Aits PT 3
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Ankit BiswasAits PT 3
Uploaded by
Ankit BiswasFIITJEE JEE (Main)-2018
PART TEST – III
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
1. Section-A (01 – 30, 31 – 60, 61 – 90) contains 90 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Name of the Candidate
Enrolment No.
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2
Density of water water = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
CHEMISTRY
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625 1034 Js
= 6.625 10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 10–19 J
Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. A spherical ball of mass m, radius r is connected to string of length r . This string is then
connected to fixed point and this arrangement allowed to oscillate in a medium whose density is
and viscosity is . If amplitude of oscillation becomes half of the initial value after n seconds.
Then viscosity of liquid is given by (Assume that resistance force on ball follows stoke’s law).
(A)
m
(B)
m n 21/3
rn rn
m n8 m n2
(C) (D)
rn rn
2. An ideal diode is connected in a Vinput
circuit with resistance R = 5 and V = +25
10 volt as shown in figure maximum R = 5
and minimum value of output voltage. Output
t
When no load applied is (assume
diode to be ideal) – 25 V = 10V
(A) 10V, – 25V (B) 10V, – 15V
(C) 25V, – 25V (D) 25V, – 15V
3. A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive index . The other half of the vessel is filled with
an immiscible liquid of refractive index 1.5. The apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the
actual depth. Then is
(A) 1.4 (B) 1.5
(C) 1.8 (D) 1.67
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4. A spring block system with mass of block m and spring constant K (all
the surfaces of block are perfectly absorbing and smooth) is placed on m
a smooth horizontal plane as shown in the diagram at rest. A light
beam of intensity I is switched on its right side. Find the amplitude of
oscillations of the block. (face area of block is A and c is the speed of
light in vacuum)
I 2I
(A) A (B) A
Kc Kc
4I
(C) A (D) Zero
Kc
5. What should be the approximate kinetic energy of an electron so that its de-Broglie wavelength is
equal to the wavelength of X-ray of maximum energy, produced in an X-ray tube operating at
24800 V? (given that h = 6.6 1034 joule-sec, mass of electron = 9.1 1031 kg)
(A) 600 eV (B) 365 eV
(C) 120 eV (D) 300 eV
6. A 2 kg block moving with 10 m/sec strikes a spring of constant 2 N/m which is attached to 2 kg
block at rest kept on a smooth horizontal floor. The time for which rear moving block remain in
contact with spring is
1
(A) 2 sec (B) sec
2
(C) 1 sec (D) 1/2 sec
7. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 watt m–2 passes through three polarisers such that the
transmission axes of the first and second polarises makes an angle 30º with each others the
transmission axes of the second and third polarises makes an angle 60º with each other. The
intensity of final emerging light will be
(A) 32 watt m–2 (B) 3 watt m–2
–2
(C) 8 watt m (D) 4 watt m–2.
8. Choose the incorrect statements
(A) An electron beam is used to obtain interference in a simple Young’s double-slit experiment. If
speed of electron is increased the fringe width decreases.
(B) de-Broglie wavelength of electron is inversely proportional to the speed of electrons.
(C) Two coherent point sources of light having non-zero phase difference are separated by a
small distance. On the perpendicular bisector of line segment joining both the point sources,
no Constructive interference can be obtained.
(D) For two waves from coherent point sources to interference constructively at a point the
magnitude of their phase difference at that point must be 2n(where n is non-negative
integer)
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9. In radio-receiver, the short wave and medium wave stations transmit signal using same
capacitors but ideal coils of different inductors Ls and Lm respectively. Choose the correct option
(A) Ls > Lm (B) Ls = Lm
(C) Ls < Lm (D) None.
10. A string of length 2L, obeying Hooke’s Law, is stretched so that its extension is L. The speed of
the tranverse wave travelling on the string is v. If the string is further stretched so that the
extension in the string becomes 4L. The speed of transverse wave travelling on the string will be.
(A) 2V (B) V
(C) 2 2V (D) 2V
11. A rigid bar of mass M is supported symmetrically by three wires each of length . Those at each
end are of copper and the middle one is of iron. The ratio of their diameters, if each is to have the
same tension, is equal to
Y Yiron
(A) copper (B)
Yiron Ycopper
2
Yiron 2 Yiron
(C) 2
(D)
2Ycopper 3 Ycopper
12. A close organ pipe of diameter 10 cm has length 42 cm. The air column in pipe vibrates in its
second overtone with the maximum amplitude Po. The pressure amplitude at middle of pipe is
ΔPo ΔPo
(A) (B)
2 2
3ΔPo
(C) (D) Po
2
13. For the same objective, the ratio of the least separation between two points to be distinguished by
a microscope using electrons accelerated through 100 V and light of 5500 Å used as the
illuminating substance is
(A) 2 × 10–4 (B) 2 × 10–3
–2
(C) 2 × 10 (D) 4 × 10–4
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14. Mx and My denote the atomic masses of the parent and the daughter nuclei respectively in a
radioactive decay. The Q-value for a -decay is Q1 and that for a + decay is Q2. If me denotes the
mass of an electron, then which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Q1 Mx My c 2 and Q 2 Mx My 2me c 2
(B) Q1 Mx My c 2 and Q 2 Mx My c 2
(C) Q1 Mx My 2me c 2 and Q 2 Mx My 2me c 2
(D) Q1 Mx My 2me c 2 and Q2 Mx My 2m e c 2
15. Tritium is an isotope of hydrogen whose nucleus Triton contains 2 neutrons and 1 proton. Free
neutrons decay into p e If one of the neutrons in Triton decays, it would transform into a He3
nucleus. This does not happen because
3
(A) Triton energy is less than that of a He nucleus.
(B) The electron created in the beta decay process cannot remain in the nucleus.
(C) Both the neutrons in triton have to decay simultaneously resulting in a nucleus with 3 protons,
which is not a He3 nucleus.
(D) Because free neutrons decay due to external perturbations which is absent in a triton
nucleus.
16. A tuning fork A is being tested using an accurate oscillator. It is found that they produce 2 beats
per second when the oscillator reads 514 Hz and 6 beats per second when it reads 510 Hz. The
actual frequency of the fork in Hz is
(A) 512 Hz (B) 504 Hz
(C) 516 Hz (D) 510 Hz
17. The objective of telescope has diameter 12 cm. The distance at which two small green object
placed 30 cm apart can be barely resolved by telescope, assuming the resolution to be limited by
diffraction by objective only ( = 5.4 × 10–5 cm)
(A) 54.6 km (B) 57.0 km
(C) 546 km (D) 52.4 km
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18. Two cars A and B are moving towards each other with same speed 25 m/s. Wind is blowing with
speed 5 m/s in the direction of motion of car A. The car A blows horn of frequency 300 Hz and the
sound is reflected from car B. The wavelength of the reflected sound received by the driver of car
A is (velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s)
25 31
(A) m (B) m
36 36
35 37
(C) m (D) m
36 36
19. The value of displacement current at t = 1 time constant is 100 F
100
120 120
(A) mA (B) mA
e e2
(C) 120 mA (D) None of these
12V
20. An insect of negligible mass is sitting on a block of mass M, tied with
a spring of force constant k. The block performs simple harmonic
motion with amplitude A in front of a plane mirror placed as shown in
the figure. The maximum speed of insect relative to its image will be
k A 3 k 60
M
(A) A (B)
m 2 m
k m
(C) A 3 (D) A
m k
21. Mass of a sphere of radius r = 10.00 cm is 30.000 g
If measured values are expressed upto the correct significant figures then maximum fractional
error in calculation of density of the sphere is
(A) 3 10 5 (B) 3.3 103
(C) 3.033 103 (D) 3.03 10 5
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22. Maximum pressure difference between inner and outer surface of a thin walled circular tube of
radius r and thickness r r r , so that tube won’t break is (Breaking stress of the material is
0)
0 r r0
(A) (B)
r r
20r
(C) (D) 0
r
7
23. th of nuclei have been disintegrated in 2 minutes after fresh sample was prepared. The half life
8
of the sample is
(A) 30 seconds (B) 1 minute
(C) 40 seconds (D) 20 seconds
24. An astronomical telescope has angular magnification m = 7 for distant object. Distance between
objective and eyepiece is 40 cm. Final image is formed at infinitely. Focal length of objective and
eyepiece respectively are:
(A) 35 cm, 5 cm (B) 28 cm, 14 cm
(C) 5 cm, 35 cm (D) 70 cm, 10 cm
25. The length of an elastic chord is 1 when tension in it is T1 and 2 when tension is T2. The
natural length of wire is
T 2 T2 T T
(A) 1 1 (B) 2 1 1 2
T1 T2 T1 T2
2 T1 1T2 1T1 2 T2
(C) (D)
T1 T2 T1 T2
26. The angular speed of rotation of earth about its axis when the weight of a man standing on
equator will become half of its weight at the north pole (assume earth to be a perfect sphere) R-
6400 km.
(A) 275 × 10–4 rad sec–1 (B) 9.75 × 10–4 rad sec–1
–4 –1
(C) 8.75 × 10 rad sec (D) 8.0 × 10–4 rad sec–1
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27. In a certain pump whose rated power is P. Ideal fluid of density A
enters with speed V0 which lifts water upto height h through a pipe
of uniform cross section area without discontinuity. Volumetric flow
rate of the liquid is Q. Speed of fluid when it comes out of the pipe h
at point A is {Assume that pump works at 100% efficiency and flow
is streamline}
V0
2P 2P
(A) V02 2gh (B) V02
Q Q
2P 2P
(C) V02 2gh (D) V02 2gh
Q Q
28. In above diagram × = ? A
(A) A + BC
(B) AB + C
(C) AC + B B
(D) None of above X
29. An object is floating in water with fraction of its volume submerged in water filled in beaker which
is at rest with respect to ground. Now this beaker is accelerated with constant acceleration
downwards (a < g). Then,
(A) Fraction of volume submerged will not change.
(B) Buoyant force on the block will remain same.
(C) Pressure at any point in the water will be more than earlier.
(D) Fraction of volume submerged will change.
30. A block of mass M is kept in gravity free space and touches the two k M 4K
springs as shown in the figure. Initially springs are in its natural length.
0 2 0
Now, the block is shifted (0/2) from the given position in such a way it
compresses a spring and released. The time-period of oscillation of
mass will be
M M
(A) (B) 2
2 K 5K
3 M M
(C) (D)
2 K 2K
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18 10
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. The pair of compounds having metals in their highest oxidation state
(A) MnO2, FeCl3 (B) MnO 4 ,CrO 2 Cl2
3 2
(C) Fe CN 6 , Co CN 3 (D) NiCl4 , CoCl4
32. The density of solid Ar (Ar = 40 g/mole) is 1.68 g/ml at 40 K. If the argon atom is assumed to be a
sphere of radius 1.50 × 10-8 cm, then % of solid Ar is apparently empty space?
(A) 35.64 (B) 64.36
(C) 74 (D) None these
33. Resistance of a decimolar solution between two electrodes is 0.02 meter apart and 0.0004 m 2 in
area was found to be 50 ohm. Specific conductance will be
(A) 0.1 Scm2 (B) 1 Scm2
2
(C) 10 Scm (D) 4 × 10-4 Scm2
34. Poling process is used for
(A) the removal of Cu2O from Cu (B) the removal of Al2O3 from Al
(C) the removal of Fe2O3 from Fe (D) All of these
35. A solution of Na2S2O3 is standarised idometrically against 0.167 gram of KBrO3. This process
requires 50 mL of the Na2S2O3 solution. What is the normality of the Na2S2O3?
(A) 0.2 N (B) 0.12 N
(C) 0.72 N (D) 0.02 N
36. A 0.10 M solution of a mono protic acid (d = 1.01 g/cm 3) is 5% dissociated. What is the freezing
point of the solution. The molar mass of the acid is 300 and Kf(H2O) = 1.86oC/m
(A) - 0.189oC (B) - 0.194oC
o
(C) - 0.199 C (D) None
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1
37. In a spinel structure of a mixed oxide, oxide ion are arranged in FCC packing whereas th of
8
1
tetrahedral voids are occupied by A2+ ion and of octahedral voids are occupied by B3+ cations.
2
The general formula of the compound having structure is
(A) A2B2O4 (B) AB2O4
(C) A2B4O2 (D) A4B2O2
38. In the purification of impure Ni by Mond’s process, metal is purified by
(A) Electrolytic reduction (B) Vapour phase thermal decomposition
(C) Thermite reduction (D) Carbon reduction
Dil. H SO Dil. HNO
39. X 2 4
Y
3
Colloidal sulphur
Black Gas
Identify X?
(A) CuS (B) FeS
(C) As2S3 (D) CdS
40. Fixed mass of an ideal gas collected in a 24.63 litre sealed rigid vessel at 1 atm is heated from
– 73oC to 27oC. Calculate change in Gibbs free energy if entropy of gas is a function of
temperature as S = 2 + 10-2 T (J/K) (1 atm = 0.1 kJ)
(A) 1231.5 J (B) 1281.5 J
(C) 785.1 J (D) None
o
41. CsCl has bcc structure with Cs+at the centre and Cl ion at each corner. If rCs is 1.69 A and
o
rCl is 1.81 A . What is the edge length of the cube?
o o
(A) 3.5 A (B) 3.80 A
o o
(C) 4.04 A (D) 4.5 A
42. The cell Pt | H2 g, 0.1 bar | H aq , pH x || Cl 1M | Hg2 Cl2 | Hg | Pt has emf of 0.5755 V at
25oC. The SOP of Calomel electrode is – 0.28 V, then pH of the solution will be
(A) 11 (B) 4.5
(C) 5.5 (D) None
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18 12
dp
43. For a reversible adiabatic ideal gas expansion is equal to
p
dV dv
(A) (B)
v v
dV dV
(C) (D)
1 V V
44. A freshly prepared Fe(OH)3 precipitate is peptized by adding FeCl3 solution. The charge on the
colloidal particle is due to preferential adsorption of
(A) Cl (B) Fe3+
(C) OH (D) None of these
45. Consider the following apparatus. Calculate the partial pressure of He after opening the valve.
o
The temperature is remain constant at 16 C
He Ne
1.2 litre.
0.63 atm 3.4 litre.
2.8 atm
(A) 0.164 atm (B) 1.64 atm
(C) 0.328 atm (D) 1 atm
46. On adding KI to a metal salt solution, no precipitate was observed but the salt solution gives
yellow precipitate with K2CrO4 in the presence CH3COOH. Then the salt is
(A) Sr(NO3)2 (B) Pb(CH3COO)2
(C) AgNO3 (D) BaCl2
47. Which of the following is true in respect of chemical adsorption?
(A) H O S O G O (B) H O S O G O
(C) H O S O G O (D) H O S O G O
48. For the reaction N2H4 IO3 2H Cl
ICl N2 3H2O
The eq. mass of N2H4 and KIO3 is respectively are
(A) 8 and 53.5 (B) 16 and 53.5
(C) 8 and 35.6 (D) 8 and 87
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49. Which of the following statement is false?
n
(A) Optical isomerism is observed in Mabcd tetrahedral complexes.
(B) Geometrical isomerism does not exists while optical isomerism exists in the complex
3
Fe C2 O 4 3 .
2
(C) Both cis and trans forms are optically inactive in PtCl2 NH3 4 complex ion.
2
(D) Pt en 2 shows geometrical isomerism as well as optical.
50. Consider the following reaction:
H2 O
H2 O g H1 44 kJ
2CH3 OH 3O2 4H2 O 2CO2 g H2 1453 kJ
What is the value of H for second reaction if water vapour instead of liquid water is formed as
product?
(A) - 1409 kJ (B) - 1629 kJ
(C) - 1277 kJ (D) None of these
51. Smog is essentially caused by the presence of
(A) O3 and N2 (B) O2 and N2
(C) Oxides of sulphur and N2 (D) O2 and O3
52. Which of the following is not tranquilizer?
(A) Luminal (B) Seconal
(C) Reserpine (D) Piperazine
53. Which of the following will not be oxidised by O3?
(A) KI (B) FeSO4
(C) KMnO4 (D) K2MnO4
54. Which of the following process is used in the extractive metallurgy of Mg?
(A) Fused salt electrolysis (B) Self – reduction
(C) Aqueous solution electrolysis (D) Thermite reduction
55. Which of the following compound is not an antacid?
(A) Aluminium hydroxide (B) Cimetidine
(C) Phenelzine (D) Ranitidine
56. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the union carbide plat in Bhopal gas tragedy was
(A) Ammonia (B) Phosgene
(C) Methyl isocynate (D) Methyl amine
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57. 36 mL of pure water takes 100 sec to evaporate from a vessel when a heater of 806 watt is used.
