JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2

PART I-PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.  
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four 
option(s) is (are) correct option(s). 
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question. 
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks    :      If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen. 
Partial Marks     :     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. 
Partial Marks     :     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of 
which are correct options. 
Partial Marks     :     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a 
correct option. 
Zero Marks    :   0  If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). 
Negative Marks :    In all other cases. 
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second 
option  being  an  incorrect  option;  selecting  only  all  the  three  correct  options  will  result  in  +4  marks. 
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any 
incorrect option (second  option in this case), will result  in  +2 marks. Selecting only one of  the three 
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second 
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), 
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in ‐2 marks. 

Q.1 A particle of mass is initially at rest at the origin. It is subjected to a force and starts
moving along the -axis. Its kinetic energy changes with time as / , where
is a positive constant of appropriate dimensions. Which of the following statements is (are)
true?

(A) The force applied on the particle is constant

(B) The speed of the particle is proportional to time
(C) The distance of the particle from the origin increases linearly with time
(D) The force is conservative

Answer for Q.1: (A), (B), (D)

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Q.2 Consider a thin square plate floating on a viscous liquid in a large tank. The height of the
liquid in the tank is much less than the width of the tank. The floating plate is pulled
horizontally with a constant velocity . Which of the following statements is (are) true?

(A) The resistive force of liquid on the plate is inversely proportional to

(B) The resistive force of liquid on the plate is independent of the area of the plate

(C) The tangential (shear) stress on the floor of the tank increases with

(D) The tangential (shear) stress on the plate varies linearly with the viscosity of the liquid

Answer for Q.2: (A), (C), (D)

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Q.3 An infinitely long thin non-conducting wire is parallel to the -axis and carries a uniform
line charge density . It pierces a thin non-conducting spherical shell of radius in such a
way that the arc subtends an angle 120° at the centre of the spherical shell, as shown
in the figure. The permittivity of free space is . Which of the following statements is (are)
true?

(A) The electric flux through the shell is √3 /

(B) The -component of the electric field is zero at all the points on the surface of the shell

(C) The electric flux through the shell is √2 /

(D) The electric field is normal to the surface of the shell at all points

Answer for Q.3: (A), (B)

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Q.4 A wire is bent in the shape of a right angled triangle and is placed in front of a concave mirror
of focal length , as shown in the figure. Which of the figures shown in the four options
qualitatively represent(s) the shape of the image of the bent wire? (These figures are not to
scale.)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Answer for Q.4: (D)

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Q.5 In a radioactive decay chain, Th nucleus decays to Pb nucleus. Let and be the
number of and particles, respectively, emitted in this decay process. Which of the
following statements is (are) true?

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 4

Answer for Q.5: (A), (C)

Q.6 In an experiment to measure the speed of sound by a resonating air column, a tuning fork of
frequency 500 is used. The length of the air column is varied by changing the level of
water in the resonance tube. Two successive resonances are heard at air columns of length
50.7 and 83.9 . Which of the following statements is (are) true?

(A) The speed of sound determined from this experiment is 332

(B) The end correction in this experiment is 0.9
(C) The wavelength of the sound wave is 66.4
(D) The resonance at 50.7 corresponds to the fundamental harmonic

Answer for Q.6: (A), (B), (C)

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24) 
 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.  The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. 
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to 
the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30) using the mouse and the on‐
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. 
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks  :   3  If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer. 
Zero Marks  :   0 In all other cases. 

Q.7 A solid horizontal surface is covered with a thin layer of oil. A rectangular block of mass
0.4 is at rest on this surface. An impulse of 1.0 is applied to the block at time
/
0 so that it starts moving along the -axis with a velocity , where is a
constant and 4 . The displacement of the block, in , at is __________.
Take 0.37.

Answer for Q.7: 6.3 (range for correct answers [6.29, 6.31])

Q.8 A ball is projected from the ground at an angle of 45° with the horizontal surface. It reaches
a maximum height of 120 and returns to the ground. Upon hitting the ground for the first
time, it loses half of its kinetic energy. Immediately after the bounce, the velocity of the ball
makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal surface. The maximum height it reaches after the
bounce, in , is ___________.

