This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Basics – 1”.

1. The IETF standards documents are called

a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Request For Comments.

2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Every layer adds its own header to the packet from previous layer.

3. The structure or format of data is called

a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Semantics defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be
taken based on that interpretation.

4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission

a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Data flows in single direction.

5. The first Network

a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels

a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Message travel from sender to reciever via a medium using a protocol.

7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications
field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. Which of this is not a network edge device?

a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Network egde devices refer to host systems, which can host applications like web browser.

9. A set of rules that governs data communication

a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection

a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Basics – 2”.

1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called

a) computer network

b) distributed system

c) networking system

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

2. Two devices are in network if

a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device

b) a process is running on both devices

c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

3. Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another network?

a) prior network

b) chief network
c) prime network

d) overlay network

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

4. In computer network nodes are

a) the computer that originates the data

b) the computer that routes the data

c) the computer that terminates the data

d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

5. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in

a) broadcast network

b) unicast network

c) multicast network

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

6. Bluetooth is an example of

a) personal area network

b) local area network

c) virtual private network

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.

a) bridge

b) firewall

c) router

d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called

a) protocol architecture

b) protocol stack

c) protocol suit

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

9. Network congestion occurs

a) in case of traffic overloading

b) when a system terminates

c) when connection between two nodes terminates

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: None.

10. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?

a) local area network

b) virtual private network

c) enterprise private network

d) storage area network

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?

a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way telephone channel.

2. In DSL telco provides these services

a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The same company which provides phone connection is also its ISP in DSL.

3. The function of DSLAM is

a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s Central Office does this function.

4. The following term is not associted with DSL

a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cable modem termination system is used in cable internet access.

5. HFC contains
a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. Choose the statement which is not applicable for cable internet access
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In cable access analog signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS.

7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that is essentially switched ehternet is

a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: Active optical networks are essentially switched ehternets.

8. StarBand provides
a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Home Access is provided by

a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. ONT is connected to splitter using

a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. These factors affect transmission rate in DSL

a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interfernece
c) Shadow fading
d) Both a and b
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Because DSL is made of twisted wire copper pair.

1. The number of layers in Internet protocol stack

a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model

a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. This layer is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Both Session and Presentation layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Application layer is implemented in

a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Transport layer is implemented in

a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. The functionalities of presentation layer includes

a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by

a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to recieve data at B is
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

11. Identify the statement which cannot be associated with OSI model
a) A structured way to discuss and easier update syatem components
b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: One layer may use the information from another layer Ex: time stamp value.
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Reference
Models – 2”.

1. OSI stands for

a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. The OSI model has _______ layers.

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer
b) transport layer
c) application layer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Which layer links the network support layers and user support layers
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
d) network layer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers and session, presentation
and application layers are user support layers.

5. Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?

a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.

a) prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery?

a) network layer
b) transport layer
c) session layer
d) data link layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Which address identifies a process on a host?

a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. Which layer provides the services to user?

a) application layer
b) session layer
c) presentation layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Transmission data rate is decided by

a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

1. The physical layer concerns with

a) bit-by-bit delivery
p) process to process delivery
c) application to application delivery
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?

a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Bits can be send over guided and unguided media as analog signal by
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is called
a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. physical layer provides

a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides

a) start and stop signalling
b) flow control
c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. The physical layer is responsible for

a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______ into hardware specific
operations.
a) data link layer
b) network layer
c) trasnport layer
d) application layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by

a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Wireless transmission can be done via
a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

1. The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames for
transmission.
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Which one of the following task is not done by data link layer?
a) framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of
medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Header of a frame generally contains

a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by

a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. CRC stands for

a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Which one of the following is a data link protocol?

a) ethernet
b) point to point protocol
c) hdlc
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Which one of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be
hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called
a) piggybacking
b) cyclic redundancy check
c) fletcher’s checksum
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

1. The network layer concerns with

a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. The 4 byte IP address consists of

a) network address
b) host address
c) both network address & host address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. Multidestination routing
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. The network layer protocol of internet is

a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. ICMP is primarily used for

a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in networking?

a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Both TCP and UDP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because

a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Transmission control protocol is

a) connection oriented protocol
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) recievs data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Socket-style API for windows is called

a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?

a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.

a) port
b) pipe
c) node
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Transport layer protocols deals with

a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol?

a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is

a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In this topology there is a central controller or hub

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. This topology requires multipoint connection

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is

a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Wide area network(WAN) covers the whole of the world network.