The Hvaporisation of H2O is: (density of water = 1 g/cc)
(A) 40.3 kJ/mole (B) 43.2 kJ/mole
(C) 4.03 kJ/mole (D) none
58. 108 g fairly concentrated solution of AgNO3 is electrolysed by using 0.1 F charge. The mass of
resulting solution is
(A) 94 g (B) 11.6 g
(C) 96.4 g (D) None
59. The geometry, hybridization and magnetic moment of [Ni(CO)4] are……..,….and …..respectively
3 3
(A) tetrahedral, sp , zero (B) square planar, sp , 3
(C) tetrahedral, sp3, 2 2 (D) square planar, dsp2, zero
60. X = amount of gas adsorbed
P = Pressure
T = Temperature
L = Physisorption
M = Chemisorption
For the following graphs I, II, III and IV
200 K
250 K
Potential energy
Pconstant
x x x
m m
Hads 150 kJ mol 1
(Distance of molecule
T T P from surface)
I II III IV
Chose correct combination:
(A) I → L, II → M (B) I → L, III → M
(C) IV → M, II → L (D) IV → M, III → M
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Mathematics PART – III
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61.
If a xiˆ yjˆ 2kˆ , b ˆi ˆj kˆ , c ˆi 2ˆj , a ^ b , and
2
a c 4 , then
2
(A) a b c a (B) a b c a
2
(C) a b c 0 (D) a b c a
62. The value of m for which the straight line 2x – 3y + 4 = 0 = x – 4y + 4z + 5 is parallel to the plane
2x – y + mz – 2 = 0 is
(A) 3 (B) 2
16
(C) (D) –4
5
63. A line L passing through the point P(0, 1, –1), and is perpendicular to both the lines
x2 y4 z2 x 2 y 4 z 1
and . If the position vector of point Q on L is (a, b, c)
2 1 4 3 2 2
such that (PQ)2 = 357, then a + 2b + 3c is equal to
(A) 26 (B) 24
(C) –24 (D) 7
Area of ABC
64. Let O be the interior point of ABC such that 3OA 4OB 6OC 0 , then is
Area of AOB
equal to
13 13
(A) (B)
7 6
8 7
(C) (D)
7 13
Space for Rough work
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18 16
65.
If a 3iˆ 2ˆj 3kˆ and b 2iˆ 3ˆj 3kˆ then the vector aˆ bˆ aˆ bˆ is collinear to the vector
(A) 4iˆ ˆj 4kˆ (B) ˆi 5ˆj 6kˆ
(C) 5iˆ 4ˆj 5kˆ (D) 5iˆ 5kˆ
66. If a, b and c are three non-zero non-coplanar vectors and x a 2b c , y a 2b 2c and
z a 4b 2c are three vectors such that volume of the parallelopiped formed by a, b, c and
v
x, y, z as their coterminous edges are v 1 and v 2 respectively. Then 2 is
v1
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 18 (D) none of these
67.
100
If
k 100
Ck
x 2100 y
where x, y, z N then least value of xy2z is equal to
k 0 k 1 z
(A) 9999 (B) 1010
(C) 9090 (D) none of these
68. A two digit positive number is selected at random then the probability that its tens digit is at least
four more than its unit digit, is
1 7
(A) (B)
6 30
14
(C) (D) none of these
45
69. Consider the system of equations x – y + z = ; x – y + z = 1; x – y + z = 1. If L, M, and N
denotes the number of integral values of in interval [–5, 7] for which the system of equation has
unique solution, no solution and infinite solution respectively, then the value of L2 + M2 + N2 is
(A) 125 (B) 13
(C) 15 (D) 121
70. If , , be the roots of the equation 3x3 – 5x2 + 6x – 2 = 0 and A(, , ), B(, , ), C(, , )
are the vertices of the triangle, then centroid of ABC lies on the line
(A) x = 2y = 3z (B) x = y = z
(C) x = –2y = z (D) –x = y = –z
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17 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18
71. The coefficient of x 20 in the polynomial (1 + x)22 + x(1 + x)21 + x2(1 + x)20 + ..... + x20(1 + x)2 is
22 23
(A) C19 (B) C3
22 23
(C) C2 (D) C19
n
1
72. Number of complex numbers z such that |z| < and ar zr 1 (where |ar| < 2) is
3 r 1
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) n (D) 0
2018
k k
A k 1 A k
k 0
73. Let A k cos isin where 1 i , then 673
is equal to
20 20
A 2k 1 A 2k 2
k 1
2018
(A) 3 (B)
673
2019
(C) (D) none of these
674
2 1
a p a p p 1
2 1
74. The value of a q a q q1 is
2 1
a r a r r 1
a2 p q a 2 p q
(A) 2
(B) 2
pqr a p prq a p
b2 p q c2 p q
(C) 2
(D) 2
pqr a p pqr a p
Space for Rough work
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18 18
3
75. If ar, br, cr (r = 1, 2, 3) are non-negative real numbers and ar br cr A , then maximum
r 1
a1 a2 a3
value of b1 b2 b3 is
c1 c 2 c3
A3
(A) A3 (B)
8
A3 A2
(C) (D)
27 9
76. If a point z1 satisfying |z + 8| 2 and z2 satisfying |z + 3| + |z – 3| 10 then the range of |z1 – z2| is
(A) [10, 15] (B) [1, 15]
(C) [2, 10] (D) none of these
77. Area of the triangle whose vertices are A(–3 – 2i), B(2 – 3i) and C(–1 –5i), is
7 14
(A) (B)
4 2
13
(C) (D) 2 14
2
78. If k1 is the number of arrangements of the letters of the word “EQUATION” in which all vowels are
together and k2 is the number of arrangements of the letters of the word “EQUATION” in which
7k1
vowels are in alphabetical order then is
k2
(A) 120 (B) 4! 5!
8!
(C) 60 (D)
5!
79. 100 identical objects are distributed among 10 persons in which 1st person gets at least one
object, 2nd person gets at least 2 objects, 3rd person gets at least 3 objects, ....., 10th person gets
at least 10 objects, then total number of ways of distribution is
(A) 55 C10 (B) 55C9
(C) 54C9 (D) 54C44
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19 AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18
80. A palindrome is a word, number, phrase or sequence of words that reads the same backwards as
forwards e.g. “SOLOS”. The number of palindromes that can be formed using the letters
AABBBBCCCDDDD are
6! 6!
(A) (B)
2! 2! 2!
7!
(C) (D) none of these
2! 2!
81. Two cards are missing from a pack of 52 playing cards. One card is selected at random then the
probability that it is a king, is
3 1
(A) (B)
26 13
10 4
(C) (D)
13 13
82. All the words formed using the letters of the word “ALGEBRA” taken all at a time and one of the
word is selected from it, then the probability that the word contains the word “AGE”, is
7
C2 5!
(A) (B)
5! 7!
1 1
(C) 7 (D) 7
P2 C2
/ 4
1 1 1 1
83. If In tann xdx and , , , form an A.P., then the common difference of
0
I2 I4 I3 I5 I4 I6 I5 I7
the A.P. is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) none of these
8 16 24 32
84. The sum of the series ..... upto 20 terms is
5 65 325 1025
1280 1680
(A) (B)
841 841
1880
(C) (D) none of these
841
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/18 20
85. If x2, A1, A2, y2 are in arithmetic progression, x 2, G1, G2, y2 are in geometric progression and x2,
2
H1, H2, y are in harmonic progression, then the value of
(G1G2)(H1 + H2) – H1H2(A1 + A2) is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) none of these
86. Let A and B are two events such that P(A) = 0.4, P(B) = 0.6 and P B A 0.5 . Then P A B
equals to
1 2
(A) (B)
4 3
1 1
(C) (D)
2 3
87. If f(x) = x2 + x + (where , R) and f(f(x)) = 0 has two roots 1 and 2, then f(0) is equal to
(A) 1 (B) –2
3
(C) (D) –1
2
88. A bag contains 5 balls of unknown colours. A ball is drawn at random from it and is found to be
white. The probability that bag contains only white balls is
3 1
(A) (B)
5 5
2 1
(C) (D)
3 3
89. The arithmetic mean of a set of observation is x . If each observation is divided by and then
increased by 10, then mean of the new series is
x x 10
(A) (B)
x 10
(C) (D) x 10
90. The coefficient of x 203 in the expression (x – 1)(x2 – 2)(x3 – 3) ..... (x 20 – 20) is
(A) 11 (B) 12
(C) 13 (D) 15
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1 AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18
FIITJEE JEE(Main)-2018
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART TEST – III
(Main)
Q. No. PHYSICS Q. No. CHEMISTRY Q. No. MATHEMATICS
1. B 31. B 61. D
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
2. A 32. B 62. C
3. D 33. B 63. B
4. A 34. A 64. B
5. A 35. B 65. B
6. C 36. C 66. C
7. B 37. B 67. A
8. C 38. B 68. B
9. C 39. B 69. A
10. C 40. C 70. B
11. B 41. C 71. B
12. C 42. C 72. D
13. A 43. B 73. A
14. A 44. B 74. B
15. A 45. A 75. C
16. C 46. D 76. B
17. A 47. B 77. C
18. B 48. A 78. C
19. A 49. D 79. C
20. C 50. C 80. B
21. C 51. C 81. B
22. B 52. D 82. D
23. C 53. C 83. A
24. A 54. A 84. B
25. B 55. C 85. A
26. C 56. C 86. C
27. A 57. A 87. C
28. A 58. C 88. D
29. A 59. A 89. C
30. C 60. A 90. C
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AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18 2
Physics PART – I
1. A A 0 e b/ 2mt b = 6 r
A0
A 0 eb /2m. t
2
6r
n2 .n
2m
mn2
3rn
2. Positive half cycle
Voutput = 10V
For negative half cycle.
potential difference across output = – 25 V
3. The distance by which image appears to be raised is
1 1
d t1 1 t 2 1
1 2
t t 1 t 2
1 1
2 2 2 3
5
1.67
3
IA P
4 Leftward Force =
c t
5. The wavelength min emitted by the X-ray tube operating at a voltage V is given by
hc
eV =
min
1 1 m2 v 2 h2
Kinetic energy of the electron = mv 2
2 2 m 2m12
Now the wavelength of an electron moving with the velocity v is given by
h
= h/mv =
2meV
K.E. = 600 eV
6. T 2
k
2
T T 2 sec
T T T
Required time 1sec.
4 4 2
7. I0 is intensity of unpolarized incident light.
I 2 2 –2
I 0 cos 30º cos 60º = 3 watt m .
2
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3 AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18
h
8.
mv
c c c
9. f fm = & fs
m s
m > s f m < fs
1 1
fm & fs
2 Lm c 2 Ls c
Ls < Lm .
T
10. v
T can be calculated by using Hooke’s Law and on stretching also changes.
T Y
11.
A
12. Here
5 42 0.3 10 36cm
4
pressure amplitude at middle of pipe is
2
P Po sinKx Po sin 24
36
3Po
2
1.22
13. dmin
2sin
Where is the angle subtended by the objective at the object.
For light of 5500 Å
1.22 5.5 107
dmin m
2sin
For electrons accelerated through 100V the deBroglie wavelength is
h 1.227
0.13 10 9 m
p 100
1.22 1.3 10 10
dmin
2sin
1.22 1.3 10 10
dmin
2sin
dmin 1.3 10 10
~ 0.2 10 3
dmin 5.5 10 7
14. E = mc2
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AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18 4
st
16. For 1 reading of oscillator
f A = (514 ± 2)Hz
f A = 516 Hz or 512 Hz
For 2nd reading of oscillator
f A = (510 ± 6) Hz
f A = 516 Hz or 504 Hz
A has a frequency of 516 Hz
1.22
17.
d
1.22 5.4 105 30
12 x
x 54.645km
v w u
18. Frequency received by car B is f1 f
v w u
Now the car B will be treated as a source of frequency f1
wavelength of reflected sound received by the driver of car A is
'
v w u v w u v w u
f1 v w u f
330 5 25 330 5 25 31 m
330 5 25 300 36
19. For continuity displacement current should be equal to conduction current
q
q q0 1 e t/RC i 0 e t /RC CR t
RC
1200 F 0.0012 1.2
i A mA
ex1 e e
20. vmax = A
m m 3 r
21.
4 3 m r
r
3
0.001 3 0.01
30 10
3.3 10 5 3 103
0.033 103 3 103
3.033 103
22. 2T sin P Area
T 0 r
A . P r P
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5 AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18
23. 2 minutes = 3 half life
120
1 half life = 40 sec
3
24. f0 fe 40
f0
7 f0 35 cm
fe
fe 5cm
25. T1 k 1 0
T2 k 2 0
2 T1 1T2
0
T1 T2
g
26. g R2
2
g
2R
1
27. P
2
Q V 2 V02 Qgh
2P
2gh V02 V
Q
28. A B A B
29. Buoyancy = effective weight of liquid displaced
M 1 M 3 M
30. T
K 2 K 2 K
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AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18 6
Chemistry PART – II
31. Oxidation number of Mn in MnO4 is 7 and Cr in CrO2Cl2 +6.
32. Volume of all atoms in 1.68 g of Ar
1.68 4 22 3
6 1023 1.50 10 8 0.356
40 3 7
% of empty space = (1 – 0.3564) × 100 = 64.36
0.02
33. G* 50 m1
A 0.0004
1 1
R 50
1
Specific conductance G* 1 Scm2
R
34. When impure metal has impurity of its own metal oxide, then poling process is used e.g. impure
Cu and Sn are purified by this method.
167
35. Equivalent weight of KBrO3 n-factor = 6
6 n factor
0.167 1
NNa2 S2 O3 6 0.12 N
167 0.05
36. Mass of 1 litre of solution = 1010 gram
Mass of solvent = 1010 – 300 × 0.1 = 980 gram
0.1
m 0.102
0.98
Tf iK f m 1 K f .m
Tf 0.199o C
Tf 0 0.199o C 0.199 o C
1 1
37. Effective number of O2 in a unit cell 8
6 4
8 2
2+ 1
Effective number of A in a unit cell = 8 1
8
3+ 1
Effective number of B in a unit cell = 4 2
2
General formula = AB2O4
o
200 to 300 C
38. Ni CO 4
Ni 4CO Ni 4CO
Thermal decomposition Pure
Impure
Volatile compound
Dil. H SO Dil. HNO
39. FeS
2 4
H2 S
3
S NO2 2H2 O
Black Colloidal sulphur
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7 AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18
P1 P2
40. At constant V P2 1.5 atm
T1 T2
For single phase dG VdP SdT
G v.P 2 10 2 T dT
= 781.5 J
41.
3a 2 r r
2 1.69 1.81
a
1.732
o
a 4.04 A
o
42. For normal Calomel electrode ERP ERP
2
0.059 H
Ecell 0.28 0 log pH 5.5
2 PH2
43. As PV cons tan t p.v 1 dv V .dp 0
dP v 1
. dv
P v
dp dV
p V
44. Preferential adsorption of Fe3+ takes place so positive charge develop.
45.
He Ne
1.2 litre.
0.63 atm 3.4 litre.
2.8 atm
1.2 0.63 3.4 2.8
nHe nNe
0.082 289 0.0821 289
= 0.032 = 0.4
0.432 0.0821 289
PT 2.223
4.6
0.032
PHe 2.223 0.164 atm
0.432
46. BaCl2 KI No ppt.
BaCl2 aq CrO42
BaCrO4
Yellow ppt.
47. H, S & G should all be – ve to hold chemical adsorption.
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AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18 8
Molar mass
48. Eq. wt. of N2H4 =
4
Molar mass
Eq. wt. of IO3
4
n
49. M AA 2 does not show geometrical isomerism and can not show optical.
50. 2CH3 OH 3O2 4H2 O 2CO2 g 1453
4 44 4H2O 4H2 O
2CH3 OH 3O2 g 4H2O 2CO2 g 1277
H 1277 kJ
51. The word smog is originated from smoke and fog. Hence it is oxide of sulphur and N2.
52. Piperazine is not a tranquilizer.
53. As in higher oxidation state transition elements show acidic nature.
54. MgCl2 Mg2 2e
Fused anhydrous
At cathode: Mg2 2e
Mg
At anode: 2Cl 2e Cl2
55. Phenelzine is a tranquilizer. It is not an antacid.
57. 1 watt = 1 J/sec
Total heat for 36 mL H2O
= 806 × 100
= 80600 J
80600
Hvaporisation 18
36
= 40300 J or 40.3 kJ/mole
58. At anode,
2HgO 4H aq O2 g 4e
At cathode
Ag aq e Ag s
Ag deposited = 0.1 mole = 10.8 gram
0.1
O2 expelled out = 0.8 gram
4
Total wt. loss of the solution = 11.6 gram
wt. of remaining solution = 108 – 11.6 = 96.4 gram
59. On applying valence bond theory
8 2
Ni has electronic configuration [Ar]3d 4s and in presence of CO (strong field ligand), electronic
10
configuration is 3d .