Answer for Q.8: 30 (range for correct answers [29.60, 30.40])

Q.9 A particle, of mass 10 and charge 1.0 , is initially at rest. At time 0, the particle
comes under the influence of an electric field sin ̂, where 1.0 and
10 . Consider the effect of only the electrical force on the particle. Then the
maximum speed, in , attained by the particle at subsequent times is ____________.

Answer for Q.9: 2 (range for correct answers [1.99, 2.01])

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Q.10 A moving coil galvanometer has 50 turns and each turn has an area 2 10 . The
magnetic field produced by the magnet inside the galvanometer is 0.02 . The torsional
constant of the suspension wire is 10 . When a current flows through the
galvanometer, a full scale deflection occurs if the coil rotates by 0.2 . The resistance of
the coil of the galvanometer is 50 . This galvanometer is to be converted into an ammeter
capable of measuring current in the range 0 1.0 . For this purpose, a shunt resistance is
to be added in parallel to the galvanometer. The value of this shunt resistance, in , is
__________.

Answer for Q.10: 5.55 (range for correct answers [5.50, 5.60])

Q.11 A steel wire of diameter 0.5 and Young’s modulus 2 10 carries a load of
mass . The length of the wire with the load is 1.0 . A vernier scale with 10 divisions is
attached to the end of this wire. Next to the steel wire is a reference wire to which a main
scale, of least count 1.0 , is attached. The 10 divisions of the vernier scale correspond to
9 divisions of the main scale. Initially, the zero of vernier scale coincides with the zero of
main scale. If the load on the steel wire is increased by 1.2 , the vernier scale division
which coincides with a main scale division is __________. Take 10 and 3.2.

Answer for Q.11: 3 (range for correct answers [2.99, 3.01])

Q.12 One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion in which its volume
becomes eight times its initial value. If the initial temperature of the gas is 100 and the
universal gas constant 8.0 , the decrease in its internal energy, in ,
is__________.

Answer for Q.12: 900 (range for correct answers [899.95, 900.05])

Q.13 In a photoelectric experiment a parallel beam of monochromatic light with power of 200
is incident on a perfectly absorbing cathode of work function 6.25 . The frequency of
light is just above the threshold frequency so that the photoelectrons are emitted with
negligible kinetic energy. Assume that the photoelectron emission efficiency is 100%. A
potential difference of 500 is applied between the cathode and the anode. All the emitted
electrons are incident normally on the anode and are absorbed. The anode experiences a
force 10 due to the impact of the electrons. The value of is __________.
Mass of the electron 9 10 and 1.0 1.6 10 .

Answer for Q.13: 24 (range for correct answers [23.60, 24.40])

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Q.14 Consider a hydrogen-like ionized atom with atomic number with a single electron. In the
emission spectrum of this atom, the photon emitted in the 2 to 1 transition has
energy 74.8 higher than the photon emitted in the 3 to 2 transition. The
ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 . The value of is __________.

Answer for Q.14: 3 (range for correct answers [3, 3])

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SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12) 
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions. 
 Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. 
 FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of 
these four options corresponds to a correct matching. 
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching. 
 For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks           :    3  If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen. 
      Zero Marks     :     0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). 
      Negative Marks  :   1   In all other cases. 


Q.15 The electric field is measured at a point 0, 0, generated due to various charge
distributions and the dependence of on is found to be different for different charge
distributions. List-I contains different relations between E and . List-II describes
different electric charge distributions, along with their locations. Match the functions
in List-I with the related charge distributions in List-II.

