UPSC SCRA Mathematics Syllabus

Algebra

Concept of a set, Union and Intersection of sets, Complement of a set, Null set, Universal set and Power set, Venn
diagrams and simple applications. Cartesian product of two sets, relation and mapping - examples, Binary operation
on a set - examples. Representation of real numbers on a line.

Complex numbers: Modulus, Argument, Algebraic operations on complex numbers. Cube roots of unity.

Binary system of numbers, Conversion of a decimal number to a binary number and vice-versa.

Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Summation of series involving A.P., G.P., and H.P..

Quadratic equations with real co-efficients. Quadratic expressions: extreme values.

Permutation and Combination

Binomial theorem and its applications.

Matrices and Determinants: Types of matrices, equality, matrix addition and scalar multiplication -properties.
Matrix multiplication - non-commutative and distributive property over addition. Transpose of a matrix, Determinant
of a matrix. Minors and Cofactors. Properties of determinants. Singular and non-singular matrices. Adjoint
and Inverse of a square-matrix, Solution of a system of linear equations in two and three variables-elimination
method, Cramers rule and Matrix inversion method (Matrices with m rows and n columns where m, n < to 3 are to be
considered). Idea of a Group, Order of a Group, Abelian Group. Identitiy and inverse elements Illustration by simple
examples.

Trigonometry

Addition and subtraction formulae, multiple and sub-multiple angles. Product and factoring formulae. Inverse
trigonometric functions - Domains, Ranges and Graphs. DeMoivre's theorem, expansion of Sin n0 and Cos n0 in a
series of multiples of Sines and Cosines. Solution of simple trigonometric equations. Applications: Heights
and Distance.

Analytic Geometry (Two Dimensions)

Rectangular Cartesian. Coordinate system, distance between two points, equation of a straight line in various forms,
angle between two lines, distance of a point from a line. Transformation of axes. Pair of straight lines, general
equation of second degree in x and y - condition to represent a pair of straight lines, point of intersection, angle
between two lines. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form, equations of tangent and normal at a point,
orthogonality of two cricles. Standard equations of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola - parametric equations, equations
of tangent and normal at a point in both cartesian and parametric forms.

Differential Calculus

Concept of a real valued function - domain, range and graph. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse
functions, algebra of real functions, examples of polynomial, rational, trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic
functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits - examples. Continuity of functions - examples, algebraic operations
on continuous functions. Derivative of a function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative -
applications. Derivative of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another
function, derivative of a composite
function, chain rule. Second order derivatives. Rolle's theorem (statement only), increasing and decreasing functions.
Application of derivatives in problems of maxima, minima, greatest and least values of a function.

Integral Calculus and Differential equations

Integral Calculus: Integration as inverse of differential, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals
involving algebraic expression, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals-
determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves - applications.

Differential equations: Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation
by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equation, solution of first order and first degree
differential equation of various types - examples. Solution of second order homogeneous differential equation with
constant co-efficients.

Vectors and its Applications

Magnitude and direction of a vector, equal vectors, unit vector, zero vector, vectors in two and three dimensions,
position vector. Multiplication of a vector by a scalar, sum and difference of two vectors, Parallelogram law and
triangle law of addition. Multiplication of vectors — scalar product or dot product of two vectors, perpendicularity,
commutative and distributive properties. Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Scalar and vector triple
products. Equations of a line, plane and sphere in vector form - simple problems. Area of a triangle, parallelogram
and problems of plane geometry and trigonometry using vector methods. Work done by a force and moment of a
force.

Statistics and Probability

Statistics: Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution - examples. Graphical representation -

Histogram, frequency polygon - examples. Measure of central tendency - mean, median and mode. Variance and
standard deviation - determination and comparison. Correlation and regression.

Probability: Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive
events, impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite
events. Definition of probability : classical and statistical - examples. Elementary theorems on probability - simple
problems. Conditional probability, Bayes' theorem - simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample
space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binomial distribution.

UPSC SCRA General Ability Test Syllabus

(I) English
The questions are designed to test your understanding and command of the English language.

(II) General Knowledge

The questions are designed to test your general awareness of the environment around you and its application to
society. The level of answers to questions should be as expected of students of standard XII or equivalent.

Man and His Environment

Evolution of life, plants and animals, heredity and environment-Genetics, cells, chromosomes, genes.

Knowledge of the human body, nutrition, balanced diet, substitute foods, public health and sanitation including
control of epidemics and common diseases. Environmental pollution and its control. Food adulteration, proper
storage and preservation of food grains and finished products, population explosion, population control. Production
of food and raw materials. Breeding of animals and plants, artificial insemination, manures and fertilizers, crop
protection measures, high yielding varieties and green revolution, main cereal and cash crops of India.

Solar system and the earth. Seasons, Climate, Weather, Soil - its formation, erosion. Forests and their uses. Natural
calamities cyclones, floods, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions. Mountains and rivers and their role in irrigation in India.
Distribution of natural resources and industries in India. Exploration of underground minerals including
Oil. Conservation of natural resources with particular reference to the flora and fauna of India.

History, Politics and Society in India

Vedic, Mahavir, Budhdha, Mauryan, Sunga, Andhra, Kushan. Gupta ages (Mauryan Pillars, Stupa Caves, Sanchi,
Mathura and Gandharva Schools, Temple architecture, Ajanta and Ellora). The rise of new social forces with the
coming of Islam and establishment of broader contacts. Transition from feudalism to capitalism. Opening of
European contacts. Establishment of British rule in India. Rise of nationalism and national struggle for freedom
culminating in Independence.

Constitution of India and its Characteristic Features

Democracy, Secularism, Socialism, equality of opportunity and Parliamentary form of Government. Major political
ideologies - Democracy, Socialism, Communism and Gandhian idea of non-violence. Indian political parties,
pressure groups, public opinion and the Press, electoral system.