Hybridization is sp3 and all the electrons are paired.
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9 AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18
Mathematics PART – III
61. x–y+2=0
x + 2y = 4
x = 0, y = 2
2
a 2ˆj 2kˆ and a 8
0 2 2
2
a b c 1 1 1 8 a
1 2 0
62.
Vector 2iˆ 3ˆj ˆi 4ˆj 4kˆ is perpendicular to 2iˆ ˆj mkˆ
2 3 0
16
1 4 4 0 m =
5
2 1 m
ˆi ˆj kˆ
63.
Equation of line L is r ˆj kˆ 2 1 4
3 2 2
r ˆj kˆ 10iˆ 16ˆj kˆ
Point Q is (–10, 16 + 1, – 1)
2
PQ 357 2 357
2 = 1
= 1
Q (–10, 17, 0) or (10, –15, –2) then a + 2b + 3c = 24 or –26
64. Let OA a ; OB b ; OC c A a
1
Area of ABC = a b b c c a
2
Now, r 3a 4b 6c 0
a r 4a b 6a c 0 O
2
4a b 6c a c a a b
C c
3
B b
b r 3b a 6b c 0
1 1
3a b 6b c b c a b and Area of AOB is a b
2 2
1
ab bc ca
Area of ABC 2
Now,
Area of AOB 1
ab
2
1 1 2
a b 1
2 2 3 13
=
1 6
a b
2
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AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18 10
65. aˆ bˆ aˆ bˆ 1 aˆ bˆ bˆ aˆ
66. v1 a b c
v 2 a 2b c a 2b 2c a 4b 2c 18 a b c
100 100 100 100
k 1 1 100 Ck 1 100 101 100
67. Ck 100 Ck = 2100 Ck
k 0 k 1 k 0 k 0 k 1 101 k 0 k 1
99 2100 1
= (x = 99, y = 1 and z = 101) xy2z = 9999
101
68. Tens place Unit place
(A) (B)
1, 2, 3 not possible
4 0
5 0, 1
6 0, 1, 2
7 0, 1, 2, 3
8 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
9 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
21 7
P
90 30
69. D = –( + 2)( – 1)2
D1 = –( – 1)2( + 2)
D2 = D3 = 0
From = 1, –2 infinite solution
1, –2 unique solution
So, L = 11; M = 0; N = L; L2 + M2 + N2 = 125
5 5
70.
3 3 9
22 21
71. C2 + C2 + 20C2 + 19C2 + ..... + 3C2 + 2C2 = 23C3
n
72. ar z r 1
r 1
a1z + a2z2 + ..... + anzn = 1
|a1z + a2z2 + ..... + anzn| = 1
1 |a1||z| + |a2||z|2 + ..... + |an||zn| < 2[|z| + |z|2 + ..... + |z|n |ar| < 2
z 1 z n
1 2
1 z
n+1
1 – |z| < 2|z| – 2|z|
n+1 _
2|z| 3|z| + 1 < 0
1 2 n 1
z z
3 3
1
z which is contradiction
3
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11 AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18
2018 k i
i
i
k e 20 e 20 1
k 0
73. Ak e 20 3
673 k i
i
e 20 1 e 20
k 1
a p 2
1 ap
p
1
1 aq
a q 2
74. 2
a p q
1 ar
a r 2
r
a 2 p q
Apply R2 R2 – R1 and R3 R3 – R1 and then on explained, we get = 2
prq a p
75. A= ar br cr ar br cr
ar br c r r 3 r r
1/3 a b c
A3
ar br c r 27
a2 a3
1
ar ar
ar a2 a3
b2 b3 A3
br b2 b3 = ar br cr 1 ar br c r
cr c2 c3 br br 27
c2 c3
1
cr cr
76. AD is maximum distance (–5, 0)
BC is minimum distance A C D
Range is [1, 15] B (5, 0)
(–6, 0)
(–8, 0) (0, 0)
1 2
77. Area of the triangle formed by z, iz and z + iz is z
2
78. k1 = 4! 5!
8!
k2
5!
7k1
60
k2
100 55 10 1 54
79. C10 1 C9
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AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18 12
80. Letters C must be in middle of word
6!
Required number are
2! 2!
1
81. Required probability is
13
5! 2! 1
82. 7
7! C2
1
83. In In 2
n 1
Hence, common difference = 1
8r 8r
84. tr
4r 4 1 2r 2 1 2r 2r 2 1 2r
1
Sn 2 1 2 by method of difference
2n 1 2n
1680
Hence, S 20
841
G1G2 A 1 A 2
85. in this case
H1H2 H1 H2
B
86. P(A B) = P A P 0.4 0.5 0.2
A
Now P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A B) = 0.4 + 0.6 – 0.2 = 0.8
A B 1 P A B 0.2 1
Also, P A P
B P B
1 P B
0.4 2
87. Given f(f(–1)) = 0 and f(f(1)) = 0
i.e., f(f(x)) = 0 has of two roots f(1) and f(2)
88. Let i (i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) denotes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 white balls in the bag.
i
P (i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5)
i 5
1
P i (i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5)
5
P 5 P
Now, P 5 5
5
P i P i
i 1
1
1
5 5 1
=
1 1 2 3 4 5 15 3
55 5 5 5 5
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13 AITS-PT-III-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Main)/18
1 n
89. x1, x2 ..... xn be n observations then, x xi
n i1
xi 1 n 11 n 1
Let y i 10 then y yi xi 10n
n i1 n i1 n
x x 10
y 10
1 2 3 20
90. Expression = x·x2·x3 ..... x20· 1 1 2 1 3 ..... 1 20 x 210 E
x x x x
1 2 20
Where E 1 1 2 ..... 1 20
x x x
203 –7
Now, coefficient of x in original expression = coefficient of x in E
1 2 3 1 6 2 5 3 4 1 2 4
But E 1 2 3 ..... 6 2 5 3 4 ..... 2 4 .....
x x x x x x x x x x x x
Coefficient of x–7 = –7 + 6 + 10 + 12 – 8 = 13
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2018
PART TEST – III
Paper 1
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 264
Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u ll y . Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n u t es
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into Three sections: Section-A Section-B & Section-C.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
1. Section–A (01 – 10, 21 – 30, 41 – 50) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks
for wrong answer.
2. Section–B (11 – 12, 31 – 32, 51 – 52) contains 6 Match the following Type questions. Each
question having 4 statements in Column I & 5 statements in Column II with any given statement
in Column I having correct matching with 1 or more statement (s) given in Column II. Each
statement carries +2 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
3. Section–C (13 – 20, 33 – 40, 53 – 60) contains 24 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Name of the Candidate
Enrolment No.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2
Density of water water = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
CHEMISTRY
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625 1034 Js
= 6.625 10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 10–19 J
Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
One OR More Than One Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
1. First an object is slowly lifted from the bottom (point – A) of a shaft of C
R
depth h1 to earth’s surface (point-B) and then it is slowly lifted still B
2
R A
higher to attain an altitude h2 above the earth’s surface (Point C).
2
W 1 and W 2 are the work performed in two cases respectively. Choose R
O
the correct option(s)
(A) W1 W2 (B) W1 W2
W1 W2 W1 W2 Earth
(C) 17 (D) 9
W1 W2 W1 W2
2. A light stick of length rests with its one end against the smooth wall
and other end against the smooth horizontal floor as shown in the B
figure. The bug starts at rest from point B and moves such that the x
stick always remains at rest. aP is the magnitude of acceleration of bug
of mass m, which depends upon its distance of x from the top end of P
the stick. Choose the correct option(s) m
g x
(A) aP 1
sin A
g x
(B) aP 1
cos
(C) The time taken by the bug to reach the bottom of the stick having started at the top end from
sin
rest is
2 3g
(D) The time taken by the bug to reach the bottom of the stick having started at the top end from
sin
rest is
2 g
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 4
3. Monochromatic rays of intensity I are falling on a metal
plate of surface area A placed on a rough horizontal
surface at certain angle as shown in figure. Choose
correct statement (s) based on above information:
(A) There is a value of for which plate will not move
however high the intensity of radiation is
(B) Plate will not move if plate is perfectly reflecting irrespective of the value of intensity.
(C) If rays are falling perpendiculars to surface plate will not move
(D) None of these
4. All the surfaces are frictionless and system is
released from rest when ideal spring of stiffness k is m
k A
in its relaxed state. Choose the correct statement.
g
(A) The magnitude of maximum acceleration of
g =0
particle B is
3
(B) The magnitude of maximum acceleration of
2g
particle B is
3 2m B
m
(C) The maximum speed of particle A is 2g
3k
m
(D) The maximum speed of particle A is g
3k
5. We are given the following atomic masses:
238 4
92 U 238.05079 u 2 He 4.00260 u
234 1
90 Th 234.04363 u 1H 1.00783 u
237
91 Pa 237.05121 u
Here the symbol Pa is for the element protactinium (Z = 91).
238
(A) The energy released during the -decay of 92 U is 4.75 MeV approximately.
238
(B) The energy released during the -decay of 92 U is 4.25 MeV approximately.
238
(C) The emission of proton from 92 U can be spontaneous.
238
(D) The emission of proton from 92 U can not be spontaneous.
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
6. A 50–kg ball is attached to one end of a 1 m cord that has a mass Ring
of 0.10 kg. The other end of the cord is attached to a ring that can A B
slide on a frictionless horizontal shaft AB, as shown in the diagram.
A horizontal blow is delivered to the cord and excites the
fundamental vibration with a maximum transverse velocity of 15
m/s. Assume that the ball remains essentially stationary as the cord
1m
vibrates. [g = 9.8 m/s2]
(A) The frequency of the fundamental vibration is 17.5 Hz.
(B) The amplitude of the motion is 13.6 × 10–2 m
(C) If the blow is delivered as an impulse to a stationary cord, the
50 kg
wave function for the cord is y(x, t) = A sin (x/2L) sin t, where
the ball is located at x = 0 and positive x-axis is along the
string.
(D) The period of the pendulum motion of the hanging ball is 2 sec. approximately.
m0 m
7. Mass m as a function of velocity is shown in
v2
1
c2
the graph. m0 is the rest mass of the system. The
kinetic energy of system is given as K mc 2 mc c 2
Choose correct option(s)
m0
v
O 0.5c c
(A) If a system is moving with speed v = 0.5c, the mass of system is increased by 15.5%
(B) Electrons in Cornell university synchrotron reach a velocity of v = 0.8c. The mass of these
5
electrons are approximately time the rest mass of electron.
3
(C) The Bevatron a proton accelerator generates the accelerated protons with kinetic energy 10–9
Joules. The mass of accelerated protons is 8.68 times the actual mass of proton
approximately m p0 1.67 1027 kg
(D) If the kinetic energy of particle is equal to its rest mass energy then speed of particle is 0.75c
approximately.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 6
8. A rod of length l = 100 cm is fixed at 30 cm from both end. If velocity of transverse wave in rod is
v(cms–1), then choose the correct option(s)
(A) Fundamental frequency (in Hz) of transverse wave in rod is v/40
(B) Second overtone in rod will be 5th harmonic
(C) Frequency of third overtone (in Hz) is 7v/40
(D) Third overtone is 5th harmonic.
9. If voltage applied to an X-ray tube increased from V = 10 kV to 20 kV. The wave length interval
between K-line and short wave cut off of continuous X-ray increases by factor of 3
Rhc
13.6 V , where R is Rydberg constant, h is plank’s constant, c is speed of light in vacuum
e
and e is charge on electron.
(A) Atomic no. of target metal used is 29
(B) Cut-off wavelength when V = 10 kV is 1.2 Å
(C) Cut off wavelength when V = 10 kV is 2 Å
(D) Atomic no. of target metal used is 26
10. Consider a 20 W bulb emitting light of wavelength 5000 Å and shining on a metal surface kept at
a distance 2m. Assume that the metal surface has work function of 2 eV and that each atom on
the metal surface can be treated as a circular disk of radius 1.5 Å.
(A) Number of photon emitted by bulb is 5 × 1019 per second
(B) Time required by atomic disk to receive energy equal to work function of metal is 22.4 sec.
(C) Number of photon received by disk to receive 2 eV energy is 4
(D) Number of photons emitted by bulb is 5 × 1017 per sec.
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
SECTION – B
(Matching Type)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The
Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
11. In the photoelectric effect experiment, if f is the frequency of radiations incident on the metal
surface and I is the intensity of the incident radiations, then match the following columns.
Column -I Column -II
(A) If f is increased keeping I and work-function (p) Stopping potential increases
constant
(B) If distance between cathode and anode is (q) Saturation current increases
increased
(C) If I is increased keeping f and work-function (r) Maximum kinetic energy of
constant photoelectron increases
(D) Work-function is decreased keeping f and I (s) Stopping potential remains same
constant
(t) Stopping potential decreases
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3 4
12. Two thin lens made of glass and water kept in contact with each other. An
2 3
object is placed at point O. Assume all curved surfaces have equal radius.
Match the following Columns:
Column – I Column - II
(A) (p) Image of O will be Real
glass water
O
5 cm
R = 10 cm
(B) (q) Image of O will be Virtual
glass water
O
5 cm
R = 5 cm
(C) (r) Focal length = 10 cm
glass water
O
50 cm
R = 10 cm
(D) (s) Focal length = 15 cm
glass water
O
R =10 cm
(t) Focal length = 25 cm
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
13. A square hinged-structure (ABCD) is formed with four massless rods A B
which lies on the smooth horizontal table. The hinge-D of structure is
fixed with table and hinge A, hinge-B and hinge-C are free to move on
the table. A point mass m is attached at hinge-B, and an ideal spring of
stiffness k is connected between hinge-A and hinge-C as shown in the
figure. System is in equilibrium. The mass m is slightly displaced along
line BD and released to perform SHM. The time period of SHM is
nm D C
. Find
k
6K
14. The mean pressure is , which rain renders to vertical windshield of automobile, moving with
5
constant velocity of magnitude v = 12 m/s. Consider that raindrops fall vertically with speed u = 5
m/s. The intensity of rainfall deposits h = 2 cm of sediments in time = 1 minute. [ = 103 kg/m3 is
the density of liquid] (Assume collisions are inelastic). Calculate K.
15. On the bottom of lake at a depth h = 100m, a
horizontal pipe of length 80m with piston is kept as h–x
shown in the figure. The piston is light and movable.
Between the piston and pipe some air is captured
(x0 = 9m). The pipe is slowly raised to vertical
position and open end upward. The length of air x x0
column (x) in SI units is 5K. Find value of K.
(Disregard the atmospheric pressure & piston and
pipe are air tight. Temperature of gas remains
constant).
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 10
16. In the figure shown rod AB is light and rigid C O D
while rod CD is also rigid and hinged at
midpoint O Rod can rotate without friction
about O. The time period of small oscillation of k
m
rod CD is T 2 . Where m is mass of A k
nk B
rod CD and k is spring constant of each
spring. The value of n is k k
17. Consider a cuboidal vessel (2R × 2R × R) with a a
hemispherical cavity of radius R, kept at a horizontal
smooth surface as shown in the figure. The vessel has
very small hole of cross-sectional area “a”. Now water
of density is poured into space developed due
horizontal surface and vessel through hole very slowly.
When the height of water level is h, the vessel lifts off Water h
the surface and liquid leaks through space generated.
(R = 2m, = 103 kg/m3, m = 9 kg). If the value of h is Horizontal Surface
5k cm, find the valve of k.
(Atmospheric pressure = 105 N/m2).
18. In an undershot water wheel, the cross-sectional area a 0.1m2 of the stream is striking the
series of radial flat vanes of the wheel. The velocity of stream is 6 m/s. The velocity of vanes is 3
m/s. If the power supplied by jet (in watts) is 2700K, find K.
