BSN IV

Comprehensive Examination – NCM

First semester, Academic Year 2017-2018

READ EACH QUESTION CAREFULLY AND THEN SELECT THE ANSWER THAT BEST FITS THE
QUESTION. WRITE THE LETTER OF YOUR ANSWER ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET. USE CAPPITAL
LETTERS ONLY.

1. You have obtained the following assessment information about a 3-year old who
has just returned to the pediatric unit after having a tonsillectomy. Which finding
requires the most immediate follow-up?
A. Complaints of a sore throat C. Heart rate of 112 beats/min
B. Frequent swallowing D. Hypotonic bowel sounds

2. Nurse Paul is developing a care plan for a client after bariatric surgery for morbid
obesity. The nurse should include which of the following on the care plan as the
priority complication to prevent?
A. depression C. thrombophlebitis
B. pain D. wound infection

3. Sally is a nurse working in an emergency department and receives a client after a

radiological incident. Which task is utmost priority for the nurse to do first?
A. Decontaminate the client’s clothing
B. Decontaminate the examination room the client is placed in
C. Decontaminate the open wound on the client’s thigh
D. Save the client’s vomitus for analysis by the radiation safety staff

4. The nurse plans care for a client in the post anesthesia care unit. Which of the
following nurse should assess first on the client?
A. respiratory status C. level of pain
B. level of consciousness D. movement of extremities

5. The nurse understands that the essential difference between substance abuse and
substance dependence is that substance dependence refers to which of the
following?
A. includes characteristics of tolerance and withdrawal
B. includes characteristics of adverse consequences and repeated use
C. produces less severe symptoms than that of abuse
D. requires long-term treatment in a hospital-based program

6. The sister of a client with a substance-related disorder tells the nurse that she calls
out for the client occasionally when she has too much to drink and cannot work. This
can be described by which behavior?
A. caretaking C. helpful
B. codependent D. supportive

7. When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by

which of the following?
A. Acetylcholine excess C. Serotonin inhibition
B. Dopamine depletion D. Norepinephrine rebound

8. The general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic

and _________________.
A. depressant C. stimulant
B. hallucinogenic D. tranquilizing

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 1 OF 12
9. The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target
which groups for educational efforts?
A. adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
B. elderly men who live in retirement communities
C. women working in careers outside the home
D. women working in the home

10. A staff nurse has observed a co-worker arriving at work drunk at least three times in
the past month. Which action by the nurse would ensure client safety and obtain
necessary assistance for the co-worker?
A. ignore the co-worker’s behavior, and frequently assess clients assigned to the co-
worker
B. make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting
C. report the co-worker’s behaviour to the appropriate supervisor
D. warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe

11. A client being in a substance abuse unit tells the nurse that he is only uses drugs
under stress and therefore foes not have a substance problem. Which defense
mechanism is the client using?
A. compensation C. suppression
B. denial D. undoing

12. The nurse recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder
attend a support group. Aside from helping members understand the problem,
which of the following is the other purpose of a support group?
A. change the problem behaviors of the abuser
B. learn how to assist the abuser in getting help
C. maintain focus on changing their own behaviors
D. prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members

13. The nurse is assessing a client who is a chronic alcohol abuser. Which problems are
related to thiamine deficiency?
A. Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased haemoglobin and haematocrit
levels
B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat

14. When teaching an adolescent class about inhalant abuse, the nurse warns about
the possibility of which of the following?
A. contacting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
B. recurrent flashback events
C. psychological dependence after initial use
D. sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression

15. What is the purpose of using silence as a communication technique used during
interview?
A. change the topic
B. clarify information
C. encourage the patient to continue talking
D. show respect

16. “If I understand you correctly, you said…” is an example of which interviewing
technique?
A. clarification C. reflection
B. confirmation D. facilitation

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 2 OF 12
17. Before inserting the otoscope into a client’s ear, the nurse should palpate which of
the following?
A. helix C. lymph nodes
B. earlobes D. tragus

18. During an otoscopic examination, the nurse pulls the superior posterior auricle of an
adult patient’s ear __________________.
A. down and back C. up and back
B. straight back D. up and forward

