays a key role in data analysis as well as in computerizing the information collected.
If spreadsheets are to be used, then the data at each level of the hierarchy has to be organized in a
separate sheet in a rectangular array. However, it must be noted that hierarchical data structures are
more appropriately computerized using a suitable database rather than as a series of spreadsheets.
An example of a simple data structure is provided in Table 1. Here there is structure between women
since they come from five villages, they fall into one of four wealth groups, their household size is
known, and they have been identified according to whether or not they earn wages by some means.
The data should also be recognized as being hierarchical since the information resides, both at the
between women level (e.g. whether wage earner) and at the within woman level, e.g. preference
for the four oils. The data structure comes into play when quantitative analysis approaches are used
to analyse the data. An example using ranks was chosen here since this paper focuses on ranks and
scores to illustrate some quantitative data analysis procedures. One or other is often used in
participatory work to address similar objectives.
Table 1. An example data set showing ranked preference to four types of oil by a
number of women. (The full data set extends over 5 villages, with 6, 8,
5, 11 and 14 women interviewed per village)
Village
1
1
1
1
1
.
.
5.
Wealth
group
2
1
1
1
3
.
.
Household
size
6
3
7
3
4
.
.
Wage
earner
Yes
No
Yes
Yes
No
.
.
Covo
3
2
4
2
4
.
.
Supersta
r
1
4
3
4
2
.
.
Market
Moringa
4
3
2
3
1
.
.
2
1
1
1
3
.
.
The how component of any analysis approach must be driven by the need to fulfill the research
objectives, so we consider here some examples that may form sub-component objectives of a wider
set of objectives. The following list gives a number of objectives that may be addressed by eliciting
information in the form of ranks or scores.
(a) Identifying the most important constraints faced by parents in putting their children through school;
(b) Identifying womens most preferred choice of oil for cooking;
(c) Assessing the key reasons for depletion of a fisheries resource;
(d) Identifying elements of government policies that cause most problems for small traders;
(e) Assessing participants perceptions of the value of health information sources.
Part of a typical data set, corresponding to example (b), was shown in Table 1. The primary aim was
to compare womens preference for four different oil types. Such data may arise if the oils are
presented to a number of women in each of several villages for use in cooking, and they are asked,
several weeks later, to rank the items in order of preference. Here, the results merely represent an
ordering of the items and no numerical interpretation can be associated with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4
representing the ranks.
An alternative to ranking is to conduct a scoring exercise. To determine the most preferred choice
from a given set of items, respondents may be asked to allocate a number of counters (e.g. pebbles,
seeds), say out of a maximum of five counters per item, to indicate their views on the importance of
that item. The number allocated then provides a score, on a 0-5 scale with 0 being regarded as being
worst or of no importance. An example data set is shown in Table 2. The scores in this table
represent farmers own perception of the severity of the pest.
Table 2. An example data set showing scores given by farmers to the severity of pest attack
on beans, large scores indicating greater severity.
Farmer
Ootheca
Pod borers
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
Mean
4
5
4
4
1
1
5
2
3.3
2
4
1
5
2
4
1
5
3.0
Bean stem
maggot
1
1
2
1
1
1
1
5
1.6
Aphids
2
3
1
4
1
2
5
3
2.6
Addressing objectives of the type presented in this section often involve either a ranking or a scoring
exercise. The discussion that follows is aimed at researchers who may want to understand and
appreciate the advantages and limitations of these two forms of elicitation when addressing such
objectives.
6.
Ranks or scores?
Does it matter whether the information is extracted from ranks or scores? Generally, ranks are better
for elicitation as it is always easier to judge whether one item is better or worse, more or less
important, than another item. However, the ease with which the information can be collected must be
balanced against the fact that the information cannot be directly analysed through quantitative means.
The main difficulty in using ranks is that they give no idea of distance. Say for example that two
respondents each give a higher rank for item E than item B. However, the first respondent might have
thought E was only slightly better than B while the second thought E was a lot better than B. This
information is not elicited with ranks. Thus it is not possible to attribute a distance measure to
differences between numerical values given to the ranks in Table 1.
Scores on the other hand have a numerical meaning. Usually best or good in some respect is
associated with larger scores, whereas in ranking exercises, best is always associated with a rank of
1. In studies concerning livelihood constraints or problem identification, high scores or a rank of 1 are
associated with the most severe constraint or problem.
A second point is that scores can have an absolute meaning while ranks are always relative to the
other items under consideration. So a rank of 1 is not necessarily a favoured item, it is just better
than the rest. For example, four items A, B, C, D, ranked as 2, 3, 1, 4 by a respondent could receive
scores 2, 1, 3, 0 by the same respondent on a 0-10 scale where 10 represents best. The lack of a
standard scale for ranks makes the task of combining ranks over several respondents difficult unless
effort is made to ask supplementary questions to elicit respondents absolute views on the best and
worst ranked items. Such additional information may give a basis on which to convert ranks to a
meaningful set of scores, so that the resulting set of scores can be analysed. Sometimes both the
ranks and the (approximate) scores can be analysed. If the results are similar, then this indicates that
the ranks may be usefully processed on their own.
Ranks thus represent an ordering of a list of items according to their importance for the particular
issue under consideration. In interpreting ranks, it is therefore necessary to keep in mind that the
digits 1, 2, 3, etc., allocated to represent ranks, have little numerical significance. Ties should
normally be allowed, i.e. permitting two or more items to occupy equal positions in the ordered list.
This is because it is usually unrealistic to oblige the respondent to make a forced choice between
two items if she/he has no real preference for one over the other. Each item involved in a tie can be
given the average value of ranks that would have been allocated to these items had they not been
tied.
Thus for example, suppose six items A, B, C, D, E and F are to be ranked. Suppose item B is said to
be the best; item C the worst; item F second poorest but not as bad as C; and the remaining items are
about the same. Then the ranks for the six items A, B F should be 3, 1, 6, 3, 3, 5. This set of ranks
is obtained by using 3 as the average of ranks 2, 3 and 4, i.e. the ranks that items A, D and E would
have got if the respondent had perceived some difference in these items. One reason for using the
full range from 1 to 6 rather than ranking the items as 2, 1, 4, 2, 2, 3 is that misleading results will
otherwise be obtained in any further data summaries which combine information across respondents.
Fielding et al (1998) give a fuller discussion on the use of ties
The above discussion assumes that the ranking or scoring exercise is done on the basis of one
identified criterion. More typically, a number of criteria are first identified to form the basis on which to
compare and evaluate a set of items. For example, respondents may identify yield, seed size,
cooking time, disease resistance and marketability as criteria for evaluating a number of pigeonpea
varieties. Once suitable criteria have been chosen, items for evaluation are scored with respect to
each criterion in turn. This is what is essentially referred to as matrix scoring (Pretty et al, 1995). It is
common to use scores from 1 to 5 although a wider range can be useful because it will give better
discrimination between the items.
During scoring exercises, the greatest challenge is for the researcher facilitating the process. He/she
needs to ensure that respondents clearly understand what exactly the scores are meant to represent.
For example in using scores in a variety evaluation trial, the facilitator must ensure respondents are
clear between views such as
I will give this variety a high score because I have seen it is high yielding under fertiliser application
although I could never afford the seed or the required amount of fertiliser; and
I will give this variety a high score because it is performing very well compared to the local variety I
used to grow.
Assuming that scores have been elicited unambiguously by a good facilitator, their major advantage
over ranks is that they are numerically meaningful. Differences between scores given to different
items show the strength of the preference for one item over the other. Scores provide a ranking of the
items but also something extra - a usable distance measure between preferences for different items.
The availability of a meaningful measurement scale also means that the resulting scores usually
correspond easily to the objectives of the study, and can usefully be summarised across respondents.
Various forms of scoring methods exist (Maxwell and Bart, 1995). Fully open scoring, where each
item to be scored can be given any value within a particular range (say 1-5) is the most flexible since
it leads to observations that are independent of each other a requirement for most simple
statistical analysis procedures. However, restricted forms of scoring, where a fixed number of units
(e.g. bean seeds, pebbles) are distributed between a set of items, has to be used with some care,
recognising that it is only a little improvement over ranks.
Say, for example, that a respondent is asked to allocate 10 seeds among four bean varieties, giving
more seeds to the variety she/he most prefers. If the respondent allocates 5 seeds to variety C and 3
seeds to variety A because C and A are the varieties she/he most prefers, then the respondent is left
with just 2 seeds to allocate to the remaining varieties B and D. This is a problem if she/he has only a
marginal preference for A over B and D. Such a forced choice suffers the same difficulties faced by
ranks in not being able to give a meaningful interpretation to the distance between the scores. A
larger number of seeds, say 100, partially gets over this problem because now the respondent has
more flexibility in expressing his/her strength of preference for one variety over another. One hundred
seeds may however still be too few if the number of cells into which the seeds must be distributed is
large (e.g. in matrix scoring exercises).
7.
We illustrate analysis approaches to ranked data through some situation specific examples. There is
no attempt to give a full coverage of analysis methods since the most appropriate form of analysis will
depend on the objectives of the study.
Whatever the objective, it is usually advisable to begin by thinking carefully about the data structure
and then to produce a few simple graphs or summary statistics so that the essential features of the
data are clear. Often this form of summary may be all that is needed if extending the results beyond
the sampled units is not a requirement. However if results are to be generalised to a wider
population, sample sizes and methods of sampling are key issues that need consideration. See
Wilson (2000) for details. Here we assume that participating respondents have been representatively
chosen.
In section 7.1 below, we consider some data arising from a ranking exercise and simple methods of
presentation. This is followed, in sections 7.2 and 7.3, by a brief discussion of more advanced
methods of analysis applicable to ranking and scoring data, restricting attention largely to preference
evaluations. Poole (1997) provides fuller coverage.
7.1
The data structures that result from ranks/scores given to a fixed number of items, were shown using
fictitious data in Tables 1 and 2. Although the numerical values shown look similar, a number of
essential differences, as highlighted in section 6, must be recognised in interpreting this information.
For example, mean values for columns in Table 2 are meaningful summaries and give some
indication of the most serious pest problem. However, producing column totals for the ranks given in
Table 1 assumes a common distance between any two consecutive ranks. This is particularly
problematical if there are missing cells in the table, because some respondents have not ranked some
items.
As illustration, suppose an overall ranking of the oils in Table 1 is required across all women sampled.
A simple procedure is to give oils receiving a rank 1, 2, 3 and 4, corresponding scores of 4, 3, 2, 1,
and then to average the resulting set of scores. This may result in mean scores of 3.2, 2.6, 2.4 and
1.8 respectively for oils Covo, Superstar, Market and Moringa. Of course, some would argue that this
will lead to exactly the same conclusions as would be obtained if the numerical values given to each
rank were averaged across the women. This is true, but the conversion to scores makes the
assumptions involved in the averaging process clearer, i.e. the assumption that the degree of
preference for one item over the next within an ordered list is the same irrespective of which two
neighbouring ranks (or corresponding scores) are being considered, and the assumption that a
missing value corresponds to a numerical zero score.
Alternative transformation scales could also be considered on the basis of comments made by those
who rank the items. For example, ranks 1, 2, 3, 4 might be converted to scores 9, 5, 2, 1 respectively,
if it were apparent during discussions with respondents that there is a much clearer preference for
items at the top of the priority scale than those lower down.
Consider now a situation where the specific items being ranked vary from respondent to respondent.
Again, a transformation from ranks to scores can be made with a zero score for items omitted during
the ranking. See Abeyasekera et al (2000) for details. Box 1 provides a further example aimed at
investigating whether a disease, known to cause high yield losses in a crop, is regarded by farmers as
being the most damaging to the crop compared to damage caused by other pests and diseases. The
results are shown in Figure 1. The main point to note in this example is the difficulty of summing the
ranks given to pest/disease problems since many problems had been mentioned by the 226 farmers.
If one problem was mentioned by only a few farmers, but ranked highest by them, its average rank,
based on just those farmers, would be unrepresentative of the farming population as a whole. Scores
on the other hand, include a meaningful zero, so averages work out correctly.
Simple descriptive summaries as illustrated above have a place in the analysis irrespective of whether
the study is intended for making generalisable conclusions concerning a wider target population or is
a case study in one village with just a few farmers. In the former case, the summary also helps to
identify statistical inferential procedures relevant for demonstrating the applicability of results beyond
the research setting. Such procedures are also valuable because they allow the researcher to take
account of the data structure.
Box 1. An example drawn from Warburton (1998) illustrating a descriptive
summary of ranks given to the three most important pests and diseases
In a study concerning farmers practices, experiences and knowledge of rice tungro disease,
226 farmers in the Philippines were asked to name and rank the three most damaging pests or
diseases affecting their rice crop. Each pest and disease named by a farmer was given a score
of 3, 2 or 1 according to whether they ranked the pest or disease as being the first, second or
third most damaging in their attack on the crop. A score of zero was given to any pest/disease
not mentioned by the farmer. These scores were totalled over all farmers and are shown in
Figure 1 below, for each of two seasons, for pests/diseases receiving the four highest overall
scores. Tungro is clearly a recognised problem but in the dry season, stemborer is identified as
being the greater problem.
TOTAL SCORE
300
200
PEST/DISEASE PROBLEM
Black Bug
Rat
Stemborer
Tungro
100
Dry season
Wet season
SEASON
7.2
Consider a situation where the raw data have been obtained by asking each respondent to order the
items according to their preference so that a set of ranks results. We will assume that these ranks
have been converted to scores in some meaningful way and that the researcher is interested in
determining whether observed differences, in mean scores for the different items, signal real
differences in preferences for these items among respondents in the target population. This is a
situation where generalisability of study results is of primary concern. Assuming that the respondents
have been sampled appropriately and that the sample size is adequate, such a question can be
answered by applying appropriate statistical techniques.