O
v u
Water jet
19. A man of height = 3/2 m, wants to see himself in plane mirror from top to bottom. The plane
3
mirror is inclined with vertical wall at angle = 53º. If the least size of mirror to see him is m .
n
the distance of eye from mirror is d = 3m, find the value of n.
20. If 0, B, V represent permittivity of free space, magnitude of magnetic field and volume of space
respectively, then the dimension of 0B2V is MaLb Tc . Find a + b + c.
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
One OR More Than One Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
21. Select the correct statement
(A) Viscosity in gases arises principally from the molecular diffusion that transport momentum
between layers of flow. The net effect will be decrease in the relative rate of movement of one
layer with respect to the other.
(B) Viscosity of ideal gas increases as temperature increases.
(C) Viscosity of liquids decreases with the rise in temperature.
(D) At critical temperature the surface of separation between liquid and gas disappear and their
viscosity is same.
22. An ideal gas whose adiabatic exponent is expanded according to the law P V , where is a
constant. The initial volume of the gas is equal to Vo. As a result of expansion, the volume
increases 4 times. Select the correct option for above information.
R 1
(A) Molar heat capacity of gas in the process is
2 1
(B) Work done by the gas is 15Vo2
2
(C) Change in internal energy of gas is 15Vo2
2
(D) Both B and C are correct
23. Which of the following complexes exists in facial and meridional forms?
(A) [Co(dien)2]3+ (B) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(C) [Co(en)3]3+ (D) [Co(gly)3]
24. Select the correct statement, for non stoichiometric cuprous oxide Cu1.8O.
(A) % of Cu2+ in total copper is 11.11% (B) % of Cu1+ in total copper is 11.11%
(C) It behaves like p-type semiconductor (D) Defect is metal deficiency defect
25. Which of the following are colourless?
(A) Ce3+ (B) La3+
(C) Lu3+ (D) Gd3+
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 12
26. One mole of component P and two moles of component Q are mixed at 27oC to form an ideal
binary solution. Select the correct option for given information?
(A) Smix 3.82 cal k 1 (B) Hmix 0
(C) Smix 0 (D) Gmix 1145.7 cal
27. Select the correct statement for lead storage battery:
(A) It is a reversible cell.
(B) Salt bridge is not required for lead storage battery.
(C) It is recharged by using DC source of current.
(D) Specific gravity of sulphuric acid solution decreases during discharging.
28. Which of the following statements are true for froth floatation process (for the concentration of
sulphide ores)?
(A) Pine oil used as collectors.
(B) Cresol enhance non wettability of the mineral particles.
(C) NaCN selectively prevents PbS from coming to the froth but allows ZnS to come with the
froth.
(D) The mineral particles become wet by oils while the gangue particles by water.
29. Which of the following elements can give NO2 as a by product on reaction with conc. HNO3?
(A) C (B) Cu
(C) Zn (D) Sn
30. Chlorine has great affinity for hydrogen. It reacts with compounds containing hydrogen to form
HCl. Which of the following reaction/s give/s HCl?
(A) H2 O Cl2 (B) H2 S Cl2
(C) C10H16 8Cl2
(D) NH3 3Cl2
excess
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13 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
SECTION – B
(Matching Type)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The
Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
31. Match the following column of precipitate/mass listed in Column I with the reagent (s) listed in
Column II:
Column – I (Observations) Column – II (Reagents)
(A) Mg2+ gives pale pink mass with (p) NaOH solution
(B) Pb2+ gives yellow ppt. with (q) H2S gas
(C) Ag+ gives black/brown ppt. with (r) K2CrO4 solution
(D) Hg22 gives black ppt. with (s) KI (not in excess) or KI in excess
(t) Cobalt nitrate in charcoal cavity test
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 14
32. In Column I, certain thermodynamic process are given and in Column II, the value of physical
quantities are given. Match the Column I with Column II suitably. (Given : density of gas )
Column – I Column – II
V
(A) (p) Q 2RTo
VT
1 mole of N2
To 2To T
(B) P (q) 3
U RTo
1 mole of He
PT 2
To 2To T
(C) V (r) W RTo
1
V
1 mole of gaseous mixture T
having adiabatic index
1.5
To 2To T
(D) P (s) vs T graph for the process is a straight
1
P line
1 mole of gas having T
degree of freedom f = 4
To 2To T
(t) P vs graph for the process is a parabola
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15 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
33. How many types of isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl?
34. How many millilitres of 0.05 M K4[Fe(CN)6] solution is required for titration of 60 ml of 0.01 M
ZnSO4 solution, when the product of reaction is K2Zn3[Fe(CN)6]2?
35. A molecule Ax dissolve in water and is non volatile. A solution of certain molality showed a
depression of 0.93 K in freezing point. The same solution boiled at 100.26oC. When 7.87 g of Ax
was dissolved in 100 g of water, the solution boiled at 100.44oC. Given Kf for water = 1.86 K kg
mol-1, atomic mass of A = 31 u. Assume no association or dissociation of solute. Calculate the
value of x……….
36. What volume of air (in m 3) is needed for the combustion of 1 m 3 of a gas having the following
composition in percentage volume : 2% of C2H2, 8% of CO, 35% of CH4, 50% of H2 and 5% of
non-combustible gas. The air contains 20.8% (by volume) of oxygen.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 16
37. Find the total number of metals, which makes a thin protective layer of its oxide on treatment with
conc. HNO3.
Zn, Cu, Al, Pt, Cr, Au, Pb, Fe
38. The number of salts formed by telluric acid when treated with strong base NaOH is/are….
39. If 6.53 × 10-2 g of metallic zinc is added to 100 ml saturated solution of AgCl, it reacts with Ag+ of
solution as following reaction
Zn s 2Ag aq 2
Zn aq 2Ag s
and approximately 10-x moles of Ag will be precipitated. Calculate the value of x……(Given
EoZn / Zn 0.76V EoAg / Ag 0.8 V, Ksp of AgCl = 10-10, atomic mass of Zn = 65.3u,
1052.8813 = 7.61 × 1052)
40. Initial volume of H2 gas saturated with water vapour is confined under a piston in a container is
10 litres as shown in the given figure:
H2(gas)
Water(liq.)
the container also contains some liquid water. The total pressure over liquid water is 80 cm of Hg.
If now the piston is removed such that volume of container is doubled, then final total pressure
over liquid water in the container is P. The vapour pressure of water is 20 cm of Hg and volume of
liquid is negligible. Calculate P/10…….
Space for Rough work
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17 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
Mathematics PART – III
SECTION – A
One OR More Than One Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
41. If D1, D2, D3, ..... D1000 are 1000 doors and P1, P2, P3, ..... P1000 are 1000 persons. Initially all doors
are closed. Changing the status of doors means closing the door if it is open or opening it if it is
closed. P1 changes the status of all doors. Then P2 changes the status of D2, D4, D6, ..... D1000
(doors having numbers which are multiples of 2). Then P3 changes the status of D3, D6, D9, .....
D999 (doors having number which are multiples of 3) and this process is continued till P1000
changes the status of D1000, then the doors which are finally open is/are
(A) D961 (B) D269
(C) D413 (D) D729
42. Which of the following options are correct?
1 3
(A) [(nC0 + nC3 + nC6 +.....) – (nC1 + nC2 + nC4 + nC5 +.....)]2 + (nC1 – nC2 + nC4 – nC5 +.....)2 = 1
2 4
(B) If a and b are two positive numbers such that a5b2 = 4 then the maximum value of
log21/ 5 a2 log21/ 2 b2 is equal to 4
(C) Constant term in ((((((x – 2)2 – 2)2 – 2)2 – 2)2 – 2)2 ..... 2)2 is equal to 2
25 C 25
C 25
C 25
C4
(D) The coefficient of x 24 in 25 1 x x 22 25 2 x 32 25 3 x 4 2
.....
25
C 0 C1 C2 C3
25
2 C25
x 25 is equal to 2925
25
C24
43. x1, x2, x3 are three real numbers satisfying the system of equations
x1 + 3x2 + 9x3 = 27, x1 + 5x2 + 25x3 = 125 and x1 + 7x2 + 49x3 = 343, then which of the following
options are correct
x x2
(A) number of divisors of x 1 + x3 is 16 (B) 1 is a prime number
2
(C) x3 – x2 is a prime number (D) x1 + x2 + x3 is square of an integer
Space for rough work
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44. a1, a2, a3, ..... are distinct terms of an A.P. We call (p, q, r) an increasing triad if ap, aq, ar are in
G.P. where p, q, r N such that p < q < r. If (5, 9, 16) is an increasing triad, then which of the
following option is/are correct
(A) if a1 is a multiple of 4 then every term of the A.P. is an integer
(B) (85, 149, 261) is an increasing triad
1 1
(C) if the common difference of the A.P. is , then its first term is
4 3
(D) ratio of the (4k + 1)th term and 4kth term can be 4
45. If z1, z2, z3 z4 are complex numbers in an Argand plane satisfying z1 + z3 = z2 + z4. A complex
z z2 z3 z2
number ‘z’ lies on the line joining z1 and z4 such that Arg Arg . It is given that
z
1 z 2 z z2
|z – z4| = 5, |z – z2| = |z – z3| = 6 then
(A) area of the triangle formed by z, z1, z2 is 3 7 sq. units
15 7
(B) area of the triangle formed by z, z3, z4 is sq. units
4
27 7
(C) area of the quadrilateral formed by the points z1, z2, z3, z4 taken in order is sq. units
2
27 7
(D) area of the quadrilateral formed by the points z1, z2, z3, z4 taken in order is sq. units
4
46. Which of the following is/are true?
(A) 100300 < 300! (B) 300300 300!
(C) 100300 > 300! (D) 300300 300!
47. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) If A is a n n matrix such that aij i2 j2 5ij j i i and j then trace (A) = 0
(B) If A is a n n matrix such that aij i2
j2 5ij j i i and j then trace (A) 0
(C) If P is a 3 3 orthogonal matrix, , , are the angles made by a straight line with OX, OY,
sin2 sin sin sin sin
OZ and A sin .sin sin2 sin sin and Q = PTAP, then PQ6PT = 32A
sin sin sin sin sin2
(D) If matrix A aij and matrix B bij where aij a ji 0 and bij b ji 0 i and j then
33 3 3
6 7
A B is a singular matrix
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19 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
48. The vertices of a triangle ABC are A (2, 0, 2), B(–1, 1, 1) and C (1, –2, 4). The points D and E
divide the sides AB and CA in the ratio 1 : 2 respectively. Another point F is taken in space such
that the perpendicular drawn from F to the plane containing ABC, meets the plane at the point of
intersection of the line segments CD and BE. If the distance of F from the plane of triangle ABC is
2 units, then
7
(A) the volume of the tetrahedron ABCF is cubic units
3
7
(B) the volume of the tetrahedron ABCF is cubic units
6
(C) one of the equation of the line AF is r 2iˆ 2kˆ 2kˆ ˆi ( R)
(D) one of the equation of the line AF is r 2iˆ 2kˆ ˆi 7kˆ
49. The direction cosines of two lines are connected by the relations m n 0 and
mn 2 m n , then
1 m1 n1 3 1
(A) is equal to (B) 1 2 m1m2 n1n2 is equal to
2 m2 n2 2 2
2 1
(C) 1m1n1 2m2n2 is equal to (D) 1 2 m1 m2 n1 n2 is equal to
3 3 3 6
50. Let the equation of a straight line L in complex form be az az b 0 , where a is a complex
number and b is a real number, then
z c iz c
(A) the straight line 0 makes an angle of 45º with L and passes through a point
a a
c (where c is a complex number)
z c iz c
(B) the straight line makes an angle of 45º with L and passes through a point c
a a
(where c is a complex number)
a
(C) the complex slope of the line L is
a
a
(D) the complex slope of the line L is
a
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 20
SECTION – B
(Matching Type)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The
Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
51. Match the following Column-I with Column-II
Column – I Column – II
(A) If the polynomial x 3 + ax2 + bx + c is divisible by (x 2 + 1), where a, (p) 6
b, c belong to {1, 2, 3, 4, ....., 10} then a + b + c may be equal to
(B) A and B are 3 3 matrices of real numbers, where A is symmetric
a matrix and B is a skew symmetric a matrix, and
(q) 3
(A + B)(A – B) = (A – B)(A + B). If (AB)T = (–1)kAB then k may be
equal to
(C) Sum of the digits of (10050 – 43) is divisible by (r) 9
(D) Let a cos ˆi sin ˆj , b sin ˆi cos ˆj , c kˆ ,
x2 y 2
r 7iˆ ˆj 10kˆ , if r xa yb zc then the value of is (s) 10
z
less than
(t) 11
52. Match the following Column-I with Column-II
Column – I Column – II
(A) If x and y are two integers such that 289 – x2 + y4 = 0 then
(p) 1
the possible value(s) of unit digit of x + 12y + 4 is/are
(B) If P, Q, R, S be four points in space satisfying PQ 3 ,
PS QR (q) 2
QR 7 , RS 11 , SP 9 , then the value of is
9
less than
(C) The sum of three positive integer is 20. If the probability
that they form the sides of a triangle is P then 19P is equal (r) 3
to
(D) The first term of an infinite geometric series is 21. The
second term and the sum of the series are both positive
(s) 4
integers. If the value of second term is k then the possible
value(s) of |k – 15| is/are
(t) 5
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21 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
53. If 1, 2, 3, 4 are the roots of x 4 + 2x3 + bx2 + cx + d = 0 such that 1 – 3 = 4 – 2, then b – c is
equal to _____
54. A chess match between two players A and B is won by whoever first wins a total of two games.
1 1 1
Probability of A’s winning, drawing and losing any particular game are , and respectively.
6 3 2
(The games are independent). If the probability that B wins the match in the 4th game is p, then
6p is equal to _____
55. If k1 and k2 (k1 > k2) are two non-zero integral values of k for which the cubic equation
x3 + 3x2 + k = 0 has all integer roots, then the value of k1 – k2 is equal to _____
a 0 n 1
a 0 a
56. Let ak = nCk for 0 k n and A k k 1 & B A k A k 1 , then is equal to
0 ak k 1 0 b b
_____
203
57. If r 2 2 r 1! 2r r 1! a! 2 b! (where a, b N), then a – b is equal to _____
r 0
x3 x 6 x9 x 4 x7 x10 x2 x 5 x 8 x11
58. If a 1 ....., b x ..... and c ..... then the
3! 6! 9! 4! 7! 10! 2! 5! 8! 11!
value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc is equal to _____
m n
Let A p q r and B = A2. If m p q 9 , (m – n)2 + (q – r)2 = 16,
2 2
59.
1 1 1
n 2 + (r – p)2 = 25, then the value of |det(B) – 140| is _____
60. If the number of ordered pairs (a, b) where a, b R such that (a + ib)5015 = (a – ib)3 is k, then the
unit digit of k is equal to _____
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1 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2018
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART TEST – III
PAPER-1
Q. No. PHYSICS Q. No. CHEMISTRY Q. No. MATHEMATICS
1. A, C 21. A, B, C, D 41. A, D
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
2. A, D 22. A, B 42. A, B, D
3. A, B, C 23. A, B, D 43. A, B, D
4. B, C 24. A, C, D 44. A, B, C
5. B, D 25. A, B, C, D 45. A, B, C
6. A, B, C, D 26. A, B, D 46. A, B
7. A, B 27. A, B, C, D 47. A, C, D
8. A, B, C 28. A, D 48. A, C
9. A 29. A, B, C, D 49. A, B, C, D
10. A 30. A, B, C 50. A, B, C
(A) (p, r), (A) (t), (A) (q, r, t),
(B) (s), (B) (r, s), (B) (q, r, t),
11. 31. 51.
(C) (q, s), (C) (p, q), (C) (p, q),
(D) (p, r) (D) (p, q, s) (D) (p, r, s, t)
(A) (q, s), (A) (p, q, r), (A) (p, r, t),
(B) (q, s), (B) (q, s), (B) (s, t),
12. 32. 52.
