1.Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?

A. absorbs air pollution

B. gives off oxygen

C. cools the air as water transpires

D.
provides habitat to wild beasts

E. provides shade with 1ess electricity required

E. muffles noise and creates an island of peace

2.A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What
characteristic of a drainage basin causes it to have an 'efficient' response to rainfall?
A.
sloping topography in bowl-like formation

B. permeable soils

C. plasticity of clay bottom

D. filtration by its wetlands

3.Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs comprising
lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim of
ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/lPs, bythemselves or through their ancestors,
since time immemorial, continuously up to the present."
A. tribal land

B. cultural heritage

C. autonomous region

D. ethnic realm

E.
ancestral domain

4.According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data and

information on natural resources and anthropogenic activities on the land as evaluated
using various risk assessment and forecastingmethodologies, and evaluates environment
quality and carrying capacity of an area in such a way that enablesplanners and
government decision-makers to anticipate the type of development control necessaryin
the planningarea.
A. Natural Resources Inventory

B. Environmental Accounting

C. Biogeographic Compendium

D.
Eco-Profile
5.In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'social
sector'?
A. Education

B.
Tourism

C. Health

D. Police Protective Services

E. Sports and Recreation

6.In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'economic
sector'?
A.
Housing

B. Mining

C. ICT and Business Process Outsourcing

D. Mariculture

E. Small Scale Industries

7.This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and
proceeds by systematically evaluating alternative patterns of resource use,choosing that
use which meets specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies and programs,
directed to the best use of land in view of accepted objectives, and of environmental and
societal opportunities and constraints.
A. Framework Planning

B. Strategic Planning

C.
Land Use Planning

D. Development Planning
8.This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including
statements about community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of
resource uses. These are illustrated by maps,diagrams,charts,tables that show a coherent
spatial framework for environment protection, economic production, settlements, and
infrastructure.
A. Charrette

B. Chatroulette

C.
Comprehensive Land Use Plan

D. Strategic Plan
 E. Framework Plan
9.An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but
before the detailed layout oflocation, and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land
or specific section of town so that it can function effectively in relation to the complexity
and scale of proposed development and the range of land uses around it.
A. Estate Planning

B. Wards and Precincts Planning

C. Parcellary Planning

D.
Site Planning

E. Project Planning
10.This concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of a whole town or city,
in particular the shape and form of the city blocks, the uses of public space, the
articulation of physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and visitors alike
can make high-quality connections between people, places and buildings.
A. Architectural Master Plan

B. Cityscape and Streetscape

C.
Urban Design

D. Form and Style

E. Visual Panorama
11.This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to
present and potential uses of land in order to maximize, regulate, and direct their use and
development.
A. Wards & Precincts Planning

B. Subdivision Plats

C. Land Allocation and Apportionment

D.
Zoning

12.It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively

planned as a unitary entity such that innovations in site design and building design are
rewarded by government with some flexibility in zoning, usually relaxation of standards or
their replacement with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU.
A. Enterprise Zone

B. Sites and Services model

C. Zonal Improvement Program

 D.
Planned Unit Development

13.This type of land regulation says that man-made structures should be of such
height,bulk, or design so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away from a
landmark (e.g. Rizal Monument ), natural landscape, or character of place
A. Design Aesthetics

B. Architectural Masterplan

C. Cultural Mapping

D.
Form-Zoning

14.An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can be
separated or severed from ownership of land in a particular zoning district, then sold or
passed on to another property owner, and exercised in connection with the development
of land in some other part of the jurisdiction.
A. Market-based instrument

B. Commutation of Rights

C. Property Conversion

D.
Transfer of Oeve!opment Rights

15.Which is not considered 'production land' in a Philippine LGU?

A. agro-industrial estate

B. cropland

C. orchard

D. fishpond

E.
fishpen

16.Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?

A. residential

B. institutional

C. industrial

D.
mineral

17.Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original state?
A.
forest land

B. memorial park
 C. infrastructure land

D. commercial
18.What is the percent slope of a land parcel that has a change in elevation ('rise') of 8
meters and is 160 meters long?
A. 8%

B. 7%

C. 6%

D.
5%

E. 4%
19.In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as
A. even and smooth

B. flat to gently sloping

C.
level to nearly level

D. gently to moderately undulating

20.Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has the least
nutrient-holding capacity?
A.
sand

B. clay

C. silt

D. loam

E. humus
21.Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for agricultural
use?
A. climate and rainfall

B. soil quality

C.
geologic fault lines

D. slope
22.These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation over time and can sustain the
productivity levels of crops in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the
immediate or adjoining environment.
A. agro-industrial estate
 B.
prime agricultural land

C. alluvial fans

D. icefields or mud paddies

23.The recommended map scale for provinces is 1:50,000 while that for town/city CLUP
should be at least
A. 1 :200,000

B. 1:100,000

C. 1:25,000

D.
1:10,000

24.Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?