Consider for example the ranked data shown in Table1, and suppose these have been converted to a
set of scores. Suppose the main objective is to determine whether there is a greater preference for
Moringa* oil compared to the other oils. But one could question whether an overall evaluation across
all women in all villages is appropriate when there is a clear structure in the data. This structure
raises additional questions, e.g.
If preferences differ according to whether the woman earns or not, do such differences differ
across the wealth categories?
There may be many other pieces of information available concerning the women participating in this
study, e.g. size of household to which they belong. Is it possible to disentangle confounding factors
such as village and household size?
The answer is yes and a powerful statistical procedure for this purpose is the Analysis of Variance
(anova). This procedure involves statistical modelling of the data and enables questions like the
above to be answered. The procedure allows relevant comparisons to be made, after making due
allowance for possible effects of other confounding factors. (See Box 2 for another example).
Pindani
5
2
Chiwinja
1
4
Lidala
2
3
Maulana
2
1
Total
12
8
The modelling analysis demonstrated that there were no significant gender differences or
differences between villages with respect to farmers views on pest tolerance by the
different varieties. There was however strong evidence (p<0.001) to indicate that two
varieties, A and C, were regarded as being more susceptible than varieties B and D. Figure
2 shows some results. The modelling enables a valid comparison between male and
female farmers, between villages and between varieties, despite the unequal replication of
male and female farmers across the four villages. The modelling also allowed varieties to
be compared free from possible effects due to gender and village differences, i.e. we
excluded the alternative explanations that these effects might account for, or mess up, the
picture of varietal differences.
Moringa oil comes from pressing the seed of the tree Moringa oleifera to yield a high quality edible oil.
Economists often use regression analysis, which is a special case of a general linear model where the response variate is
quantitative, but the explanatory variables can be quantitative or binary or categorical qualitative variables.
MEAN SCORE
4.0
3.5
3.0
GENDER
2.5
Female
Male
2.0
A
VARIETY
Assumptions associated with the anova technique must also be kept in mind. The method assumes
that (a) the individual evaluations are independent of each other; (b) scores given to each item come
from populations of scores that have a common variance; and (c) that the data follow a normal
distribution. Of these, (c) is the least problematical and can be mitigated if there are a sufficient
number of respondents or respondent groups involved. See Wilson (2000) for some guidance on
sample sizes.
Assumptions (b) and (c) can be checked via what statisticians refer to as a residual analysis. Data
collection procedures should ensure that assumption (a) is met. For example, restricted scoring,
where respondents are asked to distribute a fixed number of seeds among the items being scored, do
not lead to independent observations. Responses can be regarded as being independent if ranks or
scores given by one person do not directly influence the responses given by another person to the
same item, or by the same person to a different item. This can be ensured during data collection, e.g.
by interviewing respondents individually rather than collectively. Where it is more meaningful to
collect the information in group discussions, many repeats of the process will provide the required
replication.
If anova assumptions hold, then further analysis is possible, e.g. it would be possible to ascertain
whether the oil receiving the highest mean score had a significantly higher preference than the oil
receiving the next highest mean score.
The general technique used here is quite powerful and is based on an underlying general theory that
can be applied even if some data are missing or if the number of items being evaluated differ across
respondents. Appropriate statistics software (e.g. SPSS, Genstat, Minitab) is available to deal with
the underlying data structures and other complexities.
More advanced methods of analysis do exist when large numbers of respondents are involved. For
example, the frequency of farmers giving different ranks, or allocating scores, to each of a number of
maize varieties, can be modelled using a proportional odds models (Agresti, 1996). The interpretation
of results is then based on the odds of respondents preferring one item compared to another item.
Some further advanced methods are described in SSC (2001).
7.3
There is often a belief that non-parametric methods, i.e. methods which do not make distributional
assumptions about the data, are appropriate for analysing qualitative data such as ranks. To illustrate
the issues involved, we consider again the type of data shown in Table 1, assuming such data are
available for a larger number of respondents or focus groups within the community targeted for
research results. Firstly, a simple summary is useful. For example, in a study in India, aimed at
investigating the potential for integrating aquaculture into small-scale irrigation systems managed by
resource-poor farmers, 46 farmers were asked to rank four different uses of water bodies according to
their importance (Felsing et al 2000). The data summary shown in Table 3 clearly indicates irrigation
as the primary use of water bodies. Thirty-four farmers (74%) rank this as the most important use of
water.
Table 3. Number of farmers giving particular ranks to different uses of water bodies
Rank
1
2
3
4
N
Rj
Irrigation
34
8
1
3
46
65
Livestock
Household Clothes
consumption use
washing
6
5
1
16
14
8
16
14
15
8
13
22
46
46
46
118
127
150
The research was however intended for the larger community from which the representative sample
of 46 farmers was chosen. An inferential procedure is then needed to determine whether the results
of Table 3 are equally applicable to the wider population of farmers in the community. The Friedmans
test (Conover, 1999) may be used to demonstrate that farmers water uses differ significantly. The
test demonstrated that the water uses ranked are not all perceived to be of equal importance. Further
tests showed evidence that irrigation was indeed considered more important than other uses, and that
there was insufficient evidence to distinguish the remaining three uses in terms of importance.
If ties occur in the data, an adjustment to the Friedmans test statistic is available. However, three
other associated problems need consideration. The first is that the test is based on an approximation
to the chi-squared distribution. If n is the number of farmers and k is the number of items being
ranked, then nk must be reasonably large, say 30, for the approximation to be reasonable.
Secondly, the test makes no allowance for missing data. If missing data do occur, because (say) the
number of items ranked varies from farmer to farmer, then ranks need to be converted to scores in
some fashion (Abeyasekera et al, 2000) and then analysed using procedures described in the
previous section. Thirdly, the test cannot take into account the full data structure.
Friedmans test, as well as other alternatives (e.g. Anderson, 1959; Taplin, 1997), are examples of
non-parametric methods. Many textbooks are devoted to non-parametric procedures but many of
the methods apply to measurement data that are converted to ranks before analysis on the grounds
that standard methods do not apply due to failure of assumptions such as normality. Their relevance
is restricted to situations where testing a hypothesis is of primary concern, and this may not always be
the case with many PRA studies. The tests are also less powerful because they do not make full use
of the original data. This means that differences between items being compared have to be quite
substantial for statistical significance. Although many non-parametric tests exist, their use in
analysing data from PRA studies is quite limited.
8.
Many other procedures are available for dealing with qualitative information that can be coded either
as binary variables, i.e. Yes/No, presence/absence type data, or as categorical variables, e.g. high,
medium or low access to regional facilities, decreasing/static/increasing dependence on forest
10
resources. If factors affecting qualitative features of the binary sort are to be explored, logistic
regression modelling can be used. An illustration can be found in Martin and Sherington (1997).
If a categorical variable is of primary interest, e.g. in exploring factors influencing the impact of
programmes introduced to improve health facilities in a region, using data in the form of peoples
perceptions of changes in their well-being (better, same, worse), then methods such as log-linear
modelling or proportional odds modelling come into play. These are advanced statistical techniques
and if they are relevant, some assistance from a statistician with knowledge of these techniques is
advisable.
The advantage of using modelling procedures is that it enables the inter-relationships between a wide
range of other factors to be taken into account simultaneously. All too often, researchers tend to look
at one factor at a time, e.g. when interested in factors affecting successful co-management of forest
resources. The one-factor-at-a-time approach may involve using a series of separate chi-square
tests. The disadvantage in doing so is that the interactions between these factors is then ignored
whereas modelling pays attention to possible interactions.
Once the results of these modelling procedures are available, the purely qualitative features of the
data become important because they give breadth and depth to the formal research findings and
provide the means to explain any special features that emerge. Typically, what happens is that the
modelling procedure is followed by an analysis of residuals, i.e. the residual component associated
with each data point after the variation in the main response variable has been adjusted for all other
known factors. Some residuals may emerge as outliers. A return to the narratives is then essential
for explaining and discussing these extreme cases. Identifying such cases is thus greatly facilitated
by an initial quantitative treatment of the information gathered.
9.
Final remarks
It is important to recognise that proceeding beyond straightforward data summaries and graphical
presentations to formal statistical procedures and tests of significance has little value in helping
research conclusions if sampling issues have not been appropriately addressed in the sample
selection. One issue is whether the sample size gives an adequate representation of the communities
being targeted for study. Here the sample size refers to the number of independent assessments
obtained, either by interviewing respondents individually or by having separate discussions with a
number of respondent groups. How large a sample is needed will depend on the specific objectives
of the study.
In situations where the sample size is adequate and the sample has been appropriately chosen to
represent the target population of interest, the application of statistical methods will provide greater
validity to research conclusions. This paper provides guidance about some statistical analysis
approaches for use in dealing with qualitative data, with emphasis on data in the form of ranks or
scores. However many other approaches exist and some were briefly mentioned in section 8. In
general, the exact approach for a particular study will be closely associated with the study objectives
and other data collection activities (e.g. those related to on-farm trials). Drawing on the experiences
of a survey statistician to identify the most appropriate analysis approach is likely to be beneficial.
References
Abeyasekera, S., Lawson-McDowall, J., and Wilson, I.M. (2000). Converting ranks to scores for an
ad-hoc procedure to identify methods of communication available to farmers. Case-Study paper for
DFID project on Integrating qualitative and quantitative approaches in socio-economic survey work.
Available at www.reading.ac.uk/ssc/
Abeyasekera, S. and Lawson-McDowall, J. (2000). Computerising and analysing qualitative
information from a study concerning activity diaries. Case-Study paper for DFID project on
Integrating qualitative and quantitative approaches in socio-economic survey work. Available at
www.reading.ac.uk/ssc/
11
12
From the above diagram, you get the knowledge of Generations. Lets know about different terms in
blood relations that will provide you easy platform while solving the questions in competitive exams.
=Grand Father
= Grand Mother
Wife of Grandfather
= Grand Mother
= Grand Father
= Grand Father
= Grand Mother
= Father
= Mother
Husband of Mother
= Father
Wife of Father
= Mother
= Step Mother
= Uncle
= Aunt
Husband of Aunt
= Uncle
Wife of Uncle
= Aunt
=Father/Uncle
= Mother / Aunt
Father of Wife/Husband
= Father in Law
Mother of Wife/Husband
= Mother in Law
= Siblings
= Oneself
= Brother
= Sister
= Step Brother
= Step Sister
= Cousin
= Brother in Law
= Sister in Law
= Brother In Law
Son of Father
= Oneself / Brother
= Oneself/ Wife
= Oneself/Husband
= Cousin/Oneself/Brother
= Nephew
= Niece
Grandson of Father/Mother
= Son / Nephew
= Daughter / Niece
Husband of Daughter
= Son in Law
= Sister in - Law
Wife of Son
= Daughter in Law
Son of Son/Daughter
= Grandson
Daughter of Son/Daughter
Grand Daughter
Some Basic Important blood relationships are shown below through diagram.
Solution
(Option D)
Joseph has three children, One is X, second is Victor and Third is Rosy. It is not clear X
is male or female. Rosy is the mother of Lucy so Joseph is the grandfather of Lucy that
is clearly shown in the above diagram.
Q2. Mohan is the Son of Arun's Father's sister. Prakash is the son of Reva, who is the mother of Vikas
and Grandmother of Arun. Pranab is the father of Neela and the grandfather of Mohan. Reva is the wife
of Pranab. How is the wife of Vikas related to the neela?
a) Sister
b) Sister - In - Law
c) Niece
d) None of The Above
Solution
(Option B)
As the diagram shows that Vikas is Neela's brother so wife of Vikas will be Neela's
Sister - in - Law.
Q3. T, S and R are three brothers. T's son Q is married to K and they have one child Rahul blessed to
them. M the son of S is married to H and this couple is blessed with a daughter Madhvi. R has a
daughter N who is married to P. This couple has one daughter Karuna born to them. How is Madhvi
related to S?
a) Daughter
b) Niece
c) Grand Daughter
d) None of The Above
Solution
(Option C)
Q4. Arti and Saurabh are the children of Mr and Mrs Shah. Ritu and Shakti are the children of Mr and
Mrs. Mehra. Saurabh and Ritu are married to each other and two daughter Mukti and Shruti are born to
them. Shakti is married to Rina and two children Subhash and Reshma are born to them. How is Arti
related to Shruti?
a) Mother
b) Mother - in - Law
c) Sister
d) Aunt
Solution
(Option D)
Arti is Aunt of Shruti. It can be seen clearly from the above diagram.
Q5. In a family, there are seven persons, comprising two married couples. T is the son of M and the
grandson of K. M is a widower. M and R are brothers and W is the daughter - in - Law of J, who is the
mother of R and the grandmother of D. How is D related to M?
a) Son
b) Son - in - Law
c) Nephew or Niece
d) Brother
Solution
(Option C)
Page 3 of 18
Multiplying by 11 shortcut
This technique teaches you how to multiply any number by eleven, easily and quickly.
We will take a few examples and from these you will see the pattern used and also how
easy they are to do.
So, to begin lets try 12 time 11.
First things first you will ignore the 11 for the moment and concentrate on the 12.
Split the twelve apart, like so:
1+2 = 3
Place the answer, 3 in between the 12 to give 132
11 X 12 = 132
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Lets try another:
48 X 11
again, leave the 11 alone for a moment and work with the 48
4 + 8 = 12
So now we have to put the 12 in between the 4 and 8 but dont do this:
4128 as that is wrong...
First, do this: Place the 2 from the twelve in between the 4 and 8 giving 428.
Now we need to input the 1 from the twelve into our answer also, and to do this just add
the one from 12 to the 4 of 428 giving 528!
Ok, one more
74 X 11
7+4 = 11
7 (put the 1 from the right of 11 in) and 4
then add the 1 from the left of 11 to the 7
74 X 11 = 814
This is a really simple method and will save you so much time with your 11 times tables.