(C) (p, r), (C) (q, r, s, t), (C) (s),
(D) (q, s) (D) (p, q, r, t) (D) (p, r, t)
13. 4 33. 3 53. 1
14. 8 34. 8 54. 1
15. 2 35. 3 55. 8
16. 5 36. 5 m3 56. 1
17. 6 37. 3 57. 1
18. 2 38. 2 58. 1
19. 8 39. 6 59. 4
20. 1 40. 5 60. 9
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
GMm Fex
3 r if 0 r R
1. Fex R
GMm
r if R r
r 3
W1 W2
R
4 3GMm
W1 Gmxdx W1 W2
R /2
3 8R
3R/ 2
GMm GMm
W2 2
dx R R 3R
R
x 3R
2 2
W1 9 W W2
1 17
W2 8 W1 W2
2. Consider the bug at point P at any time t, moving with speed v along the stick, so
L mvh mv sin cos Angular momentum of bug
about point O B O
x
dL dv
m sin cos h
dt dt P
v
dv
mg x cos m sin cos
dt mg
dv g x
1
dt sin A
dv g g
x Equation of SHM with mean position at point A
dt sin sin
sin
T 2
g
T sin
Time required =
4 2 g
3. Basic concept of Intensity of light
4. Consider the system at any time t when each block is moving with speed v and spring has an
extension x.
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
2mg T 2ma …(1) T
T – kx = ma …(2)
From equation (1) & (2), we can write B a
2g k d2 x kx 2g
xa 0
3 3m dt 2 3m 3
2 mg
d2 x k 2mg k
x 0
dt 2 3m k 3m N
d2 x 2mg kx
For equilibrium 2
0 x0 T
dt k A
2mg
Amplitude of motion = x 0 0
k
k 2mg 2g mg
2
amax A
3m k 3
2mg k m
v max A 2g
k 3m 3k
Second Method:
Using COME, we can write
3mv 2 kx 2
2mgx
2 2
4mg
For extreme position, v = 0 x = 0,
k
2mg
A Amplitude of motion =
k
d2 x 2mg
For maximum velocity, 0 x Equilibrium position
dt 2 k
2
2mg 3mv max 4m2 g2
2mg k
k 2 2k
2 2 2
4m g 3mvmax 2 m
v max 4g2
2k 2 3k
m
vmax 2g
3k
2g k 4mg 2g
amax
3 3m k 3
5. The energy released in -decay is given by
Q MU MTh MHe c 2
Substituting the atomic masses as given in the data, we find
Q 238.05079 234.04363 4.00260 u c 2 0.00456 u c 2 0.00456u c 2
0.00456u 931.5 MeV / u = 4.25 MeV.
238 238 237
If 92 U spontaneously emits a proton, the decay process would be 92 U 91 Pa 11 H
The Q for this process to happen is
MU MPa MH c 2 238.05079 237.05121 1.00783 u c 2 0.00825u c 2
0.00825 u 931.5 MeV / u = – 7.68 MeV
Thus, the Q of the process is negative and therefore it cannot proceed spontaneously. We will
238
have to supply an energy of 7.68 MeV to a 92 U nucleus to make it emit a proton.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18 4
T 50 1 9.8
6. v 70m / s .
0.1
v 70
1 4m f 17.5Hz .
4 4
vp max 15
vp max A A 0.136m 13.6 102 m
2f 2 3.14 17.5
M Mc 2 K M0 c 2 10 9
7. (C) 1 7.68
M0 M0 c 2 M0 c 2 1.67 10 27 9 10 20
(D) Mc 2 M0 c 2 K 2m0 c 2
M = 2 M0
M0
2M0
v2
1 2
c
4v 2
1 4
c2
3c 2 3
v2 v c 0.866c
4 2
m
8. 40
2
1
n 2 2 30
2n 1 6 2 2n 1
m
m 4 3
n=1 m=2 = 40 cm
n = 4 m = 6 v = f f/40 = f 0
n = 7 m = 10
= 8 second overtone
f = v/8 = 5f 0
n = 10 m = 14
40 7v
f3 .
7 40
9. Let x be the wave length for K-line
hc
x
eV2
3
hc
x
eV1
4
x 2
3R Z 1
Z = 29
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
10.
dN
P
5 1019 / s
d
dt hc /
hc
2.49 eV W0 : Yes. r
SECTION – B
11. Use K max h
12. Use concept of combination of lenses.
SECTION – C
13. OE = x y
FG 2a 2y A B
F
From the property of rhombus, we can write O
2 2
a a x
y a2 E
2 2 2
x
Neglecting x2 and y2, we have y
2
Using COME, we can write
mv 2 k 2
x E cons tan t
2 2
4m
T D C
k
x
G
14. Let in time t, m mass of liquid collides with windshield. So
p pi 0 mv mv
F f
t t t
density of liquid molecules in air so
m Svt Sv t
Where S surface area of the windshield
F
F Sv 2 Mean pressure = v 2 …(1)
S
Now as we assumed that is the density of liquid molecules of drops in air so in time uS0
volume of liquid will strikes on the surface of earth so mass of liquid strikes on the earth in time
interval will be
m0 S0u
S0 h S0 u
h
u
Putting this value in equation (1), we have
hv 2 48
Mean pressure = K=8
u 5
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18 6
15. P2 g h x , P1 gh
V2 Ax V1 Ax 0 h–x
Using Boyle’s low we can write
g h x Ax gh Ax 0
x x0
2 h h2
x hx hx 0 0 x hx 0
2 4
x 10m, 90m
x length of pipe
So answer will be x = 10 m
m 2 2k k 2 5k
16.
12 12 4 m
h
h3
17.
mg FB R 2h R2 z2 dz g m
3
0
3m 3 9 3
h3 h 0.3m 30cm
103 10
18. Mass of water striking vanes/sec av
Initial velocity = v
Final velocity of water = u
Change in velocity = v – u
F = force on the vane av(v u)
Work done f u avu(v u) = 5400 watts
K=2
h
19. tan C
d d Wall
using triangle EAB h
E
d B
H 0
cos 90
sin 90 sin 2 H
d H
cos 2sin
A
2d = H cos cot sin
d
Hcos Hsin
h
3 3
3
h=
Hdcos
2 5 27 3 .
2d Hsin 3 4 36 2 8
23
2 5
0E 2 E
20. 0 VB2 2
V B
v v
ue Energy
2V 2
mass, so a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
2v speed
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
21. At critical temperature various physical properties of gas and liquid are identical.
22. A. P V
PV 1
We know for polytropic process
PV x constant
x 1
R
We know C Cv
x 1
R
C Cv
2
R R
C
1 2
R 1
C
2 1
B. dW PdV
dW VdV
On integrating above equation.
4Vo 2 V 2
W o
2 2
W 16Vo2 Vo2
2
W 15Vo2
2
23. [M(AAA)2], [Ma3b3] and [M(AB)3] can show fac and mer forms.
24. Say, number of Cu2+ ions = x
Number of Cu+ ions = 1.8 – x
x × 2 + (1.8 – x) × 1 = 1 × 2
2x + 1.8 – x = 2
x = 2 – 1.8
x = 0.2
0.2
% of Cu2+ 100 11.11
1.8
% of Cu1+ = 88.89
26. Gmix RT n A nA nB nB
1 2
2 300 1 n 2 n
3 3
Gmix 600 1.0986 0.8109 = 1145.7 cal
Gmix
Smix 3.82 cal k 1
T
Hmix 0
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18 8
28. In froth floatation process pine oil used as collectors which enhance non-wettability of mineral
particles.
Cresol is froth stabilizers.
NaCN used as depressant
29. C 4HNO3 CO2 4NO2 2H2 O
Cu 4HNO3 Cu NO3 2 2NO2 2H2 O
Zn 4HNO3 Zn NO3 2 2NO2 2H2 O
Sn 4HNO3
H2 SnO3 4NO2 H2 O
30. (A) H2 O Cl2
2HCl O (B) H2 S Cl2
2HCl S
(C) C10H16 8Cl2
16HCl 10C (D) 8NH3 3Cl2 6NH4 Cl N2
SECTION-B
31. Pb2+ : Pb2 2KI
PbI2 2K
Yellow
Pb2 K 2 CrO4 PbCrO4 2K
Yellow
Ag+ : 2Ag 2NaOH Ag2 O H2O 2Na
Brown
2Ag H2 S
Ag2 S 2H
Black
Hg22 : Hg22 2NaOH Hg2 O H2 O 2Na
Black
2
Hg HgS 2H
Hg H2 S
2
Black
2
Hg 2 2KI Hg2I2 2K
Hg2I2 2KI K 2 HgI4 Hg
Black
32. (A). Process is isobaric
5R 7R
CV CP
2 2
7RTo
qp nCP T
2
5RTo
U nCV T
2
W RTo
3R
(B). Process is isochoric, C V
2
3RTo
qV U
2
W 0
R R
(C). CV 2R
1 1.5 1
P
VT constant PV2 = constant constant
2
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
T dV dV V P dV PV
V 0 R
dT dT T n dT nT
W RTo U 2RTo q RTo
2 3
(D). 1
4 2
R
CV 2R
1
PT = constant P2V = constant
P2
constant
U 2RTo
SECTION – C
33. Ionisation isomerism
Linkage isomerism
Geometrical isomerism
34. 3ZnSO 4 2K 4 Fe CN6
K 2 Zn3 Fe CN6 3K 2 SO 4
2
nf 2 nf 3
Milliequivalents of ZnSO4 = milliequivalents of K4[Fe(CN)6]
N1V1 = N2V2
60 0.01 2
Volume of K4[Fe(CN)6] (V2) 8 ml
0.05 3
35. Tf K f m
0.93
m 0.5
1.86
Tb Kb m
0.26
Kb 0.52K kgmol1
0.5
Similarly Tb K b m
K b w 1000
Tb
W m.wt
K w 1000
m.wt. of solute b
W Tb
0.52 7.87 1000
100 0.44
31x 93
x=3
36. 2H2 O2
2H2 O
CH4 2O2 CO2 2H2 O
2CO O2 2CO2
5
C2H2 O 2 2CO2 H2O
2
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18 10
Required oxygen for the combustion of given gas = 1.04 m 3
1.04 100
Hence, volume of air required 5 m3
20.8
37. Al, Cr, Fe
38. Telluric acid H6TeO6 is quite different from sulphuric and selenic acid. It exists as octahedral
Te(OH)6 molecule in the solid. It is a weak dibasic acid and forms two series of salt, NaTeO(OH)5
and Na2TeO2(OH)4.
39.
Zn s 2Ag aq 2
Zn aq 2Ag s
0.059
Eocell log10 K eq
2
0.059
0.8 0.76 log10 K eq
2
Keq = 7.61 × 1052
As Keq is very large the reaction will tend towards completion
6.53 102
Moles of zinc added = 10-3
65.3
10 5 100
Moles of Ag+ in solution 106
1000
As Ag+ is limiting reagent, the moles of Ag precipitated 106
Hence x = 6
40. P1V1 P2 V2
60 10
P2 = pressure of H2 gas
20
P2 = 30 cm of Hg
Final total pressure over liquid water (P) = 30 + 20 = 50 cm of Hg
P 50
5
10 10
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
Mathematics PART – III
SECTION – A
41. Dm will be open finally if m is the perfect square
42. (A) (1 + x)n = nC0 + nC1x + nC2x2 + nC3x3 + ..... + nCnxn
1 i 3
Put x = where
2 2
n
n
C 0 n C3 n C6 ..... ..... n
C1 nC 4 nC 7 ..... n
C2 nC5 nC8 ..... 2 1
1 i 3
n
C0 n C3 n C6 ..... n
C1 nC4 nC7 .....
2
2
1 i 3 n
n
C2 nC5 nC8 .....
2 2
2
1
n
C0 nC3 nC6 ..... 2
n
C1 nC2 nC4 nC5 .....
i 3 n
2
n
C1 nC2 nC4 nC5 ..... 2
Take modulus both sides
(B) a5b2 = 4 5 log2(a) + 2 log2(b) = 2
y = 10 log2a·4 log2b = 40 log2a·log2b
5log2 a 2log2 b
A.M. G.M. 10log2 a·log2 b
2
1
log2 a log2 b y 4, y = 4 when 5 log2a = 2 log2 b a5 = b2 = 2
10
(C) For constant term put x = 0 and get constant term = 4
(D) Coefficient of x24 = 1.25 + 2.24 + 3.23 + ..... + 25.1 = 2925
43. Roots of the equation y3 – x3y2 – x2y – x1 = 0 are 3, 5 and 7
x3 = 15, x2 = –71, x1 = 105
44. Let R be the common ratio of the G.P. and D be the common difference of A.P.
a5 = a5, a9 = Ra5, a16 = a5R2
a9 – a5 = 4D (R – 1)a5 = 4D ..... (1)
a16 – a9 = 7D R(R – 1)a5 = 7D ..... (2)
1 4 7
From equation (1)/(2), we get R
R 7 4
9a5
From equation (2) – (1), we get (R – 1)2a5 = 3D 3D
16
3 3 3 4D
a1 4D D a1 1 D a1
16 16 4 3
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18 12
45. a=b+5 z2 a z3
b 6
and
6 a 6 6
b
ab = 36 b
b2 + 5b – 36 = 0
b=4
z1 b z 5 z4
n
n 300
46. n! put n = 300 100 < 300! ..... (1)
3
3 < 100 3150 < 100150 (300)150 < 100300
300300 100300 ..... (2)
300
From equation (1) and (2), we get 300 300!
47. (A) aij a ji aij a ji 0 A is skew symmetric matrix
(C) A2 = 2A A3 = 22A A6 = 25A
(D) A6B7 is a skew symmetric matrix of odd order
48.
CD : r ˆi 2jˆ 4kˆ 7ˆj 7kˆ F
A 2 ˆi 2kˆ
3
3iˆ ˆj 5kˆ
3
BE : r ˆi ˆj kˆ 7iˆ 7ˆj 7kˆ 4iˆ 4ˆj 10kˆ
D
3
ˆ ˆ
P i j 3kˆ 3 E
P
Area of tetrahedron ABCF
1 7
= Area of base triangle height = cubic units
C ˆi 2ˆj 4kˆ
B ˆi ˆj kˆ
3 3
ˆ ˆ
AB AC 7 j 7k , PF PF 2 units
7ˆj 7kˆ
PF 2 ˆj kˆ = P.V. of F – P.V. of P
49 49
P.V. of F = ˆi 4kˆ
Vector equation of AF is r 2 ˆi kˆ ˆi 2kˆ
2
49. By eliminating n 2 1 0
m m
1 2 1
1,
m1 m2 2
1 1 2 1 2 1
On solving, we get 1, m1, n1 , , and 2 , m2 , n2 , ,
6 6 3 6 3 6
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13 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
50. Let P(z) be any point on the required line. P(z)
A(z1)
CP z c
Then, i.e. is a unit vector parallel to it P(z)
CP z c C(c)
45º
Let A(z1) and B(z2) be two points on
z z1 45º
az az b 0 then 2 is a unit vector parallel to the line
z 2 z1
az az b 0 B(z2)
zc z z1 i 4
2 e
zc z2 z1
2 2
z c
z2 z1 i
e 2
z c z c z2 z1 z2 z1
zc z z1
i 2 ..... (1)
zc z2 z1
A(z1) and B(z2) are on the line az az b 0 therefore az1 az1 b 0
az2 az b 0
a z 2 z1
..... (2)
a z2 z1
z c iz c
From equation (1) and (2), we get 0
a a
SECTION – B
51. (A) f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c = (x2 + 1)(x + a) + (b – 1)x + (c – a)
f(x) is divisible by x2 + 1 b – 1 = 0 c = a
(B) (A + B)(A – B) = (A – B)(A + B) AB = BA, AT = A, BT = –B
(AB)T = (–1)k – 1AB k is an odd number
(C) 10100 – 43 = 999 ..... 9957
Sum of digits = 98(9) + 5 + 7 = 894
(D) x = 7 cos – sin , y = 7 sin + cos , z = 10
x2 y 2
5
z
52. (A) (x + y2)(x – y2) = 172
x + y2 = 172 and x – y2 = 1 or x + y2 = 17 and x – y2 = 17
or x + y2 = –1 and x – y2 = –172 or x + y2 = –17 and x – y2 = –17
Possible cases: (x, y) (145, 12), (17, 0)
x + 12y + 4 = 293, 5, 21, –13, 3, –285
(B) PQ2 + RS2 = QR2 + SP2 = 130 R
9 7 3
PS QR 7 3 7 11
9 9
Q S
3 P 9
(C) x + y + z = 20, number of the solution is 19C2 they form triangle if 1 x, y, z 9
Number of solutions = coefficient of x 20 in (x1 + x2 + ..... + x9)3 = 19C2 – 310C2
19
C2 3 10 C2 4
Required probability P 19
P
C2 19
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18 14
(D) Let the series be 21, 21r, 21r2, 21r3, .....