19. To assess the frontal sinuses, the nurse should palpate which of the following?
A. below the cheekbones C. over the temporal areas
B. below the ears D. the forehead

20. A cerumen impaction may contribute to which form of hearing loss?

A. central hearing loss C. sensorineural hearing loss
B. conductive hearing loss D. lateral hearing loss

21. The client’s ability to identify a particular aroma depends on proper functioning of
which cranial nerve?
A. I C. IV
B. II D. VI

22. Clear, thin nasal drainage may indicate which of the following?
A. cerebrospinal fluid leak C. infection
B. epistaxis D. the presence of foreign object

23. Which of the following is a normal reaction to corneal sensitivity test?

A. blinking C. pupil dilation
B. coughing D. pupil contraction

24. In addition to trauma, unequal pupils can result from which of the following?
A. a cataract C. severe conjunctivitis
B. an iridectomy D. strabismus

25. What would you use to determine the patient’s visual acuity?
A. Cardinal position of gaze C. Cover-uncover test
B. Corneal-light reflex test D. Snellen chart

26. Compared with the size of a child’s pupils, the size of an adult’s pupils is
___________________________.
A. larger C. the same throughout life
B. smaller D. wider

27. Which item is used to test for corneal sensitivity?

A. wisp of cotton C. gauze pad
B. tissue D. ophthalmoscope

28. If you hear crepitus while moving a client’s joint, the joint must be _______________.
A. fixed C. slightly movable
B. nonsynovial D. synovial

29. If your client’s arm drifts down after he extends it for 10 seconds, he probably has
which condition?
A. a fractured rib
B. broken metatarsal bones
C. carpal tunnel syndrome
D. shoulder-girdle weakness

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 3 OF 12
30. A client with kyphosis manifests which of the following?
A. abnormally concave lumbar spine
B. exaggerated lateral spinal curvature
C. inability to bend forward at the waist
D. unusually rounded thoracic curve

31. Your client cannot move his right arm away from his side, so you document this as
impaired _________________.
A. abduction C. eversion
B. adduction D. supination

32. What test will you perform to assess for a swollen knee?
A. bulge sign test
B. straight-leg-raising test
C. Ortolani’s sign test
D. Phalen’s maneuver test

33. A patient who cannot recognize the sound of a ringing phone probably has
_____________.
A. agnosia C. apraxia
B. aphasia D. ataxia

34. What is the most sensitive indicator of a change in a client’s neurologic status?
A. gross motor movement C. speech patterns
B. LOC D. vision

35. Normal findings in the assessment of gross motor function include which of the
following?
A. downward drift of the arm when it is outstretched
B. positive Romberg’s test result
C. ability to distinguish odors
D. smooth, coordinated gait

36. To test for sensation, you will need which of the following?
A. key and tongue blade
B. pencil and paper
C. safety pin and cotton wisp
D. measuring tape and reflex hammer

37. During a senior citizen health screening, the nurse observes a 75-year-old female
with a severely increased thoracic curve, or “humpback”. What is this condition
called?
A. lordosis C. scoliosis
B. kyphosis D. genus varum

38. During a routine physical examination to assess a client’s deep tendon reflexes, the
nurse should make sure to do which of the following?
A. use the pointed end of the reflex hammer when stroking the Achilles tendon
B. support the joint where the tendon is being tested
C. tap the tendon slowly and softly
D. hold the reflex hammer tightly

39. The nurse observes that decerebrate posturing is a comatose client’s response to
painful stimuli. The client exhibits extended and pronated arms, flexed wrists with
palms facing backward, and rigid legs extended with plantar flexion. Decerebrate
posturing as a response to pain indicates which of the following?
A. dysfunction in the brain stem C. dysfunction in the spinal column
B. dysfunction in the cerebrum D. risk for increased ICP

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 4 OF 12
40. Osteoporosis is characterized by which of the following?
A. brittleness and swelling of the joints
B. crystal deposition and brittleness
C. porosity and brittleness
D. progressive inflammatory destruction after new bone formation

41. Brudzinski’s sign and Kernig’s sign are two tests that help diagnose which neurologic
disorder?
A. ALS C. meningitis
B. epilepsy D. stroke