India’s foreign policy and non-alignment, Arms race, balance of power. World organisation - political, social,
economic and cultural. Important events (including sports and cultural activities) in India and abroad during the past
two years.

Broad Features of Indian social system

The caste system, hierarchy, recent changes and trends. Minority social institution - marriage, family, religion and
acculturation. Division of labour, co-operation, conflict and competition, Social control - reward and punishment, art,
law, customs, propaganda, public opinion, agencies of social control - family, religion, State educational institutions;
factors of social change - economic, technological, demographic, cultural; the concept of revolution.

Social Disorganisation in India

Casteism, communalism, corruption in public life, youth unrest, beggary, drugs, delinquency and crime, poverty and
unemployment. Social planning and welfare in India, community development and labour welfare; welfare of
Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes.

Money

Taxation, price, demographic trends, national income, economic growth. Private and Public Sectors; economic and
non-economic factors in planning, balanced versus imbalanced growth, agricultural versus industrial development;
inflation and price stabilization, problem of resource mobilisation. India’s Five Year Plans.

(III) Psychological Test

The questions are designed to assess your basic intelligence and mechanical aptitude.

UPSC SCRA Physical Sciences Syllabus

(I) Physics
 Length measurements using vernier, screw gauge, spherometer and optical lever. Measurement of time and mass.
 Straight line motion and relationships among displacement, velocity and acceleration.
 Newton's Laws of Motion, Momentum, impulse, work, energy and power.
 Coefficient of friction.
 Equilibrium of bodies under action of forces. Moment of a force, couple. Newton’s Law of Gravitation. Escape velocity.
Acceleration due to gravity.
 Mass and Weight; Centre of gravity, Uniform circular motion, centripetal force, Simple Harmonic motion. Simple
pendulum.
 Pressure in a fluid and its variation with depth. Pascal’s Law. Principle of Archimedes.
 Floating bodies, Atmospheric pressure and its measurement.
 Temperature and its measurement. Thermal expansion, Gas laws and absolute temperature. Specific heat, latent heats
and their measurement. Specific heat of gases.
 Mechanical equivalent of heat. Internal energy and First law of thermodynamics, Isothermal and adiabatic changes.
Transmission of heat; thermal conductivity.
 Wave motion; Longitudinal and transverse waves. Progressive and stationary waves.
 Velocity of sound in gas and its dependence on various factors. Resonance phenomena (air columns and strings).
 Reflection and refraction of light. Image formation by curved mirrors and lenses, Microscopes and telescopes. Defects
of vision.
 Prisms, deviation and dispersion, Minimum deviation. Visible spectrum.
 Field due to a bar magnet, Magnetic moment, Elements of Earth’s magnetic field. Magnetometers. Dia, para and
ferromagnetism.
 Electric charge, electric field and potential, Coulomb’s Law.
 Electric current; electric cells, e.m.f. resistance, ammeters and voltmeters. Ohm’s law; resistances in series and parallel,
specific resistance and conductivity. Heating effect of current.
 Wheatstone’s bridge, Potentiometer.
 Magnetic effect of current; straight wire, coil and solenoid electromagnet; electric bell.
 Force on a current-carrying conductor in magnetic field; moving coil galvanometers; conversion to ammeter or
voltmeter.
 Chemical effects of current; Primary and storage cells and their functioning, Laws of electrolysis.
 Electromagnetic induction; Simple A.C. and D.C. generators. Transformers, Induction coil,
 Cathode rays, discovery of the electron, Bohr model of the atom. Diode and its use as a rectifier.
 Production, properties and uses of X-rays.
 Radioactivity; Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays.
 Nuclear energy; fission and fusion, conversion of mass into energy, chain reaction.

(II) Chemistry
Physical Chemistry

1. Atomic structure; Earlier models in brief. Atom as at three dimensional model. Orbital concept. Quantum numbers
and their significance, only elementary treatment. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle. Electronic configuration. Aufbau
Principle, s.p.d. and f. block elements. Periodic classification only long form. Periodicity and electronic
configuration. Atomic radii, Electro-negativity in period and groups.
2. Chemical Bonding, electro-valent, co-valent, coordinate covalent bonds. Bond Properties, sigma and Pie bonds,
Shapes of simple molecules like water, hydrogen sulphide, methane and ammonium chloride. Molecular association
and hydrogen bonding.

3. Energy changes in a chemical reaction. Exothermic and Endothermic Reactions. Application of First Law of
Thermodynamics, Hess’s Law of constant heat summation.

4. Chemical Equilibria and rates of reactions. Law of Mass action. Effect of Pressure, Temperature and concentration
on the rates of reaction. (Qualitative treatment based on Le Chatelier’s Principle). Molecularity; First and Second
order reaction. Concept of Energy of activation. Application to manufacture of Ammonia and Sulphur trioxide.

5. Solutions : True solutions, colloidal solutions and suspensions. Colligative properties of dillute solutions and
determination of Molecular weights of dissolved substances. Elevation of boiling points. Depressions of freezing
point, osmotic pressure. Raoult’s Law (non-thermodynamic treatment only).

6. Electro-Chemistry : Solution of Electrolytes, Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis, ionic equilibria, Solubility

product. Strong and weak electrolytes. Acids and Bases (Lewis and Bronstead concept). pH and Buffer solutions.

7. Oxidation - Reduction; Modern, electronics concept and oxidation number.

8. Natural and Artificial Radioactivity: Nuclear Fission and Fusion. Uses of Radioactive isotopes.

Inorganic Chemistry

Brief Treatment of Elements and their industrially important compounds:

1. Hydrogen : Position in the periodic table. Isotopes of hydrogen. Electronegative and electropositive character.
Water, hard and soft water, use of water in industries, Heavy water and its uses.

