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CSAT2012 Paper I

The document is a sample question paper for the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) from 2012. It contains instructions for candidates on how to fill out the answer sheet and details on the structure of the test. The test contains 100 multiple choice questions across a range of subjects to assess general studies and aptitude. Candidates are informed that there will be penalties for incorrect answers. The document also contains advertisements for CSAT preparation materials for sale.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
63 views

CSAT2012 Paper I

The document is a sample question paper for the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) from 2012. It contains instructions for candidates on how to fill out the answer sheet and details on the structure of the test. The test contains 100 multiple choice questions across a range of subjects to assess general studies and aptitude. Candidates are informed that there will be penalties for incorrect answers. The document also contains advertisements for CSAT preparation materials for sale.

Uploaded by

Panda Boy
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CSAT: IAS PRELIM 2012: Question Paper & Solution

TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES (P) B
May 20, 2012
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTION

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY
A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE
PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the
Box provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd Mark will deduct.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have
to fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

Penalty for Wrong answers


10.
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION
PAPERS.
i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted
as penalty.
ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1
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Series - forty (40) printed CSAT practice papers (20 for
paper I and 20 for paper II) modelled on the current pattern.

What is included in the study material?


Material/Book Publisher
General Knowledge (Paper I) and Aptitude (Paper II) Pearson Education
General Knowledge (Paper I) and Aptitude (Paper II) Tata McGraw Hill
DVD (100+ eBooks & 10,000+ Question Bank) Digimedia
India Year Book 2013 (Paper I) Government of India
Current Affairs (Paper I) Digimedia
Practice Test Series (Paper I & Paper II) Digimedia

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w w w. I A S E X A M S . c o m
1. Under which of the following circumstances may capital gains arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product


2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase
in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in
the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank


2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only


(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

3. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India


2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

4
4. Consider the following statements :

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank
2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3. Stability of the government of the concerned country
4. Economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

5. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

(a) big banks should try to open offices in each district


(b) there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
(c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
(d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

6. Consider the following :

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the
quality of crops
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2


(c) 2 and 3 (d)
None

5
7. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very
important role in the countrys economy, which of the following statements is/
are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the
king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

8. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian
Constitution is based on the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided
in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909


(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

9. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tones
of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import
it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able
to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be
imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

6
10. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his
village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He
had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most
convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(a) direction facing the polestar


(b) direction opposite to the polestar
(c) direction keeping the polestar to his left
(d) direction keeping the polestar to his right

11. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements
called rare earth metals. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed


some restrictions on their export
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not
found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of
electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Consider the following protected areas :

1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only


(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7
13. Consider the following statements :

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern


India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases
from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah
Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year


(b) Rainfall in winter only
(c) An extremely short dry season
(d) A definite dry and wet season

15. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are
local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass ?

(a) Biosphere Reserves


(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

16. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Bat 2. Bee 3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

8
17. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of
endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustar
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

18. Consider the following statements :

If there were no phenomenon of capillary

1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp


2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. he blotting paper would fail to function
4. he big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only


(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories
of ecosystem servicesprovisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and
cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

(a) Production of food and water


(b) Control of climate and disease
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(d) Maintenance of diversity

9
20. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted
to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India
only
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

21. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. Consider the following :

1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only


(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10
23 Consider the following agricultural practices :

1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon
sequestration/storage in the soil ?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of them

24. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for


some reason ?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.


2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

25. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago
are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

(a) The destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species


(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
(c) Scarcity of food available to them
(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

11
26. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)
Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled
Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting
licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

27. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance


(b) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behavior
on the part of some members.

28. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian
agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional
genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic
modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological
resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 Only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

12
29. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which
of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under


Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled
Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (A)
3. Power and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

30. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it
impact the country?

1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of
water-water.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative
sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that
allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular
India.
4. he expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing
motors and pump-sets to draw ground water will be completely
reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

13
31. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy
as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code


2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive
Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.


2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate
the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

14
33. With reference to consumers rights/privileges under the provisions of law in
India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.