5. Data communication system within a building or campus is

a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Expand WAN
a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. In TDM, slots are further divided into

a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) Both FDM & TDM
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency division multiplexing.

1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _________
a) Fully duplexing
b) Multiplexing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Multiplexing is used in _______

a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Data switching
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals ?

a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: FDM and WDM are used in analog signals.

4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate than TDM link has _______ slots
a) n
b) n/2
c) n*2
d) 2n
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Each slot is dedicated to one of the source.

5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits,the transmission rate of circuit this
TDM is
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number os bits in a slot.

6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called

a) Death period
b) Poison period
c) Silent period
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Multiplexing can provide

a) Efficiency
b) Privacy
c) Anti jamming
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission
rates of the signal sources.
a) Greater than
b) Lesser than
c) Equal to
d) Equal to or greater than
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. In TDM, slots are further divided into

a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

1. Which of the following delay is faced by the packet in travelling from one end system to another ?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is(in
milliseconds)
a) 3.2
b) 32
c) 0.32
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate = length / transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2milli seconds.

3. The time required to examine the packet’s header and determine where to direct the packet is part of
a) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L = number of bits in the packet a = average rate R = transmission
rate
a) La/R
b) LR/a
c) R/La
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. In the transfer of file between server and client, if the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps,
20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually
a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The throughput is generally the transmission rate of bottleneck link.

6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end = N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested network. The
number of routers between source and destination is
a) N/2
b) N
c) N-1
d) 2N
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. The total nodal delay is given by

a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of
the following delays could be zero
a) Propogation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. Transmission delay does not depend on

a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
c) Transmission rate
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

10. Propagation delay depends on

a) Packet length
b) Transmission rate
c) Distance between the routers
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Propagation delay is the time it takes a bit to propagate from one router to the next.

1. The attackers a network of compromised devices known as

a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack ?

a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. The DoS attack is which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP
connections at the target host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Packet sniffers involve

a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: They donot inject packets into the channel.

6. Sniffers can be deployed in

a) Wired environment
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Firewalls are often configured to block

a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of
the following delays could be zero
a) Propogation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

1. Which of this is not a guided media ?

a) Fiber optical cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Wireless LAN
d) Copper wire
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.

2. UTP is commonly used in

a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) is commonly used in home access.

3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Fiber optics posses following properties

a) Immune electromagnetic interference
b) Very less signal attenuation
c) Very hard to tap
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, generally the link speed equals(in Mbps),
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
c) 2n*51.8
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed into _____ groups.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The three types are those that operate over very short distance, those that operate in local
areas, those that operate in the wide area.

7. Radio channels are attractive medium because

a) Can penetrate walls
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
c) Can carry signals for long distance
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. Geostationary satellites
a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km above Earth’s surface.

1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network

a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Most packet switches use this principle

a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit the first bit to outbound link until it recieves the entire
packet.

3. If there are N routers from source to destination, total end to end delay in sending packet P(L-
>number of bits in the packet R-> transmission rate)
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Method(s) to move data through a network of links and switches

a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Both a and b
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. The resources needed for communication between end systems are reserved for the duration of
session between end systems in ________
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Frequency switching
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. As the resouces are reserved between two communicating end systems in circuit switching, this is
achieved
a) authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate
c) reliability
d) store and forward
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. In _________ resources are allocated on demand.
a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In packet switching there is no reservation.