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Is it divisible by four?
This little math trick will show you whether a number is divisible by four or not.
So, this is how it works.
Let's look at 1234
Does 4 divide evenly into 1234?
For 4 to divide into any number we have to make sure that the last number is even.
If it is an odd number, there is no way it will go in evenly.
So, for example, 4 will not go evenly into 1233 or 1235
now we know that for 4 to divide evenly into any number the number has to end with an
even number.
Back to the question...
4 into 1234, the solution:
Take the last number and add it to 2 times the second last number. If 4 goes evenly
into this number then you know that 4 will go evenly into the whole number.
So
4 + (2 X 3) = 10
4 goes into 10 two times with a remainder of 2 so it does not go in evenly.
Therefore 4 into 1234 does not go in completely.
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Let's try one more.
4 into 212334436
6 + (2 X 3) = 12
4 goes into 12 three times with 0 remainder.
Therefore 4 goes into 234436 evenly.
So what use is this trick to you?
Well if you have learnt the tutorial at Memorymentor.com about telling the day in any
year, then you can use it in working out whether the year you are calculating is a leap
year or not.
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Multiplying by 12 shortcut
So how does the 12's shortcut work?
Let's take a look.
12 X 7
the first thing is to always multiply the 1 of the twelve by the number we are multiplying
by, in this case 7. So 1 X 7 = 7.
Multiply this 7 by 10 giving 70. (Why? We are working with BASES here. Bases are the
fundamentals to easy calculations for all multiplication tables. To find out more check out
our Vedic Maths ebook at http://www.memorymentor.com/big_brain.htm)
Now multiply the 7 by the 2 of twelve giving 14. Add this to 70 giving 84.
Therefore 7 X 12 = 84
Let's try another:
17 X 12
Remember, multiply the 17 by the 1 in 12 and multiply by 10
(Just add a zero to the end):
1 X 17 = 17, multiplied by 10 giving 170.
Multiply 17 by 2 giving 34.
Add 34 to 170 giving 204.
So 17 X 12 = 204
lets go one more
24 X 12
Multiply 24 X 1 = 24. Multiply by 10 giving 240.
Multiply 24 by 2 = 48. Add to 240 giving us 288
24 X 12 = 288 (these are Seriously Simple Sums to do arent they?!)
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Lets try:
50 Kilos to pounds:
Step one, multiply the kilos by TWO.
To do this, just double the kilos.
50 x 2 = 100
Step two, divide the answer by ten.
To do this, just put a decimal point one place in from the right.
100 / 10 = 10
Step three, add step twos answer to step ones answer.
100 + 10 = 110
50 Kilos = 110 pounds
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Adding Time
Here is a nice simple way to add hours and minutes together:
Let's add 1 hr and 35 minutes and 3 hr 55 minutes together.
What you do is this:
make the 1 hr 35 minutes into one number, which will give us 135 and do the same for
the other number, 3 hours 55 minutes, giving us 355
135
355
____
490
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Page 11 of 18
Temperature Conversions
This is a shortcut to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius and vice versa.
The answer you will get will not be an exact one, but it will give you an idea of the
temperature you are looking at.
Fahrenheit to Celsius:
Take 30 away from the Fahrenheit, and then divide the answer by two. This is your
answer in Celsius.
Example:
74 Fahrenheit - 30 = 44. Then divide by two, 22 Celsius.
So 74 Fahrenheit = 22 Celsius.
Celsius to Fahrenheit just do the reverse:
Double it, and then add 30.
30 Celsius double it, is 60, then add 30 is 90
30 Celsius = 90 Fahrenheit
Remember, the answer is not exact but it gives you a rough idea.
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5 Squared Shortcut
Here is a really quick way to square any number with a 5 on the end.
Lets take
This works for any number ending in but when the numbers get over 100 it tends to get
a little trickier with the multiplication.
Give it a try with another number.
Try
, it isn't difficult.
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Split the numbers apart:
8 and
Again, forget about the
Add 1 to 8
8+1=9
Multiply 9 by the first number, which was 8
9 X 8 =72
Now, put all the numbers together, 72 and
= 25
So the answer is 7225
Try it out in a calculator once you have done it.
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1/8 = .125
2/8 = 1/4 = .25
3/8 = .375
4/8 = 1/2 = .5
5/8 = .625
6/8 = 3/4 = .75
7/8 = .875
9ths are almost too easy:
1/9 = .111...
2/9 = .222...
3/9 = .333...
4/9 = .444...
5/9 = .555...
6/9 = .666...
7/9 = .777...
8/9 = .888...
10ths are very easy, as well. Just put a decimal in front of the numerator:
1/10 = .1
2/10 = .2
3/10 = .3
4/10 = .4
5/10 = .5
6/10 = .6
7/10 = .7
8/10 = .8
9/10 = .9
Remember how easy 9ths were? 11th are easy in a similar way, assuming you know your
multiples of 9:
1/11 = .090909...
2/11 = .181818...
3/11 = .272727...
4/11 = .363636...
5/11 = .454545...
6/11 = .545454...
7/11 = .636363...
8/11 = .727272...
9/11 = .818181...
10/11 = .909090...
As long as you can remember the pattern for each fraction, it is quite simple to work out
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Maths Tips and Tricks to Improve Your Math Abilities
Page 16 of 18
the decimal place as far as you want or need to go!
Oh, I almost forgot! We haven't done 7ths yet, have we?
One-seventh is an interesting number:
1/7 = .142857142857142857...
For now, just think of one-seventh as: .142857
See if you notice any pattern in the 7ths:
1/7 = .142857...
2/7 = .285714...
3/7 = .428571...
4/7 = .571428...
5/7 = .714285...
6/7 = .857142...
Notice that the 6 digits in the 7ths ALWAYS stay in the same order and the starting digit
is the only thing that changes!
If you know your multiples of 14 up to 6, it isn't difficult to work out where to begin the
decimal number. Look at this:
For 1/7, think "1 * 14", giving us .14 as the starting point.
For 2/7, think "2 * 14", giving us .28 as the starting point.
For 3/7, think "3 * 14", giving us .42 as the starting point.
For 4/14, 5/14 and 6/14, you'll have to adjust upward by 1:
For 4/7, think "(4 * 14) + 1", giving us .57 as the starting point.
For 5/7, think "(5 * 14) + 1", giving us .71 as the starting point.
For 6/7, think "(6 * 14) + 1", giving us .85 as the starting point.
Practice these, and you'll have the decimal equivalents of everything from 1/2 to 10/11 at
your finger tips!
If you want to demonstrate this skill to other people, and you know your multiplication
tables up to the hundreds for each number 1-9, then give them a calculator and ask for a
2-digit number (3-digit number, if you're up to it!) to be divided by a 1-digit number.
If they give you 96 divided by 7, for example, you can think, "Hmm... the closest
multiple of 7 is 91, which is 13 * 7, with 5 left over. So the answer is 13 and 5/7, or:
13.7142857!"
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Maths Tips and Tricks to Improve Your Math Abilities
Page 17 of 18
Another example
40 kilometres
40 / 8 = 5
5 X 5= 25 miles
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Maths Tips and Tricks to Improve Your Math Abilities
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Classification
Description
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Divisibility Test
Division& Remainder Rules
Sum Rules
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Number System
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Simplification Techniques
Natural
Numbers:
Whole
Numbers:
Integers:
Prime
Numbers:
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Composite
Numbers:
Co-Prime:
Divisibility
Numbers
IF A Number
Divisible
by 2
End with
0,2,4,6,8 are
divisible by 2
Examples
254,326,3546,4718 all are divisible by 2
Divisible
by 3
Divisible
by 4
Divisible
by 5
Ends with 0 or 5
225 or 330 here last digit digit is 0 or 5 that mean both the
numbers are divisible by 5.
Divisible
by 6
Divides by Both
2&3
Divisible
by 8
Last 3 digit
divide by 8
Divisible
by 10
End with 0
Divisible
by 11
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Example:
On dividing a certain number by 342, we get 47 as remainder. If the same number is
divided by 18, what will be the remainder ?
Number = 342k + 47
( 18 19k ) + ( 18 2 ) + 11
18 ( 19k + 2 ) +11.
Remainder = 11
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Sum Rules
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Simplification Techniques
Multiply by 9,99,999,etc...
56*99=5544
Step 1:Place a zero at the end for each 9 :5600
Step 2 : Subtract the original number from Step 1 like this 5600-56=5544
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Multiply by 125
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68*125=8500
Step 1 :Place three zeros at the end of the number :68000
Step 2: Divide the number from Step 1 by 8:68000/8=8500
64*125
Step 1. Each time you just need to pick 125 multiply it by 8 will get 1000
Step 2. Pick 64 and divide it by 8 will get 8
Step 3. Multiply the results with each other 8* 1000
Hence Solution is 8000
[Hint: Just remember 125*8=1000]
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14*18=252
Step 1: Add the larger number to the right most digit of the other number:18+4=22
Step 2: Put a 0 at the end of the result from step 1:220
Step 3 :Multiply the right most digits of both original numbers : 8*4=32
Step 4:Add Step 2 and step 3 :220+32=252
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53*11=583
Step 1: Add the both digts of the two digit number:5+3=8
Step 2: Place the result in between both digits : 583
59*11=649
Step 1: 5+9=14
Step 2 : Carry the 1 when the result is greater than 9:5+1=6
Step 3: 649
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Multiply by 5
1234 *5 =6170
Step 1 : Divide the number by 2 :1234/2=617
Step 2: Multiply the result from Step 1 by 10 : 617*10=6170
Multiply by 25
18*25=450
Step 1: Divide the number by 4:18/4
Step 2: Multiply the number from Step 1 by 100: 4.5 * 100 = 450
Multiply by 9
56*9=504
Step 1: Multiply the number by 10: 56*10=560
Step 2: Subtract the original number from Step 1: 560-56=504
Factorization
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By Factoring number,you can break down problems into simpler multiplication tasks.Also,you
may be able to apply some techniques you learned.
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28*125=3500
Step 1: 28*125
Step 2: 28*25*5
Step 3:28*(100/4)*5
Step 4:28/4*100*5
Step 5:7*500=3500
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67*81
Step 1: 67*9*9
Step 2:603*9=5427
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21*33
step 1 : 21*11*3
Step 2: 231*3
Step 3 :693
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The other way to solve: You can divide the 16 by 5 and get the remainder as 1. So now
answer would be the 1st term that is P.
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Why we have divided by 5 because the terms in the series are repeated after a cycle of 5.
Let us take another question.
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Find out the 25th term of the above series. Following the same procedure you get
25/ 5 gives you the remainder zero (0)
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Simplification Techniques
25th term is T.
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In such case, your answer should be the last term of the cycle and the last term of the cycle is
T
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Now let us observe the pattern in the cycle of different digit in other words after how
many cycles the last digit repeats itself.
6
21=2
31=3
41=4
51=5
61=6
81=8
91=9
22=4
32=9
42=6
52=5
62=6
72=9
82=4
92=1
23=8
33=7
43=4
53=5
63=6
73=3
83=2
93=9
24=6
34=1
44=6
54=5
64=6
74=1
84=6
94=1
25=2
35=3
45=4
55=5
65=6
75=7
85=8
95=9
26=4
36=9
46=6
56=5
66=6
76=9
86=4
96=1
27=8
37=7
47=4
57=5
67=6
77=3
87=8
97=9
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71=7
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in case of 4
If the power is odd, the unit digit is 4 and if the power is even, the unit digit is 6
And same is the case with 9
If the power is odd, the unit digit is 9 and if the power is even, the unit digit is 1
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Find out the unit digit in 439 978 ? In 439 the unit digit is 4 (the power is odd)
In 978 the unit digit is 1 ( the power is even )
The answer is 4 1 = 4
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Multiply by 11,111,1111....so on
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111111111 111111111 = ?
Sol:
No of digits in multiplier = 9
Write in ascending order from left side like this:
987654321
and now 9-1=8
write it in descending order just after it
12345678
now you will get like this:
12345678987654321
hence
111111111111111111 = 12345678987654321
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1111111111 1111111111 = ?
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Sol:
No of digits in multiplier =10
Write in ascending order from left side like this:
10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
and now 10-1=9
write it in descending order just after it
123456789
and after it just add the carry
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8/ 9/ 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
8+1/ 9+1 / 0
1234567900987654321
now you will get like this:
1234567900987654321
hence
11111111111111111111 = 1234567900987654321
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11111112222222 = ?
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Sol:
No of digit in the multiplier is 7 then let n=7;
Now Just multiply the digit 2 from 1 to 7 time & arrange them from extreme left to right in
ascending order,you will get like this:
14 12 10 8 6 4 2
and now just subtract one from n.like this n=7,so n-1=6.
Multiply the digit 2 from 1 to 6 time & arrange them from just right after it,you will get like
this:
2 4 6 8 10 12
Now placing both outcome like this & add the carry
2 4 6 8 10 12 14 12 10 8 6 4 2
8+1/0+1/2+1/4+1/2+1
You will get the answer:
2469135308642
11111115555555 = ?
Sol:
No of digit = 7
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Now Just multiply the digit 5 from 1 to 7 time & arrange them from extreme left to right in
ascending order,you will get like this:
35 30 25 20 15 10 5
Just right after it perform same action but in descending order & till 6 times only.like this:
5 10 15 20 25 30
Now placing together ,just add the carry
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 30 25 20 15 10 5
6172838271605
11111115555555=6172838271605
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3 Step Multiplication Trick - A shortcut method
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In the series of providing quantitative shortcuts and tricks, today I come up with multiplication trick.
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Simplification Techniques
While doing multiplication of a two digit number with another two digit number, we take at least 6
steps. Try yourself. Multiply 62 with 32.
