Dgca Module 13 Part 01
Dgca Module 13 Part 01
# a) an internal doubler
b) decrease take off speed
b) external doubler
# c) decrease landing speed
c) an intercostals
2. Lowering of the flaps
9. What does a trim tab do?
# a) increases drag and lift
# a) Eases control loading for pilot
b) increases drag
b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal
c) increases lift limit
3. Pushing the left rudder pedal c) Provides finer control movements by the
pilot
# a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the
right wing will rise Page 1 - Mod 13
b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left 10. How does a balance tab move?
wing will rise
a) In the same direction proportional to the
c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on control surface it is attached to
the wing
b) In the same direction a small amount
4. What preventative maintenance can be
# c) In the opposite direction proportional
carried out in case of HIRF?
to the control surface it is attached to
a) Check of aircraft structure
11. Satellite transmits updates on every
b) Bonding and insulation tests
a) 13th orbit
# c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment
b) 9th orbit
5. What do ruddervators do?
c) 2nd orbit
# a) Control pitch and yaw
12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on
b) Control pitch and roll
a) DC bus
c) Control yaw and roll
b) AC bus
6. On a helicopter what is dragging?
# c) GND services
a) Movement of each blade vertically about
13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between
their lateral hinges
a) modulator and power amp
# b) Movement of each blade horizontally
about their vertical hinge # b) local oscillator and modulator
c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground c) local oscillator and demodulator
7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta 14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a
wing aircraft? course of 090 RMI pointer points to
a) Elevators a) 0
b) Ailerons b) 090
Page
# c) Elevons # c) 180
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15. What is power at pulse? 22. What effect does the ground have on a
helicopter?
a) Peak power
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# a) Increases lift
b) Pulsed power
b) No effect
c) Average power
c) Increases thrust
16. What frequency increases radar relative
range 23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?
# b) Short b) Swashplate
# c) recharging
c) In-between legs
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29. What happens when battery master is a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant
switched off in flight? engine input pressure
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c) a decision height depending upon the a) system self monitors, failure does not
RVR affect system
41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to # b) system self monitors, failure does affect
system
a) assist the aerodynamic response
c) system is duplicated, failure allows
b) produce a co-ordinated turn
aircraft to continue
# c) block the Dutch roll frequency
autoland
42. in a triplex system, the detection of a
48. On the approach the autopilot loses the
failure of one simplex system will
LOC signal; the aircraft would
disconnect
a) fly a circle
a) all channels
b) increase its drift angle
# b) the failed system and carry on with an
autoland # c) fly parallel to the beam
c) the failed system and continue with a 49. The Airworthiness requirements for the
manual approach autopilot / autoland system are laid down in
46. To carry out an autopilot check first 52. Automatic trim is used to
# b) ensure all control surfaces are b) prevents standing loads on the elevator
Page
unobstructed
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c) allow full authority to be regained by the c) call up the relevant current status
aileron
59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are
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53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered # a) yaw rate gyro signals
by
b) aileron to rudder crossfeed
a) measured radio deviation
c) aileron to elevator crossfeed
# b) rate of change of radio deviation
60. A yaw damper system operates on
c) rate of change of course
a) all yaw frequencies
54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots
b) only mid range frequencies
ensure
# c) low range frequencies
a) that the trim indicators will read zero
prior to engagement 61. A GCR will trip if what is detected?
# b) that the autopilot control circuits are at a) Under frequency and over frequency
zero demand conditions engagement
b) Over frequency and under current
c) that the aircraft will always be returned to
straight and level flight when the autopilot is c) Over current and over frequency
engaged Page 7 - Mod 13
55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) 62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF
climb mode the throttles are used for aerial cables?
# a) maintaining a computed EPR a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) controlling to a maximum thrust b) 25 ohms
c) correction minor speed deviations # c) 50 ohms
56. The GA mode is usually initiated by 63. To improve the image or picture when
a) pressing a button on the control wheel using the WRX (weather radar receiver)
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a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until # a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose
the defect is fixed heavy
b) the aircraft can fly but the section with b) to make the nose go down
the problem is not used/ shut off
c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail
# c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base heavy
where the defect can be fixed
73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be
67. The tail nav light. What angle of checked by checking
divergence should it have?