8. Which of the following is an application layer service ?

a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

1. This is not a application layer protocol

a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol

2. The packet of information at the application layer is called

a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. This is one of the architecture paradigm

a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.

4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. Application layer offers _______ service

a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. E-mail is
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available throughput.

7. Pick the odd one out

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other applications are not.

8. Which of the following is an application layer service ?

a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must
be consulted
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

10. This is a time-sensitive service

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other applications are not.

11. Transport services available to applications in one or another form

a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

12. Electronic mail uses this Application layer protocol

a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

1. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.

a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site and then
pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Application layer protocol defines

a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?

a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple newtwork management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?

a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. Which protocol is a signalling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia

communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a communication
session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

1. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is ________
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.

2. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________

a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called
__________
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.

4. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response takes __________
RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________

a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called header lines and status line is the initial part of
response message.

7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP request message.

8. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
a) POST
b) SEND
c) GET
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when ____________ method is used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found.

11. Which of the following is not correct ?

a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested objects
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. The conditional GET mechanism

a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
b) Limits the number of response from a server
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

13. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
a) HTTP version number
b) URL
c) Method
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in
a) persistent HTTP
b) nonpersistent HTTP
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. HTTP is ________ protocol.

a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. In the network HTTP resources are located by

a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) broader gateway protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. In HTTP pipelining
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding
responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. FTP server listens for connection on port number

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) active mode
b) passive mode
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. The file transfer protocol is built on

a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in

a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Non

1. Expansion of FTP is
a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. FTP is built on _____ architecture

a) Client-server
b) P2P
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Control connection and data connection.

4. Identify the incorrect statement

a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band as it has separate control connection.

5. If 5 files are transfered from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP connection
between A and B is
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 1 control connection and other 5 for five file transfers.
6. FTP server
a) Mantains state
b) Is stateless
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the control
connection in ________ bit ASCII format
a) 8
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched

a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all the is left to TCP

a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. The password is sent to the server using ________ command

a) PASSWD
b) PASS
c) PASSWORD
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Expansion of SMTP is
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. In SMTP, the command to write recievers mail adress is written with this command
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is

a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either a or b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP

a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail server hence it is push protocol.

7. Internet mail places each object in

a) Separate messages for each object
b) One message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is

a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. A session may include

a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Example of user agents for e-mail

a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Apple Mail
c) None of the above
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only _________
a) One MTA
b) Two UAs
c) Two UAs and one pair of MTAs
d) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

12. User agent does not support this

a) Composing messages
b) Reading messages
c) Replying messages
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport layer protocol for electronic
mail transfer.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) DCCP
d) SCTP
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.

2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as

a) SMTPS
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.
3. SMTP uses the TCP port
a) 22
b) 23
c) 24
d) 25
View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation:None.

4. Which one of the following protocol is used to receive mail messages?

a) smtp
b) post office protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation:None.

5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

a) protocol for SMTP security
b) an SMTP extension
c) protocol for web pages
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation:None.

6. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.

7. A SMTP session may include

a) zero SMTP transaction
b) one SMTP transaction
c) more than one SMTP transaction
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.

8. SMTP defines
a) message transport
b) message encryption
c) message content
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.

9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that anyone on the internet
can send e-mail through it?
a) open mail relay
b) wide mail reception
c) open mail reception
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.

10. SMTP is used to deliver messages to

a) user’s terminal
b) user’s mailbox
c) both user’s terminal and mailbox
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation:None.

1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for

a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

2. SSH can be used in only

a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows
c) both unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation: None.

3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.

a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: None.

4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?

a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24
View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: None.

5. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH?
a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation: SSH is more secured then telnet and rlogin.

6. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?

a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

7. SSH-2 does not contain

a) transport layer
b) user authentication layer
c) physical layer
d) connection layer
View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation: None.

8. Which one of the following feature was present in SSH protocol, version 1?
a) password changing
b) periodic replacement of session keys
c) support for public-key certificates
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over SSH.

a) RCP protocol
b) DHCP protocol
c) MGCP protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: None.

10. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?

a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.

a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. DHCP is used for

a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. The DHCP server

a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is

a) for a limited period
b) for unlimited period
c) not time dependent
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.

a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via

a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast
c) TCP broadcast
d) TCP unicast
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. What is DHCP snooping?

a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the
network.
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

1. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the

a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
c) Application layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Network layer is used for transferring the data from transport layer to another layers.
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the
a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is nothing but adding control bits to the packets.

3. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public Network such as the
Internet across a public Network such as the Internet, creating a secure private connection.
a) VNP
b) VPN
c) VSN
d) VSPN
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: VIRTUAL PACKET NETWORK.

4. Which component is included in IP security?

a) Authentication Header (AH)
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: AH, ESP, IKE.

5. WPA2 is used for security in

a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: WPA2 is best with Wi-Fi connection.

6. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called

a) Denial-of-service attack
b) Virus attack
c) Worms attack
d) Botnet process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Denial of service attack.

7. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in

a) Wired personal area network
b) Wireless networks
c) Wired local area network
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation:Most data transfer is with wireless networks.

8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in

a) Browser security
b) Email security
c) FTP security
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: PGP is at email security.

9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called

a) International data encryption algorithm
b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called international data encryption algorithm.

10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving
that information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c

1. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public Network such as the
Internet across a public Network such as the Internet, creating a secure private connection.
a) VNP
b) VPN
c) VSN
d) VSPN
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: VIRTUAL PACKET NETWORK.

2. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial world?

a) Early 80’s
b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
d) Late 90’s
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: LATE 90’S.

3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?

a) PPTP
b) IPsec
c) YMUM
d) L2TP
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: YNUM.

4. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?

a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: virtual packet network is not a backbone of the internet.

5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________

a) Invisible from public networks
b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Because it is secured with the IP address.

6. VPNs are financially speaking __________

a) Always more expensive than leased lines
b) Always cheaper than leased lines
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is very cheap.

7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over a L2TP VPN?

a) IP
b) IPX
c) Neither A or B
d) Both A and B
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Data roming layer.

8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following standards?

a) IPsec
b) PPTP
c) PPP
d) L2TP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is the security type of the IPsec.

9. L2F was developed by which company?

a) Microsoft
b) Cisco
c) Blizzard Entertainment
d) IETF
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cisco is the second best company to design and make the computer networks.

10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does PPTP work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Presentation layer.

11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does IPsec work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Session layer.

1. An application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is
called SNMP.

2. Full duplex mode increases capacity of each domain from

a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d) 40 to 50 mbps
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 10 to 20 mbps capacity increased on each domain in full duplex mode.

3. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems those are

a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Both a and c
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Reconfiguration and documentation are two subsystems of configuration management.

4. To use Simple Network Management System (SNMP), we need

a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: To use Simple Network Management System (SNMP), we need rules.
5. Main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is the
a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Enhanced security is the main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2.

6. In Network Management System, a term that responsible for controlling access to network based on
predefined policy is called
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A term that responsible for controlling access to network based on predefined policy is
called security management.

7. BER stands for

a) Basic Encoding Rules
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Basic encoding rules.

8. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges are main responsibilities of
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network resources through charges are main responsibilities of
accounting management.

9. SNMP is a framework for managing devices in an internet using the

a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a framework for managing devices in an internet using the TCP/IP protocol.

10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is guideline of

a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: SMI is guidelines of SNMP.