21
Sum = N and 21r N
1 r
21 21
N 21 – 21r N and 21r < 21
21 21r
21 – 21r may be equal to 1, 3, 7, 9
21r = 20, 18, 14, 12
|k – 15| = 5, 3, 1
SECTION – C
53. (x4 + 2x3 + bx2 + cx + d) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3)(x – 4) = (x2 + px + q)(x2 + px + r)
= x4 + 2px3 + (q + r + p2)x2 + (pr + pq)x + qr
(2p)3 – 4(2p)(q + r + p2) + 8(pq + pr) = 0
23 – 4 2 b + 8c = 0
b–c=1
54. Probability that B wins the match in the 4th game
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 6 3 66 1
= 6 3 C1 = +
2 6 3 2 2 3 3 2 72 36 72 6
55. x3 + 3x2 + k = 0 , ,
+ + = –3, + + = 0, = –k
2 + 2 + 2 = 9
, , I 2 = 9, 2 = 0, 2 = 0
or 2 = 4, 2 = 4, 2 = 1
2 = 4, 2 = 4, 2 = 1
Possible roots: 3, 0, 0, 2, 2, 1
But + + = 0
So, possible roots are 3, 0, 0; –3, 0, 0; 2, 2, –1; –2, –2, 1
Possible non-zero values of k are –4 and 4
a 0 ak 0
56. A k Ak 1 k 1
0 ak 0 ak 1
a a 0
A k Ak 1 k 1 k
0 ak ak 1
n C nC 0
A k Ak 1 k 1 k n n
0 Ck Ck 1
n1 n n
Ck 1 Ck 0
B
k 1 a 0
n 1
n n
0 b
0 k k 1
C C
k 1
a = b = 2nCn – 1 – n
57. (r2 + 2)(r + 1)! + 2r(r + 1)! = (r + 1)(r + 2)! – r(r + 1)!
58. a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = (a + b + c)(a + b + 2c)(a + 2b + c)
2x
a + b + c = ex, a + b + c2 = ex, a + b2 + c = e
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15 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
59. det(A) is twice of area of triangle with vertices , p , (m, q), (n, r) with sides 3, 4, 5
2 = s(s – a)(s – b)(s – c)
2 = 6 3 2 1
=6
Now det(A) = 12
det(B) = 144
60. a + ib = z |z|5015 – |z|3 = 0
|z|3 (|z|5012 – 1) = 0
|z| = 0 or |z|5012 = 1 |z| = 1 zz 1
z=0
1
z5015 = z3 z5015 3 z5018 = 1
z
Number of complex numbers = 5018 + 1 = 5019
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2018
PART TEST – III
Paper 2
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240
Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u ll y . Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n u t es
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
1. Section–A (01 – 08, 21 – 28, 41 – 48) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for
wrong answer.
Section–A (09 – 12, 29 – 32, 49 – 52) contains 12 paragraphs with each having 2 questions with
one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong
answer.
2. Section–C (13 – 20, 33 – 40, 53 – 60) contains 24 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Name of the Candidate
Enrolment No.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2
Density of water water = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
CHEMISTRY
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625 1034 Js
= 6.625 10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 10–19 J
Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
One OR More Than One Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
1. Choose the correct statement(s).
(A) The image of sun (consider point source of light) can never be produced at center of glass
sphere, (assuming the space between sphere and sun is filled with air).
(B) If a lens having = 1.5 has focal length 20 cm in air, then its focal length will be 60 cm when it
4
is immersed in water of refractive index
3
(C) The laws of reflection and refraction are true for all surface and pairs of media at the point of
incidence.
(D) The thick lenses give coloured images due to dispersion of light.
2. When a yellow light of wavelength 6000 Å from a sodium lamp falls on a certain photocell, a
negative potential of 0.30 volt is needed to stop all the electrons from reaching the collector. Then
choose correct option(s).
(A) Work function of the given photocell is 2.5 eV approximately.
(B) Work function of the given photocell is 1.8 eV approximately.
(C) A negative potential of 0.6 Volt will be needed to stop all the electrons if light of wavelength
= 4000 Å is used
(D) A negative potential of 1.3 Volt will be needed to stop all the electrons if light of wavelength
= 4000 Å is used
3. An electromagnetic radiation of wavelength ranging
between 400 nm and 1150 nm (for which the plate is
penetrable) incident perpendicularly on the plate from
above is reflected from both the air surfaces and
interferes. In this range only two wavelength give
maximum reinforcements, one of them is = 400 nm. Plate
(refractive index of air = 1 and the coefficient of linear d
thermal expansion of cube = 8 106 C1). The
distance of bottom of cube from plate does not change cube h = 2 cm
during warming up. Choose the correct option(s)
(A) The change in temperature of cube so that it would touch the plate is 6.2C
(B) The change in temperature of cube so that it would touch the plate is 3.1C
2000
(C) The second wavelength, which gives maximum reinforcement is = nm
3
4000
(D) The second wavelength, which gives maximum reinforcement is = nm
3
Space for Rough work
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 4
4. A certain ideal spring stretches 20 cm when m 1 = 40 gm mass is hung from it. If a mass of
2205
m2 gm gm is hung instead of 40 gm at its end pulled out 20 cm from equilibrium and
32
released at t = 0 sec. Choose the correct option(s). (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) The magnitude of acceleration of the m 2 mass when it is 2.5 cm from the equilibrium position
64
is m/s2
45
(B) The magnitude of acceleration of the m 2 mass when it is 2.5 cm from the equilibrium position
32
is m/s2
45
(C) At t sec. m2 mass is 10 cm from equilibrium position.
8
(D) At t sec. m2 mass is 10 cm from equilibrium position.
2
5. I am a Vernier Calliper. I have a task to measure the length of a pencil as shown in the figure.
The least count of my Vernier scale is 0.05 times the value of one division of main-scale.
Pencil
8 cm 9 cm
Portion of Main-Scale
My Vernier Scale has n-divisions and coincides with (n – 4) divisions of main scale. While
n
measuring the length of pencil, the th division of Vernier-Scale exactly coincide the main-scale.
5
Now choose the correct option(s)
(A) The value of n is 40
(B) The least count of Vernier scale is 0.005 cm
(C) The length of Pencil is 8.44 cm
(D) The length of Pencil is 8.48 cm
Space for Rough work
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
6. A triple slit experiment is performed as shown in the figure with monochromatic light of amplitude
a0. S3M S2N = . The graph between resultant amplitude (A) versus is plotted. Choose the
correct option(s).
screen
S3
M
d
S2 N
d
x
S1
D>>d
(A) A
A10
A20
4 2 0 2 4
3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3
(B) A
A10
A20
5 4 2 0 2 4 5
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
A10 A 20
(C) 2 , where A10 and A20 are the values shown in option A.
A10 A 20
A10 A 20
(D) 5 , where A10 and A20 are the values shown in option A.
A10 A 20
Space for Rough work
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 6
7. One end of thin aluminium rod (cross-sectional Area = 10–6 m2) is bult welded to the end of
copper rod with same diameter. Both rods are very long and under uniform tension of 900 N.
Given that
Y(Cu) = 1.6 × 1011 Nm–2 Y(Al) = 0.9 × 1011 N m–2
3 –3
(Cu) = 8.1 × 10 kg m (Al) = 2.5 × 103 Kg m–3
A
(A) The value of reflection factor r for longitudinal pulse approaching the junction along copper
Ai
rod is 0.15
A
(B) The value of reflection factor r for longitudinal pulse approaching the junction along copper
Ai
rod is approximately 0.3
A
(C) The value of reflection factor r for transverse pulse approaching the junction along copper
Ai
rod is 0.15
A
(D) The value of reflection factor r for transverse pulse approaching the junction along copper
Ai
rod is approximately 0.3
8. There are two cylinder-shaped wooden billets, each having a mass of
mass 45 kg, in a vertical wall sewage, which contains water in it. The
two billets have the same size and the same material; they touch each
other and the walls of the sewage. One of them is totally under the
water, whilst only half of the other one is immersed into the water.
Friction is negligible everywhere. (density of water is 1000 kg/m 3 and
g = 10 m/s2). Choose the correct option(s)
(A) Density of the wood is 750 kg/m 3
(B) Density of the wood is 800 kg/m3
(C) The forces exerted by the billets on the vertical walls is 260 N approximately
(D) The forces exerted by the billets on the vertical walls is 320 N approximately
Space for Rough work
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
Paragraph for Question Nos. 09 and 10
Consider a wave sent down a string in the positive direction whose equation is given as
x
y y 0 sin t
v
The wave is propagated along because each string segment pulls upward and downward on the segment
adjacent to it at a slightly larger value of x and, as a result does work upon the string segment to which
wave is travelling.
For example, the portion of string at point A is going upward, and will pull v
the portion at point B upward as well. In fact, at any point along the string,
each segment of the string is pulling on the segment just adjacent and to A
its right, causing the wave to propagate. It is by this process that the B
energy is sent along the string.
x x+x
Now we try to calculate how much energy is propagated down the string T
per second
A
y
Ty T sin T tan Ty T
x
(The negative sign appears because as shown in the figure-II, the slope is y
negative) the force will act through a distance
x
y
dy v y dt dt
t
Therefore work done by force in time dt is
y y 2 y20 T x
dW = Tydy = T dt dW cos2 t dt …(A)
x t v v
Now answer the following questions.
9. The average power transmitted down the string (i.e. the average energy transfer or sent down it
per second) is
22 y 20 T 2 y20 T
(A) (B)
v v
2 y20 T 2 y20 T
(C) (D)
2v 4v
10. How much average power is transmitted dawn a string having density = 5 104 kg/m and T = 5
N by a 200 Hz vibration of amplitude of 0.20 cm.
(A) 0.08 Watt (B) 0.16 Watt
(C) 0.32 Watt (D) 0.64 Watt
Space for Rough work
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 and 12
ABC is an isosceles right angled triangular reflecting prism of average refractive index . When incident
rays on face AB are parallel to face BC , then they emerges from Face AC , which are also parallel to
Face BC as shown in figure-I. The prism capable to do so , known as Dove Prism. In figure-II, the Dove
Prism is used for dispersion of incident light containing red colour and violet colour only. The red colour
and violet colour lights are separated( displaced ) on screen by a distance . In reality , each ray of any
colour has some width, which can be designated as d. It is clear that an observer can distinguish the red
and violet rays that emerges from prism only if d .Otherwise the bundles of rays will overlap and mix.
5
[ Given for Dove Prism in figure-II: R , V R 0.02 , 5 2.25 , EF = 1m and AB =4cm ]
2
Now answer the following questions.
A A
0
90 900
Screen
Ray-2
M
Ray-1 E V F
G
H
B B R
C C
Figure-I Figure-II
11. Choose the INCORRECT option.
(A) As per figure-I, the average refractive index of Dove Prism may be greater than 1.
(B) As per figure-I, the average refractive index of Dove Prism may be greater than 2 .
(C) As per figure-II, the displacement depends upon average refractive index and length
of AB.
(D) As per figure-II, the displacement depends upon average refractive index and length
of EF.
12. Find the maximum value of width d of bundle of rays that can be resolved at the outlet of Dove
Prism as shown in the figure-II.
(A) 2.25 103 m (B) 2.25 104 m
(C) 1.125 103 m (D) 1.125 104 m
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive)
EB bc
13. If the dimension of a physical quantity is MaLb T c . Find the value of . Here
a
E magnitude of electric field
B Magnitude of magnetic field
Permeability of medium
14. A 200 cm length of wire weighs 0.6 gm. If the tension in the wire caused by a 500 gm mass
hanged from it. If the approximate wavelength of a wave of frequency 400 Hz sent down by it is
2n 102 m. Find the value fo n. (g = 9.8 m/s2)
15. A glass sphere of refractive index 1.5
forms the real image of object O at = 1.5
point I as shown in the figure when 0 = 1.0 0 = 1.0 I
O R
kept in air of refractive index 1. If the
value of x is kR. Find k. x C R
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 10
16. A large cylindrical container with open top contains a
liquid upto height (2H = 8m) and whose density
varies as shown in the figure. Atmospheric pressure 20
is 1 atm (= 105 N/m2)
Find the pressure at bottom of cylindrical container in
atm.
(given 0 103 Kg / m3 , and g 10m / s2 ). 0
x
O H 2H
17. The figure shows a crude type of perfume atomizer. When bulb at A is compressed, air flows
swiftly through the tiny BC with uniform speed v, there by causing a reduced pressure at the
position of vertical tube DE. The liquid of density 500 kg/m 3, then rises in the tube, enters tube BC
and sprayed out. When bulb is in natural position the air in the bulb and tube are at atmospheric
pressure P0 = 105 N/m2. When bulb A is compressed, it creates an excess pressure p = 0.001 P0
inside the bulb A. Density of air is 1.3 kg/m 3. If the magnitude of minimum value of speed v,
required to cause the liquid to rise to tube BC is 5k m/s. Find the value of k. (g = 10 m/s2).
3
A 4 C
B D
h = 32 mm
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18. A hydrogen atom in ground state, moving with speed v collides with another hydrogen atom in
kE0
ground state at rest. If v v 0 a bc 10n m / s, then the collision is elastic. Here a, b and
mH
abc
c are whole number, less then 9. Find the value of .
k n
me4
E0 13.6 eV / atom 2.18 10 18 J/atom ionisation energy of H-atom
22
mH 1.67 10 27 kg Mass of hydrogen atom.
19. A soap bubble is being blown on a tube of radius 1 cm. The surface tension of
the soap solution is 0.05 N/m and the bubble makes an angle of 60 with the tube
in equilibrium state as shown. If the excess of pressure over the atmospheric 60 60
pressure in the tube in Pascal (Pa) is x, find x
20. A light ray is incident on a rotating mirror, which
is rotating with angular speed 3 rad/s as shown
in figure. The speed of bright spot on the wall Wall
when = 30°.
Incident ray
L=1m
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 12
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
One OR More Than One Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
21. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(A) CrI3 KOH Cl2 K 2 CrO4 KCl KIO4 H2 O
In the balanced chemical reaction, stoichiometric coefficient of KOH is 64.
(B) NH4 2 Cr2O7
N2 Cr2O3 4H2O
n-Factor of (NH4)2Cr2O7 is 12.
3
(C) Fe CN 6 Fe3 CO2 NO3
n-Factor for [Fe(CN)6]3– is 60.
H
(D) MnO24 MnO 4 MnO 2
Eq. wt. of MnO 24 is 178.5.
22. Which of the following on reaction with H2S will produce metal sulphide?
(A) COCl2 (B) CuCl2
2 2
(C) Cd CN4 (D) Zn OH4
23. A dilute solution contains m mol of solute A in 1 kg of a solvent with molal elevation constant Kb.
The solute dimerises in solution as
2A A2
Select the correct expression of equilibrium constant ‘K’ for the dimer formation. (assume molarity
= molality)
K K m Tb
(A) K b b 2
(B) K 2
K bm 2Tb 2m 1
K b Kb m Tb 2 K b m Tb
(C) K 2
(D) K
2Tb Kbm K bm
24. Select the correct statement for cloud seeding:
(A) It promotes rainfall.
(B) It suppress fog.
(C) Most commonly used chemical for cloud seeding is silver iodide because it has a crystalline
structure to that of ice.
(D) It helps in snow fall.
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25. Which of the following combination, of compounds/elements and its packing fraction is true?
Assume all cations or anions are ideally fitted in the voids without any distortion in lattice.
2 3
(A) Na2 O,
3 2
1 2 0.225
3
(B) Cr2 O3 , 1 0.414
3 2 3
(C) Fe 2O3 ,
3 2
1 0.225
3
(D) Diamond,
3 2
1 0.414
3
26. In which of the following ores at least one metal is in +3 oxidation state and crystal system is
orthorhombic.
(A) Haematite (B) Copper pyrite
(C) Diaspore (D) Aragonite
27. Which of the following IUPAC names are correct?
(A) K2[OsCl5N] : Potassium pentachloridonitridoosmate(VI)
(B) [Fe(NH4C5 – C5H4N)3]Cl2 : Tris(bipyridine)iron(II) chloride
(C) [Fe(C5H5)2] : Bis( 5 -cyclopentadienyl)iron(II)
(D) [Pt(py)4][PtCl4] : Tetrapyridineplatinum(II) tetrachloridoplatinate(II)
28. Consider the following graph and choose the correct option
E PBo
F
C
A D
B Vapour pressure
Vapour pressure PTo
of Benzene
of Toluene
Mole fraction of
Benzene
(A) A represent vapour composition and B represent liquid composition.