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STEP 1
STEP 2
This is an interesting step. Now multiply last digit first value and first digit of second value and viceversa. Then we add outcomes. But we need the last number that is 8 here.
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STEP 3
This is the last step, in this step we do multiplication ten's digit of both value and add the remainder
from previous calculation. That's it, we completed the calculation in 3 steps instead of six steps.
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We can use this method for multiplication of three or even four digit numbers but time management is
really important in IBPS exam and other recruitment exams so for longer calculations, estimation is
the best trick. I will post an article about how to do long calculations using estimation and result is
95% accurate which is enough to arrive at answer.
Update 06-09-2013
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Simplification Techniques
As two of the readers namely Rahul and Ansh have requested me to use this technique in longer
calculations multiplications. I am updating this article.
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MULTIPLICATION OF 3 DIGIT NUMBERS
In this example I will multiply 432 with 346. Now the 3 step multiplication method will become 5
step. This method can be used for 4 and even 5 digit numbers but as in bank exams there is lack of
time available for calculations I recommend you to use approximation for long calculations.
Step 1
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Step 2
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Step 3
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Step 4
Step 5
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In case you find any difficulty to understand the above multiplication method then ask your question
in the comments. I will try to answer every query asap.
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# Series/Addition/Subtraction
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Q3. ( 2.3 + 3.3 ) [ ( 2.3)2 - 2.33.3 + (3.3)2 ] = ?
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Page 19
Solution:
(1)
Sol : Option (c)
8*(12345) - 88 = 98672
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(5)
Sol: Option (b)
(a+b)2 + (a-b)2=2((a)2+(b)2) Hence Answer is 2
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(4)
Sol: option (b)
(a5-b5)=(a-b) [a4+a3b+a2b2+ab3+b4] = ?
a = 3, b = 2; (3)5=243, (2)5 =32;
(a5-b5) = 243-32= 211
(3)
Sol: Option (a)
(a3 + b3)=(a+b) (a2-ab+b2)
a = 2.3, b = 3.3;
(a)3 = 12.167, (b)3 = 35.937 (a3+b3)=48.104
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(2)
Sol: Option (b)
9(1234) = 11106
4(4321) = 17284
=1.7284
=11106+1.7284=11107.7284
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(6)
Sol: Option (a)
1+0.33+0.0370 ... hence (a) is the answer no further addition is required.
(7)
Sol: option (e)
Using VODMAS method
Step 1. [ 2+ 2/4 ] = 5/2.
Step 2.( 2 + 2 5/2) = 2 22/5 =14/5
Step 3. [2+214/5]=2+2*5/14=19/7
Step 4. L.H.S = 219/7=14/19 = x/19 Hence x=19
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(8)
Sol: Option (c)
= -4 + 0.45 + 2 + <sup>927-9</sup>/<sub>990</sub> +6/9
= -4 + 0.45 + 2 + <sup>918</sup>/990 +3/2
= (- 4 + 2) + (0.45+1.5) + (<sup>51</sup>/55)
= -2 + 1.95 + 0.92 = 0.87
(9)
Sol: Option (d)
sum= 2 + 4 + 6 + ...+74 a=2 , d=(4-2)=2,l=74 n=37; sum= n/2 (a+l) 37/2(2+74)=(3738)
=37(40-2) =(3740)-(372) =(1480-74)=1406
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L.C.M.
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Factorization
Method
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H.C.F. or G.C.M
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On Basis
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Division
Method
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Simplification Techniques
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H.C.F. of Numerator
Denominators
Product of
H.C.F. &
L.C.M.
Decimal
numbers
/ L.C.M. of
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H.C.F. =
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H.C.F. &
L.C.M. of
Fractions
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H.C.F. of given numbers = 69
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Q5. The multiplication of two numbers is 20,000 if their L.C.M is 800. Find the H.C.F.
a)400 b) 25 c) 2,000 d) 800
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Q6. Find the least number which when divided by 4,6,7,8,9,12. leaves the same remainder 3
in each case.
a) 504 b) 501 c) 507 d) 506
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Q7. The smallest number which is divisible by 12,15,20 and is a perfect square is:
a) 400 b) 900 c) 1600 d) 3600
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Q8. The largest number which divided by 77, 147 and 252 to leave the same remainder in
each case is:
a) 9 b) 15 c)35 d) 25
Q9. The H.C.F. of the fraction of 36/25,48/25,72/75
a)12/75 b) 4/25 c) 36/25 d) 36
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(1)
Sol: Option (d)
122,124,1210,126 Find the L.C.M.
L.C.M. = 1210
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Solution:
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(2)
Sol: Option(c)
6-1,6-3,6-10,6-12 Find the H.C.F.
1 1 3 1 10 1 12
/6, /6 , /6 , /6
H.C.F.= H.C.F./L.C.M.= 1/612
= 16-12
(3)
Sol: Option (d)
Fraction of L.C.M. = L.C.M./H.C.F. =140/3
(4)
Sol: Option (c)
The ratio of numbers is 5:6
The number is 59=45
=69=54
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Page 23
(5)
Sol: Option (b)
L.C.M.H.C.F. = Ist No2nd No.
800H.C.F. = 20,000
H.C.F. = 20,000/800 = 25
(6)
Sol: Option (c)
L.C.M. of the number 4,6,7,8,9,12
L.C.M. = 897 = 504
and Remainder = 3
So the number is L.C.M. + 3
504 + 3 = 507
(7)
Sol: Option (b)
L.C.M. = (3522)
Required number = ( 325222)=900
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(8)
Sol: Option (c)
Required number = H.C.F. of (147-77)
(252-147) and (252-77)
= H.C.F. of 70,105 and 175
= 35
( 70 = 257, 105 = 537 and 175=557 )
H.C.F. =57 = 35
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(9)
Sol: Option (a)
= H.C.F. of numerator/ L.C.M. of denominator
H.C.F.= 12/75
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Q10. The numbers 1, 3, 5 ... 25 are multiplied together. The number of zeroes at the right end of
the product is :
a) 22 b) 8 c) 13 d) 6 e) 0
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Q11. When a certain number is multiplied by 21, the product consist oof only fours. The
smallest such number is:
a) 21164 b) 4444 c) 444444 d) 444 e) None of these
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Q12. In a question, divisor is 2/3 of the dividend and twice the remainder. If the remainder is 5,
then the dividend is
a) 85 b) 145 c) 225 d) 65 e) None of these
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Solution
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(1)
Sol : Option (c)
221333 = 468
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(2)
Sol : Option (d)
Divisors excluding n
Sum of divisor
27
391
13
35
571
13
21
371
11
321
(3)
Sol : Option (c)
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(4)
Sol: Option (a)
(5)
Sol:Option (d)
50+75+150+250+350
=875
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(6)
Sol: Option (a)
4273125=233355
89257=2332527
1681511*49=243472511
H.C.F. = 22327 = 180
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(7)
Sol: Option (c)
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(8)
Sol: Option (b)
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(9)
Sol: Option (d)
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(10)
Sol: Option (e)
(11)
Sol: Option (a)
(12)
Sol: Option (e)
last digit is 1, 4, 9, 6, 5
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Non-Perfect Square
last digit is 2, 3, 7, 8
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3252 = 105625
Step 1. 325 = 3_25 => 3
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# Above 100
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Step 3. Place the result from Step 2 next to the result from Step 1 : 10609
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Step 2. Square the ones digit number ( if the result is a single digit put a 0 in front of it):
32 = 09
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# Below 100
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972 = 9409
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Step 2. Subtract the number ( from Step 1) from original number : 97-3 =94
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Step 3. Square the result from Step 1 ( if the result is a single digit put a 0 in front of it) : 32 = 09
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Step 4. Place the result from Step 3 next to the result from Step 2: 9409
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Step 2 . Subtract the result ( from Step 1 ) from 25: 25-2 =23
Step 3 . Square the result from Step 1 ( if the result is a single digit put a 0 in front of it ) : 22 = 04
Step 4 . Place the result from Step 3 next to the result from Step 2 : 2304
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# Above 50
532 = 2809
Step 1. Add 25 to the ones digit: 25 + 3 = 28
Step 2. Square the ones digit number ( if the result is a single digit put a 0 in front of it ) : 32 = 09
Step 3. Place the result from Step 2 next to the result from Step 1 : 2809
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352 = 1225
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Step 1. Multiply the first digit by the first digit plus one: 3 * ( 3 + 1 ) = 12
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Step 2. Write the numbers 25 next to the result from Step 1 : 1225
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Square of Nearest value of 100,200,300...so on
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Square root
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#nth root
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Squaring Technique - Find Square of any number under 10 seconds
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Simplification Techniques
Simple technique to find square of a two digit or three digit number under 10 seconds.
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[a+b] = a + 2ab + b
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Find 43
[43]
[4|3]
[4 | 2 4 3 | 3]
[16 | 24 | 9 ]
1849
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[121 | 88 | 16]
[121| 88 + 1 | 6]
[ 121 | 89 | 6 ]
[129 | 9 | 6 ]
12996
Find 253
[25|3]
[25 | 2 25 3 | 3]
[625 | 150 | 9]
64009
TECHNIQUE
In case of two digit number deduct last digit and add it to another number and then add square of
same.
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In this technique we simplify the squaring method by making one unit's digit zero. It is far easy to
multiply 50*24 than 54*24. So I used this technique. Try practice more to become expert in this
technique.
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# Division Method
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Simplification Techniques
Page 39
Decimal
Fractions
Explanation
Vulgar
Fractions
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Operations
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To compare the set of fractions numbers,first of all you need to convert each
fraction number or value into a equal decimal value and then it will be became
easy for you to assign them ( the numbers or value) in a particular way( ascending
or descending order).
3
/5,4/7,8/9 and 9/11 Arranging in Ascending Order
3
/5= 0.6, 4/7 = 0.571, 8/9 = 0.88, 9/11 = 0.818.
Now, 0.88 > 0.818 > 0.6 > 0.571
8
/9>9/11>3/5>4/7
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Comparison
of Fractions
Recurring Decimal
A decimal number in which after a decimal point a number or set of number are
repeated again and again are called recurring decimal numbers.It can be written in
shorten form by placing a bar or line above the numbers which has repeated.
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Simplification Techniques
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Recurring
Decimal
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# Types
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Proper
Improper
Mixed Fraction
I. Proper Fraction: [when numerator < denominator ]
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# Rules
I. 4 + 3/8 = 4 3/8
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Q1. Arrange the fractions a=3/5 , b=4/7 , c=8/9 and d=9/11 in their descending order.
a) a,b,c,d
b)c,d,a,c
b) a,d,c,a,b
d) c,d,a,b
e) None of these
Q2.[ 0.00625 of 23/5 ], when expressed as a vulgar, fraction, equals:
a)23/80 b) 23/8000 c) 23/800 d) 125/23 e) None of these
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a)5/6 b) 5/9 c) 15/18 d) 3/18 e) None of these
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Q5.4/15 of 5/7 of a number is greater than 4/9 of 2/5 of the same number by 8.What is
half of that number?
a)215 b) 315 c) 305 d) 325 e)None of these
Q6. Find the value of 1/2 x 3 + 1/3 x 4 + 1/4 x 5 + 1/5 x 6 +............+ 1/9 x 10
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Simplification Techniques
Solution
(1)
Sol: Option d
Clearly 3/5=0.6, 4/7 = 0.571 , 8/9 = 0.88, 9/11= 0.818
Now, 0.88 > 0.818 > 0.6 > 0.571
(2)
Sol: Option c
[0.000625 of 23/5]=[625/100000 * 23/5]=23/800
(3)
Sol: Option (a)
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Page 43
(4)
Sol: Option (a)
4A +7/B + 2C +5/D +6E = 47.2506
4A +7/B + 2/C +5/D +6E = 40+7+0.2+0.05+0.0006
Comparing the terms on both sides, we get
4A=40, 7/B =7, 2C = 0.2, 5/D=0.05, 6E=0.0006
or
a=10, B=1, C=0.1, D = 100, E = 0.0001
5A+3B+6C+D+3E
=(5810)+(3*1)+(6*0.1)+100+(3*0.0001)
=50+3+0.6+100+0.0003=153.6003
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(5)
Sol: Option B
Let the number be x. Then,
4
/15 of 5/7 of x - 4/9 of 2/5 of x = 8
4
/21x-8/45x=8
[4/21-8/45]x=8
[60-56/315]x=8
4
/315x=8
x=[8*315/4]=630
1
/2 x = 315
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Simplification Techniques
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(6)
Sol: Option C
Given expression [1/2-1/3]+[1/3-1/4]+[1/4-1/5]+[1/5-1/6]+.....................+[1/9-1/10]
=[1/2-1/10]
=4/10
=2/5
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#1
Find the simple interest, If
1. P = Rs.1000, R = 20% per annum, T = 4 years.
2. P = Rs.600, R = 5% per annum, T = 4 months.
3. P = Rs.200, R = 6% per six months, T = 3 years.
4. P = Rs.500, R = 2% per six months, T = 5/2 years.
5. P = Rs.400, R = 3% per three months, T = 2 months.
6. P = Rs.730, R = 10% per annum, T = 120 days.
7. P = Rs. 3000, R = 61/4 per annum, T = period from 4th Feb to 18th Apr.
# Solution
1. 42010 800
2. 25 = 10
By Ramandeep Singh
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3. 6232 = 72
4. 525=50
5. 42=8
6. 73/3=24
By Ramandeep Singh
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7. 37.50
#2
Find the following:
1. P = Rs. 100, R = 3% per annum, T = 2 year, A= ?
2. P = Rs. 500, R = 6% per annum, T = 4 months, A= ?
3. P = Rs. 400, R = 3.65% per annum, T = 150 days, A= ?
4. A = Rs. 540, S.I = Rs. 108 , R = 5%, T = ?
5. A = Rs. 1,120, R = 5%, T = 22/5 yr, S.I = ?
# Solution:
1. S.I = 6 ; A = S.I + principal ; A = 6 + 100 106
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4. T = 5 yr.