1. The protocol used by Telnet application is

a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In “character at a time” mode

a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote system
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer

a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The correct syntax to be written in the web browser to Telnet to www.sanfoundry.com is

a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. Telnet is a
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?

a) default mode
b) server mode
c) line mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server

a) escape character has to be used
b) control functions has to be disabled
c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to

a) TCP port number 21
b) TCP port number 22
c) TCP port number 23
d) TCP port number 24
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. Which one of the following is not true?

a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT) standard
b) client programs interact with NVT
c) server translates NVT operations
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. All telnet operations are sent as

a) 4 bytes
b) 8 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 32 bytes
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for

a) windows
b) linux
c) mac
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The decimal code of interpret as command (IAC) character is

a) 252
b) 253
c) 254
d) 255
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. In character mode operation of telnet implementation
a) each character typed is sent by the client to the server
b) each character typed is discarded by the server
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word and then send to the server
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. In telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but does not send it until a whole line is
completed in
a) default mode
c) character mode
c) server mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c

1. Which of the following is true with respect to TCP

a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process
c) Transport layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol, process-to-process, and creates a virtual connection
between two TCP’s.

2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as

a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
d) Packets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In TCP, data is sent and received in terms of Stream of bytes.

3. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________ for storage.
a) Packets
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: TCP needs buffers for storage to overcome this problem.

4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called

a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Stack
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Segment is a grouping of number of bytes together into a packet.

5. Communication offered by TCP is

a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Data flow in both the directions at the same time during TCP communication hence, Full-
duplex.

6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer

7. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number field refers to

a) Byte number
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sequence number and acknowledgement number field refers to byte number.

8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What
is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one segment.
a) 10000
b) 10001
c) 12001
d) 11001
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The sequence number of each segment is the number of first byte carried in that segment.

9. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers starts with a
a) Random number
b) Zero
c) One
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: These numbers starts with a random number.

10. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines

a) Number of previous bytes to receive
b) Total number of bytes to receive
c) Number of next bytes to receive
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Acknowledgement field in a segment defines the number of next bytes to receive.

1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender is referred as
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed with data.

2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between

a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The header is 20 bytes if there are no options and upto 60 bytes if it contains options.

3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?

a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
d) Synchronisation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to connect between client and server.

4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready to accept a connection. This process is called
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is started by the server.

5. The process of, A client that wishes to connect to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be
connected to that particular server is
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is done by the client
once it finds the open server.

6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active open is
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
d) Simultaneous close
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Here, both TCP’s transmit a SYNC+ACK segment to each other and one single connection is
established between them.
7. The situation when a malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server,
pretending that each of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the
datagrams
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This is the serious security problem during the connection establishment.

8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of security attack known as

a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system collapses and denies service to every request.

9. Size of source and destination port address of TCP header respectively are
a) 16-bits and 32-bits
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits
d) 32-bits and 32-bits
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Size of source and destination ports must be 32-bits.

10. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?

a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
d) Synchronisation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to terminate the connection between client and server.

1. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP

a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol.

2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is

a) String of characters
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Chargen with port number 19 returns string of characters.

3. Beyond IP, TCP provides additional services such as

a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: UDP is a simple protocol which provides demultiplexing and error checking.

4. The main advantage of UDP is

a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Less overload
d) Fast
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol and uses minimum overload.

5. Port number used by Network Time Protocol(NTP) with UDP is

a) 161
b) 123
c) 162
d) 124
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Port number used by Network Time Protocol with UDP is 123.

6. what is the header size of UDP packet?

a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is 8 bytes.

7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is ……

a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If the source host is the client, the port number in most cases will be ephemeral port
number.

8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of

a) Only UDP header
b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which contains the length of UDP header and the data.

9. Correct expression for UDP user datagram length is

a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP datagram the
defines the total length. There is another field in the IP datagram that defines the length of the header.
So if we subtract the length of a UDP datagram that is encapsulated in an IP datagram, we get the length
of UDP user datagram.

10. The field used to detect errors over the entire user datagram is
a) UDP header
b) Checksum
c) Source port
d) Destination port
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.

1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure security and confidentiality of data within the same
LAN?
a) AH transport mode
b) ESP transport mode
c) ESP tunnel mode
d) AH tunnel mode
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data that
is exchanged within the same LAN.