LIST–I LIST–II

P. is independent of 1. A point charge at the origin

2. A small dipole with point charges at
Q. ∝ 0, 0, and – at 0, 0, .
Take 2 ≪
R. ∝ 3. An infinite line charge coincident with
the -axis, with uniform linear charge
S. ∝ density
4. Two infinite wires carrying uniform
linear charge density parallel to the
- axis. The one along 0,
has a charge density and the one
along 0, has a charge
density – . Take 2 ≪
5. Infinite plane charge coincident with the
-plane with uniform surface charge
density

(A) P → 5; Q → 3, 4; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 4; S→2
(C) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 2; S→4
(D) P → 4; Q → 2, 3; R → 1; S→5

Answer for Q.15: (B)

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Q.16 A planet of mass , has two natural satellites with masses and . The radii of their
circular orbits are and respectively. Ignore the gravitational force between the
satellites. Define , , and to be, respectively, the orbital speed, angular momentum,
kinetic energy and time period of revolution of satellite 1; and , , and to be the
corresponding quantities of satellite 2. Given / 2 and / 1/4, match the
ratios in List-I to the numbers in List-II.

LIST–I LIST–II

P. 1.

2. 1
Q.
3. 2
4. 8
R.

S.

(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S→3
(B) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→1
(C) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S→4
(D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1

Answer for Q.16: (B)

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Q.17 One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes four thermodynamic processes as
shown schematically in the -diagram below. Among these four processes, one
is isobaric, one is isochoric, one is isothermal and one is adiabatic. Match the
processes mentioned in List-1 with the corresponding statements in List-II.

LIST–I LIST–II
P. In process I 1. Work done by the gas is zero
Q. In process II 2. Temperature of the gas remains unchanged
3. No heat is exchanged between the gas and
R. In process III
its surroundings
S. In process IV 4. Work done by the gas is 6

(A) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S→4
(C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(D) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S→1

Answer for Q.17: (C)

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Q.18 In the List-I below, four different paths of a particle are given as functions of time. In these
functions, and are positive constants of appropriate dimensions and . In each case,
the force acting on the particle is either zero or conservative. In List-II, five physical
quantities of the particle are mentioned: is the linear momentum, is the angular
momentum about the origin, is the kinetic energy, is the potential energy and is the
total energy. Match each path in List-I with those quantities in List-II, which are conserved
for that path.

LIST–I LIST–II
P. ̂ ̂ 1.
Q. cos ̂ sin ̂ 2.
R. cos ̂ sin ̂ 3.
S. ̂ ̂ 4. U
5. E

(A) P → 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; Q → 2, 5; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S→5
(B) P → 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; Q → 3, 5; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S → 2, 5
(C) P → 2, 3, 4; Q → 5; R → 1, 2, 4; S → 2, 5
(D) P → 1, 2, 3, 5; Q → 2, 5; R →2, 3, 4, 5; S → 2, 5

Answer for Q.18: (A)

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JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2

PART II-CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24) 
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.  
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four 
option(s) is (are) correct option(s). 
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question. 
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks    :      If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen. 
Partial Marks     :     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. 
Partial Marks     :     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of 
which are correct options. 
Partial Marks     :     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a 
correct option. 
Zero Marks    :   0  If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). 
Negative Marks :    In all other cases. 
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second 
option  being  an  incorrect  option;  selecting  only  all  the  three  correct  options  will  result  in  +4  marks. 
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any 
incorrect option (second  option in this case), will result  in  +2 marks. Selecting only one of  the three 
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second 
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), 
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in ‐2 marks. 

Q.1 The correct option(s) regarding the complex [Co(en)(NH3)3(H2O)]3+

(en = H2NCH2CH2NH2) is (are)

(A) It has two geometrical isomers

(B) It will have three geometrical isomers if bidentate ‘en’ is replaced by
two cyanide ligands
(C) It is paramagnetic
(D) It absorbs light at longer wavelength as compared to [Co(en)(NH3)4]3+

Answer for Q.1: (A), (B), (D)

Q.2 The correct option(s) to distinguish nitrate salts of Mn2+ and Cu2+ taken separately is (are)

(A) Mn2+ shows the characteristic green colour in the flame test
(B) Only Cu2+ shows the formation of precipitate by passing H2S in acidic medium
(C) Only Mn2+ shows the formation of precipitate by passing H2S in faintly basic medium
(D) Cu2+/Cu has higher reduction potential than Mn2+/Mn (measured under similar
conditions)
Answer for Q.2: (B), (D)

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Q.3 Aniline reacts with mixed acid (conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4) at 288 K to give P (51 %),
Q (47%) and R (2%). The major product(s) of the following reaction sequence is (are)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Answer for Q.3: (D)

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Q.4 The Fischer presentation of D-glucose is given below.