2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is
required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in
the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.


2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election
but has to become a member of the House within six months from the
date of his/her election.
3. f he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be
addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

15
35. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States


2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that
of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory

Select given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

36. Consider the following kinds of organism:

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as


biopesticides?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

16
37. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the
power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statement is/are
correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass
gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of
hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used
for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

38. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.


2. It removes all the undesirable odours from water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and
improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

17
39. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.


2. It is one of the thinnest by strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as conducting electrodes required for touch screens, LCDs
and organic LEDs

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

40. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol
has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning ?

1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only


(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

18
41. With reference to stem cells, frequently in the news, which of the following
statements is/are correct?

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.


2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

42. Consider the following statements :

Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

1. in the production of plastic foams


2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only


(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 3 and 4

19
43. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from
India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the
implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies
made of anti-matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for
the continued expansion of universe ?

1. Detection of microwaves in space


2. Observation of red shift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above can be cited as evidence

20
45. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred
km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth.
What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth ?

(a) The Earths magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
(c) Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching
the surface of the Earth
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

46. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements
given below are correct ?

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use


by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the
beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only


(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

47. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were
common to both Buddhism and Jainism ?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment


2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

21
48. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive
Governance?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking


2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

49. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

(a) three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent


(b) three main linguistic divisions into which the language of India can be
classified
(c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) three main musical Gharanas prevent in India

50. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

(a) the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
(b) emergence of a left wing in the Congress made the working of the
ministries impossible
(c) there were widespread communal disturbances in their province
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

22
51. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the
jobs of ASHA, a trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

52. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India
Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces


2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

53. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed.
What was the reason for its formation?

(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to


form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare
appropriate petitions/representations to the government
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its
deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a prupose
(c) Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to bring together of the
country under one organization
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this
context

23
54. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India


2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

55. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha
by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of the State and to change the name of
a state
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State
List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the
pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the function of the Election Commission and to determine
the number of Election Commissioners

56. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood
options of rural poor?

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and


agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening self-help groups and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation
equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

24
57. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human
Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level


2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

58. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable feature of the recommendations
of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package
linked to adherence to the proposed design
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in
consonance with Indias demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

25
59. What is/are recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the
growth of manufacturing sector?

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones


2. Providing the benefit of single window clearance
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

60. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public
finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament


2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government
against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary
Budget Office
5. Introduction Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only


(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

26
61. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations


(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
(d) None of the statement (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this
contex

62. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government


2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

63. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with
economic development:

1. Low birthrate with low death rate


2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low beath

Select the correct order of the above stages using the cods given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1,3
(c) 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 2, 1

27
64. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core
Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among
those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only


(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 only
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

65. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing
on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy


2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 4 and 5

28
66. Government of India encourages the cultivation of sea buckhorn. What is the
importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification


2. It is a rich source of biodiesel
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high
altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

67. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of mixed farming?

(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops


(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
(d) None of the above

68. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern


Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes protected Area Network in this
State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b)


Assam
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d)
Uttarakhand

29
69. Consider the following crops of India:

1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea

Which of the statements is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

70. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth


2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3


(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

71. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

1. The countrys total geographical area under the category of wetlands is


recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than
that of inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

30
72. Consider the following crops of India?

1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet

Which of the statements given above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

73. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young
fold mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only


(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

74. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earths
surface, because

1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earths surface
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

31
75. The acdification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of
concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely


affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be
adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

76. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for
intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG)?

1 CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when


the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries
are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to
press charges against those who have violated the law while managing
public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies,
CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the
law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32
77. The endeavour of Janani Suraksha Yojana Programme is:

1. to promote institutional deliveries


2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only


(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

78. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok SabhaAns. (a)

79. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a


Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok
Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications
in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

33
80. Consider the following :

1. Hotels and restaurants


2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the Social Security coverage
under Employees State Insurance Scheme?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

81. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India
to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission


2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only


(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

82. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joing sitting
of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill


3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

34
83. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of
rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Pancyayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward


regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty
and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and
cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended
for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only


(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

84. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid
down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture


2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective
activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

35
85. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has
to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India
only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are
made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only


(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

86. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue
research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In
this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.