2. Which two types of encryption protocols can be used to secure the authentication of computers using
IPsec?
a) Kerberos V5
b) Certificates
c) SHA
d) MD5
View Answer

Answer: c, d
Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. Kerberos V5 is an authentication protocol, not an encryption
protocol; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Certificates are a type of authentication that can be used with
IPsec, not an encryption protocol; therefore, answer B is incorrect.

3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure communications between two LANs?
a) AH tunnel mode
b) ESP tunnel mode
c) AH transport mode
d) ESP transport mode
View Answer

Answer: a, b
Explanation: A tunnel mode IPsec should be used. Option c is for data transfer purpose, option d is for
integrity & confidentiality purpose.

4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.

a) AH
b) ESP
c) PGP
d) SSL
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It provides integrity checking and anti-reply security.
5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and ________
a) AH; SSL
b) PGP; ESP
c) AH; ESP
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI model?

a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Physical
View Answer

7. ESP provides
a) source authentication
b) data integrity
c) privacy
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Encrypted security payload provides source, data integrity and privacy.

8. In computer security… means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized
parities.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Authenticity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Integrity means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities.

9. In computer security… means that the information in a computer system only be accessible for
reading by authorized parities.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Authenticity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Confidentiality means that the information in a computer system only be accessible for
reading by authorized parities.
10. Which of the following organizations is primarily concerned with military encryption systems?
a) NSA
b) NIST
c) IEEE
d) ITU
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible for military encryption systems. The NSA designs,
evaluates, and implements encryption systems for the military and government agencies with high
security needs.

1. Two broad categories of congestion control are

a) Open-loop and Closed-loop
b) Open-control and Closed-control
c) Active control and Passive control
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: These are two types of congestion control.

2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to __________

a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Policies are applied to prevent congestion before it occurs.

3. Retransmission of packets must be done when

a) Packet is lost
b) Packet is corrupted
c) Packet is needed
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Retransmission should be done on account of any of the above cases.

4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets have to be resent even
some may have arrived safe. whereas in Selective Repeat window, tries to send ___________
a) Packet that have not lost
b) Packet that have lost or corrupted
c) Packet from starting
d) All the packets
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In selective repeat window, packet that have lost or corrupted must be sent.

5. Discarding policy is mainly done by

a) Sender
b) Receiver
c) Router
d) Switch
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This is done by the routers to prevent congestion.

6. Closed-Loop control mechanism try to

a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Policies are applied to remove congestion after it occurs.

7. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or
nodes is called as
a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure
c) Forward signalling
d) Backward signalling
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This is a node-to-node congestion control that starts with a node and propagates in
opposite direction of data flow to the source.

8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to

a) Congestion networks
b) Closed circuit networks
c) Open circuit networks
d) Virtual circuit networks
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each node knows the upstream node from which a flow data is
coming.
9. The packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion is called
a) Explicit
b) Discard
c) Choke
d) Backpressure
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion.

10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________ until it reaches
a threshold.
a) Exponentially
b) Additively
c) Multiplicatively
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until
it reaches a threshold.

11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases ____________
until congestion is detected.
a) Exponentially
b) Additively
c) Multiplicatively
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Virtual Circuit Network?

a) There are setup and teardown phases in addition to the data transfer phase
b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase or on demand
c) All packets follow the same path established during the connection
d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in application layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Virtual circuit network is normally implemented in datalink layer.

2. The address that is unique in the scope of the network or internationally if the network is part of an
international network is called as
a) Global address
b) Network address
c) Physical address
d) IP address
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This address is used to create a virtual circuit identifier.

3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in virtual circuit network is
a) Global address
b) Virtual circuit identifier
c) Network identifier
d) IP identifier
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier is used for data transfer and has switch scope.

4. Which of the following is not a phase of virtual circuit network?

a) Setup phase
b) Datatransfer phase
c) Termination phase
d) Teardown phase
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Virtual circuit network does not contain termination phase.

5. Steps required in setup process are

a) Setup request and acknowledgement
b) Setup request and setup response
c) Setup request and setup termination
d) Setup and termination steps
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Steps required in setup process are Setup request and acknowledgement.