2. Group I Elements : Manufacture of sodium hydroxide, sodium carbonate, sodium bicarbonate and sodium chloride.

3. Group II Elements : Quick and slaked lime. Gypsum, Plaster of Paris. Magnesium sulphate and Magnesia.

4. Group III Elements: Borax, Alumina and Alum.

5. Group IV Elements : Coals, Coke and solid Fuels, Silicates, Zolitis semi-conductors. Glass (Elementary treatment).

6. Group V Elements. Manufacture of ammonia and nitric acid. Rock Phosphates and safety matches.

7. Group VI Elements. Hydrogen peroxide, allotropy of sulphur, sulphuric acid. Oxides of sulphur.

8. Group VII Elements. Manufacture and uses of Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine and Iodine, Hydrochloric acid.
Bleaching powder.

9. Group O. (Noble gases) Helium and its uses.

10. Metallurgical Processes : General Methods of extraction of metals with specific reference to copper, iron,
aluminium, silver, gold, zinc and lead. Common alloys of these metals; Nickel and manganese steels.

Organic Chemistry

1. Tetrahedral nature of carbon, Hybridisation and sigma pie bonds and their relative strength. Single and multiple
bonds. Shapes of molecules. Geometrical and optical isomerism.
2. General methods of preparation, properties and reaction of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes, Petroleum and its
refining. Its uses as fuel. Aromatic hydrocarbons: Resonance and aromaticity. Benzene and Naphthalene and their
analogues. Aromatic substitution reactions.

3. Halogen derivatives: Chloroform, Carbon Tetrachloride, Chlorobenzene, D.D.T. and Gammexane.

4. Hydroxy Compounds : Preparation, properties and uses of Primary, Secondary and Tertiary alcohols, Methanol,
Ethanol, Glycerol and Phenol, Substitution reaction at aliphatic carbon atom.

5. Ethers; Diethyl ether.

6. Aldehydes and ketones : Formaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Benzaldehyde, acetone, acetophenone.

7. Nitro compounds amines: Nitrobenzene TNT, Anlline, Diazonium Compounds, Azodyes.

8. Carboxylic acid : Formic, acetic, denezoic and salicylic acids, acetyl salicylic acid.

9. Esters : Ethylacerate, Methyl salicylates, ethylbenzoate.

10. Polymers : Polythene, Teflon, Perpex, Artificial Rubber, Nylon and Polyester fibers.

11. Nonstructural treatment of Carbohydrates, Fats and Lipids, amino acids and proteins - Vitamins and hormones.

General English: Synonyms #1

Each of the following items consists of a sentence following by four words or groups of words. Select the synonym of
the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context

1. One must live life with DIGNITY.

 (a) Nobility
 (b) Eminence
 (c) Honour
 (d) Rank

2. Europe, America and Japan have taken to the field of science with SINGULAR vigour and activity.

 (a) Peculiar
 (b) Outstanding
 (C) Familier
 (d) single

3. Our age is preeminently an AGE of science.

 (a) Era
 (b) Date
 (c) Generation
 (d) Moment

4. Ant is believed to be the most INDUSTRIOUS Creature.

  (a) Sensible
 (b) Sucessful
 (c) Diligent
 (d) Punctual

5. The schools insist on giving WHOLESOME food to the Children forthe proper grovvih of their mind and
body.

 (a) WhoIe Crops

 (b) Nourishing
 (c) Fit
 (d) Sound

6. As l look around l see the crumbling ruins of a proud Civilization strewn like a vast heap of FUTILITY.

 (a) lrrelevanoe
 (b) Absurdity
 (c) Pointlessness
 (d) Downtrodden

7. Mark Antony’s EULOGY of Caesar is finely recorded by Shakespeare in his

 (a) Prayer
 (b) Honour
 (c) Praise
 (d) Denunoiation

8. By 1918, Gandhiji had established himself as a leader with UNIQUE way of protesting exploitation and
injustice.

 (a) Different
 (b) Exceptional
 (c) Excellent
 (d) Good

9. Your INTERVENTlON was required.

 (a) Interference
 (b) Interruption
 (c) Disturbance
 (d) Connection

10. It is difficult to DISCERN the sample on the slide without adjusting the microscope.

 (a) Discard
 b) Arrange
 (c) Determine
 (d) Debate

Answers

1. (c)
2. (a)
 3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b)
6. (c)
7. (c)
8. (b)
9. (a)
10. (c)

CDS 2015 (1) Paper General Knowledge Questions

1. Which one among the following was not an outcome of the fifth BRICS summit held in Durban in South
Africa in March 2013?

a. Signing of two agreements on Extending Credit Facility in Local Currencies and BRICS Multilateral Letter of
Credit Confirmation Facility
b. Proclamation of establishment of BRICS-led New Development Bank
c. Creation of a safety net through a Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) among BRICS countries
d. Setting up of BRICS Business Council and BRICS Think Tank Council

2. Seeking to revive historic ties, the Indian Air Force has gifted a vintage Dakota Aircraft from its museum to
(September 2014)

a. the Pakistan Air Force

b. the Bangladesh Air Force
c. the Chinese Air Force
d. the Sri Lankan Air Force

3. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The Armed Forces Tribunal has the power to adjudicate disputes relating to conditions of service of persons
subject to the Army Act, 1950.
b. Findings and sentences of court martial can be challenged before the Armed Forces Tribunal.
c. The Chairperson and members of the Armed Forces Tribunal shall be appointed only after consultation with
the Chief Justice of India.
d. The Chairperson and members of the Armed Forces Tribunal can be removed only after consultation with the
Chief Justice of India.

4. In recent plans, certain words/phrases were used in the title of the plan along with 'growth'. They are

1. Inclusive
2. Faster
3. More inclusive
4. Sustainable
5. More sustainable

Which combination is true of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012 – 17)?

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 4 and 5
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
5. Which of the following about social reformer, Raja Rammohun Roy is false?

a. Rammohun Roy belonged to the gentry class whose power had been diminished because of the imposition of
the Permanent Settlement.
b. He studied both Vedantic Monism and Christian Unitarianism.
c. He translated the Upanishads into Bengali.
d. His first organization was the Atmiya Sabha, founded in calcutta 1815.