2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate
more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

36
87. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the
temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs:

(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation

88. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the
origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium


(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

89. What are the reasons for the peoples resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal
in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into
its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers
have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have
adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse
effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

37
90. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically
engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought


2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space
stations
4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

91. Consider the following statements:

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Nauroji to the cause of


Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British


2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of
Indians
3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything
else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

38
92. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the Major traditions of India that has been
kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the


Mughal period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above is correct

93. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but


not in Bharatnatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature
of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of
movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39
94. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were
known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath


2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

95. The Rowlatt Act aimed at

(a) compulsory economic support to war efforts


(b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
(c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement
(d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

96. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important
in history, because:

1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence


2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that
Session
3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above

40
97. Lord Buddhas image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called
Bhumisparsha Mudra. It symbolizes:

(a) Buddhas calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from
disturbing his meditation
(b) Buddhas calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the
temptations of Mara
(c) Buddhas reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally
dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

98. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

(a) Bhakti
(b) image worship and Yajnas
(c) worship of nature and Yajnas
(d) worship of nature and Bhakti

99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

41
100. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers bank. This would imply
which of the following?

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.


2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only


(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

42
Answers
1. Under which of the following circumstances may capital gains arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product


2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to
increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The one-time gain arising out of the transfer (sale, exchange,
relinquishment etc.) of a capital asset is called capital gain. Shares, bonds,
mutual fund investments, jewellery, gold, silver, precious stones, paintings
and collectible items are some of assets that come under the Capital assets
category.
Rural agricultural land in India (located in an area with population less than
10,000), stock in trade held for business, raw materials held for the purpose of
business or profession, items of personal effects (personal vehicles, clothes,
furniture etc.) does not come under capital assets.
Increase in sales of a product does not come under capital gains

2. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money


supply in the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank


2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(c) 1 and 3

43
Explanation: Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central
Bank will injects money into the system as the Central Bank pays cash to public
and hence it increases the money supply in the economy

Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public will take money out of
the system as cash from the public accumulates with the commercial banks
so it will decrease the money supply in the economy

Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank will injects money into
the system and hence it increases the money supply in the economy

Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank will take money
out of it, so it reduce the money supply in the economy

44
3. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India


2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Foreign in Indian companies is called Foreign Direct Investment


(FDI) Options 1,2 and 3 are instances of FDI
In portfolio investment money comes through foreign institutional investor (FII)

4. Consider the following statements :

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank
2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3. Stability of the government of the concerned country
4. Economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Currency exchange rates fluctuate as per market demand and


supply. Sometimes central banks with huge reserves of relevant currencies try
to avoid wild fluctuations by strategic buying or selling of currencies.

45
5. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

(c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development

Explanation: Lead Bank Scheme, adopted in 1969, was recommended by
Gadgil Committee. Districts were assigned to different banks and the Lead
Bank acted as a consortium leader to meet the credit needs of the district.

6. Consider the following :

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the
quality of crops
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

(d) None

Explanation: Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of soil and


the quality of crops had been in practice in India since the Gupta period. Raja
Todar Mal, finance minister of Akbar, introduced a system of revenue which
assessed land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
and their yield
Babur had used mobile canons centuries before British.
Tobacco Red chillies and Potato was introduced to India by the Portuguese.

46
7. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very
important role in the countrys economy, which of the following statements is/
are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the
king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Shreni is an association of traders, merchants, and artisans.


Guilds were registered with Local Official not by central authority.

8. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian
Constitution is based on the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided
in the

(c) Government of India Act, 1935

47
9. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tones
of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import
it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able
to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be
imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

There is no policy of not using now but later. so first option ruled out.

10. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his
village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He
had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most
convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(c) direction keeping the polestar to his left

48
11. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements
called rare earth metals. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed


some restrictions on their export
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not
found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of
electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

China produces about 90% of five rare earth materials - dysprosium,terbium,


europium, neodymium, and yttrium

12. Consider the following protected areas :

1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas 4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Bhitarkanika is not a Tiger reserve, its a National Park in Odisha and home to
largest population of giant salt water crocodile in India.