6. During teardown phase, source after sending all the frames to destination sends……..to notify
termination
a) Teardown response
b) Teardown request
c) Termination request
d) Termination response
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Source after sending all the frames to destination sends teardown request to which,
destination sends teardown response.
7. Delay if, resource allocated during setup phase during data transfer is
a) Constant
b) Increases for each packet
c) Same for each packet
d) Different for each packet
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If resource allocated during setup phase, delay is same for each packet.

8. Delay if, resource allocated on demand during data transfer is

a) Constant
b) Increases for each packet
c) Same for each packet
d) Different for each packet
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If resource allocated on demand, delay is different for each packet.

9. In virtual circuit network, delay times for setup and teardown respectively are
a) 1 and 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 1
d) 2 and 2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Delay time for setup and teardown is one each.

10. In data transfer phase, the table contains how many columns?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

1. ATM and frame relay are

a) virtual circuit networks
b) datagram networks
c) virtual private networks
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ATM stands for asynchronous transfer mode.
2. ATM uses the
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. ATM standard defines _______ layers.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Three layers are physical layer, ATM layer and application adoption layer.

4. ATM can be used for

a) local area network
b) wide area network
c) any of local or wide area network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. An ATM cell has the payload field of

a) 32 bytes
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
d) 128 bytes
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. Frame relay has error detection at the

a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called

a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Frame relay has

a) only physical layer
b) only data link layer
c) only network layer
d) both physical and data link layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used

a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers
b) for error detection
c) for encryption
d) for error recovery
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?

a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a

1. Frame Relay is very cheap than other

a) LANs
b) WANs
c) MANs
d) Multipoint Networks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frame Relay is very cheap than other WANs.

2. Frame Relay networks offer an option called

a) Voice Over For Relay
b) Voice Over Fine Relay
c) Voice On Frame Relay
d) Voice Over Frame Relay
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relay networks offer an option calledVoice Over Frame Relay

3. There are ________ total features of Frame Relay.

a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
d) Ten
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are total features of Frame Relay are Nine.

4. Frame Relay does not provide flow or error control, they must be provided by the
a) Lower Level Protocol
b) High Level Protocol
c) Upper Level Protocol
d) Downward Level Protocol
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Frame Relay does not provide flow or error control, they must be provided by theUpper
Level Protocol.

5. Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers such as

a) ADMs
b) UPSR
c) BLSR
d) SONET
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers such asSONET.

6. Frame relay has error detection at the

a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In data link layer error control header is the main thing for any packet transfer, so we use
this layer frame relay has error detection.

7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called

a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is calleddata link connection identifier.

8. Frame relay has only

a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Frame relay has only physical and data link layer for error detection in data link layer and
for conversion in physical layer.

9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used

a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers
b) for error detection
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In frame relay networks, extended address is usedto increase the range of data link
connection identifiers.

10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?

a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing conventions
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling conventions
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.

2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?

a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of packets.

3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time the datagram is processed by a router.

4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _____________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.

5. The data field can carry which of the following?

a) TCP segemnt
b) UDP segment
c) ICMP messages
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data field usually has tranaport layer segment, but it can also carry ICMP messages.

6. What should be the flag value to indicate the last fragment?

a) 0
b) 1
c) TTl value
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: flag=0 indicates that it is the last fragment.

7. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?

a) is connectionless
b) offer reliable service
c) offer unreliable service
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Ip offers unreliable service.

8. Fragmentation has following demerits

a) complicates routers
b) open to DOS attack
c) overlapping of fragments.
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation complex and also can create DOS attack.

9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) offset
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifer
View Answer

Answer: a

1. The attackers a network of compromised devices known as

a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack ?

a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. The DoS attack is which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP
connections at the target host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Packet sniffers involve

a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: They donot inject packets into the channel.

6. Sniffers can be deployed in

a) Wired environment
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Firewalls are often configured to block

a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of
the following delays could be zero
a) Propogation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.