# a) one cell at a time until all cells are
a) 180 degrees completed
b) 120 degrees b) only the end cell as all the others will be
the same
# c) 140 degrees
c) any single cell as all the others will be the
68. When changing the brushes on a DC
same
generator the brushes must be bedded first,
this can be done 74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance
level of separation i.e.. + or - feet
# a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
a) 400ft
b) the generator taken off the aircraft and
bedding done on the bench b) 160ft
69. What must be taken into account when 75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll
measuring the SG or relative density of a control positions are known by using
lead acid battery?
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and
# a) The temperature RVDTs for pitch control surfaces
# b) Non-volatile
# b) bonding strips
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c) dependent upon the operation of the 98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost
aeroplane at slow speed at 400 ft in final approach
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102. The effective gain of the glide path 109. A triplex system looses one channel, the
receiver system is now,
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103. During an automatic landing , the 110. A fail passive system in the event of
aircraft descent rate is sensed by failure will
# a) remains engaged ready for G/A 112. The two parameters used for category
classification are
b) drives the throttles forward
a) radio height/runway visual range
c) disconnects after a short time
b) localiser and glideslope
106. When will the decision height aural
warning sound # c) decision height and runway visual range
c) the airfield marker beacon a) approach land and runway guidance with
zero DH and RVR
108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled
by signals from # b) approach land and RVR in the order of
50 meters
# a) radio altimeter
c) approach land and runway guidance with
b) the glide slope receiver
Page
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128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is 134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered,
showing a course of 000, if the course knob due to rising gusts what will happen to the
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b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature c) an alert of the ground proximity is made
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146. Runway turn of lights have a beam b) disconnect the system if a fault appears
width of
# c) both a & b
a) 10 degree
Page
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a) green colour 160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are
in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the
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# b) amber
a) 180 degree radial
c) red colour
# b) 090 degree radial
154. The international emergency frequency
used in VHF Comms is c) 275 degree radial
with the
c) 140 nm
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b) square root of the speed 174. In a fully fly by wire system if the
rudder becomes disconnected
c) cube root of the speed
a) it is centralized by a spring
Page 19 - Mod 13
b) its control is maintained by electric trim
168. Temperature compensation is required
on an altimeter because of c)
b) Decreases
b) high charge current
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c) low charge current a) a high low chine and pink light comes on
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181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator b) a low chine and blue light comes on
read slightly above 1.
c) a high chine and pink light comes on
a) This is normal
188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is
b) You would change the Tx as the datum is received
shifted
a) a designated light comes on
c) You would adjust the Tx
b) a selcall light along with chine comes on
182. To ensure the compass is serviceable
c) a chime sounds in the cockpit
before installation you would carry out
189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved
a) damping and periodicity checks
in the direction of tail
# b) damping and pivot friction check
a) the authority of elevators not effected
c) damping and alignment checks
# b) the up movement authority is effected
183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-
c) the down movement authority is effected
acid cell taken twice after charging shows
substantially lower value. 190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is
lost
a) Cell is defective
a) aircraft continues to descent with an
b) You top up the cell with distilled water
accumulating drift
c) You replace the cell
# b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to
184. Suppressor line is required for runway
# c) all L band equipments including TCAS a) does not require voltage regulation as
RPM is constant.