6. Which of the following characteristics about the state of Travancore in 18th century Kerala is/are correct?

1. Travancore was ruled by Marthanda Varma from 1729 to 1758.

2. Travancore built a strong army and defeated the Dutch in 1741.
3. Travancore was an important centre of learning.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 only

7. A Parliamentry Democracy is one where

1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place.

2. the government is responsible not to the public but to the elected representatives.
3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their
constituents.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 only

8. Which of the following is not a central tenet of Socialism?

a. Historical Materialism
b. Dialectical Materialism
c. Alienation and Class Struggle
d. Individual Freedom

9. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law in respect of which one of the following matters?

a. Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by him in connection with the maintenance of order in the
area where martial law was in force
b. Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed when martial law was in force in the area
c. A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered when martial law was in force in the area
d. Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law

10. "And Then One Day: A Memoir' is an autobiography of:

a. Kamal Hasan
 b. Shahrukh Khan
c. Naseeruddin Shah
d. Karan Johar

11. Inclusion strategy does not focus on

a. reduction of inequality
b. reduction of poverty
c. diversifying livelihood for tribal population
d. getting poorer countries closer

12. Upari refers to which one of the following?

a. A form of Marathi poetry that emerged during the Maratha period

b. A category of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha regime
c. A court official during Maratha rule
d. A group of peasants who rebelled against their oppressive landlords under Maratha rule

13. Which of the following is/are the Characteristic(s) of the Sannyasi and Fakir uprisings?

1. These uprisings refer to a series of skirmishes between the English East India Company and a group of
sannyasis and fakirs.
2. One reason for the uprising was the ban on free movement of the sannyasis along pilgrimage routes.
3. In the course of the uprisings in 1773, Warren Hastings issued a proclamation banishing all sannyasis
from Bengal and Bihar.
4. Are contemporaneous with the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 mid 3
d. 2 and 4 only

14. Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System?

a. Dual citizenship
b. Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments
c. Supremacy of the Constitution
d. Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution

15. Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?

a. It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights.
b. It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution and is therefore itself a Fundamental Right.
c. Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'very soul of the Indian Constitution'.
d. An aggrieved person has no right to complain under Article 32 where a Fundamental Right has not been
violated.

Directions: The following 04 (Four) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
 a. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
b. Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
c. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
d. Statement I is false, but statement II is true.

16. Statement I: India's offshore and deep sea fish catch is very poor considering the marine potential.

Statement II: Indian coast does not have many gulfs, bays, estuaries and backwaters.

17. Statement I: Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces
exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth.

Statement II: Earth rotates from the West towards the East once in 24 hours with respect to the Sun.

18. Statement I: Sidereal day is shorter than Solar day.

Statement II: The motion of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun is termed as revolution.

19. Statement I: When a gun is fired it recoils, i.e., it pushes back, with much less velocity than the velocity of the
bullet.

Statement II: Velocity of the recoiling gun is less because the gun is much heavier than the bullet.

20. In an observation, α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays have same energies. Their penetrating power in a
given medium in increasing order will be

a. α, β, γ
b. β, γ, α
c. α, γ, β
d. β, α, γ

21. The Earth without rotational movement would result into

1. no sun-rise and sun-set.

2. no occurrence of day and night cycle.
3. only one season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

22. When hard water is evaporated completely, the white solid remains in the container. It may be due to the
presence of

1. Carbonates of Ca and Mg
2. Sulphates of Ca and Mg
3. Chlorides of Ca and Mg

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only

23. Which one among the following statements is correct?

a. Prokaryotic cells possess nucleus.

b. Cell membrane is present both in plant and animal cells.
c. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not found in eukaryotic cells.
d. Ribosomes are present in eukaryotic cells only.

24. A person standing 1 m in front of a plane mirror approaches the mirror by 40 cm. The new distance
between the person and his image in the plane mirror is

a. 60 cm
b. 1.2 m
c. 1.4 m
d. 2.0 m

25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Ocean Current)

 A. Guinea current
 B. Oyashio current
 C. Canaries current
 D. kuroshio current

List II (Location in Map)

Code:

a. ABCD: 4312
b. ABCD: 2314
c. ABCD: 2134
d. ABCD: 4132

26. Which one among the following compounds has same equivalent weight and molecular weight?

a. H2SO4
 b. CaCl2
c. Na2SO4
d. NaCl

27. Which one among the following statements is not true for mammals?

a. They possess hair on the body

b. Some of them lay eggs
c. Their heart is three chambered.
d. Some are aquatic.

28. Arrange the following layers of atmosphere vertically from the surface of Earth:

1. Mesosphere
2. Troposphere
3. Stratosphere
4. Thermosphere

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a. 1-2-3-4
b. 2-1-3-4
c. 2-3-1-4
d. 3-4-1-4

29. A metallic plate sticks firmly on the mouth of a water vessal made from another metal. By way of heating,
one can detach the plate from the vessal. This is because heat expands

a. the vessel only

b. both the vessel and the plate equally
c. the vessel more than the plate
d. the vessel and contracts the plate

30. Electricity is produced through dry cell from

a. chemical change
b. thermal change
c. mechanical energy
d. nuclear energy

31. Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can provide in respect of

a. National Security Council Secretariat

b. Assam Rifles
c. Border Road Development Board
d. Border Road Organisation

32. Who acts as the chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee?

a. The President of India in his capacity as the commander-in-chief

b. The Prime Minister
c. The defence Minister
d. The senior-most Chief of Staff
33. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I: Editor

 A. S.A Dange
 B. Muzaffar Ahmed
 C. Ghulam Hussain
 D. M. Singaravelu

List II: Journal/Newspaper

 1. Labour-Kisan Gazette
 2. Inquilab
 3. Navayug
 4. The Socialist

Code:

1. ABCD: 4321
2. ABCD: 4231
3. ABCD: 1234
4. ABCD: 1324

34. Which of the following was/were connected primarily to the communist ideology?

1. Kirti Kisan Party

2. Labour Swaraj Party

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

35. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) had regulated global trade since 1947.
b. GATT was replaced by the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1995.
c. The Most Favoured Nation principle under GATT provided that preferential trading agreements reached with
one country should be extended to other countries.
d. The WTO has been able to cover in its agreements the agriculture and textile sectors which are the principal
concerns for the Least Developed Countries (LDCs).