(B) At the state E of the system the vapour phase just start forming and its vapour phase
composition will correspond to the point C.
(C) At the state C of the system the vapour phase just start forming and its vapour phase
composition will correspond to the point D.
(D) A and B both represent vapour composition.
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
Paragraph for Question Nos. 29 to 30
A metal crystallizes in a closed packed structure, the atoms stack together occupying maximum space
and leaving minimum vacant space. Each sphere in the first layer is in contact with six neighbours. Now
while arranging the second layer on the first layer, spheres are placed in depression of first layer.
Spheres of third layer lie in the depression of second layer.
This repeating arrangement of atoms produces a giant lattice.
29. If one of the edge length of unit cell is ‘a’ what is the shortest distance between two atoms?
3a a a
(A) (B) or
4 4 3
a a
(C) a or (D)
2 2
30. If spheres of third layer do not lie directly over the atoms of first layer, then density of unit cell is:
o
(Given: atomic weight of metal is 197u and a = 4.07 A )
(A) 86.5 g/cc (B) 19.4 g/cc
(C) 56.2 g/cc (D) 40.5 g/cc
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 31 to 32
Stereoisomerism occurs when the bond connectivity is same but the spatial arrangement of more than
one type is possible. Stereoisomerism finds vast use in organic chemistry, mainly biochemistry as all the
biomolecules, are generally stereospecific in their actions. Stereoisomerism is limited not only to organic
compounds but also to inorganic compounds, mainly in co-ordination complexes. Stereoisomers include
cis and trans isomers, chiral isomers, compound with different conformation of chelate rings and other
isomers that differ only in the geometry of attachment to the metal ion.
31. Select the incorrect statement:
(A) trans form of [CoCl2(trien)]+ has 3 coplanar chelate ring.
(B) [Pt(py)(NH3)(NO2)(Cl)(Br)(I)] has 15 geometrical isomers.
(C) Carboxylic group of salicylate ion is cis and trans to tertiary nitrogen in [Co(tren)(sal)]+.
(D) [Pt(NH3)2(py)2Cl2]2+ complex has 5 non chiral isomer.
32. Select the correct option for tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) ion, the trans isomer
(A) does not have any symmetry (B) has plane of symmetry
(C) trans form is meso form (D) trans form exists as a pair of enantiomer
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 16
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive)
33. The enthalpy change involved in oxidation of glucose is - 2880 kJ mol-1, 25% of this energy is
available for muscular work. if 100 kJ of muscular work is needed to walk one km, the maximum
distance (km) that a person will be able to walk after taking 150 g of glucose is……
34. 1 litre solution containing 4.5 millimoles of Cr2 O7 and 15 millimoles of Cr3+ shows a pH of 2.0.
The potential of the reduction half reaction is approximately x V. Then [x] is ……., where [ ] is
GIF. Eo of Cr2 O72 / Cr 3 is 1.33 V
35. Assuming 100% polymerization of an organic compound in its aqueous solution, the number of
moles of organic compound undergoing polymerization containing 9.4 g of organic compound per
100 g of the solvent is……... Freezing point depression is 0.93 K, Kf of water is 1.86 K kg mol-1
and molecular weight of organic compound is 94u.
36. A gas consists of 5 molecules with a velocity of 5 ms-1, 10 molecules with a velocity of 3 ms-1 and
6 molecules with a velocity of 6 ms-1. The ratio of average velocity and rms velocity of the
molecules is 9.5 × 10-x. Where x is …..
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37. Number of S – S linkage in Marshall acid = a
Number of P – P linkage in Pyrophosphoric acid = b
Number of O – O linkage in Caro acid = c
Number of C = C linkage in Carbon suboxide = d
Find out the value of a + b + c + d?
o o o
38. In an ionic solid rc 1.6 A and ra 1.864 A . Find edge length of cubic unit cell in A
39. Percentage of silver in german silver…..
KCN added slowly In excess KCN precipitate dissolves
40. A B C
Reddish brown precipitate Yellow solution
K Fe CN NaOH
4
A
6
D Re d precipitate
Intense blue precipitate
Na HPO
A
2 4
E
Yellowish white precipitate
How many products are correctly match?
A = FeCl3 A = FeCl2 A = CuCl2 B = Fe(CN)3
B = K3Fe(CN)6 C = K3Fe(CN)6 C = K4[Fe(CN)6] D = Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
D = Fe[Fe(CN)6] E = FePO4
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 18
Mathematics PART – III
SECTION – A
One OR More Than One Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
41. A is a matrix of order 3 3 and aij is its elements of ith row and jth column. If aij + ajk + aki = 0 holds
for all 1 i, j, k 3 then
(A) A is a non-singular matrix (B) A is a singular matrix
(C) aij is equal to zero (D) A is a symmetric matrix
1 i, j 3
42. If x and y satisfy the equation xy – 2x2 – 9x + 3y – 16 = 0, then
(A) number of ordered pair (x, y) is 4 where x, y Z
(B) number of ordered pair (x, y) is 1 where x, y N
(C) if x y, x, y N then number of ordered pair is zero
(D) if x y, x, y N then number of ordered pairs are two
43. Let p, q be integers and let , be the roots of the equation x 2 – 2x + 3 = 0 where , if n = 0,
1, 2, 3, ..... Let an = pn + qn where n {0, 1, 2, .....} then the value of a9 is equal to
(A) 3a8 – 5a7 + 3a6 (B) a7 – 6a6
(C) a7 – 12a5 + 18a4 (D) 2a8 + 3a6
1 1 1 1
44. For any two positive integers x and y f(x, y) = ..... , then
x 1! x 2 ! x 3 ! x y !
which of the following options is/are correct
1 1 1 1
(A) f x, y (B) lim f x, y
x x! x y !
y x!
1 2
(C) f x, x (D) f(2, 2) is equal to
x 1! 3
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ab 12 bc 12 ca 12
45. Let a > 0, b > 0, c > 0 and a + b + c = 6 then may be
b2 c2 a2
75
(A) (B) 35
4
(C) 15 (D) 10
46. A and B play a game in which they alternately call out positive integers less than or equal to n,
according to the following rules. A goes first and always calls out an odd number, B always calls
out an even number and each player must call out a number which is greater than the previous
number (except for As first turn). The game ends when one player cannot call out a number, then
which of the following is/are correct?
(A) For n = 6, number of possible games is 8 (B) For n = 6, number of possible games is 10
(C) For n = 10, number of possible games is 55 (D) For n = 8, number of possible games is 21
47. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) The point of intersection of AB and CD where A(4, 7, 8), B(–1, –2, 1), C(2, 3, 4) and
3 5 9
D(1, 2, 5) is , ,
2 2 2
(B) If (, , ) be a point on the plane 2x + 6y + 15z = 7 then the least value of 2 + 2 + 252 is 7
(C) The circumcentre of the triangle formed by the points (3, 2, –5), (–3, 8, –5) and (–3, 2, 1) is
the point (–1, 4, –3)
x 1 y 12 z 7
(D) The length of intercept on the line by the surface 11x2 – 5y2 + z2 = 0 is
1 5 2
30 units
48. Consider all 10 digit numbers formed by using all the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, ....., 9 without repetition
such that they are divisible by 11111, then
(A) the digit in tens place for smallest number is 6
(B) the digit in tens place for largest number is 3
(C) total numbers of such numbers is 3456
(D) total numbers of such numbers is 4365
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 20
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
Paragraph for Question Nos. 49 to 50
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Let A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) and D(z4) be the vertices of a trapezium in an Argand plane such that AB || CD. Let
z z2
|z1 – z2| = 4, |z3 – z4| = 10 and the diagonals AC and BD intersect at P. It is given that Arg 4
z3 z1 2
z z2
and Arg 3
z4 z1 4
49. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?
140
(A) Area of the trapezium ABCD is equal to sq. units
3
70
(B) Area of the trapezium ABCD is equal to sq. units
3
100
(C) Area of the triangle BCP is equal to sq. units
21
200
(D) Area of the triangle BCP is equal to sq. units
42
50. Which of the following option(s) is/are incorrect?
10
(A) value of |CP – DP| is equal to (B) PB : PD = 2 : 5
21
(C) PC : AC = 5 : 7 (D) PC : AC = 2 : 3
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 51 to 52
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
In the equation A + B + C + D + E = FG, where FG is the two digit number whose value is 10F + G and
letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G each represents different digits and FG is as large as possible
51. A five digit number is made using digits A, B, C, D, E, F, G (repetition not allowed), then which of
the following is incorrect
1
(A) probability that number made is divisible by 5 is
7
2
(B) probability that number made is divisible by 3 is
7
2
(C) probability that number made is divisible by 4 is
7
1
(D) probability that number made is divisible by 4 is
7
52. If a five digit number is made using the digits A, B, C, D, E without repetition then
2
(A) the probability that the number is divisible by 11 is
5
1
(B) the probability that the number is divisible by 11 is
5
1
(C) the probability that the number is divisible by 4 is
4
2
(D) the probability that the number is divisible by 4 is
5
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive)
53. If a, b, c are three positive real numbers then the minimum value of
a 3c 4b 8c
is 2 (where a, b Z), then | + | is equal to _____
a 2b c a b 2c a b 3c
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 22
54. If the quadratic equation a1x2 – a2x + a3 = 0 where a1, a2, a3 N has two distinct real roots
belonging to the interval (1, 2), then least value of a1 is _____
55. Let a1, a2, a3, a4, a5 be five terms of an increasing geometric progression such that a1, a2, a3, a4,
a5 N, and a5 < 100. Then the number of possible geometric progression (is/are) _____
n2 n18
56. If the coefficient of x 2 in (x – 1)(x2 – 2)(x3 – 3)(x4 – 4) ..... (x n – n), where (n 8) is k, then k
is equal to _____
a 4 b6 c 8
57. If a, b, c are three positive numbers then the minimum value of is equal to _____
ab c 2
3 2
2
253 2
58. Let k when k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ....., 253 are 254th roots of unity then the unit digit of z k z 2 is
k 0
2
i
7
_____ (where z e )
59. Let A = [aij]3 3 be a matrix such that AAT = 4I and aij + 2cij = 0 where cij is the cofactor of aij i & j,
I is the unit matrix of order 3 and AT is the transpose of the matrix A.
a11 4 a12 a13 a11 1 a12 a13
a
If a21 a22 4 a23 5 a21 a22 1 a23 0 , then where a and b are
b
a31 a32 a33 4 a31 a32 a33 1
coprime positive integers then the value of a + b is _____
60. If x3 – ax2 + bx + c = 0 has the roots 2 + 3 + 4, 2 + 3 + 4 and 2 + 3 + 4 where , , are the
roots of x3 – x2 – 1 = 0 then the value of a + b + c is equal to _____
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1 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/18
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2018
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART TEST – III
PAPER-2
Q. No. PHYSICS Q. No. CHEMISTRY Q. No. MATHEMATICS
1. A, C, D 21. A, C, D 41. B, C
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
2. B, D 22. B, C, D 42. A, B, C
3. B, C 23. B, C 43. A, B, C
4. B, C, D 24. A, B, C, D 44. A, B, C
5. B, D 25. A, B 45. A, B
6. A, C 26. C 46. A, C, D
7. B, C 27. A, B, C, D 47. A, C, D
8. A, C 28. C 48. A, B, C
9. C 29. C 49. A
10. B 30. B 50. D
11. D 31. D 51. D
12. B 32. B 52. C
13. 3 33. 6 53. 5
14. 5 34. 1 54. 5
15. 5 35. 2 55. 8
16. 2 36. 1 56. 0
17. 4 37. 3 57. 1
18. 6 38. 4 58. 8
19. 5 39. 0 59. 7
20. 8 40. 5 60. 6
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1
1. (A) (not possible)
R R
The higher the refractive index of the
material of sphere (), the closer one could
come to fulfilling the objective S 1 = 1 P 2 =
fa w a
(B)
f w a w
3 4
1 1 3 1
2 3 2
3
1 4 6 4 4
2 3
(C) basic (NCERT-point to ponder)
(D) basic (NCERT-point to ponder)
2. As we know that,
hC 12400
K v s , where is in electron Volt and is in Å
When light of wavelength = 6000 Å is used
12400
0.3 = 1.77 1.8 eV (approximately)
6000
When light with wavelength = 4000 Å is used
12400
eV
4000
eV = (3.1 1.8) e volt = 1.3 eV
v = 1.3 Volt
3. Condition for maximum intensity due to thin film
2d n
2
2d = 2p 1 1 (2p + 1)1 = 4 d
2
Here 1 = 400 nm and n = p An integer
Let = 1150 nm. Since only two wavelength give maximum intensity, so
4d 4d
2(p 1) 1 2(p 2) 1
1(2p 1) (2p 1)
1
2(p 1) 1 2(p 2) 1
1(2p 1) (2p 1)
or 1
2(p 1) 1 2(p 2) 1
1 1 1 1150 400
p 1...... , or
2 1 2 1150 400
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
1 3 1 1 3 1150 400
p 2......
2 1 2 1150 400
The only integer which satisfies both inequalities is 2, so
(2 2 1)400 10 9
d 500 nm
4 1
4 d 4 1 500 10 9
2 666.7 nm
2(p 1) 1 21
d 500 10 9
T 3.1 C
h 8 10 6 2 10 2
mg F 40 103 9.8
4. k = stiffness of string 1.96 N / m
xmax xmax 20 10 2
2205
When we replace the mass 40 gm by the mass m2 gm , we have
32
m 3
T 2 sec
k 8
2 k 16
rad/sec
T m 3
16
x = x0 cos t = 0.2 cos t
3
16 16
v = x0sin t = sin t
15 3
256 16 A
a = x0 2cos t = cos t
45 3
16 1
If x = 10 cm cos t cos
3 2 3
2
16
t (2n )
3 3 B
3n
t sec
8 8
1
5. L.C. = 0.1 0.005 cm
20
Let 1 V.S.D. = x
1
1 x x 0.95 mm
20
n 4 1 n 0.95
n 80
80
Length of pencil = 8.4 0.005 8.48 cm
5
2
6.
y 2 a0 sin(t kx)
y1 a0 sin(t kx ) and y3 a0 sin t kx )
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 4
A | a0 2a0 cos | a0 | (1 2cos ) | y
2xd
A a0 | (1 2cos |
D a0
2
a0 | (1 2cos |
a0 x
a0
Second Method : Suppose and represent the phase difference and path difference between
two connective waves so
Phasor representation Resultant amplitude
0 0 A A = 3a0
a0 a0 a0
60 A = 2a0
a0
6
60
A
a0
60
a0
120 2 A=0
3 6
a0 a0
120
a0
180 3 A A = a0
2 6 a0
a0
a0
240 2 4 240 A=0
3 6 a0
a0 a0
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
300 5 300 A = 2a0
6
300
a0
360 6 A A = 3a0
3a0
6
a0 a0 a0
F F
7. For transverse wave, v T
S
900 30
VAl 600 m / s
2.5 103 10 6 50 103
900 30 1000
VCu 3 6
3
m/s
8.1 10 10 90 10 3
800
ar VAl VCu 2
3 0.3
ai VAl VCu 2800 7
3
Y
For longitudinal wave V
9 1010 3 105
VAl 3
6000 m / s
2.5 10 50
16 1010 4 105 40000
VCu m/s
8.1 103 9 10 9
1400
ar VAl VCu 9 7
0.15
ai VAl VCu 94000 47
9
8. 2mg FB1 FB2 FB2
3 FB1
wood water 750kg / m3
4 N
Taking torque about O1 30° O2
N R mg FB2 2R cos30 N
O1
1
45 10 1.732 259.8 260N
3 mg
mg
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 6
9. During one time period (T0)
T
T2 y02 0 x
W 1 cos 2 t dt
2v 0 v
W 2 y 20 T
Average Power =
T0 2v
10. Since the work done will be same at any place along the string in one cycle so choose x = 0, for
2 /
2 y 02 T y 02 T
convenience. Then work done in a cycle = cos2 tdt
v v
0
y 02 T
work done in a cycle v 2 y 02 T
Average power = work done per unit time = =
Time period 2 2v
Average power = 22 f 2 y 02 T 22 f 2 y 02 T
T
2 10 200 200 0.2 0.2 104 5 104 5 = 160 103 Watt = 0.16 Watt.
11.-12. In figure-I, total internal reflection takes place at face AB.