41. In planning care for a client with history of alcohol intoxication and is admitted to a
facility for detoxification, priority should focus on which of the following?
A. helping him acknowledge that he has alcohol problem
B. informing him of the possible development of medical problems regarding
alcoholism
C. offering desirable alternatives
D. preparing him for immediate physical and social rehabilitation

42. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A. confabulation C. hallucination
B. delusion D. illusion

43. What is the action of Disulfuram?

A. causes the alcoholic to relax
B. increases the alcoholic’s tolerance to withdrawal
C. produces an extreme unpleasant physical reaction when alcohol is ingested
D. replaces the relaxing the effect of alcohol

44. Discharge instructions for clients receiving tricyclic antidepressants include which of
the following information?
A. Do not consume alcohol
B. Discontinue if dry mouth and blurred vision
C. Restrict fluid and sodium intake
D. It is safe to continue taking during pregnancy

45. Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a grieving family?
A. Interrupted family processes C. Spiritual distress
B. Powerlessness D. Ineffective coping

46. A client with disorganized-type schizophrenia has been hospitalized for the past 2
years on a unit for chronic mentally ill clients. The client’s behaviour is labile and
fluctuates from childishness and incoherence to loud yelling to slow but appropriate
interaction. The client needs assistance with all activities of daily living. Which
behaviour is characteristic of disorganized-type schizophrenia?
A. Extreme social impairment
B. Suspicious delusions
C. Waxy flexibility
D. Elevated affect

47. How long after amitrtiptyline (Elavil) therapy begins can the nurse expect the client
to show improved psychological symptoms?
A. 2-4 days C. 6-8 days
B. 4-6 days D. 10-14 days

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 5 OF 12
48. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with dependent personality disorder. Which
intervention should the nurse include in this client’s care plan to promote
independence?
A. Spending long periods of unscheduled time with the client
B. Scheduling competitive activities so the client can test skills
C. Helping the client identify preferences, such as choosing which clothing item to
wear
D. Avoiding discussing the client’s feelings of helplessness

49. A client refuses his evening dose of haloperidol (Haldol), and then becomes
extremely agitated in the day room while other clients are watching television. He
begins cursing and throwing furniture. What should be the nurse’s first action?
A. Check the client’s medical record for an order for an I.M. as needed dose of
medication for agitation
B. Place the client in full leather restraints
C. Call the physician and report the behaviour
D. Remove all other clients from the day room

50. For a client with anorexia nervosa, the nurse plans to include the parents in therapy
sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of
parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
A. They tend to overprotect their children
B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
C. They maintain their emotional distance from their children
D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children

51. A client with Alzheimer’s disease mumbles incoherently and rambles in a confused
manner. To help redirect the client’s attention, the nurse should encourage the
client to do which of the following?
A. Fold towels and pillowcases
B. Play cards with another client
C. Participate in a game of charades
D. Perform an aerobic exercise

52. A client does not make eye contact with the nurse during an interview. The nurse
suspects that the client’s behavior has a cultural basis. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Read several articles about the client’s culture about the client’s behavior
B. Ask staff members of a similar culture about the client’s behavior
C. Observe how the client and the client’s family and friends interact with one
another and with other staff members
D. Accept the client’s behaviour because it is probably culturally-based

53. In group therapy, a client who has used I.V. heroin every day for the past 14 years
says, “I do not have a drug problem. I can quit whenever I want. I have done it
before.” Which defense mechanism is the client using?
A. denial
B. obsession
C. compensation
D. rationalization

54. Lorazepam (Ativan) is given along with a neuroleptic agent. What is the purpose of
administering the drugs together?
A. to reduce anxiety and potentiates the sedative action of the neuroleptic
B. to counteract extrapyramidal effects of the neuroleptic
C. to manage depressed clients
D. to increase the client’s level of awareness and concentration

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 6 OF 12
55. Which statement accurately describes therapeutic communication?
A. offering advice and your opinion
B. not verbalizing your feelings
C. avoiding advise, judgment, false reassurance, and approval
D. telling the client how to cope

56. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially which nursing
intervention is most appropriate for this client?
A. providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for 1 hour afterward
B. letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
C. trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
D. giving the client as much time to eat as desired

57. A client is brought to the emergency department after being beaten by her
husband, a prominent attorney. The nurse caring for this client should understand
which of the following?
A. open boundaries are common in violent families
B. violence usually results from a power struggle
C. domestic violence and abuse span all socioeconomic classes
D. violent behaviour is a genetic trait passed from one generation to the next

58. The nurse is caring for a client in a long-term care facility. The client has a history of
attempted suicide. The nurse observed the client giving away personal belongings
and has heard the client express feelings of hopelessness to other residents. Which
intervention should the nurse perform first?
A. setting time aside for listening to the client
B. removing items that the client could use in a suicide attempt
C. communicating a nonjudgmental attitude
D. referring the client to a mental health professional

59. A client with Alzheimer’s disease has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury related to
memory loss, wandering, and disorientation. Which of the following should appear in
this client’s care plan to prevent injury?
A. provide the client with detailed instructions
B. keep the client sedated whenever possible
C. remove hazards from the environment
D. use restraints at all times

60. A client is to be discharged with a prescription for the antipsychotic agent

haloperidol (Haldol), 10 mg by mouth twice per day. During a teaching session, the
nurse should provide which instruction to the client?
A. take the medication 1 hour before a meal
B. decrease the dosage if signs of illness decrease
C. apply a sunscreen before exposure to the sun
D. increase the dosage up to 50 mg twice per day if signs of illness do not decrease

61. An adolescent, age 17, rarely express feelings and usually remains passive. However,
when angry, her face becomes flushed and her blood pressure rises to 170/100
mmHg. Her parents are passive and easy-going. The adolescent may be using
which defense mechanism to handle anger?
A. displacement
B. introjection
C. projection
D. sublimation

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 7 OF 12
62. On the second day of hospitalization, the client is discussing with the nurse concerns
about unhealthy family relationships. During the nurse-client interaction, the client
changes the subject to job situation. The nurse responds, “Let us go back to what
we were talking about.” what therapeutic communication technique did the nurse
use?
A. reflecting C. focusing
B. restating D. summarizing

63. For a client with osteoporosis, the nurse should provide which dietary instruction?
A. “Decrease your intake of red meat.”
B. “Decrease your intake of popcorn, nuts, and seeds.”
C. “Eat more fruits to increase your potassium intake.”
D. “Eat more dairy products to increase your calcium intake”

64. A client in a nursing home is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. He exhibits the
following symptoms: difficulty with recent and remote memory, irritability,
depression, restlessness, difficulty swallowing, and occasional incontinence. The
client is in what stage of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV

65. The nurse is assessing a client with hypothyroidism and finds the client has a
temperature of 94° F (34.4° C) and exhibits hypotension and hypoventilation. Based
on these findings, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this client?
A. Deficient fluid volume C. Hypothermia
B. Disturbed thought processes D. Impaired gas exchange

66. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is learning foot care. The nurse should include
which teaching point?
A. “It’s OK to go barefoot at home.”
B. “Trim your toenails with scissors regularly.”
C. “Wear cotton socks and apply foot powder to your feet to keep them dry.”
D. “Wear tight-fitting shoes without socks.”

67. A client with fever and urinary urgency is asked to provide a urine specimen for
culture and sensitivity analysis. The nurse should instruct the client to collect the
specimen from the ____________________________________.
A. final stream of urine from the bladder
B. first stream of urine from the bladder
C. full volume of urine from the bladder
D. middle stream of urine from the bladder

68. A client is diagnosed with cystitis. The nurse recommends the client drink cranberry
juice. What assessment parameter should the nurse consider to determine if this
recommendation has been effective?
A. Urine specific gravity C. pH
B. White blood cell (WBC) count D. Protein

69. A nurse is instructing the client about recommended daily fluid consumption. The
nurse should tell the client to drink approximately ________________________.
A. 4 cups per day C. 12 cups per day
B. 8 cups per day D. 16 cups per day

70. A client with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should the nurse
include in this client’s teaching plan?
A. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel.
B. Take frequent baths.
C. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin
D. Keep fingernails short and clean.