36. Which of the following is not a part of contemporary Indian foreign policy in relationships with its
neighbours?

a. Look East policy for linking up with South-East Asia via Myanmar
b. Panchsheel
c. Non-alignment
d. SAARC

37. Consider the following statements:

 1. The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is restructured into the Swachh Bharat Mission
2. The Swachh Bharat Mission has two sub-Missions- Union territories and States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

38. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. The President cannot pardon a person sentenced by a Court Martial.

b. The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to be
regulated by law.
c. A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot be compelled to do hard work as this would amount to
violation of Article 23 of the Constitution of India.
d. The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the powers of the High Courts under Article 226 of the
Constitution of India in relation to service matters of persons inthe armed forces.

39. Demand for a commodity refers to

a. Desire for that commodity

b. Need for that commodity
c. Quantity demanded of that commodity
d. Quantity demanded at certain price during any particular period of time

40. The interest of the British Government of India in Afghanistan in the nineteenth century came about in
order to

a. make use of the natural resources of Afghanistan.

b. ensure that the Russian empire did not have an influence over Afghanistan.
c. increase the reach of the British Empire.
d. establish a monopoly over the markets of Afghanistan.

41. What was the common element among

 (i) G.D Birla

 (ii) Ambalal Sarabhai and
 (iii) Walchand Hirachand?

a. They were leading members of the socialist movement in India

b. They were Indian industrialists
c. They were nationalist leaders
d. All of the above

42. Which of the following is not true for SAFFA (South Asian Free Trade Area)?

a. It is a step towards a South Asian customs union and common market.

b. The agreement came into effect in 2006.
c. The SAFTA is a trade liberalisation regime.
d. The SAFTA agreement takes precedence over any other agreement a member country may have with states
outside SAFTA.
43. Which of the following is not a laid down principle of the Panchsheel?

a. Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity

b. Mutual non-aggression
c. Mutual support for each other in world forum
d. Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs

44. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. 'Yudh Abhyas 2014' was an India-USA military exercise.

2. 'Yudh Abhyas 2014' was conducted in Himachal Pradesh.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

45. An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes

a. downward to the right

b. upward to the right
c. horizontally
d. upward to the left

46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I: Type of Grass

 A. Llanos
 B. Prairies
 C. Pampas
 D. Downs

List II Country

 1. Australia
 2. Venezuela
 3. USA
 4. Argentina

Code:

a. ABCD: 1432
b. ABCD: 1342
c. ABCD: 2431
d. ABCD: 2341

47. Who among the following proposed that atom is indivisible?

a. Dalton
b. Berzelius
 c. Rutherford
d. Avogadro

48. Tank irrigation is commonly found in South-Central parts of India. What could be the reason?

1. Insufficient shallow ground water

2. Rocky Plateau with impervious surface depression
3. Undulating terrain helps in accumulation of rain water in depression or man-made tank

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

49. Which of the following is/are the reason behind Gujarat being the leading producer of Salt in India?

1. The long length of coastline

2. Long duration of hot and dry conditions
3. Presence of gulf areas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 only

50. An object is raised to a height of 3 m from the ground. It is then allowed to fall on a table 1 m high from
ground level. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?

a. Its potential energy decreases by two-thirds its original value of total energy.
b. Its potential energy decreases by one-third its original value of total energy.
c. Its kinetic energy increases by two-thirds, while potential energy increases by one third.
d. Its kinetic energy increases by one-third, while potential energy decreases by one third.

51. layer of the Earth's atmosphere is important for living organisms because it

a. prevents entry of ultra-violet rays

b. prevents entry of X-rays
c. maintains level of oxygen on Earth
d. prevents acid rain on Earth

52. If 82 degree 30' east longitude(Allahabad) shows 6:00 am of Sunday (local time), what would be the local
time of Florida (USA) located on 82° west longitude?

a. 6: 58 pm of Saturday
b. 7: 02 pm of Sunday
c. 6: 58 am of Sunday
d. 7: 02 am of Saturday

53. Consider the following statements with regard to cold waves in winter season in north India:
 1. There is lack of maritime influence
2. Northern India is nearer to the Himalayan region.
3. Air mass comes from polar regions to northern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2

54. Which one among the following processes is not part of a chemical weathering?

a. Hydration
b. Ex-foliation
c. Oxidation
d. Solution

55. Two pieces of conductor of same material and of equal length are connected in series with a cell. One of the
two pieces has cross-sectional area double that of the other. Which one of the following statements is correct in
this regard?

a. The thicker one will allow stronger current to pass through it.
b. The thinner one would allow stronger current to pass through it.
c. Some amount of electric current would pass through both the pieces producing more heat in the thicker one.
d. Same amount of electric current would pass through both the pieces producing more heat in the thinner one.

56. How many elements are there in the 5th period of modern periodic table?

a. 2
b. 8
c. 18
d. 36

57. Which one of the following statements regarding water cycle is correct?

a. Transpiration by plants does not contribute to cloud formation.

b. Only evaporation of surface water of rivers and oceans is responsible for cloud formation
c. Rainfall does not contribute in maintenance of underground water table.
d. Underground water may also be connected to surface water.

58. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I: Ocean current

 A. Humboldt
 B. North Atlantic Drift
 C. Benguela
 D. Agulhas

List II: Coast

 1. Namibia-Angola
  2. Chile-Peru
 3. Mozambique-Madagascar
 4. United kingdom-Norway

Code:

a. ABCD: 2143
b. ABCD: 2413
c. ABCD: 3412
d. ABCD: 3142

59. The horizontal wind circulation near the Earth's surface is due to the

1. pressure gradient.
2. frictional force.
3. coriolis force.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

60. A wire-bound standard resistor uses manganin or constantan. It is because

a. these alloys are cheap and easily available

b. they have high resistivity
c. they are low resistivity
d. they have resistivity which almost remains unchanged with temperature

61. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Professor Kamal Bawa was conferred with the Midori Prize (2014) for biodiversity for his research on
climate change in Himalayas.
2. Midori Prize is an annual international prize given to an individual for outstanding contribution to the
conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity at global, regional or local levels.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

62. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a. The central government is empowered to issue a notification to specify any service in a State as a service of
vital importance to the community.
b. Such a notification remains valid for six months.
c. Every command given by a superior officer casts a duty on all persons subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Air
Force Act, 1950 or the Navy Act, 1957 to obey the command when such a notification is in force.
 d. The provisions of the Armed Forces(Emergency Duties) Act, 1947 are applicable in connection with vital
services imposed in an emergency on the armed forces.

63. The central Industrial Security Force is under the administrative control of which of the following
ministries?

a. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises

b. Headquarters of the Integrated Joint Staff
c. Ministry of Home Affairs
d. PMO

64. Which of the following features of the state of Arcot in 18th century South India are correct?

1. The founders of the dynasty that ruled Arcot were Daud Khan Panni and Sa'adatullah Khan.
2. Arcot became the site of a protracted struggle between the English and Dutch East India Companies
from the 1740s.
3. Decentralization was a key feature of the State of Arcot in the 18th century.
4. The other major State to emerge in South India at this time was Mysore.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 2 and 4 only

65. Which of the following statements about the musical culture is 18th and 19th century North India is/are
not correct:

1. The period was marked by the growing eminence of Sadarang Neamat Khan who introduced the
Khayal form.
2. A large number of musicians moved out of regional centres to Delhi where they hoped they would
receive more employment and patronage.
3. The period was marked by the formation of specific region based gharanas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only

66. Which of the following is/are not the characteristics of the First Past The Post System (FPTP)?

1. It is a majoritarian system where minorities are likely to remain unrepresented.

2. A candidate may win an election even if he/she gets less than the majority of the votes cast.
3. It generates proportionality between the votes cast and the seats won.
4. It always leads to a two party system and a stable and accountable government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
 c. 2 and 3
d. 4 only

67. Which of the following statements is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI)
inserted by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003?

1. It gives dual citizenship to the person of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country.
2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country, an OCI card without
citizenship.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India.
4. It allows the OCI to travel to India without visa.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 4

68. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of National AYUSH Mission, approved by the Union Cabinet
recently?

1. Improvement of AYUSH education through enhancement in the number of upgraded educational

institutions.
2. Better access to AYUSH services through increase in the AYUSH hospitals and dispensaries,
availability of drugs and manpower.
3. Providing sustained availability of quality raw material for AYUSH system of medicine.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 1 and 2 only

69. Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the Armed Forces(Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are
correct?

1. The Act is applicable only to the States of Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland.
2. A person taken into custody under the above Act must be handed over to the officer-in-charge of the
nearest police station with least possible delay.
3. An area can be declared as a disturbed area under the above Act only when the State Government is of
the opinion that the use of the armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary to contain a dangerous
condition in the concerned area.

Select the correct answer by using the code given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 2 only

70. Indian Coast Guard is

 a. a branch of Indian Navy
b. an organization under the Central Board of Excise and Customs
c. an organization under the Ministry of Defence
d. a para-military force under the Ministry of Home Affairs

71. Which of the following statements about the musical culture in 18th and 19th century South India is/are
correct?

1. Musical developments were spearheaded by the Arcot court.

2. Tanjavur replaced Madras as the cultural capital of classical music in the second half of the nineteenth
century.
3. Three great composers, Tyagaraja, Diksitar and Syama Sastri experimented with the Kriti form to set
the foundations for modern Carnatic music.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

72. Which of the following statements about visual culture in 18th and early 19th century North India is/are
correct?

1. Painters from Patna and Murshidabad flocked to Calcutta and produced water colours in the English
mode.
2. Landscape and portraiture became extremely important at this time.
3. The artists Zayan-al-Din, Bhawani Das and Ram Das were adopted by the English East India Company
to produce albums of Indian birds and animals.
4. While Indians were influenced by European artistic styles, Europeans did not visit regional courts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 4 only

73. The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the

a. President of India
b. Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet
c. Election Commission of India
d. Parliament

74. Which among the following is not an aspect of Gender Main streaming (GM)?

a. GM was established as a global strategy for achieving gender equality by the United Nations.
b. It was adopted in 1995 in the Beijing Platform of Action
c. It requires a review of government policy in all sectors for eliminating gender disparity.
d. GM was followed by the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women
(CEDAW)
75. The 3rd Meeting of SAARC Culture Ministers, convened in New Delhi on September 25, 2014,
unanimously resolved

1. to declare 2015-16 as the SAARC Year of Cultural Heritage.

2. that Bamiyan will be the SAARC cultural capital for 2015-16.
3. to promote SAARC culture online by launching a dedicated SAARC website on culture, with emphasis
on digitization of rare manuscripts, rare books and other articles of intangible culture value.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2 only

76. What was the claim of fame of Dr. Dwarka Nath Kotnis

a. He provided succour to the poor

b. He set up hospitals in the difficult to reach regions of India
c. He was a leading Indian Nationalist
d. He laid down his life providing medical help to the English Route Army.