A.
political - administrative boundaries

B. NPAAAD map

C. slope map

D. forest cover map

25.'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate
A. soil classes

B. layers of vegetative cover

C. demarcation lines

D.
elevation intervals

26.An 'analytical' map is a composite or overlay of two or more

A. base maps

B.
thematic maps

C. aspect maps

D. choropleth maps
27.In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and clay-silt
fraction that would ensure good plant growth are
A. <50 cm and <80%

B.
>100 cm and >80%

C. 50-100 cm and 40-80%

 D. 10-50 cm and 10-40%
28.It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that are
used to organize, store, process, analyze and display multiple layers of spatially-
referenced information about geographically located features.
A. Geodesy and Geodetics

B. Global Positioning System

C. Electronic Cadastral System

D.
Geographic Information System

29.These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface
of the Earth; the First gives the location of a place above or below the equator, expressed
by angular measurements ranging from 0° at the equator to 90° at the poles, while the
Second gives the location of a place east or west of an upright line called the prime
meridian, and is measured in angles ranging from 0° at the prime meridian to 180° at the
International Date Line.
A. landmass and ocean

B. cartesian x,y, points

C. north pole & south pole

D.
latitude and longitude

30.Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial

analysis was done manually by overlaying different thematic maps of the same scale,
principally to determine
A. geohazards and physical constraints

B. areas that are ideal for urban development

C. critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention

D.
all of the choices

31.This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate image
of the Earth by removing tilt of planet, relief displacements, and topographic distortions
which occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane
A. photogrammetry

B.
orthophotography

C. remote sensing

D. geomatics

E. geodetics
32.In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing point
and line data by means of x,y,z geometric coordinates; it can also be a set of line
segments joined end-to-end to make a curved path in space.
A.
vector

B. raster

C. curvature

D. field

E. node
33.According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic
maps on top of each other to determine areas of convergence of certain features of land
contributing to the suitability of the area to a particular purpose, and conversely, to
eliminate or screen out areas that are not suitable for that purpose.
A. thematic superimposition

B. cartographic merging

C.
sieve analysis

D. spatial modeling
34.What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use schemes?
A. checklist of criteria

B. linear programming

C.
cost-benefit analysis

D. computer simulation
35.By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values, 'Planning
Balance Sheet' is an 'extended' 'multiple-criteria' form of
A. cost-revenue analysis

B.
cost-benefit analysis

C. cost-effectiveness analysis

D. cost-estimate analysis
36.This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
A. technocracy

B. shepherding

C. protectionism

D. championing
 E.
stewardship

37.In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature by
conserving natural resources.
A. interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for wildlife

B. delineate clear town edges or greenbelts to protect surrounding farmland

C. encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the
municipality

D. create neighborhood pocket-parks and urban mini-forests to serve as lungs of the

city/town
38.This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep
gradients at 50% or more, which perform vital ecological functions and must therefore be
kept perpetually in natural state and free from human intrusion.
A. Everlasting Forest

B.
Permanent Forest

C. Virginal Fores!

D. Primeval Forest
39.This is the scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is dominated
by broad-leaf trees which form thick canopy thus allowing little sunlight on the forest floor,
and includes much-prized hardwood species such as redlauan, white lauan, red narra,
tanguile, tiaong, almon, bagtikan, apitong, kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.
A.
Dipterocarp Forest

B. Deciduous Forest

C. Coniferous or 'Pine' Forest

D. Tropical Scrub Forest

E. Mossy Forest

E. Sub-marginal Forest

E. Mangrove Forest

E. Ever-green Forest
40.All but one of the following are sub-categories of Forest Reserve.
A. Permanent Forest

B. Critical River Watershed

C. Mangrove Forest
 D.
Military and Civil Reservations

41.Under RA 7586, these are identified portions of land and water, remarkable areas,
biogeographic zones, habitats of rare and endangered species- all set aside by reason of
their unique physical and biological significance, to be managed to enhance biological
diversity, and to be secured from destructive human exploitation.
A. National Heritage Parks and Reservations

B. Resource Reserve

C. Ecological Zones

D.
Protected Areas

42.A 'watershed' is principally a source of

A. timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper

B. charcoal for grill requirements of five-star restaurants

C. food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams

D.
water for humans, animals, plants, and other species

43.Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously for at

least 5 years prior to legal proclamations, who are dependent on the forest for
subsistence, are considered "tenured migrant communities" andare engaged by
government to undertake reforestation and upland management under this specific
program.
A. Agro-Forestry

B. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology

C.
Integrated Social Forestry

D. Industrial Forestry
44.Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring "moratorium on the cutting
and harvesting of timber," which of the following is exempted from the total log ban until
the year 2016?
A. concessions signed by DENR secretary

B. conversion of mangrove forests

C.
selective or rotational harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations

D. small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging,' and kaingin

45.Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening Program
as DA-DAR-DENRConvergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings should each
government employee plant each year, a requirementthat also applies to students
identified by DEPED and CHED?
A.
10

B. 20

C. 25

D. 30

E. 35
46.Under RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a
chainsaw in a legal manner.
A. has a subsisting timber license agreement, production sharing agreement, or a private
land timber permit

B.
is duly elected official of upland barangay

C. is an orchard and fruit tree farmer

D. is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold

E. is an industrial tree farmer

47.This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to
the amenity value of the environment. It offers opportunities for adventure recreation or
passive leisure at low-cost, and at the same time,serves as protection buffer around
sensitive areas and hazardous installations.
A. Wilderness

B. Tourism & Recreation Zone

C. Rangeland

D.
Open Space

48.PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40
meters from the hightide-mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of mangroves
or swamps along the coast with width of at least
A.
20 meters

B. 25 meters

C. 30 meters

D. 35 meters

E. 40 meters
49.Republic Act that provides for "conservation and protection of wildlife resources and
their habitats" is numbered as
A.
RA 9147

B. RA 9714

C. RA 4791

D. RA147􀀟
50.PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from the
banks of creeks, canals, and esteros, in urban areas, but MMDA Resolution 3 s. 1996, has
expanded the easement for Metro Manila areasadjoining water bodies as measured from
the banks of Pasig River, tributary streams and the shoreline, to be at least
A.
10 meters

B. 20 meters

C. 40 meters

D. 5 meters