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 8 OF 12
71. A nurse is teaching a client with chronic renal failure about foods to avoid. It would
be most accurate for the nurse to teach the client to avoid which foods?
A. yogurt and milk C. fresh fruits and vegetables
B. whole grain breads D. beef and pork

72. An infant with a ventricular septal defect is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which
intervention by the nurse is most appropriate before digoxin administration?
A. Check the infant’s apical pulse for 1 minute.
B. Check the infant’s radial pulse for 1 minute.
C. Check the infant’s respiratory rate for 1 minute.
D. Take the infant’s blood pressure.

73. A nurse checks an infant’s apical pulse before digoxin (Lanoxin) administration and
finds that the pulse rate is 90 beats/minute. Which action is most appropriate for the
nurse?
A. Administer the digoxin and document the infant’s pulse rate.
B. Administer the digoxin and notify the physician.
C. Withhold the digoxin and document the infant’s pulse rate.
D. Withhold the digoxin and notify the physician.

74. A parent brings her child to the pediatrician’s office because of difficulty breathing
and a “barking” cough. These signs are associated with which of the following
conditions?
A. Asthma C. Cystic fibrosis
B. Croup D. Epiglottiditis

75. A woman with a child who awakes at night with a “barking” cough asks the nurse
for advice. The nurse should instruct the mother to do which of the following?
A. Bring the child to the emergency department immediately.
B. Call emergency medical services to transport the child to the hospital for an
emergency tracheotomy.
C. Notify the pediatrician immediately.
D. Take the child in the bathroom, turn on the shower, and let the room fill with
steam.

76. What should the nurse emphasize when communicating with the grieving family
after a death from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A. an autopsy must be done to confirm diagnosis
B. the death isn’t the parents’ fault
C. the parents are still young and can have more children
D. the parents should place other infants on their backs to sleep

77. A 12-year-old with asthma suddenly becomes short of breath. How should a nurse
position the child?
A. Dorsal recumbent position
B. Lithotomy position
C. Semi-Fowler’s position
D. Sims’ position

78. A nurse is taking a history from the mother of a child suspected of having Reye
syndrome. The history reveals the use of several medications. Which medication
might be implicated in the development of Reye syndrome?
A. Aspirin
B. Furosemide (Lasix)
C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
D. Phytonadione

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 9 OF 12
79. A nurse is teaching a mother about the benefits of breast-feeding her infant. Which
type of immunity is passed on to the infant during breast-feeding?
A. artificially acquired active immunity
B. natural immunity
C. naturally acquired active immunity
D. naturally acquired passive immunity

80. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for the mother of a child with iron deficiency
anemia. Which iron-rich foods should the nurse instruct the mother to include in her
child’s diet?
A. Citrus fruit, liver, and whole grains
B. Dark leafy vegetables, chicken, and whole grains
C. Liver, dark leafy vegetables, and whole grains
D. Whole grains, citrus fruit, and yogurt

81. A neonate experiences prolonged bleeding after his circumcision and has multiple
bruises without petechiae. These assessment findings suggest which condition?
A. Hemophilia C. Leukemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia D. Sickle cell anemia

82. The nurse is assessing a child who may have meningitis. For which of the following
assessment findings should the nurse watch?
A. flat fontanel
B. irritability, fever, and vomiting
C. jaundice, drowsiness, and refusal to eat
D. negative Kernig’s sign

83. A nurse is caring for a child who’s experiencing a seizure. Which nursing intervention
takes highest priority when caring for this child?
A. Allow seizure activity to end without interference.
B. Protect the child from injury.
C. Shout at the child to end the seizure.
D. Use a padded tongue blade to protect the airway.

84. A nurse is teaching a father whose infant has had several episodes of otitis media.
Which statement made by the father indicates that he needs further teaching?
A. “Children who live in homes where family members smoke have fewer
infections.”
B. “The eustachian tube in infants is shorter and less angled than in older children.”
C. “Breast-feeding is one way to help decrease the number of infections.”
D. “I wrap him up and always put a hat on him when we go out.”

