11th Boost Sample Medical
11th Boost Sample Medical
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
01. The question paper consists of '80' objective type questions. Each question carry 4 marks and all of them
are compulsory.
02. Each question contains four alternatives out of which only ONE is correct.
03. There is NEGATIVE marking. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
04. Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your answer sheet.
05. The answers of the questions must be marked by shading the circle against the question by dark Black
Ball point Pen only.
06. Use of blank papers, clip boards, log tables, calculator, slide rule, mobile or any other electronic
gadgets in any form is "NOT PERMISSIBLE".
07. You must not carry mobile phone even if you have the same, give it to your Invigilator before commencement
of the test and take it back from him/her after the exam.
08. The Answer Sheet will be checked through computer hence the answer of the questions must be marked
by shading the circles against the question by dark Black Ball point Pen only.
For example if only 'C' choice is correct then, the correct method for filling the bubble is
A B C D
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PHYSICS
SECTION I
There are 20 questions in this section. Each question has four options out of which only ONE is correct.
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9. The area under acceleration
acceler time graph
represents
(A) velocity
(B) displacement travelled
(A) (B) (C) distance travelled
(D) change in velocity
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is given by (in terms of coefficient of friction (B) shape of the surfaces in contact
) (C) area of contact
(A) mgh sin (B) mgh cos (D) none of these
(C) mgh (sin + cos )
(D) mgh (sin + cos ) 18. Area under the force displacement graph
represents
15. If is coefficient of friction between the (A) work done
tyres and road, then the minimum stopping (B) change in momentum
distance for a car of mass m moving with (C) torque
velocity is given by (D) pressure gradient
2
(A) g (B) 19. Work done by centripetal force in displacing
2g a particle along a circular path is
(A) positive (B) negative
(C) 2g (D)
2g (C) zero
(D) nothing can be decided
16. The average force necessary to stop a
hammer with 50 Ns momentum in 0.10 s is 20. Choose the wrong statement
(A) 50 N (B) 500 N (A) work done is a scalar quantity
(C) 5000 N (D) 5 N (B) work done by a body does not depend on
the time taken to complete the work
17. The coefficient of static friction between two (C) work done can never be zero
surfaces depends upon the (D) SI unit of work is joule
(A) normal reaction
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION II
There are 20 questions in this section. Each question has four options out of which only ONE is correct.
21. A partially dried clay mineral contains 8% (A) 98.9 % (B) 60.9%
water. The original sample contains 12% (C) 32.9% (D) 1.4 %
water and 45% silica. The % of silica in the
partially dried sample is nearly. 25. Observe the following statements regarding
(A) 50% (B) 49% isotones
(C) 55% (D) 47% a. 39 K and 40 Ca are isotones
22. If the mole fraction of solute is changed from b. Nucleides having different atomic number
1 1 (Z) and mass numbers (a) but same
to by adding some solute in the 800 g of
4 2 number of neutrons (n) are called isotones.
H2O solvent, then the ratio of molality of two c. 19
F and 23
Na are isotones
solutions will be
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4 The correct answer is
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 2 (A) a, b and c are correct
(B) only a and b are correct
23. Suppose two elements X and Y combine to (C) only a and c are correct
form two compounds XY2 and X2Y3 when (D) only b and c are correct
0.05 mole of XY2 weights 5 g while
3.0111023 molecules of X2Y3 weights 85 26. Last line by Lyman series for H atom has
g. The atomic masses of X and Y are wavelength , , 2nd line of Balmer series
respectively has wavelength 2 then
(A) 20,30 (B) 30,40
16 9 16 3
(C) 35,30 (D) 80,60 (A) = (B) =
1 2 2 1
24. Carbon occur in nature as a mixture of C 12 4 1 16 3
and C 13. Average atomic mass of carbon (C) = (D) =
1 2 1 2
is 12.011what is the % abundance of C 12
in nature?