By Ramandeep Singh
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5. 120
#3
1. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to Rs. 720 after 2 years and to
Rs. 1020 after a further period of 5 years. Find the sum and the rate %.
2. Adam borrowed some money at the rate of 6% p.a. for the first two years, at the
rate of 9% p.a. for the next three years, and at the rate of 14% p.a. for the period
beyond five years. If he pays a total interest of Rs. 11,400 at the end of nine years ,
how much money did he borrow ?(Bank P.O 1999)
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3. A person borrows Rs. 5000 for 2 years at 4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately
lends it to another person at 61/4% p.a. for 2 years. Find his gain in the transaction
per year.(S.S.C.2000)
4. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 1008 in 2 years and to Rs. 1164 in 31/2
years.Find the sum and the rate of interest?
5. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 21/2 years at 12% per annum is
Rs. 40 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 31/2 years at 10%
per annum. Find the sum.
# Solution
1. Principal = 600, R = 10%
2. 12000
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3. 112.50
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7x
# COMPOUND INTEREST
By Ramandeep Singh
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# Formulas
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# Examples
#1
If the compound interest on a certain sum for two years at 10% p.a. is Rs 2,100
the simple interest on it at the same rate for two years will be. ( RRB, 2009)
The compound interest on a sum for 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on
the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800. The difference between the
compound and simple interest for 3 years will be.
The difference between simple interest and compound interest on a sum for 2
years at 8% when the interest is compounded annually is Rs. 16, if the interest
were compounded half yearly, the difference in one interest would be nearly.
The difference in C.I and S.I for 2 years on a sum of money is Rs. 160.If the S.I for
2 years be Rs. 2880, the rate of percent is .
# Solution
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1. 2000
2. 98.56
3. 04
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4.
By Ramandeep Singh
Page 12
#2
If a train of length "L" at a speed "v "passes another object of length " i" at a speed x in time "t", then
t = time to cross the object = Total Distance / Relative Speed = L + i / v - x
If object is stationary, then x = 0
If object is opposite, then put x = -x
and v - x making after is (v + x)
A train is said to have crossed an object (stationary or moving) only when the last coach (end) of the
train crosses the said object completely. It implies that the total length of the train has crossed the total
length of the object.
Hence, the distance covered by the train = length of train + length of object
Basic Formula
1. Time = Distance / Speed
2. Time to cross an object moving in the direction of train =
Important Note
1. If the object is of negligible length, then put length of object, L = 0 (i.e. tree, man)
2. If the object is stationary, then put speed of object, V = 0
3. If the object is moving in opposite direction, then put (-) ve sign before V, so the denominator of
the formula becomes
If the object is moving to opposite direction, then denominator becomes speed of (train
+ object)
APPLICATIONS ON TRAINS.
1.
How long will a train 130m long travelling at 40 km an hour take to pass a
2.
How long will a train 60 m long travelling at 40 km an
whose platform is 90 m long?
kilometer stone?
4.
Find the length of a bridge which a train 130 m long, travelling at 45 km an hour, can cross in 30
secs.
5.
The length of the train that takes 8 seconds to pass a pole when it turns at a
km/hr is __________________ metres.
speed of 36
6.
A train 50 metres long passes a platform 100 metres long I 10 seconds. The speed of the train is
_____________ km/hr.
7.
How many seconds will a train 60 m in length, travelling at the rate of 42
km an hour, take to
pass another train 84 m long, proceeding in the same direction at the rate of 30 km an hour?
9.
Two trains running at the rates 45 and 36 km an hour respectively, on
parallel rails in
opposite directions, are observed to pass each other in 8
seconds, and when they are running
in the same direction at the same rate
as before, a person sitting in the faster train observes that
he passes the
other in 30 seconds. Find the lengths of the trains.
10.
Two trains measuring 100 m and 80 m respectively, run on parallel lines of
rails. When
travelling in opposite directions they are observed to pass each
other in 9 seconds, but when
they are running in the same direction at the
rates as before, the faster train passes the other in
18 seconds. Find the
speed of the two trains in km per hour.
Number
A number is a symbolic representation of each unit set in a particular priority
Percentage
Till now we have known about number ,ratio and the fraction and now we are comes to the part of
percentage.
Percentage word which is a combination of a word " per cent " that means for every
hundred.
The number, which is in a fraction form whose denominator is "100" is called as a
percentage and the numerator of the same number is called as a rate per cent .
Examples :
1. A student get 50% marks in an examination if he obtained 250,then the total
marks is ?
Sol:
This implies that 50 ' for every hundred '.then total marks is equals to 250/50 100 = 500
it means 50 marks for every 100.then total marks is equals to 500 and to get that while solving
percentage ,it will be easy for you some time to use fraction like 250/12 = 500.
2. A student get 33.33% marks in an examination if the total marks is 999, then find
his marks ?
Sol:
1/3999 = 333.
4. a) A seller get 12% profit on a product. ) A seller get 12% profit on a product
which is cost Rs. 225 to him/her.
Sol:
(a)
A seller get 12% profit implies for every 100% or 3/25 on/for every 100.
(b)
Now If a seller get 12% profit on Rs. 225 that means he get Rs. = 12/100225 or 3/25225
5.(a) Find 13.33% of 300 ? (b) What percent is equivalent to 1/7 or express 1/7 as
rate per cent ?
Sol:
(a) 1/3300 = 4000 (b) 1/7100 = 142/7%
6. The income of a person has gone decrease from 1000 to 950.The percent value
of income that has gone decreased is ?
Sol:
decrease in income = 1000 - 950 = 50
Percentage Decrease = 50/1000100 = 5%
7. In a election between two candidates ( Ram and Sham ), the one candidate
(Ram) who gets 40% votes is rejected by a majority of 360 votes.Find the total no.
of votes polled ?
Sol:
10. Due to fall in manpower, the production decreased by 25%. By what per cent
100 = 6
6
100/
x=
100
x = 6%
12. The population of the town is 13,800 which was increased by 15% then find the
population of the men . If the ratio of the men and women were 2:1?
Sol:
13,800/115 100 = 12,000
2/312,000 = 8,000
16. If the population of a town is increased by 15% in the first year and is decrease
by 15% in the next year, what effect can be seen in the population of that town ?
Sol:
Quicker Method:
decrease % = x2/100 = 1%
decrease% = (15)2/100 = 225/100 = 2.25
17. A shopkeeper marks the price of his goods 12% higher than its original price.
After that , he allows a discount of 12%. What is his percentage profit or loss ?
Sol:
Quicker Method :
(12)2/100 = 144/100 = 1.44
20. A candidate who gets 30% of the marks in a test fails by 50 marks. Another
candidate who get 320 marks fails by 30 marks. Find the maximum marks ?
Sol:
320 + 30 = x + 50
x = 300
300/30100
x = 1000
21. A candidate scores 25% and fails by 30 marks, while another candidate who
scores 50% marks, gets 20 marks more than the minimum required marks to pass
the examination. Find the maximum marks for the examination?
Sol:
25% + 30 = passing marks
50%-20 = passing marks
25x + 30 = 50x - 20
x=2
100x = 1002 = 200
==>> Read Quantitative Aptitude Shortcuts
Short Cut Mathematics in Hindi & English Medium for HTET Banking, SSC, NDA, TET, CAT, MBA, Sanik
School Entrance Test, NTSE, NIFT, IIFT and other competitive exams- Free downloaded from www.rsnotes.in
izfrkrrk Percentage
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4 100 = 25 %
50
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20
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SHORT CUT: ;fn A dh vk; B dh vk; ls x% vf/kd gks] rks B dh vk; A ls ftrus % de gS
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=
25
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x
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25
100+25
100 %
100 %
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Short Cut Mathematics in Hindi & English Medium for HTET Banking, SSC, NDA, TET, CAT, MBA, Sanik
School Entrance Test, NTSE, NIFT, IIFT and other competitive exams- Free downloaded from www.rsnotes.in
SHORT CUT: ;fn A dh vk; B dh vk; ls x% de gks] rks B dh vk; A ls ftrus % vf/kd gS
mnkgj.k% ;fn A dh vk; B dh vk; ls 50% de gks] rks B dh vk; A ls ftrus % vf/kd gS
=
50
50
x
100x
50
10050
100 %
100 %
SHORT CUT: fdlh oLrq ds ewY; es x% c<ksrjh gks tkus ij ml oLrq dh [kir esa ftrus % dh deh djuh pkfg, ftlls ?kj ds [kpZ es o`f) u gks
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mnkgj.k% phuh ds ewY; es 20 % c<ksrjh gks tkus ij phuh dh [kir esa fdrus % dh deh djuh pkfg, ftlls ?kj ds [kpZ es o`f) u gks
gy % okafNr izfrkr
20
100+20
100 % =
20
120
2
3
100 = 16 %
SHORT CUT: fdlh oLrq ds ewY; es x% deh gks tkus ij ml oLrq dh [kir esa ftrus % dh of) djuh pkfg, ftlls ?kj ds [kpZ es deh u gks
x
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100 %
mnkgj.k% phuh ds ewY; es 20 % deh gks tkus ij phuh dh [kir esa fdrus % dh of) djuh pkfg, ftlls ?kj ds [kpZ es deh u gks
gy % okafNr izfrkr
20
10020
100 % =
20
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SHORT CUT: fdlh oLrq dk ewY; igys x% c<k;k tkrk gS mlds ckn y% c<k;k tkrk gS rks] ml oLrq ds ewY; esa dqy ftrus izfrkr o`f) gksxh
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mnkgj.k% Mhty dk ewY; igys 10 % c<k;k tkrk gS mlds ckn 30% c<k;k tkrk gS rks] Mhty ds ewY; esa dqy ftrus izfrkr o`f) gksxh
10 + 30 +
1030
100
% = 43%
mnkgj.k% ;fn dEI;wVj ds ewY; esa igys 10% dh deh vk tkrh gS mlds ckn fQj 30% dh deh vk tkrh gS rks] dqy deh Kkr djsaA
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10 (30)
100
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uksV% 1- deh ds fy, mi;qDZ r lw= esa x dh txg x rFk y dh txg y fy;k x;k gSA
SHORT CUT: dzekxr NwV okys lokyksa dks Hkh blh lw= n~okjk gy fd;k tkrk gS& mnkgj.k% ;fn fdlh oLrq ds ewY; esa 50% rFkk 30% dzekxr NwV
feyrh gS rks dqy NwV % Kkr djksA
gy% vfHkV izfrkr 50 + (30) +
50 (30)
100
% = 80 + 15 = 65%
SHORT CUT: ;fn fdlh LFkku dh tula[;k P gS bles r% dh okfkd o`f) gks] rks
SHORT CUT: ;fn fdlh LFkku dh tula[;k P gS bles r% dh okfkd deh gks] rks t okZ ckn tula[;k P 1 100
SHORT CUT: ;fn fdlh LFkku dh orZeku tula[;k P gS rFkk blesa igys] nwljs o rhljs okZ dzek% x%, y%, rFkk z% dh o`f) gks rks rhu okZ ckn
tula[;k
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x
P 1 + 100
1 + 100
1 + 100
Percentage- Assignment
1-
2-
3-
4-
5-
6-
7-
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og 3200 erksa ls gkj x;k] rks crkvks fd dqy fdrus er Mkys x, \
01- 6000
02- 7000
03- 8000
04- 9000
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[kjhn ikrk gS] rks xsgwW dk vkjafHkd ewY; Kkr djksA
01- 12-50 #i;s
02- 8-60 #i;s
03- 7-50 #i;s
04- 6-40 #i;s
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vf/kd feys rFkk ;ke dks eksgu ls 20% vf/kd fey] eksgu dk fdrus #i;s
izkIr gksxs \
01- 20000 #i;s
02- 25000 #i;s
03- 27000 #i;s
04- 30000 #i;s
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70% c<+ xbZA mldh fcdzh ij dqy D;k izHkko iM+k \
01- 56% o`f)
02- 36% deh
03- 36% o`f)
04- 56% deh
1
8-
9-
10-
11-
12-
13-
03- 7
04- 8
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9
0304-
9
2
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7
8
11
1
01-
02-
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3
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6
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01- 156-25
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03- 80
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02- 22 izfrkr
03- 30 izfrkr
04- 28 izfrkr
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20 izfrkr dh tkrh gS rks ml oLrq ds ewY; esa dqy fdrus izfrkr deh vk
tkrh gS\
01- 32 izfrkr
02- 22 izfrkr
03- 30 izfrkr
04- 28 izfrkr
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la[;k ls fdrus izfrkr vf/kd gS\
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02-
14-
02-
33 izfrkr
3
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Short Cut Mathematics in Hindi & English Medium for HTET Banking, SSC, NDA, TET, CAT, MBA, Sanik
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Page 4
Name:
_____________________________________________________
2005abcteach.com
Name:
_____________________________________________________
Exercise A:
1. Give two reasons to get good at doing math in your head.
2005abcteach.com
Name:
_____________________________________________________
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Name:
_____________________________________________________
Exercise B:
1. Explain the quick way to multiply a single digit times 9.
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Name:
_____________________________________________________
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Name:
_____________________________________________________
Exercise C:
1. What's the shortcut to multiply an even number by 5?
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Name:
_____________________________________________________
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Name:
_____________________________________________________
Exercise D:
1. Explain the trick about multiplying by 3.
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Exercise E:
1. How do you use an easy problem as a shortcut for a hard
one? Write an example that shows how.
10
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_____________________________________________________
Exercise F: Review
1. Solve these problems by using one of the tricks you learned
in this unit. Show your work.
a. 11 x 7
b. 39 x 3
11
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Answer Key:
Exercise A
1. You don't need to carry around a calculator.
It's fun/interesting/strengthening.