85. When should the nurse introduce information about the end of the nurse-client
relationship?
A. As the goals of the relationship are reached
B. At least one to two sessions before the last meeting
C. During the orientation phase
D. When the client can tolerate it

86. During the planning step of the nursing process, the nurse performs which activity?
A. Carries out interventions C. Develops goals of care
B. Collects data D. Records data

87. A 78-year-old Alzheimer’s client is being treated for malnutrition and dehydration.
The nurse decides to place him closer to the nurses’ station because of his tendency
to do which of the following?
A. Exhibit acquiescent behaviour C. Not to change his position often
B. Forget to eat D. Wander

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 10 OF 12
88. The client is ordered warfarin sodium (Coumadin) to be continued at home. Which
focus is critical to be included in the nurse’s discharge instruction?
A. Maintain a consistent intake of green leafy foods
B. Report any nose or gum bleeds
C. Take ibuprofen l for minor pains
D. Use a soft toothbrush

89. While assessing the vital signs in children, the nurse should know that the apical heart
rate is preferred until the radial pulse can be accurately assessed at about what
age?
A. 1 year of age C. 3 years of age
B. 2 years of age D. 4 years of age

90. The nurse is preparing to take a toddler's blood pressure for the first time. Which of
the following actions should the nurse do first?
A. Explain that the procedure will help him to get well.
B. Show a cartoon character with a blood pressure cuff.
C. Explain that the blood pressure checks the heart pump.
D. Permit handling the equipment before putting the cuff in place.

91. Which I.M. injection site is appropriate for a 6-month-old infant?

A. deltoid muscle C. vastus lateralis muscle
B. gluteus maximus muscle D. ventrogluteal muscle

92. The nurse is reconstituting a powdered medication in a vial. After adding the diluent
into the vial, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
A. stir the liquid with a sterile applicator
B. shake the vial vigorously
C. roll the vial gently between palms
D. invert the vial and let it stand for 2-3 minutes

93. The maximum transfusion time for a unit of packed red blood cells is _____________.
A. 1 hour C. 4 hours
B. 2 hours D. 6 hours

94. The nurse is to give the client a 326-mg aspirin suppository. The client has diarrhea
and is in the bathroom. Which of the following nursing approaches would be
considered as best at this time?
A. substitute 325-mg aspirin by mouth
B. tell the client that you’ll give him suppository when he’s finished in the bathroom
C. wait 15 minutes after the diarrhea stops and administer the suppository
D. withhold the suppository and notify the client’s physician

95. The nurse is teaching a client how to administer subcutaneous insulin injections.
Which injection site would be appropriate for the client to use?
A. deltoid
B. rectus femoris
C. vastus lateralis
D. anterior aspect of the thigh

96. The nurse is preparing to administer a tube feeding to a post-operative client. To

accurately assess for a gastrostomy tube placement, the priority is to
A. Auscultate the abdomen while instilling 10 cc of air into the tube
B. Place the end of the tube in water to check for air bubbles
C. Retract the tube several inches to check for resistance
D. Measure the length of tubing from nose to epigastrium

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 11 OF 12
97. Which of these questions is priority when assessing a client with hypertension?
A. "Describe your family's cardiovascular history."
B. "Describe your usual exercise and activity patterns."
C. "Tell me about your usual diet."
D. "What over-the-counter medications do you take?"

98. The nurse is teaching about nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs to a group of

arthritic clients. To minimize the side effects, the nurse should emphasize which of the
following actions?
A. Continuing to take aspirin for short term relief
B. Reporting joint stiffness in the morning
C. Taking the medication 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
D. Using alcohol in moderation unless driving

99. A client has gastroesophageal reflux. Which recommendation made by the nurse
would be most helpful to the client?
A. Avoid eating 2 hours before going to sleep
B. Avoid liquids unless a thickening agent is used
C. Maintain a diet of soft foods and cooked vegetables
D. Sit upright for at least 1 hour after eating

100. A client taking isoniazide (INH) for tuberculosis asks the nurse about side effects
of the medication. The client should be instructed to immediately report which of
these?
A. double vision and visual halos
B. extremity tingling and numbness
C. confusion and lightheadedness
D. sensitivity of sunlight

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 12 OF 12
COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 13 OF 12