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27. The correct order of wavelength of Hydrogen (A) positive , negative
( 1H1 ) , Deuterium ( 1H2 ) and Tritium ( 1H3 ) (B)
(C)
positive, positive
negative, positive
moving with same kinetic energy is (D) negative, negative
(A) H > D > T
(B) H = D = T 30. The ratio of among most probable velocity,
mean velocity and root mean square velocity
(C) H < D < T is given by
(D) H < D > T (A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1: 2 : 3
(C) 2 : 3 : 8/
28. According to Bohrs atomic theory, which of
the following is correct? (D) 2 : 8/ : 3
Z2
(A) potential energy of electron 2 31. The root mean square velocity of hydrogen is
n 5 times than that of nitrogen. If T is the
(B) the product of velocity of electron and
temperature of the gas, then
principle quantum number ( n ) Z2 (A) TH2 = TN2
(C) frequency of revolution of electron in an (B) TH2 > TN2
Z2
orbit 3 (C) TH2 < TN2
n
(D) coulombic force of attraction one the (D) TH 2 < 7TN 2
Z2
electron 2 32.
n
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common pressure, when all the stopcocks are 36. Ionic radii is/are
opened, is : (Assume constant temperature) (A) directly proportional to effective nuclear
(A) P (B) 1/2P charge
(C) P/4 (D) 4/3P (B) directly proportional to square of
effective nuclear charge
33. The first ionisation energy of Al is smaller (C) inversely proportional to effective
than that of Mg because nuclear charge
(A) the atomic number of Al is greater than (D) inversely proportional to square of
that of Mg effective nuclear charge
(B) the atomic size of Al is less than that of
Mg 37. Which of the following atomic orbitals
(C) penetration of s subshell electrons in overlapping are not allowed
case of Mg is greater than that of p
subshell in Al
(D) Mg has incompletely filled s-s orbital
34. Element with electronic configuration as (A) all (B) (i) (ii) (iii)
[ Ar ]
18 5 2
3d 4s is placed in (C) (i) (iii) (v) (D) (ii) only
st
(A) 1 group, s - block 38. Which of the following is a planar molecule?
(B) 2nd group, s - block (A) XeO2F2 (B) XeOF3
(C) 5th group, d- block (C) XeF4 (D) XeF6
(D) 7th group , d block
39. Which of the following options with respect
to increasing bond order is correct?
35. Which is the correct property mentioned
(A) NO < C 2 < O 2 < B2
(A) Fe+ < Fe2+ < Fe3+ size
+ 2+ 3+ (B) C 2 < NO < B2 < O 2
(B) Fe < Fe < Fe ionisation energy
(C) B < Be < C size (C) B2 < O 2 < NO < C 2
(D) N < O < F ionisation energy (D) B 2 < O 2 < C 2 < NO
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(A) NH3 < H2O < HF < H2S (C) H2O < NH3 < H2S < HF
(B) H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF (D) HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S
BIOLOGY
SECTION III
There are 40 questions in this section. Each question has four options out of which only ONE is correct.
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45. Choose the correct order of colours with 49. In which one of the following, the genus
respect to pigments, chlorophyll, name, its two characters and its phylum
phycoerythrin and fucoxanthin are not correctly matched, whereas the
(A) Green, red and brown remaining three are correct
(B) Brown, green and red Genus Two Phylum
Name characters
(C) Red, green and brown (a) Pila (a) Body Mollusca
(D) Green, brown and red Segmented
(b) Moth with
Redula
46. Which one of the following is a vascular
(b) Asterias (a) Spiny Echinodermata
cryptogam Skinned
(A) Equisetum (B) Ginkgo (b) Water
(C) Marchantia (D) Cedrus vascular
system
(c) Sycon (a) Pore Porifera
47. Match the following and choose the bearing
correct option (b) Canal
system
A. Physalia p. Sea anemone (d) Periplaneta (a) Jointed Arthropoda
B. Meandrina q. Brain coral appendages
C. Gorgonia r. Sea fan (b) Chitinous
exoskeleton
D. Adamsia s. Portuguese man
of war
50. Which is correct for Indian snakes
(A) A-r, B-q; C-p; D-s (A) Only sea snakes are non-poisonous
(B) A-s, B-r; C;q D-p
(C) A-s; B-q; C-r, D-p (B) Only sea snakes are poisonous
(D) A-q, B-r; C-p; D-s (C) All water snakes are poisonous
48. Pheretima is (D) All sea snakes are poisonous
(A) Sterile
(B) Hermaphrodite 51. Only poisonous mammal is
(C) Radially symmetrical (A) Ornithorhynchus (B) Echidna
(D) Dioecious (C) Guinea pig (D) Snake
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52. Identify the correct types of phyllotaxy (A) Leguminous
which shown in the following figures (B) Dicots
(C) Medicinal and perennial
(D) Having pinnately compound leaves
54.