77. Which of the following is not true about the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination
Against Women (CEDAW)?

a. It defines what constitutes discrimination against women and sets up an agenda for national action.
b. It was adopted in 1979 by the United Nations
c. It commits States to undertake measures to end discrimination in their legal system
d. India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legal bound to put its provisions into practice

78. Considers the following statements with regard to the First Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and
Expo (2015):

1. This is a follow-up to the 'Make in India'

2. The central theme of the meet is to attract large scale investments in the renewable energy sector in
India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

79. When two goods are completely interchangeable , they are

a. Perfect substitutes
b. Perfect complements
c. Giffin goods
d. Veblen goods

80. Which would be the most appropriate description concerning the Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha?
It aspired to

a. do political work among youth, peasants and workers.

b. spread the philosophy of revolution among students.
c. initiate discussions regarding anti-imperialism among the workers.
d. help the formation of a Trade Union Movement in Punjab.

81. The Sixth Schedule of the India Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas.
Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule?

a. Assam
b. Manipur
c. Meghalaya
d. Tripura

82. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Living Planet Report-2014(Species and
Spaces, People and Places) released by World Wildlife Fund(WWF)?

1. The Living Planet Index(LPI), which measures more than 10,000 representative populations of
mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish, has declined declined by 52% since 1970.
2. The most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred in Africa

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

83. Rise in the price of a commodity means

a. rise in the value of currency only

b. fall in the value of currency only
c. rise in the value of commodity only
d. fall in the value of currency and rise the value of commodity.

84. The Tungbhadra river provided sustenance to which empire?

a. Chola
b. Vijayanagara
c. Vakataka
d. Pandya

85. Which empire did Niccolo de Conti, Abdur Razzaq, Afanasy Nikitin and Fernao Nuniz vist?

a. The empire of Kannauj

b. Vijayanagara empire
c. Hoysala empire
d. Rashtrakuta empire

86. The supreme Court guidelines issued in the Vishaka Case pertain to

a. domestic violence
 b. rape and sexual violence
c. sexual harassment at work place
d. trafficking in women

87. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Indian does not have a Chief of Defence Staff.

b. India does not have a Permanent Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee.
c. India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who functions as Chiefs of Defence Staff.
d. India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who does not function as Chief of the Defence Staff.

88. Which among the following teams won the Duleep Trophy Cricket Tournament, 2014?

a. East Zone
b. Central Zone
c. West Zone
d. South Zone

89. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to the newly launched Vanbandhu Kalyan
Yojana?

1. Under the scheme, Centre will provide Rs 10 crore each for every state and Union Territory of the
country for the development of various facilities for the tribals.
2. The Scheme mainly focuses on bridging infrastructural gaps and gap in human development indices
between Scheduled Tribes and other Social Groups.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

90. Which of the following statements with regard to the proposed Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
is/are correct?

1. India is one of the founding members of the Bank.

2. The Bank is to be head-quartered in Shanghai.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

91. Which one among the following is used in making lead pencils?

a. Charcoal
b. Graphite
c. Coke
d. Carbon black
92. Which one among the following structures or cells is not present in connective tissue?

a. Chondrocytes
b. Axon
c. Collagen fibre
d. Lymphocytes

93. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:

List I: Sanctuary

 A. Sharavati Valley
 B. Satkosia Gorge
 C. Pirontan Island
 D. Bhagwan Mahavir

List II: State

 1. Gujarat
 2. Goa
 3. Odisha
 4. Karnataka

Code

a. ABCD: 2134
b. ABCD: 4132
c. ABCD: 4312
d. ABCD: 2314

94. Sodium metal should be stored

a. Alcohol
b. Kerosene oil
c. Water
d. Hydrochloric acid

95. The word 'vaccination' has been derived from a Latin word which relates to

a. Pig
b. Horse
c. Cow
d. Dog

96. Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rig Veda?

1. Rig Vedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism

2. There are striking similarities between the Rig Vedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta.
3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the house of the priest who was called yajaman.
4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds- those conducted by the householder and those that required ritual
specialists.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 a. 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4 only

97. Which of the following statement(s) about caste movements in early 20th century Kerala is/are false?

1. Kerala's first modern novel Indulekha attacked the social dominance of Nambudiri Brahmans in
Kerala.
2. C.V Raman Pillai's novel Marthanda Varma was written against the exploitation of peasants by Nair
landlords.
3. Sree Narayana Guru was one of the founders of the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam that
was engaged in the upliftment of the Ezhavas in Kerala.
4. Dr Palpu, the first Ezhava graduate, was one of the founders of the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana
Yogam that was engaged in the upliftment of the Ezhavas in Kerala.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 2 and 4

98. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that Constitutional Amendments were also laws
under Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with
Fundamental Rights?

a. Keshavanand Bharti case

b. Golaknath Case
c. Minerva Mills Case
d. Maneka Gnadhi Case

99. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951.

2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review.
3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 3 only

100. Which one among the following was the theme of the International Day of the Preservation of the Ozone
layer-2014?

a. Ozone Day-A healthy atmosphere, the future we want

b. Protecting our atmosphere for generations to come
c. HCFC phase out: a unique opportunity
d. Ozone Layer Protection: The Mission Goes on
101. Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated at par so far as the availability of
Fundamental Rights is concerned?

a. Members of the armed forces

b. Members of the forces charged with the responsibility of maintenance of public order
c. Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set up in the country
d. Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set up for maintenance of
public order.

102. Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a state of war is the responsibility of

a. Ministry of Home Affairs

b. Ministry of Defence
c. Ministry of External Affairs
d. None of the above

103. Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi's South African experiences(1893 – 1914)
is/are true?