49
13. Consider the following statements :

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern


India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases
from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) Both 1 and 2

14. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah
Region?

(d) A definite dry and wet season

15. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are
local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass ?

(b) National Parks

50
16. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of
endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass

18. Consider the following statements :

If there were no phenomenon of capillarity


1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. the blotting paper would fail to function
4. the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

we consume a soft drink by suction

51
19. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories
of ecosystem servicesprovisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and
cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination

Explanation:

A provisioning service is any type of benefit people get from ecosystems (genetic
resources, food, fiber, fresh water etc.)
A regulating service is the benefit provided by ecosystem that moderate natural
phenomena (flood control. climate control, disease control etc)
A supporting services are services that are necessary for the production of all
other ecosystem services (Nutrient cycling, crop pollination, biomass production,
production of atmospheric oxygen, soil formation and retention, water cycling,
and provisioning of habitat.
Cultural services are the non-material benefits people obtain from ecosystems
through spiritual enrichment, cognitive development, reflection, recreation, and
aesthetic experience, including, e.g., knowledge systems, social relations, and
aesthetic values.

20. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted
to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains

Explanation:

Oryx live in Arabian peninsula and Chiru lives in Tibeten mountains.

52
21. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Promotion of vegetarianism can not be threat to bio diversity.

22. Consider the following :

1. Black-necked crane 2. Cheetah


3. Flying squirrel 4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India ?

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Black-necked crane is found in Ladakh region. Snow leopard is found in high


altitudes of Himalayas. Due to hunting and habitat loss, Cheetahs in India
became extinct in the twentieth century. The cheetah is the only animal that
has been described extinct in India in the last 100 years.

53
23. Consider the following agricultural practices :

1. Contour bunding 2. Relay cropping 3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon
sequestration/storage in the soil ?

(c) 1, 2 and 3

24. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for


some reason ?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.


2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

25. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago
are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle

Explanation:

A drug called diclofenac which ease the pain of dying cattle remains in the
tissue of cattle and kill vultures too.

54
26. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)
Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled
Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting
licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(b) 1 and 2

27. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

28. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian
agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional
genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic
modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological
resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: NBA does not directly monitors and supervises the scientific
research on genetic modification of crop plants.

55
29. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which
of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under


Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled
Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (A)
3. Power and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

30. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it
impact the country?

1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of
water-water.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative
sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that
allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular
India.
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for
installing motors and pump-sets to draw ground water will be completely
reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(b) 1 and 2 only

56
31. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy
as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive
Principles of State Policy?

(b) 2 and 3 only


32. Consider the following statements:
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate
the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(d) None

Explanation: Puducherry is represented in the Rajya Sabha, so option 1 is


incorrect.
It is within the preview of judiciary to adjudicate election disputes, not Chief
Election Commissioner, so option 2 is incorrect
As per Article 79, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha
and the President, so option 3 is incorrect

57
33. With reference to consumers rights/privileges under the provisions of law in
India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.


2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is
required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in
the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Fee is required and it is as follows:



Before District Forum (for claims less then Rs 20 lakhs):

For claims up to Rs. 1 lakh = Rs. 100

For claims from Rs.1 lakh to Rs. 5 lakhs = Rs. 200


For claims from Rs.5 lakh to Rs. 10 lakhs = Rs. 400
For claims from Rs.10 lakh to Rs. 20 lakhs = Rs. 500

Before State Commission (for claims of Rs 20 lakhs to Rs 1 crore):

For claims from Rs.20 lakh to Rs. 50 lakhs = Rs. 2000

For claims from Rs.50 lakh to Rs. 1Crore = Rs. 4000

Before National Commission (for claims more than 1 crore):

For claims exceeding Rs. 1crore = Rs. 5000

58
34. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.