2. Answers vary.
3. Move each digit once to the left.
Fill the last place with a 0.
4. a. 40
b. 150
c. 4000
d. 230
e. 1170
Exercise B
1. Subtract 1 from the original number to get the tens digit.
Subtract this tens digit from 9 to get the ones digit.
Double check by adding the digits together to get 9.
2. a. 36
b. 81
c. 72
d. 45
e. 63
f. 18
g. 27
h. 54
3. a 14 isn't a single digit
d. 115 isn't a single digit
e. 8 x 7 isn't multiplying by 9!
Exercise C
1. Get the tens digit by dividing the number by 2. The ones digit is 0.
2. Subtract 1 from the number. Get the tens digit by dividing that answer by 2. The
ones digit is 5.
3. a. 20
b. 60
c. 95
d. 75
e. 35
f. 100
g. 65
h. 105
4. a. No. An odd number x 5 should end in 5.
b. No. An odd number x 5 should end in 5.
Exercise D
1. If you multiply a number by 3, the digits of the answer add up to 3, 6, or 9.
2. Check your work
3. If your wrong answer is another multiple of 3, the digits will add up to 3 and you'll
be fooled.
4. a and c. The digits don't add up to 3, 6, or 9.
12
2005abcteach.com
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_____________________________________________________
Exercise E
Student examples may vary.
1. 19 x 7 = ?
20 x 7 = 140
140 7 = 133
19 x 7 = 133
2. 32 x 8 = ?
30 x 8 = 240
2 x 8 = 16
240 + 16 = 256
32 x 8 = 256
3. a. 49 x 4
50 x 4 = 200
200 4 = 196
49 x 4 = 196
4. a. 78
b. 497
c. 171
Exercise F
1. a. 11 x 7
10 x 7 = 70
1x7= 7
70 + 7 = 77
11 x 7 = 77
b. 39 x 3
40 x 3 = 120
120 3 = 117
39 x 3 = 117
2. a.
b.
c.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
72
40
30
27
204
3,010
63
133
13
2005abcteach.com
(a+b) = a + 2ab + b
(a-b) 2 = a2 2ab + b2
(a+b) (a-b) = a2 b2
(a+b) (c+d) = (ac + ad) + (bc + bd)
(a+b) (c-d) = (ac ad) + (bc bd)
(a-b) (c-d) = (ac ad) (bc bd)
X = 1 to 9 & Y = Any Number
(X5) 2 = 100X(X+1) + 25
25 x Y = (Y x 100)/4
50 x Y = (Y x 100)/2
75 x Y = 3(Y x 100)/4
Examples
49 = (40 + 9) = 1600 + 720 + 81 = 2401
562 = (60 4) 2 = 3600 480 + 16 = 3136
64 x 56 = (60 4) (60 + 4) = 3600 16 = 3584
23 x 34 = (20 + 3) (30 + 4) = 600 + 80 + 90 + 12 = 782
34 x 78 = (30 + 4) (80 2) = 2400 60 + 320 8 = 2652
67 x 86 = (70 3) (90 4) = 6300 280 270 + 12 = 5762
2
Multiply any Two 2 Digit Numbers (a & c = 10s digit, b & d = 1a digit)
ab x cd = 100(a x c) + 10[(b x c) + (a x d)] + (b x d)
Squaring Numbers 52 to 99
a2 = [a - (100 a)]100 + (100 a) 2
Examples
9942 = (994 6)1000 + 6 2 = 988036
10072 = (1007 + 7)1000 + 72 = 1014049
35 x 34 = 1225 35 = 1190
35 x 36 = 1225 + 35 = 1260
76 x 11 = 76 + 760 = 836
76 x 11 = 706 + 130 = 836
Multiplying by 15
a x 15 = (a + a/2) x 10
Multiplying by 45
a x 45 = 50a 50a/10
Multiplying by 55
a x 55 = 50a + 50a/10
29 x 54 = 29 x 60 (29 x 60)/10
= 1740 174 = 1566
Examples
Examples
Separate the number into groups of 2 digits or less beginning from the right
(66049)1/2
6 60 49
= 300 763
Note: the number ends in a 3. Last digit of cube will be 7 if this is a cube without a remainder
Since 7 cubed = 343 and 6 cubed = 216, the left most group of 300 is between them and we must use
the smaller, or 6.
The answer is 67 This method works up to 1,000,000 for true cubes
Copyright 2003 Dale L. Stamps all rights reserved
= 863
USE ESTIMATES
Use estimates to check your answers. Get in the habit of doing this for all calculations.
NOTE: Considerable care has been taken to eliminate errors in this document, but the author does not
guarantee that the document is error free by implication or in fact.
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TEST OF REASONING
Types of Classification
(1)
(2)
(3)
(2) Staircase
(5) Lift
(2) Entomology
(5) Pathology
(2) Breathing
(5) Playing
(2) Missile
(5) Spear
(2) Chocolate
(5) Pastry
(2) Snail
(5) Oyster
(2) Pisces
(5) Orion
(2) India
(5) Malagasy
(2) Director
(5) Entrepreneur
(3) Bridge
(3) Astrology
(3) Walking
(3) Sword
(3) Cake
(3) Turtle
(3) Libra
(3) Sri Lanka
(3) Investor
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No. 1
(2) Car
(3) Bus
(5) Sledge
(2) Pigeon
(3) Parrot
(5) Peacock
(2) Tetanus
(3) Cancer
(5) Measles
(2) Wolf
(3) Jackal
(5) Panther
(2) Oxygen
(3) Hydrogen
(2) Carbondioxide
(2) Mother
(3) Sister
(5) Brother
(2) OSLS
(3) GFKD
(5) QBTV
(2) 24X
(3) 22V
(5) 18R
(2) CTR
(3) DTR
(5) FTR
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19. (1) NOOP
(4) UVVX
20. (1) TYN
(4) LPN
21. (1) BCD
(4) TUV
22. (1) MNO
(4) PQR
(2) HIIJ
(5) XYYZ
(2) BFD
(5) QUS
(2) HIJ
(5) WXY
(2) CDE
(5) STU
(3) PQQR
(3) MQO
(3) MNP
(3) GHI
(2) ILO
(5) RUX
(2) RAE
(5) YSX
(2) 286
(5) 719
2. (3)
13. (4)
24. (5)
3. (2)
14. (4)
25. (2)
4. (3)
15. (1)
5. (2)
16. (2)
6. (4)
17. (4)
7. (5)
18. (4)
8. (2)
19. (4)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
1. (3) All except bridge are used for up and down
movement.
2. (3) All except Astrology are connected with biology.
3. (2) Breathing is the only natural action.
4. (3) All except sword strike the target at a distance.
5. (2) All except chocolate are baked items.
6. (4) All except spider have hard protective shells.
7. (5) All except orion are zodiac signs, while orion
is a constellation.
8. (2) All except India are islands, while India is a
peninsula.
9. (2) All except director spend money.
10. (5) All except sledge have wheels.
11. (4) All except butterfly are birds, whereas butterfly is an insect.
12. (2) All except tetanus are diseases caused by
virus, while tetanus is caused by bacteria.
13. (4) All except deer are flesh eating animals.
14.
15.
16.
17.
(4)
(1)
(2)
(4)
18. (4)
19. (4)
20. (1)
21. (3)
22. (4)
23. (4)
24. (5)
25. (2)
2.
3.
4.
(1)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(4)
Painting
Drawing
Mountain
Peak
Dynamics
Optics
Consumer
Purchaser
(2) Art
(5) Music
(2) Plateau
(5) Hill
(2) Mechanics
(5) Physics
(2) Customer
(5) Retailer
(3) Sculpture
5.
(3) Valley
6.
(3) Electronics
7.
(3) Buyer
8.
(3) UCT
(3) 371
No. 1
10. (5)
21. (3)
11. (4)
22. (4)
No. 1
9. (2)
20. (1)
(3) NQT
(1) Jasmine
(4) Lily
(1) Moth
(4) Cockroach
(1) Kiwi
(4) Penguin
(1) Swimming
(4) Sailing
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No. 2
(2) Corriander
(5) Rose
(2) Bee
(5) Aphid
(2) Eagle
(5) Ostrich
(2) Diving
(5) Fishing
(3) Lotus
(3) Lizard
(3) Emu
(3) Driving
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9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
(1) Pupil
(4) Medulla
(1) Sahara
(4) Sunderbans
(1) Skull
(4) Appendix
(1) Cap
(4) Veil
(1) Snore
(4) Doze
(1) Epicentre
(4) Crater
(1) Curious
(4) Angry
(1) Flat
(4) Temple
(1) Sweet
(4) Bitter
(2) Iris
(3) Cornea
(5) Retina
(2) Thar
(3) Gobi
(5) Kalahari
(2) Pelvis
(3) Fibula
(5) Vertebra
(2) Turban
(3) Helmet
(5) Hat
(2) Slumber
(3) Yawn
(5) Dream
(2) Seismology (3) Focus
(5) Ritcher scale
(2) Humour
(3) Wise
(5) Mighty
(2) Bunglow (3) House
(5) Palace
(2) Cold
(3) Sour
(5) Salty
(2) Pencil
(5) Sharpener
(2) Rice
(5) Barley.
(2) Baseball
(5) Badminton
(2) 44
(5) 19
(2) MOQ
(5) IKN
(2) 679
(5) 561
(2) 150
(5) 105
(2) XpD
(5) PtZ
2. (3)
13. (3)
24. (4)
3. (5)
14. (4)
25. (3)
4. (5)
15. (5)
5. (2)
16. (4)
6. (3)
17. (2)
7. (2)
18. (4)
8. (3)
19. (1)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
1. (5) Except music all others can be seen where as
music is to listen.
2. (3) All except valley are elevated features.
3. (5) All others are branches of physics.
4. (5) All other terms refer to someone who buys
something.
5. (2) All except corriander are flowers.
6. (3) All except lizard are insects.
7. (2) All except eagle are flightless birds.
8. (3) All except driving are activities performed in
water.
9. (4) All except medulla are parts of the eye, while
medulla is a part of the brain.
10. (4) All except Sunderbans are deserts while
Sunderbans is a delta.
11. (4) All except appendix are bones, while appendix is an organ.
12. (4) All except veil cover the head while veil covers the face.
9. (4)
20. (4)
(3) Eraser
(3) Wheat
(3) Football
(3) 21
(3) BDG
(3) 385
(3) 125
(3) HQu
No. 2
10. (4)
21. (3)
11. (4)
22. (2)
No. 2
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ANALOGY
Analogy means correspondence. In the questions based on analogy, a particular relationship is
given and another similar relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. Analogy tools
are therefore meant to test ones ability to reason how far you are able to compare and comprehend the
relationship that exists between two objects, things
or figures.
Verbal analogy measures the ability to understand
the relationship between two given words or group
of letters, presented in abbreviated form. See the following example.
Moon : Satellite : : Earth : Planet
This abbreviated form conveys the idea that
moon is related to satellite in the same way as the
earth is related to planet.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
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Instrument and Measurement
1.
2.
3.
4.
9.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
1.
2.
3.
4.
: Harsh
: Abrupt
: Final
: Extinguish
: Borrow
: Weak
: Float
No. 3
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7. Tuberculosis : Lungs : : Cataract : ?
(1) Ear
(2) Throat
(3) Skin
(4) Eye
(5) None of these
8. Professor : Lecture : : Doctor : ?
(1) Hospital
(2) Disease
(3) Medicine
(4) Patient
(5) None of these
9. Victory : Encouragement : : Failure : ?
(1) Sadness
(2) Defeat
(3) Anger
(4) Frustration (5) None of these
10.Doctor : Diagnosis : : Judge : ?
(1) Court
(2) Punishment (3) Lawyer
(4) Judgement (5) None of these
Directions: The following questions consist of two
words that have a certain relationship between each
other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select
the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the
original pair of words.
11. Restaurant : Menu
(1) Library : Catalogue (2) Journal : Newspaper
(3) Book : Encyclopaedia(4) College : Account.
(5) None of these.
12. Heart : Cardiology
(1) Brain : Psychology (2) History : Histology
(3) Civics : Polity
(4)Fossils : Palaeontology
(5) None of these.
13. Soldier : Regiment
(1) Flower : Bunch
(2) Drop : Ocean
(3) Sailor : Crew
(4) Deer : Jungle
(5) None of these.
14. Acoustic : Sound
(1) Mathematics: Geometry
(2) Radio : Song
(3) Pathology : Disease (4) Communication :Phone
(5) None of these.
15. Yen : Currency
(1) Brass : Metal
(2) Hen : Poultry
(3) Paper : Book
(4) Karnataka : State
(5) None of these.
16. Bird : Wings
(1) Whale : Water
(2) Dog : Lungs
(3) Car : Wheels
(4) Pen : Paper
(5) None of these.
2. (2)
13. (3)
24. (2)
3. (1)
14. (3)
25. (3)
4. (4)
15. (4)
5. (3)
16. (3)
6. (3)
17. (3)
7. (4)
18. (1)
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8. (3)
19. (4)
9. (4)
20. (4)
No. 3
10. (4)
21. (3)
11. (1)
22. (1)
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Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
1. (4) Beautiful describes the quality of prettiness in girls while Handsome describes the
quality of prettiness in boys.
2. (2) Anatomy is a branch of Zoology. Likewise,
Paediatrics is a branch of medicine.
3. (1) Matricide is killing of mother, in the same way
Homicide is killing of human beings.
4. (4) A microphone makes sound louder and a microscope magnifies an object.
5. (3) First is a part of the second.
6. (3) A vegetarian never eats meat. Similarly, a
teetotaller never drinks liquor.
7. (4) Tuberculosis is a disease of the lungs. Similarly, cataract is a disease of the eye.
8. (3) Professor delivers lecture to his students.