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56. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given 57. Study the diagram given below and
below, represent four different types of identify the cells labelled as A, B C and D,
animal tissues. Which one of these is and choose the correct option
correctly identified in the options given,
along with its correct location and function
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A B C D E (D) Triglyceride
(a) Gall Lung Fat Kidney Rectum
bladder bodies
62. Given below is a schematic break-up of
(b) Gall Lung Testis Kidney Rectum
bladder the phases/stages of cell cycle
(c) Gall Lung Fat Testis Rectum
bladder bodies
(d) Gall Lung Ovary Testis Rectum
bladder
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equatorial plate in metaphase
68. Elaters are present in sporogonium of
(B) Chromatids separate but remain in the (A) Riccia (B) Marchantia
centre of the cell in anaphase (C) Selaginella (D) Sphagnum
(C) Chromatids
atids start moving towards
opposite poles in telophase 69. The number of spores in the sporangium
(D) Golgi complex and endoplasmic of fern is
reticulum are still visible at the end of (A) 16 (B) 32
prophase (C) 64 (D) 128
64. Systema Naturae is concerned with 70. Select the right option in which all the
(A) Solar system following figures are correctly identified
(B) Ecosystem
(C) Classification of plants and animals
(D) Natural selection
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(D) A-t, B-q, C-s,
C D-r
71. Which one of the following groups of 73. Identify the name of given animals with
three animals each is correctly matched their respective classes
with their one characteristic morphological
feature
Animals Morphological
feature
(A) Scorpion, Ventral solid central
Spider, nervous system
syste
Cockroach (A) A Neophron, Aves, B Struthio,
(B) Cockroach, Metameric eric Reptilia, C Ornithorhynchus,
Locust, segmentation Mammalia
Taenia (B) A Neophron, Aves; B Struthio,
(C) Liver Bilateral symmetry Aves; C Ornithorhynchus, Aves
fluke, Sea (C) A Neophron, Aves; B Struthio,
anemone, Mammalia; C Ornithorhynchus,
Sea Mammalia
cucumber (D) A Neophron, Aves; B Struthio,
(D) Centipede, Jointed appendages Aves; C Ornithorhynchus,
Prawn, Sea Mammalia
urchin
74. Match List I with List II and select the
correct option
72. Match the columns and choose the correct List I List II
combination. A. Spike p. Bougainvillea
B. Capitulum q. Coleus
A. Polychaeta p. Scorpion C. Dichasial r. Adhatoda
B. Trematoda q. Pila cyme
C. Arachnida r. Liver Fluke D. Multiparous s. Zinnia
D. Gastropoda s. Nereis cyme
t. Star Fish E. Verticillaster t. Asclepias
(A) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q (A) Ar, Bs,s, Cp,
C Dt, Eq
(B) A-q, B-s, C-t, D-p (B) Ar, Bp,p, Cs,
C Dt, Eq
(C) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-t (C) Aq, Bs,s, Cp,
C Dt, Er
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(D) As, Bq, Ct, Dp, Er have been correctly matched with the parts
75. The diagram represents the L. S of which they indicate
monocot seed. Choose the correct
combination of labelling
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78. Haemoglobin is a 80. Numerical aperture of microscope lens is
(A) Copper containing pigment expressed by
(B) Iron containing pigment (A) Angular aperture only
(C) Magnesium containing pigment (B) Refractive index only
(D) Calcium containing pigment (C) Both angular aperture and refractive
index
79. The area where the medullary sheath is (D) Wave length of the light used
absent in the nerve fibre is called
(A) Schwann cells
(B) Schwann nodes
(C) Nissl Granules
(D) Node of Ranvier
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