185. Differential GPS requires
# b) voltage is regulated by GCU
a) 3 satellites and two ground based
transmitters c) voltage is regulated by IDG
187. When the captain calls attendant c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a
signal
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---------194. In the reversed camber 200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100
horizontal stabilizer as shown
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a) Door
a) the elevator causes tail down movement
# b) Left wing
i.e. increases tail plane down force
c) Right wing
b) there is an increases tail plane up-force
201. Shock stall
# c) there is an increased tailplane down-
force a) is a flap down stall
Page 22 - Mod 13 # b) occurs at high speeds
195. Equivalent airspeed is c) occurs at low speeds
a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and 202. Drooping of helicopter blades is
PE compensated by
b) rectified airspeed corrected for a) flapping
compressibility
b) dragging
# c) calibrated airspeed corrected for
compressibility # c) centrifugal force
c) a false indication of climb # b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting
on the helicopter
199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes
through c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the
helicopter
a) the centre of rotor disc
206. to transmit position feedback for
b) through the centre of intersection of actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces,
longitudinal and lateral axis in a fly by wire system
Page
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# a) LVDT is used hence ensuring 213. When the trailing edge flap is
interchangeability
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208. What is the error signal used for in a c) Fail light illuminates
fixed angle approach in LOC
215. Flight director command bars indicate
coupling?entrifugal force
# a) Direction in which aircraft is to be
a) Heading and Deviation
manoeuvred
# b) Course error and Deviation
b) Direction in which aircraft is flying
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation
c) Direction in which the beacon is
209. in modern aircraft, power distribution
216. Mode S has
of Generators are controlled by
a) 12 address bits
# a) BPCU
# b) 24 address bits
b) PCDU (power control distribution unit)
c) 36 address bits
c) SPCU
217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon,
210. As you approach supersonic
the reference and variable phases are
# a) total drag is increased
a) In phase
b) lift is reduced
b) Opposite phase
c) thrust is reduced
# c) Phase quadrature
211. Range resolution is obtained by
218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation
a) High PRF error allowed is
b) 6 inch
Page 24 - Mod 13
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# c) 9 inch c)
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220. If you momentarily short the two 226. If the static line is disconnected in the
spikes of bonding tester cabin, the Mach meter reading would be
221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber 227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is
pipe are joined by defective
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# c) in the centre
232. during compass swing, using a datum
Page 27 - Mod 13
compass, the error permitted in aligning the
aircraft is 239. An autopilot computer
a) 1 degree # a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
b) 5 degree b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS
c) 10 degree c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS
233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same --------240. What type of flap is this?
RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft
changes the decision? # a) Split flap
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c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right 266. Which of the following modes does a
autopilot go through in correct sequence?
260. Magnetic heading errors will be
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
# a) positive if easterly
# b) Attitude, flare, rollout
b) negative if easterly
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
c) negative if northerly
267. When can other autopilot modes be
261. What will happen with a flux valve in a
select once Go Around has been selected?
turn?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
a) It moves once the aircraft is established
on a new heading b) When reached a desired altitude
# b) It move as the aircraft moves c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north 268. Once the G/S has been captured what
other pitch modes are available?
262. When will a mode C interrogation be
ignored? a) No other pitch modes are available
# a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude b) Only when the aircraft is above the
to P1 glideslope beam
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b) can move the control surface only by b) Alter the transmitter power
moving the tab
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273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB 279. What controls are used in response to
HF system what should you do with the PVD display?
control switch? Select it to
# a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
a) OFF
b) Control wheel
b) AM
c) PVD control unit
c) either USB or LSB
280. DME transponder transmits on receipt
Page 31 - Mod 13
a) of any interrogation
274. How long is the time between the start
b) of pilot input command request
of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the
P2 pulse length? # c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12
microseconds
a) 21 micro seconds
281. The best design of a MRB is where the C
b) 8 micro seconds
of P
c) 17 micro seconds
# a) does not move
275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and
b) moves freely along the length of the blade
the course selected is 000 degrees what will
the TO/FROM indicator indicate? c) is insignificant
a) TO 282. The RAD alt electrical length for an
helicopter is
b) FROM
a) 16ft
# c) Neither
b) 12ft
276. What does the Radar contour button
do? # c) 28ft
Page
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a) the altimeter
a) 12bits
b) the DH annunciator panel
b) 64bits
# c) the rad alt display
# c) 24bits
291. When substituting the radio altimeter
284. The rotor cone is formed by antenna cables, you should consider
287. The ground run monitor presents c) disables DME voice ident
information
294. GPS frequency is
# a) of distance to go and ground speed
a) 1575 GHz
b) duration of ground run
# b) 1575 MHz
c) angle of crosstrack on ground
c) 1525 MHz
288. A mode C transponder
295. Radio switches are normally
a) can be used for TCAS
# a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
# b) cannot be used for TCAS
b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
only
296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft
289. The audio select panel allows the crew
to # a) systems is disabled
# a) transmit on one channel, listen on one b) no traffic will be shown
b) transmit on one channel, listen on c) all traffic produces aural alert
multiple others
297. Mode S pulses. Which are used?
c) receive on one channel, transmit on
Page
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# b) s1,p1,p3,p4
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c) s1,s2,p1,p2
b) highest blade
Page 34 - Mod 13
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