Similarly, doctor gives medicine to his patients.
9. (4) Victory leads to encouragement whereas failure brings frustration.
10. (4) The function of a doctor is to diagnose a
disease and that of a judge is to give judgement.
11. (1) Menu gives a list of the items presented in a
restaurant. Calalogue gives the list of books
in a library.
12. (4) The study of heart is called cardiology. Similarly, the study of fossils is called
palaeontology.
13. (3) A group of soldiers is called a regiment. Similarly, a group of sailors is called a crew.
14. (3) Acoustic is the science of sounds. Similarly, pathology is the study of diseases.
15. (4) Yen is a currency. Similarly, Karnataka is a
state.
16. (3) Wings help a bird to move car moves with
the help of wheels.
17. (3) Aspirin is used to cure headache. Quinine
cures Malaria
18. (1) Second is a more intensive form of the first.
19. (4) Ampere is the unit of current. Similarly, ohm
is the unit of resistance.
20. (4) Quran is the holy book of Muslims. Similarly, Torah is the holy book of Jews.
21. (3) Second denotes the function of the first.
22. (1) The given words are opposite to each other.
23. (3) The second is the tool which is used to move
the first.
24. (2) Hydrometer is an instrument to measure Humidity. Sphygmo manometer measures Blood
Pressure.
25. (3) Second is a unit of the first.
No. 3
3.
4.
5.
6.
No. 4
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7.
(2) Contents:Magazine
(4) Preface : Book
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Answers: Speed Developing Practice Test
1. (2)
11. (4)
21. (2)
2. (1)
12. (4)
22. (1)
3. (3)
13. (4)
23. (3)
4. (4)
14. (4)
24. (3)
5. (2)
15. (1)
25. (2)
6. (3)
16. (2)
7. (2)
17. (3)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
1. (4) Knee is related to leg in the same way as
elbow is to arm.
2. (1) Shoes are made by a cobbler. Similarly spectacles are designed by an optician.
3. (3) First works for the second.
4. (4) Here the recording of the second are
visualised on the first.
5. (2) Rupee is the currency of India and Yen is the
currency of Japan.
6. (3) Jews worship in a Synagogue likewise Buddhists worship in a Pagoda.
7. (2) As Major heads a battalion, the Colonel commands a regiment.
8. (3) Dog bite causes rabies, similarly the bite of a
mosquito causes malaria.
9. (1) Pesticide protects crops from insects and antiseptic protects wounds from germs.
10. (1) Igloos is the type of houses most commonly
found in Canada and Rondavals in Africa.
11. (4) Dove is a symbol of peace similarly, pearl is a
symbol of purity.
12. (4) Second is the feminine gender of the first.
13. (4) The game of cricket is played on a pitch similarly, the game of boxing is performed in a ring.
8. (3)
18. (4)
No. 4
9. (1)
19. (4)
10. (1)
20. (2)
No. 4
14. (4) Preamble is the introduction to the Constitution and mentions its main ideals and objectives. Similarly, preface is the introduction to
a book.
15. (1) A rocket needs fuel for its working. Similarly
a man needs energy to work.
16. (2) Enormous is the extreme of large. Similarly,
fat is the extreme of plump.
17. (3) First is the place of night stay for the second.
18. (4) The given words are opposite to each other.
19. (4) First is acquired whereas the second is got by
birth.
20. (2) A balance is used to weigh. Similarly a rader
is used for detection.
21. (2) Taj Mahal reminds us of love. Similarly,
Jallianwala bagh reminds us of martyrdom.
22. (1) First became the cause of death of the second.
23. (3) The first is of higher intensity than the second.
24. (3) Ladies and gents keep their money in purses
and wallets respectively.
25. (2) A magazine consists of articles. Likewise,
Veda consists of slokas
ALPHABET ANALOGY
There is another kind of analogy that can be asked
in this section. In this type of question, two groups of
letters related to each other in some way are given.
The candidate is required to find this relationship and
choose a group of letters which is related in the same
way to a third group provided in the question.
2.
(3) YWA
No. 5
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(3) WUV
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3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
(3) ILRO
(3) ROMB
(3) DHVW
(3) PMJA
2. (2)
3. (4)
4. (4)
5. (2)
6. (1)
7. (1)
8. (5)
9. (4)
(3) NRPT
(3) QTRC
(3) JBRL
(3) YZAB
No. 5
10. (1)
No. 5
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SERIES COMPLETION
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
This section deals with questions in which series of numbers or letters are given. The term follows a certain pattern
throughout. The candidate is required to recognise this
pattern either to complete the given series with the most
suitable alternative or to find the wrong term in the series.
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
NUMBER SERIES
Eg. 1 Which number would replace the question mark
(?) in the series 2, 7, 14, 23, ?, 47
(1) 28 (2) 34
(3) 31 (4) 38 (5) None
Ans: The given sequence is +5, +7, +9,
ie. 2+ 5 = 7, 7 + 7 = 14, 14 + 9 = 23
Missing Number = 23 + 11 = 34.
2. Which is the number that should come next in the
following series?
4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30,
(1) 32
(2) 64 (3) 62
(4) 60 (5) None
Ans:
The given sequence is a combination of
two series 4, 12, 28, .... and 6, 14, 30, ....
Clearly the number to be found belongs
to the first series. Now the pattern followed is +8, +16, +32.
So, missing number = (28 + 32) = 60
Hence the answer is (4)
3. Find the wrong number in the series.
7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342
(1) 7
(2) 28 (3) 124 (4) 215 (5) None
Ans:The correct sequence is 23 - 1, 33 - 1, 43 - 1, ...etc.
Here 28 is wrong; so the answer is (2)
ALPHABET SERIES
Alphabet series consists of letters of the alphabet
placed in a specific pattern. If you keep in your mind
the order of the letters with their respective numbers
it will help you answer the questions quickly.
Eg: 4
LETTER SERIES
This type of question usually consists of a series
of small letters which follow a certain pattern.
However some letters are missing from the series.
These missing letters are then given in a proper
sequence as one of the alternatives. The candidate is required to choose this alternative as the
answer.
Eg: 5. aab - aaa - bba (1) baa
(2) abb (3) bab (4) aab(5) bbb
1. The first blank space should be filled in by b so
that we have two as followed by two bs.
2. The second blank space should be fiiled in either
by a. So that we have four as followed by two
bs or by b. So that we have three as followed by
three bs.
3. The last space must be filled in by a.
4. Thus we have two possible answers - baa and
bba. But only baa appears in the alternatives.
So the answer is (1).
5. In case we had both the possible answers in the
alternatives, we should choose the one that forms
a more prominent pattern, which is aabb/aaabbb/
aa. and our answer would have been bba.
1.
No. 6
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2.
2. (1)
12. (4)
22. (2)
3. (2)
13. (5)
23. (2)
4. (4)
14. (1)
24. (1)
5. (2)
15. (3)
25. (3)
6. (5)
16. (3)
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7. (4)
17. (3)
8. (4)
18. (5)
No. 6
9. (1)
19. (4)
10. (5)
20. (5)
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Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
(1) Sum of two consecutive numbers of the series gives the next number.
(1) The series consists of prime numbers.
.
. . The missing number is the next prime number, which is 43.
(2) Each number is double the preceding one plus
1.
So, the next number is (255 2) +1 = 511
(4) The sequence is +6, +6, +8, +8, +10, --------So the missing number = 43 + 10 = 53
(2) Alternatively we add 3 and subtract 1.
Thus 9 + 3 = 12, 12 - 1 = 11, 11 + 3 =14 and so
on.
... the missing number = 13 + 3 = 16
(5) The sequence is +1, -2, +3, -4, +5. So 129 is
wrong. The correct term should be 128.
(4) Each term is four less than the preceding number multiplied by 3. Thus 654 is wrong, the
correct term being 650.
(4) The sequence is +12, +22, +32, +42, +52, +62.
The correct term being 92 instead of 91.
(1) Each number in the series is multiplied 2 and
the result is increased by 1 to obtain the next
number ... 39 is wrong. The correct term
being 31.
(5) The numbers are 7 8, 8 9, 9 10, 10 11,
1112, 12 13 so 150 is wrong.
(1) All the letters of each term are moved five
steps forward to obtain the corresponding
letters of the next term.
(4) The first letters of all the terms are alternate.
The second letter of each term is moved one
step backward to obtain the second letter of
the successive term. The third letter of each
term is moved two steps backward to obtain
the third letter of the subsequent term.
(5) The letters in each term are moved four steps
backward to obtain the letters of the next term.
(1) The first, second and third letters of each
15. (3)
16. (3)
17. (3)
18. (5)
19. (4)
20. (5)
21. (3)
22. (2)
23. (2)
24. (1)
25. (3)
No. 6
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CODING - DECODING
A code is a system of signals. Therefore, coding
is a method of transmitting messages between the
sender and receiver without a third person understanding it.
The Coding and Decoding test is set up to judge
the candidates ability to decipher the law that codes
a particular message and break the code to reveal the
message.
LETTER CODING
A particular letter stands for another letter in letter coding.
Eg: If COURSE is coded as FRXUVH, how is RACE
coded in that code?
(1) HFDU
(2) UCFH
(3) UDFH
(4) UDHF
(5) UDFG
In the given code, each letter is moved three steps
forward than the corresponding letter in the word. So
R is coded as U, A as D, C as F, E as H. Hence (3) is
the answer.
NUMBER CODING
In these questions, either numerical code values
are assigned to a word or alphabetical code values
are assigned to numbers. The candidate is required
to analyse the code as per directions.
Case I: When numerical values are assigned to words.
Eg: If in a certain code ROPE is coded as 6821, CHAIR
is coded as 73456 what will be the code for
CRAPE?
(1) 73456
(2) 76421
(3) 77246
(4) 77123
(5) None of these
Clearly, in the given code, the alphabets are coded as
follows.
R
O
P
E
C
H
A
I
6
8
2
1
7
3
4
5
So CRAPE is coded as 76421
So the answer is (2)
Case II: When alphabetical code values are assigned
to the numbers.
Eg: In a certain code 3456 is coded as ROPE. 15546 is
coded as APPLE. Then how is 54613 coded?
(1) RPPEO
(2) ROPEA (3) POEAR
(4) PAREO
(5) None of these
MIXED CODING
In this type of question, three or four complete
messages are given in the coded language and the
code for a particular word is asked.
To analyse such codes, any two messages bearing the common word are picked up. The common
code word will mean that word. Proceeding similarly
by picking up all possible combinations of two messages the entire message can be analysed.
Eg: If tee see pee means drink fruit juice, see kee lee
means juice is sweet, and lee ree mee means he is
intelligent, which word in that language means
sweet?
(1) see
(2) kee
(3) lee
(4) pee
(5) tee
In the first and the second statements the
common word is juice and the common code word
is see. So see means juice. In the second and the
third statements, the common word is is and the
common code is lee. So lee means is. Thus in the
second statement, the remaining word sweet is
coded as kee. Hence the answer is (2).
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DECODING
No. 7
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13. In a certain code, 247 means spread red carpet ;
256 means dust one carpet and 264 means one
red carpet which digit in that code means dust?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) Cannot say
14. In a certain code language, 134 means good and
tasty, 478 means see good pictures ; and 729
means pictures are faint. Which of the following
digits stands for see?
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 8
(5) None of these
15. In a certain code 253 means books are old ; 546
means man is old and 378 means buy good books.
What stands for are in that code?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) 9
16. In a certain code language TSSNOFFQ is written
as STRONGER then GQFDENN will be written as
(1) DOMEERF (2) FEEDORM (3)FREEDOM
(4) FREEDMO (5) None of these
17. If FULFNHW is the code for CRICKET, EULGH
will be coded as
(1) PRIDE
(2) BRIDE
(3) BLADE
(4) BLIND
(5) None of these
18. If in a certain language REMOTE is coded as
ROTEME, which word would be coded as
PNIICC?
(1) NPIICC
(2) PICCIN
(3) PINCIC
(4) PICNIC
(5) PICINC
19. 163542
(1) XTJCNZ
(2) TXJCNZ
(3) XTJCZN
(4) XTCJNZ
20. 925873
(1) ZQCFOJ
(2) QZCFOJ
(3) QZCOFJ
(4) QZCFJO
21. 741568
(1) ONCXTF
(2) NOXCFT
(3) ONCFCT
(4) ONXCTF
(2) ? $ @ *
(3) ? $ @ $ *
(4) ? $ * @
(2) @ $ ? @
(3) ? @ @ $
(4) @ ? @ $
(2) $ @ ? @* (3) @ ?@ $*
(4) $ @ ? @*
(2) * ? @ ? (3)* ? @ * ?
2. (4)
12. (3)
22. (3)
3. (2)
13. (3)
23. (5)
4. (5)
14. (4)
24. (1)
5. (1)
15. (1)
25. (2)
6. (1)
16. (3)
7. (2)
17. (2)
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8. (2)
18. (4)
No. 7
9. (5)
19. (1)
10. (3)
20. (2)
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Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
1. (1) In the code each of the two letters are reversed in arrangement.
2. (4) In the code the arrangement of the letters in
the word is wholly reversed.
3. (2) The letters preceding the first, third and fifth
letters of the given word and those succeeding the second, fourth and last letters of the
word in the alphabet form the code.
4. (5) The 1st and the last letters of the word are
kept as such in the code and all other letters
in between them are wholly reversed.
5. (1) In the code, the first letter is the second alphabet, the second letter is the third alphabet, the
third letter is the fourth alphabet and so on
after the corresponding letter in the word.
6. (1) The letters are coded accordingly T as 8, W
as 6, E as 3, L as 2, and V as 0. So TWELVE is
coded as 863203.
7. (2) The letters are coded accordingly P as 2, E as
4, A as 1, R as 5 and L as 3. So PEARL is
coded as 24153.