2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election
but has to become a member of the House within six months from the
date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be
addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(b) 3 only

35. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States


2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that
of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States

Select given below:

(c) 1 and 4

59
36. Consider the following kinds of organism:

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as


biopesticides?

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is the most widely used
biopesticide in the world today.
Coniothyrium minitans is a naturally occurring fungus used commercially to
control common Sclerotinia plant diseases through parasitism of the resting
structures of the pathogen
Neem is a well known flowering plant that is being used as a biopesticide

60
37. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the
power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statement is/are
correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass
gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of
hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used
for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

61
38. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.


2. It removes all the undesirable odours from water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and
improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

The Ultraviolet energy damages the genetic core of the microorganisms by


rearranging their DNA /RNA and thus kills the microorganisms ability to function
and reproduce. UV rays can destroy 99.99 % of microorganisms, but do not
change the taste, odor or colour of the water.

62
39. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.


2. It is one of the thinnest by strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as conducting electrodes required for touch screens, LCDs
and organic LEDs

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Graphene is a form of carbon, not silicon, so option 3 is incorrect


63
40. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol
has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning ?

1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(b) 1 and 3 only

64
41. With reference to stem cells, frequently in the news, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Stem cells are biological cells found in all multi-cellular organisms
that can divide (through mitosis) and differentiate into diverse specialized cell
types

42. Consider the following statements :

Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

1. in the production of plastic foams


2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

65
43. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from
India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the
implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies
made of anti-matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(b) 2 and 3 only


44. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for
the continued expansion of universe ?

1. Detection of microwaves in space


2. Observation of red shift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

66
45. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred
km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth.
What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth ?

(a) The Earths magnetic field diverts them towards its poles

Explanation: Electrons in the solar wind that sweeps out from the Sun and
hurtle towards Earth travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec. The Earths
magnetic field diverts them towards its north and south magnetic poles. The
electrons then collide with atmospheric molecules, exciting the molecules
electrons and making them emit light in the sky. The aurora borealis (northern
lights) and aurora australis (southern lights) are the result of these collisions.

46. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements
given below are correct ?
1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use
by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the
beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Sushruta, worlds first recorded surgeon, used the S type and
U type surgical instruments and hence statement 1 is correct
There is no recorded evidence of internal organs transplantation in the human
body, so statement 2 is incorrect
Aryabhatta, in his seminal work Surya Siddhanta, has given the concept of sine
of an angle, so statement 3 is correct
Brahamgupta gave the formula for the area of the cyclic quadrilateral, so
statement 4 is correct

67
47. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were
common to both Buddhism and Jainism ?
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Jainism does not avoid the extremities of penance.

48. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive
Governance?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking


2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only


49. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

(c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture

68
50. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Explanation: Congress, following its policy of non cooperation in the war effort
had called for resignations.

51. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the
jobs of ASHA, a trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

52. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India
Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces


2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: First statutory recognition of separate electorates for Muslims


was contained in the Act of 1909, so statement 2 is incorrect.

69
53. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed.
What was the reason for its formation?

(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its
deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a prupose

Explanation: This is the most difficult question of this paper as UPSC managed
to stump almost everybody with the option C and most people fell for the
trap. Option C would have been correct also had it omitted the name,
Behramji Malabari

54. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India


2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(b) 2 and 3 only

70
55. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha
by the Constitution of India?

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State
List and to create one or more All India Services

56. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood
options of rural poor?

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and


agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening self-help groups and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation
equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(b) 2 only

71
57. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human
Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level


2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

58. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable feature of the recommendations
of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package
linked to adherence to the proposed design
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in
consonance with Indias demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

72
59. What is/are recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the
growth of manufacturing sector?

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones


2. Providing the benefit of single window clearance
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

60. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public
finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament


2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government
against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary
Budget Office
5. Introduction Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

61. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award

73
62. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government


2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) 1, 2 and 3


63. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with
economic development:

1. Low birthrate with low death rate


2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low beath

Select the correct order of the above stages using the cods given below:

(c) 2, 3, 1

74
64. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core
Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among
those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 only

Explanation: Eight Core Industries: Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum
Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity

65. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing
on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy


2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 1, 2 and 5 only

75
66. Government of India encourages the cultivation of sea buckhorn. What is the
importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification


2. It is a rich source of biodiesel
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high
altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) 1 and 3 only

67. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of mixed farming?