The correct structure(s) of β-L-glucopyranose is (are)

(A) (B)

(D)
(C)

Answer for Q.4: (D)

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Q.5 For a first order reaction A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) at constant volume and 300 K, the total
pressure at the beginning ( = 0) and at time are and , respectively. Initially, only A is
present with concentration [A]0, and 1/3 is the time required for the partial pressure of A to
reach 1/3rd of its initial value. The correct option(s) is (are)
(Assume that all these gases behave as ideal gases)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Answer for Q.5: (A), (D)

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Q.6 For a reaction, A ⇌ P, the plots of [A] and [P] with time at temperatures T1 and T2 are
given below.

If > , the correct statement(s) is (are)

(Assume ∆ Ɵ and ∆ Ɵ are independent of temperature and ratio of lnK at to lnK at is
greater than . Here H, S, G and K are enthalpy, entropy, Gibbs energy and equilibrium
constant, respectively.)

Ɵ Ɵ
(A) ∆ < 0, ∆ <0
Ɵ Ɵ
(B) ∆ < 0, ∆ >0
Ɵ Ɵ
(C) ∆ < 0, ∆ <0
Ɵ Ɵ
(D) ∆ < 0, ∆ >0

Answer for Q.6: (A), (C)

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24) 
 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.  The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. 
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to 
the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30) using the mouse and the on‐
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. 
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks  :   3  If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer. 
Zero Marks  :   0 In all other cases. 

Q.7 The total number of compounds having at least one bridging oxo group among the
molecules given below is ____.
N2O3, N2O5, P4O6, P4O7, H4P2O5, H5P3O10, H2S2O3, H2S2O5

Answer for Q.7: 5 (range for correct answers [5, 5]) OR 6 (range for correct answers [6, 6])

Q.8 Galena (an ore) is partially oxidized by passing air through it at high temperature. After
some time, the passage of air is stopped, but the heating is continued in a closed furnace such
that the contents undergo self-reduction. The weight (in kg) of Pb produced per kg of O2
consumed is ____.
(Atomic weights in g mol1: O = 16, S = 32, Pb = 207)

Answer for Q.8: 6.47 (range for correct answers [6.40, 6.50])

Q.9 To measure the quantity of MnCl2 dissolved in an aqueous solution, it was completely
converted to KMnO4 using the reaction,
MnCl2 + K2S2O8 + H2O  KMnO4 + H2SO4 + HCl (equation not balanced).
Few drops of concentrated HCl were added to this solution and gently warmed. Further,
oxalic acid (225 mg) was added in portions till the colour of the permanganate ion
disappeared. The quantity of MnCl2 (in mg) present in the initial solution is ____.
(Atomic weights in g mol−1: Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5)

Answer for Q.9: 126 (range for correct answers [120, 130])

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Q.10 For the given compound X, the total number of optically active stereoisomers is ____.

Answer for Q.10: 7 (range for correct answers [7, 7])

Q.11 In the following reaction sequence, the amount of D (in g) formed from 10 moles of
acetophenone is ____.
(Atomic weights in g mol1: H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80. The yield (%)
corresponding to the product in each step is given in the parenthesis)

Answer for Q.11: 495 (range for correct answers [490, 500])