8. (2) The letters are coded accordingly S as 2, E as
1, A as 4, R as 6, C as 7 and H as 3. i.e., 214673
9. (5) In the first and the second statements the common words are are and you and the common code words are nee and see. So nee and
see means are and you. In the second statement the remaining code ble means where.
10. (3) In the first and the second statements, the
common code word is nae and the common
word is green. So nae means green. In the
first and the third statements, the common
code word is tom and the common word is is
so tom means is. Therfore in the first statement pit means apple.
11. (1) In the first and the second statements the
common code is tingo and the common word
is flower. So tingo means flower. In the second and the third statements, the common
code is mst and the common word is sweet.
So mst means sweet. Therefore in the second statement, rho means fragranee.
12. (3) In the first and the third statements, the common code digits are 4 and 3 ; and the common words are mangoes and are. So 4 and 3
are the codes for mangoes and are. Thus in
the third statement 9 means ripe.
13. (3) In the first and the second statements, the
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
No. 7
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2.
3.
4.
5.
Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 m he turns to the left and walks 25
m straight. Again he turns to the left and walks a
distance of 40m straight, again he turns to the left
and walks a distance of 25 m. How far is he from
the starting point?
(1) 140 m
(2) 35 m
(3) 115 m
(4) 25 m
(5) None of these
Arun started walking towards North. After walking 30 m, he turned left and walked 40 m. He then
turned left and walked 30 m. He again turned left
and walked 50 m. How far is he from his original
position?
(1) 50 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 20 m
(5) None of these
Ramu went 15 km. to the west from his house,
then he turned left and walked 20 km. He then
turned east and walked 25 km. and finally turning
left covered 20 km. How far is he from his house?
(1) 5 km.
(2) 10 km.
(3) 40 km.
(4) 80 km.
(5) None of these
Rekha who is facing south turns to her left and
walks 15 m, then she turns to her left and walks 7
metres, then facing west she walks 15m. How far
is she from her original position?
(1) 22 m
(2) 37 m
(3) 44 m
(4) 7 m
(5) None of these
Going 50 m to the south of her house, Radhika
turns left and goes another 20 m. Then, turning
to the north, she goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction is she walking now?
(1) North-west (2) North
(3)South-east
(4) East
(5) None of these
6.
7.
8.
9.
N
NE
NW
W
SE
SW
S
No. 8
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13. Five students A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row,
D is on the right of E. B is on the left of E but is on
the right of A. D is on the left of C. Who is sitting
on the extreme left?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
14. Five persons were playing card game sitting in a
circle all facing the centre. Ashish was to the left
of Milan Nitin was to the right of Anupam and
between Anupam and Mukesh. Who was to the
right of Mukesh?
(1) Nitin
(2) Milan
(3) Mukesh
(4) Ashish
(5) Cannot be determined
15. Facing the east, Rajesh turned left and walked 10
metres, then he turned to his left again and walked
10 m. He then turned 45o towards his right and
went straight to cover 25 metres. In which direction from his starting point is he?
(1) South-west (2) South-east(3)North-west
(4) North-east
(5) East
No. 8
1. (2) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (5) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (3)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
1.
2.
3.
25 m
20km
25km
-----
25m
4.
No. 8
5.
A
D
50m
30m
E
6.
20m
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7.
30m
30m
20m
D
------
30m
N
E
8.
C
20m
B
40m
30m
9.
5m
80m
50m
70m
3km
D
Mu
M
N
An
(
--------
10m
10m
E
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PUZZLE TEST
This section comprises of questions put in the
form of puzzles involving a certain number of items,
be it persons or things. The candidate is required to
analyse the given information, condense it in a suitable form and answer the questions asked.
3.
4.
Solved Example
Read the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below:
5.
2.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
4.
No. 9
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7.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
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Answers: Speed Developing Practice Test No. 9
1. (2)
11. (2)
21. (1)
2. (2)
12. (3)
22. (2)
3. (3)
13. (1)
23. (4)
4. (4)
14. (3)
24. (5)
5. (5)
15. (1)
25. (3)
6. (5)
16. (3)
7. (1)
17. (1)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
We can prepare a table from the given data as below:
Maths Geography History
Political
Science
Biology
1. (2) Clearly from the table D is intelligent in Political Science, Geography and Biology.
2. (2) B is intelligent in Mathematics, Political Science and Geography.
3. (3) A is intelligent in Mathematics and History
but not in Geography.
4. (4) C is intelligent in Mathematics, History and
Geography.
5. (5) E is intelligent in Political Science, History
and Biology.
II C is sitting on the second position from right and
A is sitting both with C and next to B. So A will
be in the third position from right and B the on
fourth position from right. E is on the left end of
the bench. So D, who remains and who is sitting
next to C will be on the right end. Thus the arrangement will be as shown.
12.
13.
14.
15.
9. (2)
19. (4)
10. (4)
20. (3)
No. 9
E B A C D
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
III
11.
(3)
(1)
(3)
(1)
8. (4)
18. (4)
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
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Mathematical Operations
This section deals with questions on simple mathematical operations. Here, the four fundamental operations - addition, subtraction, multiplication and
division and also statements such as less than,
greater than, equal to, not equal to etc. are represented by symbols different from the usual ones. The
questions involving these operations are set using
artificial symbols. The candidate has to substitute
the real signs and solve the questions accordingly, to
get the answer.
4.
5.
6.
No. 10
7.
2. (3)
3. (2)
4. (3)
5. (4)
6. (4)
7. (2)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
8. (2)
9. (3)
10. (1)
No. 10
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ALPHABET TEST
In this type of questions, certain words will be
given. The candidate is required to put them in the
order in which they would be arranged in a dictionary
and then state the word which is placed in the desired
place. For such questions, the candidate requires a
basic knowledge of the Dictionary Usage. In a dictionary, the words are put in alphabetical order. The
words beginning with a particular letter are again arranged in alphabetical order with respect to the second letter of the word and so on.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
No. 11
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17. If the first half of the alphabet was written in the
reverse order, which letter would be the nineteenth
from your right?
(1) H (2) F (3) D (4) E (5) None of these
18. Which letter will be sixth to the right of the eleventh letter from the right end of the alphabet?
(1) K (2) V (3) J (4) U (5) None of these
2. (3)
12. (4)
3. (5)
13. (2)
4. (3)
14. (2)
5. (5)
15. (3)
6. (1)
16. (2)
7. (4)
17. (2)
8. (2)
18. (2)
9. (1)
19. (5)
10. (4)
20. (4)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test No. 11
12. (4) Such letter pairs are RO, ON, RN and HN
13. (2) The new letter sequence is CENSSEYRA. So
from the left 7th letter is Y.
14. (2) The second, sixth, ninth and twelfth letters
in the word contribution are O, I, T, N. The
word formed is INTO.
15. (3) The fourth letter to the left of I is E. Then the
sixteenth letter to the right of E is U.
16. (2) The thirteenth letter from the left is M. The
seventh letter to the right of M is T.
17. (2) The new alphabet series is
M LK J I H G F E D C B A
NOPQRST UVWXYZ
Counting from the right i.e. Z, the nineteenth
letter is F.
18. (2) Counting from the right in the given alphabet series i.e. Z, the eleventh letter is P. The
sixth letter to the right of P is V.
19. (2) The fifth letter to the ninth letter from the left
means 14th letter from the right, i.e. N.
20. (4) The fifteenth letter from the left is O. The
eighteenth letter from the right is I. The letter
midway between I and O is L.
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Ranking Test: In this, generally the ranks of a person both from the top and from the bottom will be
mentioned and the total number of persons is to be
found.
E.g. 2. Radha ranks twentyfirst from the top and twentieth from the bottom in a certain examination.
How many students are there in her class?
(1) 40
(2) 41
(3) 42
(4) 45
(5) None of these
Clearly the whole class consists of
(i) 20 students who have a rank higher than Radha
(ii) Radha
(iii) 19 students who have rank lower than Radha
i.e. (20 + 1 + 19) = 40. So, the answer is (1)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
No. 12
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9.
2. (2)
12. (4)
3. (1)
13. (5)
4. (1)
14. (2)
5. (2)
15. (2)
6. (4)
7. (2)
8. (1)
9. (2)
10. (2)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test No. 12
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(2)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(2)
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Number Locating Test
4.
5.
Solved Example
1.
ANSWERS
1.
597841
987541
2.
3.
Solved Example
1.
2.
3.
Ans : (1)
479 974;
637 736
854 458;
285 582
769 967
637 367
854 584;
285 825
769 679
Largest number = 825 285
4.
Ans : (2)
479 489;
637 647
854 864;
285 295
769 779
864 > 779 > 647 > 489 > 295
4 + 8 + 9 21
5.
Ans : (5)
479 947;
637 763
854 485;
285 528
769 976
Smallest number = 485 854
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4.
Exercise
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1.
Ans : (4)
52361984
12345689
2.
Ans : (3)
8261479
1246789
3.
Ans : (2)
764528
876542
4 2 1 5 7 9 3 6 8
5.
Ans. (3)
2138574
1234578
PRACTICE TEST
I.
1.
2.
3.
Ans : (4)
4.
(2) 8
(4) 2
(5) 3
(3) 7
(2) 19
(4) 17
(5) 14
(3) 15
(2) 3
(4) 8
(5) 4
(3) 2
(2) 4
(4) 5
(5) 2
(3) 3
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smallest number and third digit of the highest
number ?
6.
7.
8.
9.
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 8
(2) 682
(4) 298
(5) 751
(3) 189
(2) 682
(4) 298
(5) 751
(3) 189
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 8
(2) 5
(4) 3
(5) 2
(3) 4
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digit of third number and third digit of second
number ?
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 7
(5) None of these
V. Directions (20-25) : These questions are based
on the following six numbers.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
ANSWERS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Ans : (1)
472 274
348 843
845 548
487 784
728 827
Ans : (2)
Third lowest number 487
4 + 8 + 7 = 19
Ans : (5)
Highest number 845
Ans : (5)
472 274
348 843
845 548
487 784
728 827
682 862
298 982
682 628
298 289
9.
Ans : (3)
189 + 1 = 190
751 -1 = 750
9-5=4
10. Ans : (2)
489 489 ;
541 145;
654 456;
953 359;
Lowest number 145 541
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783 378
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11. Ans : (2)
489 - 5 484 ; 541 - 5 536
654 - 5 649 ; 953 - 5 948
783 - 5 778
Second highest number = 778
Highest number = 948
7-4=3
12. Ans : (4)
489 849 ;
541 451;
654 564;
953 593 ;
783 873
Third highest number = 593 953
13. Ans : (1)
489 + 1 490; 541+1 = 542
654 +1 655;
953 + 1= 954;
783 + 1 784
5-4=1
14. Ans : (3)
489 984;
541 145
654 456;
953 359
783 387
Second highest number = 456 654
15. Ans : (2)
319 913;
869 968;
742 247;
593 395;
268 862
16. Ans : (5)
319 218;
869 768;
593 492;
268 167
7-1=6
Highest Number 7 6 8
Lowest Number 1 6 7
742 641;
319 931;
869 986;
742 274
593 359;
268 826
Second highest number 931 319
19. Ans : (4)
869 > 742 > 593 > 319 > 268
9-2=7
20. Ans : (4)
382 328;
473 437;
568 586;
728 782;
847 874;
629 692;
Third lowest number 586 568
473 734;
847 478;
823 > 734 > 685 > 478 > 296 > 287
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568 685
629 296
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BLOOD RELATIONSHIP
In this test, the success of a candidate depends
upon the knowledge of the blood relations, some of
which are summarised below to help you solve these
tests
Mothers or fathers son
Mothers or fathers daughter
Mothers or fathers brother
Mothers or fathers sister
Mothers or fathers mother
Mothers or fathers father
Sons wife
Daughters husband
Husbands or wifes brother
Sisters or brothers son
- Brother
- Sister
- Uncle
- Aunt
- Grandmother
- Grandfather
- Daughter-in-law
- Son-in-law
- Brother-in-law
- Nephew
Brothers or Sistersdaughter
- Niece
Uncles or aunts son or daughter - Cousin
Sisters husband
- Brother-in-law
Brothers wife
- Sister-in-law
Eg. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said
His brothers father is the only son of my grandfather. How is the woman related to the man in the
photograph?
(1) Mother (2) Aunt
(3) Sister
(4) Daughter (5) Grandmother
The relation may be seen as follows.
The only son of the womans grandfatherwomans father. Mans brothers father-Mans father.
So the woman is the Mans sister.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
No. 13
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11. If P Q - S, which of the following is true?
(1) S is the wife of Q (2) S is father of P
(3) P is daughter of Q (4) Q is father of P
(5) None of these
12. If T - S B -M, which of the following is not true?
(1) B is mother of S
(2) M is husband of B
(3) S is daughter of B (4) T is wife of S
(5) None of these
13. If Z T - S U + P, what is U to Z?
(1) Mother
(2) Grandmother
(3) Father
(4) Cant be determined
(5) None of these
14. If AB means A is the sister of B, A B means A
is the father of B, A B means A is the brother of
B, which of the following means X is the aunt of Y?
(1) XD Y
(2) A D Y (3)X DY
(4) X D Y
(5) None of these
15. If A + B means A is the sister of B, A - B means A
is the brother of B, A B means A is the daughter
of B, which of the following shows the relation
that E is the maternal uncle of D?
(1) D + F C
(2) D - F E
(3) D F+ E+C
(4) D F E
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 16-20): Read the following information and answer the questions that follows:
2. (4)
12. (3)
3. (3)
13. (2)
4. (1)
14. (1)
5. (3)
15. (3)
6. (2)
16. (3)
7. (1)
17. (4)
8. (3)
18. (2)
9. (5)
19. (2)
10. (4)
20. (1)
Explanatory Answers:
Speed Developing Practice Test No. 13
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
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