(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together

76
68. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern


Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes protected Area Network in this
State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

69. Consider the following crops of India:

1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea

Which of the statements is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

70. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth


2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(b) 1, 2 and 3

77
71. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

The countrys total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded
more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of
inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

72. Consider the following crops of India?

1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet

Which of the statements given above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

(d) 1, 2, and 3

73. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young
fold mountains?

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

78
74. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earths
surface, because

1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earths surface
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(c) 1 and 3 only

Earth is NOT heated from direct sunlight. The atmosphere is heated from the
gound up!. Sunlight goes right through our atmosphere and hits the ground;
the ground warms which in turn warms the air in contact with the ground. So,
heat travels up from Earth to atmosphere and atmosphere layers closer to
ground receives more heat than the layers farther.
The air around us is made up of billions and billions of tiny air molecules. These
molecules are kept close to the earths surface by way of the gravitational pull of
the earth. In other words, the atmosphere is at its most dense at sea level due
to the stronger gravitational pull that exists near the earths surface; all of the
air molecules are packed close together and are most numerous at or near sea
level. So, the higher you go, the air is lighter or thinner. Since the atmosphere
is warmed from the ground up, and since the air is at its most dense near the
surface of the earth, the air near the surface is going to be able to retain much
more heat than the air at higher elevations due to the increased amounts of
air molecules; higher elevations have fewer air molecules and consequently
cant retain as much heat. So, even though you would be much closer to the
sun if you were standing on top of a mountain, the air temperature would be
considerably less than it would be at sea level. This is called the lapse rate (
the rate of temperature loss with increasing altitude)
Sometimes the air temperature may increase with height in a narrow layer.
This is referred to as a temperature inversion (thats the reason, UPSC started
the question with the qualifier, normally)

79
75. The acdification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of
concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely


affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be
adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

80
76. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for
intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when


the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries
are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to
press charges against those who have violated the law while managing
public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies,
CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the
law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) 2 and 3 only

81
77. The endeavour of Janani Suraksha Yojana Programme is:

1. to promote institutional deliveries


2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only



78. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months

79. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following


statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a


Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok
Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications
in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) Both 1 and 2


Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past In 1952,
1963, 1973 and 2002 under Delimitation Commission acts of 1952, 1962, 1972
and 2002.

82
80. Consider the following :

1. Hotels and restaurants


2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the Social Security coverage
under Employees State Insurance Scheme?

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


81. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India
to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission


2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

83
82. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joing sitting
of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

84
83. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of
rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Pancyayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward


regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty
and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and
cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended
for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(b) 3 and 4 only


84. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid
down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture


2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective
activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

85
85. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has
to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India
only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are
made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

86. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue
research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In
this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.


2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate
more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(d) 1, 2, and 3

87. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the
temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs:

(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation

86
88. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the
origin of life on the Earth?

(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

89. What are the reasons for the peoples resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal
in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into
its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers
have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have
adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse
effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 3 and 4 only

90. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically
engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought


2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space
stations
4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

87
91. Consider the following statements:

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Nauroji to the cause of


Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British


2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of
Indians
3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything
else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

92. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the Major traditions of India that has been
kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the


Mughal period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(b) 2 and 3 only

88
93. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but


not in Bharatnatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature
of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of
movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

94. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were
known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath


2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(c) 3 only

95. The Rowlatt Act aimed at

(b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial

89
96. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important
in history, because:

1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence


2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that
Session
3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only

97. Lord Buddhas image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called
Bhumisparsha Mudra. It symbolizes:

(b) Buddhas calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite
the temptations of Mara


98. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

(c) worship of nature and Yajnas

90
99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(b) 1 and 2 only

100. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers bank. This would imply
which of the following?
1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(b) 1 and 2 only

91
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