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Q.12 The surface of copper gets tarnished by the formation of copper oxide. N2 gas was passed to
prevent the oxide formation during heating of copper at 1250 K. However, the N2 gas
contains 1 mole % of water vapour as impurity. The water vapour oxidises copper as per the
reaction given below:
2Cu(s) + H2O(g)  Cu2O(s) + H2(g)
is the minimum partial pressure of H2 (in bar) needed to prevent the oxidation at
1250 K. The value of ln is ____.
(Given: total pressure = 1 bar, R (universal gas constant) = 8 J K−1 mol−1, ln(10) = 2.3. Cu(s)
and Cu2O(s) are mutually immiscible.
Ɵ
At 1250 K: 2Cu(s) + ½ O2(g)  Cu2O(s); ∆ = − 78,000 J mol−1
Ɵ
H2(g) + ½ O2(g)  H2O(g); ∆ = − 1,78,000 J mol−1; G is the Gibbs energy)

Answer for Q.12: -14.6 (range for correct answers [-14.7, -14.5])

Q.13 Consider the following reversible reaction,

A g B g ⇌ AB g .
The activation energy of the backward reaction exceeds that of the forward reaction by 2
(in J mol−1). If the pre-exponential factor of the forward reaction is 4 times that of the reverse
Ɵ
reaction, the absolute value of ∆ (in J mol−1) for the reaction at 300 K is ____.
(Given; ln(2) = 0.7, = 2500 J mol−1 at 300 K and G is the Gibbs energy)

Answer for Q.13: 8500 (range for correct answers [8430, 8570])




Q.14 Consider an electrochemical cell: A(s) | An+ (aq, 2 M) || B2n+ (aq, 1 M) | B(s). The
Ɵ Ɵ
value of ∆ for the cell reaction is twice that of ∆ at 300 K. If the emf of the cell is zero,
Ɵ
the ∆ (in J K−1 mol−1) of the cell reaction per mole of B formed at 300 K is ____.
(Given: ln(2) = 0.7, (universal gas constant) = 8.3 J K−1 mol−1. H, S and G are enthalpy,
entropy and Gibbs energy, respectively.)

Answer for Q.14: -11.62 (range for correct answers [-11.82, -11.42])

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SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12) 
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions. 
 Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. 
 FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of 
these four options corresponds to a correct matching. 
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching. 
 For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks           :    3  If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen. 
      Zero Marks     :     0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). 
      Negative Marks  :   1   In all other cases. 

Q.15 Match each set of hybrid orbitals from LIST–I with complex(es) given in LIST–II.

LIST–I LIST–II

P. dsp2 1. [FeF6]4−

Q. sp3 2. [Ti(H2O)3Cl3]

R. sp3d2 3. [Cr(NH3)6]3+

S. d2sp3 4. [FeCl4]2−
5. Ni(CO)4
6. [Ni(CN)4]2−
The correct option is

(A) P → 5; Q → 4,6; R → 2,3; S → 1

(B) P → 5,6; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1,2
(C) P → 6; Q → 4,5; R → 1; S → 2,3
(D) P → 4,6; Q → 5,6; R → 1,2; S → 3

Answer for Q.15: (C)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.16 The desired product X can be prepared by reacting the major product of the reactions in
LIST-I with one or more appropriate reagents in LIST-II.
(given, order of migratory aptitude: aryl > alkyl > hydrogen)

The correct option is

(A) P → 1; Q → 2,3; R → 1,4; S → 2,4

(B) P → 1,5; Q → 3,4; R → 4,5; S → 3
(C) P → 1,5; Q → 3,4; R → 5; S → 2,4
(D) P → 1,5; Q → 2,3; R → 1,5; S → 2,3

Answer for Q.16: (D)

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Q.17 LIST-I contains reactions and LIST-II contains major products.

Match each reaction in LIST-I with one or more products in LIST-II and choose the correct
option.