EMD MDE BEM A
900
90 45 Ray-2
0
Ray-1 45 M N
1
sin 45
B C
E D
2
sin cos ……………….( 1)
According to law of refraction at point M, we can write
1 1
1 sin 45 sin sin
2
cos 1 2
2
Putting these value in equation ( 1), we have
1 1 2
1 2 2 2 1 1 1
2 2
In figure-II: Replace the Dove Prism, by glass cube of side as AB.
A A
900 900
M
0
45 M
V
-
+
+ B C
R R
B C
E D L
V
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
L
……………..( 2)
2
From geometry, we can write
1 1
sin and sin
R 2 R R 2
a a
L a tan a tan =
2 2
2 R 1 2 R 1
a 2 R2 1 a 2 R2 1
L 1 1
2 2
2 R2 1 2 R 1 2 R2 1 2 R 1
2 2R 1
a 1
L 2
2 R2 1 2 R2 4 R 2 1
2
Neglecting the value , we have
1
a 1 1 a 4 R 2
L 1 1 2
2
2 R 1 4 2 R2 1 2 R 1
1 R2
2 R 1
Expand binomially, we have
2a R
L 3
2 R2 1 2
Putting this value in equation ( 2), we have
2 a R
3
2 R2 1 2
Second method:
d
L a tan
d
L a sec 2
1
Also sin
2R
1
cos
2R2
a sec 2
L
2R2 cos
2aμ R Δμ
ΔL= 3
2μ 2R -1 2
Third method:
L 1 1
, sin , sin
2 r 2 v 2
L a tan a tan
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 8
1 1
a
2r2 1 22v 1
1 1
a
2 2 1 r
a 1/2
1 1 r
2
a 1
1 1 r
2 2
a
r
4
L a 4cm 5 2
r
2 4 2 4 2 2 100
5
cm 5 10 4 m
100
2.25 10 4 m
Since: d
d 2.25 10 4 m
2
2 2v 1 2 r 1
2
2r2 2 4 r 1
2
4 4r 0
2 1 r
a
SECTION – C
EB B 2C
13. energy density speed
= Energy per unit volume speed
Energy
= speed
volume
ML2 T 2
LT 1 ML0 T 3
L3
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
b c 0 ( 3)
Here a = 1, b = 0 c = 3 3
a 1
m 0.6 103
14. = mass per unit length = = 3 104 kg/m
2
T = mg = 0.5 9.8 = 4.9 N Tension in the string
T
v = speed of wave in string =
4.9
= 128 m/s
3 10 4
v 128
wavelength of the wave = 32 10 2 m = 25 102 m
f 400
n=5
15. We can reverse the question. Let I behaves as object and O behaves as image, because
retracing the path will not alter the distances.
Consider first refraction at point N
1.5 1.0 1.5 1.0 1.5 1 1
v 3R
v R R v 2R R
M N
= 1.5 0 = 1.0
R
O x P2 C P1 R I I1
3R
0 = 1.0
Consider second refraction at point M, for this I, will behaves as normal object so
1.0 1.5 1.0 1.5
v 5R R
1 3 1 5
v 10R 2R 10R
1 5 3 1
v 10R 10R 5R
v 5R
x 5R k 5
16. We have to calculate the partial pressure, generated due the liquid of variable density
0 y 0
H
W = weight of liquid column above the point A
H H
y
W Sgdy gS0 1 dy
y y H
H2 y 2 S0 H y 3H y g
gs0 H y
2H 2H
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 10
P1 = Partial pressure at interface (y = 0) due to liquid with y
W
variable density =
S y0
30 gH
0
2
50 gH
P Pressure at bottom = P0 P1 0 gH 0
2
5 103 10 4
105 2 105 2 atm
2
H x
2H
17. Use Bernoulli’s equation at point-3 and point-4, we can write
P0 P PBC 1 2
v PBC = P0 + P 0.65 v2
air air 2
Using Bernoulli’s equation at point -1 and point -2, we can write
P1 1 2 P2
v liquid
liquid 2 liquid
PBC iquidgh 1 2 P0
v
iquid 2
P0 P gh 0.65v 2 1 2 P0
v
2
1
v 2 0.65v 2 P gh 0
2
P gh
v2
0.65
P gh 100
v min 20 m/s
0.65 5
18. According to Bohr’s model
1 3E0
E E0 1 2 Emin
n 4
During inelastic collision, a part of kinetic energy of colliding particles is converted into internal
energy. The internal energy of the system of two hydrogen atoms, considered in the problem
cannot be changed less than Emin. It means if the change in kinetic energy of system in ground
frame is less than Emin (or if the kinetic energy of colliding atoms with respect to their centre of
mass is less than Emin), then collision must be an elastic one. Hence considering the critical
case
2
1 v 3E 0 3E 0
mH 0 2 v0
2 2
4 mH
3 2.18 10 18
39.1617 10 4 6.257 10 4 m / s 6.26 10 4 m / s
1.67 10 27
abc 626
6
k n 3 4
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
r 1
19. cos
R 2
4rT cos r 2 P
Y v
20. tan 2 90
L
vsin2
y L cot 2
dy d
dt
L cos ec 2 2 2
dt
d
2L cos ec 2 2
dt
Wall
L=1m
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 12
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
21. (A) 2CrI3 27Cl2 64KOH
2K 2CrO4 54KCl 6KIO4 32H2 O
(B) n-Factor of (NH4)2Cr2O7 is 6.
3 2 3 4 5
(C) Fe CN Fe3 CO 2 NO3
6
n-Factor = 60.
6 7 4
(D) MnO24 H MnO 4 MnO2
n Factor 2
3
119 3
Hence, eq. wt. of MnO24 178.5
2
22. B. CuCl2 H2S
CuS 2HCl
2
C. Cd CN 4 H2 S CdS 2H 4CN
2
D. Zn OH4 ZnS 2OH 2H2 O
H2S
2A
A2
23. moles at t 0 m 0
m
moles at t eq m m
2
m
Total moles = m m 1
2 2
Tb iK b m K bm 1
2
Tb
1
2 K bm
2 K bm Tb
K bm
Equilibrium constant K for the dimer formation is
K
A2 m
2 2
A 2 m 1
K 2
2m 1
2
2 K b m Tb 2 K b m Tb
K 2m 1
K bm K bm
K b K bm Tb
K 2
Kbm 2K bm 2Tb
K K m Tb
K b b 2
2Tb Kbm
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13 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
24. Cloud seeding is a form of weather modification, a way changing the amount or type of
precipitation that falls from clouds by dispersing chemicals into the air.
2 3
25. Fe2O3 , 1 0.414
3 2 3
4r 3
Diamond, 8 3
3 2 2r
26. Diaspore is an aluminium oxide hydroxide mineral crystallizing in the orthorhombic system.
28. A represent liquid composition and B represent vapour composition.
29. Above packing represent two possible arrangements, hexagonal close packing or cubic close
a
packing, hence minimum distance, a or .
2
30. Above information represent cubic close packing
197 4
3
4.07 10 24 6.02 1023
19.41 g / cc
31. (A) Cl
N
N
Co trans form has 3 coplanar ring
N N
Cl
(C) N
N
N N
N N Co COO cis to tertiary N
Co COO trans to tertiary N N O
N O
C O
O
O
C
O
[Pt(NH3)2(py)2Cl2]2+ has 4 non chiral isomer.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 14
32. Cl Cl
H3 N NH3 H3 N Cl
Co Co
H3 N NH3 H3 N NH3
Cl NH3
trans achiral cis achiral
It has axis of symmetry and plane of symmetry
SECTION – C
2880 150
33. The energy involved during oxidation of glucose is 2400 kJ
180
2400
Energy available for muscular work 600kJ
4
Energy required for 1 km walk = 100 kJ
Therefore the distance that a person will be able to walk taking 150 g glucose = 6 km.
34. 14H Cr2 O7 6e 2Cr 3 7H2 O
2
0.059 Cr 3
o
ECr O /Cr3 E
Cr2 O7 /Cr 3
log10 14
2 7
6 Cr2O7 H
4.5 14
0.059
1000
102
ECr O /Cr 3 1.33 log10 2
2 7
6 15
1000
0.059 4.5 1031
1.33 log10
6 2.25 104
0.059
1.33 log10 2 10 27
6
= 1.06
=1V
35. Assume organic compound is A and n molecules of A polymerise
Tf iK f m
Tf 0.93 94 100
i
K f m 1.86 9.4 1000
1
i 0.5
n
n=2
5 5 10 3 6 6
36. Average velocity 4.33
21
5 25 10 9 6 36
rms velocity 4.53
21
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15 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
Vav
0.955 9.5 10 1
Vrms
x=1
37. O O
HO S O O S OH Marshall acid a = 0
O O
O O
HO P O P OH Pyrophosphoric acid b = 0
OH OH
O
HO S O O H Caro acid c = 1
O
O C C C O Carbon suboxide d = 2
rc
38. 0.858
ra
From above ratio it is clear that cation occupy cubic void in simple cubic unit cell, hence
3a 2 rc ra
a=4
40. FeCl3 3KCN Fe CN3 3KCl
A B
Fe CN3 3KCN
K 3 Fe CN6
C
4FeCl3 3K 4 Fe CN6 Fe4 Fe CN6 12KCl
3
D
Fe 4 Fe CN 6 12NaOH 4Fe OH3 3Na4 Fe CN6
3
FeCl3 Na 2HPO4 FePO 4 2NaCl HCl
E
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 16
Mathematics PART – III
SECTION – A
41. Put i = j = k
aij = 0 and put k = i aij = –aji
So, matrix is skew symmetric of odd order
7
42. y 2x 3
x 3
x, y I; x + 3 = 1, 7
(x, y) (–2, 6), (–4, –12), (4, 12), (–10, –18)
43. an 2 2an1 3an
x x i1 1 1
44.
x i ! x i! x i 1! x i !
y
1 1 1
x ..... (1)
i 1 x i ! x! x y !
1 1
lim f x, y ..... (2)
y xx! x!
1 1 1 x 1
f x, x .....
x 1! x 2 ! x x ! x! x 1!
1 1 1
1 1 1 3
45. A.M. H.M. for , , , we get a b c
a b c 3 6
1 1 1 3
a b c 2
2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1 3
a b b c c a a b c 6
Now,
b c a
2
3 3 3
2 2 2
1 1 1 75
a b c
b c a 4
46. Pn = Pn – 1 + Pn – 2, P1 = 1, P2 = 1
P3 = 1 + 1 = 2
P4 = 2 + 1 = 3
P5 = 5
P6 = 8
P7 = 13
P8 = 21
P9 = 34
P10 = 55
47. (A) Intersection point is mid-point of AB and CD
(B) 2 + 6 + 15 = 7
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17 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
2iˆ 6ˆj 3kˆ ˆi ˆj 5kˆ 7 2 2 25 2
2 6 15 7 2 2 25 2
2 + 2 + 252 1
(C) Triangle is equilateral
(D) Intersection points are (1, 2, 3) and (2, –3, 1)
48. Let N = x1x2x3 ..... x10 be one of such number
xi 45 , hence N is divisible by 9. Hence N should by divisible by 11111 9 = 99999
Now x1x2x3 ..... x10 = x1x2x3x4x5 105 + x6x7x8x9x10
= x1x2x3x4x5 99999 + (x1x2x3x4x5) + (x6x7x8x9x10)
Now x1x2x3x4x5 < 99999
x6x7x8x9x10 < 99999
x1x2x3x4x5 + x6x7x8x9x10 < 2 99999
x1x2x3x4x5 + x6x7x8x9x10 = 99999
x1 + x6 = x2 + x7 = x3 + x8 = x4 + x9 = x5 + x10 = 9
So, smallest number 1023489765
Largest number 9876501234
Total number 9 8 6 4 2 1 1 1 1 1 = 3456
49.-50. ABP and CDP are similar if AP = 2x, Q
BP = 2y then CP = 5x, DP = 5y
49
Area of trapezium ABCD xy 4
2 (z1)A B(z2)
2x 2y 2x 2y
tan , tan also + = 45º
5y 5x 5y 5x
10 2 (z4)D C(z3)
10
xy
21
x y2
40
Also AB2 = AP2 + BP2 x2 + y2 = 4 xy
21
Ar(PCD) = 5xy
51. 9 + 8 + 6 + 5 + 4 = 32
Set P(A , B, C, D, E, F, G) = (2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9)
n(S) = 7C5 5!
Total numbers divisible by 5 = 6C4 4!
Total numbers divisible by 3 = 3C1 5! + 3C2 5! = 6!
Total numbers divisible by 4 = 720
52. 9, 8, 6, 5, 4
(A and B) ..... 9 + 8 + 6 + 5 + 4 = 32
|(9 + 8) – (6 + 5 + 4)| = 2 not divisible by 11
|(9 + 6) – (8 + 5 + 4)| = 3 not divisible by 11
|(9 + 5) – (8 + 6 + 4)| = 4 not divisible by 11
|(9 + 4) – (8 + 6 + 5)| = 6 not divisible by 11
|(8 + 6) – (9 + 5 + 4)| = 4 not divisible by 11
|(8 + 5) – (9 + 6 + 4)| = 6 not divisible by 11
|(8 + 4) – (9 + 6 + 5)| = 8 not divisible by 11
|(6 + 5) – (9 + 8 + 4)| = 10 not divisible by 11
|(6 + 4) – (9 + 8 + 5)| = 12 not divisible by 11
|(5 + 4) – (9 + 8 + 6)| = 14 not divisible by 11
(C) ..... 4 8
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18 18
5 6
6 4
8 4
9 6
5 3! 1
Probability =
5! 4
SECTION – C
53. Let a + 2b + c = x, a + b + 2c = y, a + b + 3c = z
a = –x + 5y – 3z, b = z + x – 2y, c = z – y
Apply A.M. G.M.
a 3c 4b 8c
17 12 2
a 2b c a b 2c a b 3c
a2 a
54. , 3 , , (1, 2)
a1 a1
– 1, – 1, 2 – , 2 – (0, 1)
1 2
A.M. G.M. 1 2
2
1 1
1 2 similarly ( – 1)(2 – )
4 4
1 1
0 1 2 1 2 (Both can’t equal to simultaneously ( )
16 4
a a 2a a 1
0 3 2 1 4 2 3
a1 a1 a1 a1 16
0
a1 a2 a3 4a1 2a2 a3 1
a12 16
a12
a1 a2 a3 4a1 2a2 a3
16
a12 a2
f 1 f 2 1
16 16
Least integral value of a is 5
n
55. Let be the common ratio of G.P., where n and m are coprime integers n > m
m
n4
a5 a1 4 so let a1 = km4 (k I+)
m
G.P. km4, km3n, km2n2, kmn3, kn4
kn4 < 100 n can’t be greater than or equal to 4
Case-I: n = 3 and m = 2
a5 = kn4 < 100
100
k k=1
81
G.P. (16, 24, 36, 54, 81)
Case-II: n = 3 and m = 1
a5 = 81k < 100 k = 1
G.P. (1, 3, 9, 27, 81)
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19 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol)-JEE(Advanced)/18
Case-III: n = 2, m = 1
100
k
16
k = 1, 2, 3, ..... 6
G.P.’s (1, 2, 4, 8, 16), (2, 4, 8, 16, 32), (3, 6, 12, 24, 48), (4, 8, 16, 32, 64), (6, 12, 24, 48, 96),
(5, 10, 20, 40, 80)
n n 1
56. Highest power of x m (let) have to find coefficient of x m – 9
2
–9 + (–8 –1) + (–7 –2) + (–6 –3) + (–5 –4) + (–6 –2 –1)
+ (–5 –3 –1) + (–4 –3 –2) = 0
a4 a4 b6 b6 b6 b6 c 8 c 8 1
8 24 16 8
2 2 4 4 4 4 2 2 a b c
57. 12
8 2
1/6
Equality hold for a = 1, b = 2 , c = 1
58. |z + k z2|2 = |z|2 + |k| |z2|2 + 0
59. AAT = 4I |A| = 2
4Adj A
A T 4A 1
A
a11 a21 a31 c11 c 21 c31
4
a12 a22
a32 c12 c 22 c32
A
a13 a23
a33
c13 c 23 c33
4
Now, aij = cij = –2cij |A| = –2
A
A 4I
Now, |A + 4I| = |A + AAT| = |A| |I + AT| = –2|(I + A)T| = –2|I + A| so, 2 5
A I
2
5
60. x3 – x2 – 1 = 0 , , 2 + 2 + 2 = 1
2 + 3 + 4 = 2 + 2 + 1 + 3 + = 3 +
In given equation x x – 3 x3 – 10x2 + 33x – 37 = 0
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