1. Muslim merchants were actively involved in Gandhian political movements in South Africa.
2. In 1906, Gandhi led a campaign in Cape Town against the ordinance on compulsory registration and
passes for Indians.
3. Gandhi began his political career with struggles against the imposition of excessive taxes on Indians in
Cape Town.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 only

104. Which of the following sets of newspapers reflected the concerns of educated Indian Muslims during the
Khilafat Movement?

a. Comrade and Hamdard

b. Comrade and Hindustan times
c. Zamindar and Muslims Voice
d. Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar and Al Hilal

105. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Marxist theory repudiates the idea of the atomised and alienated individual.
2. Marxism upholds the idea of the natural rights of men and individuals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

106. In human digestive system, the process of digestion starts in

 a. Oesophagus
b. Buccal cavity
c. Duodenum
d. Stomach

108. Which one among the following fuels is used in gas welding?

a. LPG
b. Ethylene
c. Methane
d. Acetylene

109. In respect of the difference of the gravitational force from electric and magnetic forces, which one of the
following statements is true?

a. Gravitational forces is stronger than the other two.

b. Gravitational force is attractive only, whereas the electrical and the magnetic forces are attractive as well as
repulsive.
c. Gravitational force has a very short range.
d. Gravitational force is a long range force, while the other two are short range forces.

110. Which one among the following is a micronutrient present in soil for various crops?

a. Calcium
b. Manganese
c. Magnesium
d. Potassium

111. Arrange the following tributaries of river Indus from North to South:

1. Chenab
2. Jhelum
3. Ravi
4. Sutlej

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 4-3-1-2
b. 2-3-1-4
c. 1-2-3-4
d. 2-1-3-4

112. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I: Industry

 A. Railway equipment
 B. Automobile
 C. Ship-building
 D. Bicycle

List II: Location

  1. Kochi
 2. Ludhiana
 3. Bhilai
 4. Jabalpur

Code:

a. ABCD: 3412
b. ABCD: 3142
c. ABCD: 2143
d. ABCD: 2413

113. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I: Air Pollutant

 A. Chlorofluorocarbon
 B. Sulphur dioxide
 C. Lead Compound
 D. Carbon dioxide

List II: Effect

 1. Acid rain
 2. Depletion in ozone layer in the atmosphere
 3. harmful for human nervous system
 4. Topmost contribution to greenhouse effect

Code:

a. ABCD: 4312
b. ABCD: 4132
c. ABCD: 2134
d. ABCD: 2314

114. Creation of something from nothing is against the law of

a. constant proportions
b. conservation of mass-energy
c. multiple proportions
d. conservation of momentum

115. Which one of the following diseases in humans can spread through air?

a. Dengue
b. Tuberculosis
c. HIV-AIDS
d. Goitre

116. Seismic gaps are

a. parts of plate boundaries in oceans where tsunamis occur frequently

b. sections of plate boundaries that have ruptured repeatedly in the recent past.
 c. sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past.
d. plate boundaries having no volcanic activity.

117. In the absence of Cold Labrador Current, which one among the following would happen?

a. There will be no North-East Atlantic fishing grounds

b. There will be no North-West Atlantic fishing grounds
c. There will be no fishing ground in the North Atlantic Ocean
d. Semi-arid condition of the Atlantic coast of the USA and Canada would prevail.

118. An electron and a proton are circulating with same speed in circular paths of equal radius. Which one
among the following will happen, if the mass of a proton is about 2000 times that of an electron?

a. The centripetal force required by the electron is about 2000 times more than that required by the proton
b. the centripetal force required by the proton is about 2000 times more than that required by the electron
c. No centripetal force is required for any charged particle.
d. Equal centripetal force acts on both the particles as they rotate in the same circular path.

119. Which one among the following metals is prominently used in mobile phone batteries?

a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Nickel
d. Lithium

120. Which one of the following is the most appropriate and correct practice from the point of view of a
healthy environment?

a. Burning of plastic wastes to keep the environment clean

b. Burning of dry and fallen leaves in a garden or field.
c. Treatment of domestic sewage before its release
d. Use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture fields

Elementary Mathematics #2
1. The price of an article is Rs. 25. After two successive cuts by the same percentage, the price becomes Rs.
20.25. If each time the cut was x%, then:

 (a) x = 9
 (b) x = 10
 (c) x = 11
 (d) x = 11.5

2. Three planets revolve round the sun once in 200, 250, 300 days respectively in their own orbits. When do
they all come relatively to the same position as at a certain point of time in their orbits?

 (a) After 3000 days

 (b) After 2000 days
 (c) After 1500 days
 (d) After 1200 days

3. What is the greatest number that divides 13850 and 17030 and leaves a remainder 17?
  (a) 477
 (b) 159
 (c) 107
 (d) 87

4. If the sum of an integer and its reciprocal is 10/3, then the integer is equal to:

 (a) 3
 (b) 6
 (c) 12
 (d) 13

5. If (x - 6) is the HCF of x2 - 2x - 24 and x2 - kx - 6, then what is the value of k?

 (a) 3
 (b) 5
 (c) 6
 (d) 8

6. Which one of the following is neither prime number nor composite number?

 (a) 1
 (b) 2
 (c) 3
 (d) None of the above

7. There are some benches in a class room having the number of rows 4 more than the number of columns. If
each bench is seated with 5 students, there are two seats vacant in a class of 158 students. The number of rows
is:

 (a) 4
 (b) 8
 (C) 6
 (d) 10

8. A ladder 20m long is placed against a wall so that the foot of the ladder is 10m from the wall. The angle of
inclination of the ladder to the horizontal will be:

 (a) 30 degrees
 (b) 45 degrees
 (c) 60 degrees
 (d) 75 degrees

9. The locus of a point in rhombus ABCD which is equidistant from A and C is:

 (a) a fixed point on diagonal BD

 (b) diagonal BD
 (c) diagonal AC
 (d) None of the above

10. lf two parallel lines are cut by two distinct transversals, then the quadrilateral formed by the four lines is
always a:
  (a) square
 (b) parallelogram
 (c) rhombus
 (d) trapezium

Answers

1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (b)
6. (a)
7. (b)
8. (a)
9. (b)
10. (d)

Above questions were asked in CDS (II) 2012 Elementary Mathematics paper