(A) P → 1,5; Q → 2; R → 3; S→4

(B) P → 1,4; Q → 2; R → 4; S→3
(C) P → 1,4; Q → 1,2; R → 3,4; S → 4
(D) P → 4,5; Q → 4; R → 4; S → 3,4

Answer for Q.17: (B)

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Q.18 Dilution processes of different aqueous solutions, with water, are given in LIST-I. The
effects of dilution of the solutions on [H+] are given in LIST-II.
(Note: Degree of dissociation () of weak acid and weak base is << 1; degree of hydrolysis
of salt <<1; [H+] represents the concentration of H+ ions)

LIST–I LIST–II
P. (10 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 20 mL of 1. the value of [H+] does not change
0.1 M acetic acid) diluted to 60 mL on dilution
Q. (20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 20 mL of 2. the value of [H+] changes to half of
0.1 M acetic acid) diluted to 80 mL its initial value on dilution
R. (20 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 20 mL of 3. the value of [H+] changes to two
0.1 M ammonia solution) diluted to 80 mL times of its initial value on
S. 10 mL saturated solution of Ni(OH)2 in dilution
equilibrium with excess solid Ni(OH)2 is 4. the value of [H+] changes to
√
diluted to 20 mL (solid Ni(OH)2 is still
times of its initial value on
present after dilution).
dilution
5. the value of [H+] changes to √2
times of its initial value on dilution

Match each process given in LIST-I with one or more effect(s) in LIST-II. The correct
option is

(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 3
(C) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 3
(D) P → 1; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 1

Answer for Q.18: (D)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2

PART-III MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24) 
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.  
 Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four 
option(s) is (are) correct option(s). 
 For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question. 
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks    :      If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen. 
Partial Marks     :     If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. 
Partial Marks     :     If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of 
which are correct options. 
Partial Marks     :     If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a 
correct option. 
Zero Marks    :   0  If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). 
Negative Marks :    In all other cases. 
 For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second 
option  being  an  incorrect  option;  selecting  only  all  the  three  correct  options  will  result  in  +4  marks. 
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any 
incorrect option (second  option in this case), will result  in  +2 marks. Selecting only one of  the three 
correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second 
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), 
with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in ‐2 marks. 

Q.1 For any positive integer , define : 0, ∞ → as

∑ 1 tan for all ∈ 0, ∞ .

Here, the inverse trigonometric function tan assumes values in , .

Then, which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) ∑ tan 0 55
(B) ∑ 1 0 sec 0 10

(C) For any fixed positive integer , lim tan

→

(D) For any fixed positive integer , lim sec 1

→

Answer for Q.1: (D)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.2 Let be the line passing through the points 2, 7 and 2, 5 . Let be the set of all
pairs of circles , such that is tangent to at and tangent to at , and also such
that and touch each other at a point, say, . Let be the set representing the locus of
as the pair , varies in . Let the set of all straight line segments joining a pair of
distinct points of and passing through the point 1, 1 be . Let be the set of the
mid-points of the line segments in the set . Then, which of the following statement(s) is
(are) TRUE?

(A) The point 2, 7 lies in (B) The point , does NOT lie in

(C) The point , 1 lies in (D) The point 0, does NOT lie in

Answer for Q.2: (B), (D)

Q.3 Let be the set of all column matrices such that , , ∈ and the system of

equations (in real variables)

2 5
2 4 3
2 2
has at least one solution. Then, which of the following system(s) (in real variables) has

(have) at least one solution for each ∈ ?

(A) 2 3 , 4 5 and 2 6
(B) 3 , 5 2 6 and 2 3
(C) 2 5 , 2 4 10 and 2 5
(D) 2 5 , 2 3 and 4 5
Answer for Q.3: (A), (D)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.4 Consider two straight lines, each of which is tangent to both the circle and the

parabola 4 . Let these lines intersect at the point . Consider the ellipse whose center
is at the origin 0,0 and whose semi-major axis is . If the length of the minor axis of
this ellipse is √2 , then which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) For the ellipse, the eccentricity is and the length of the latus rectum is 1
√

(B) For the ellipse, the eccentricity is and the length of the latus rectum is

(C) The area of the region bounded by the ellipse between the lines and 1 is
√

2
√

(D) The area of the region bounded by the ellipse between the lines and 1 is
√

Answer for Q.4: (A), (C)

Q.5 Let , , be non-zero complex numbers and be the set of solutions

, ∈ , √ 1 of the equation ̅ 0, where ̅ . Then, which of
the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) If has exactly one element, then | | | |

(B) If | | | |, then has infinitely many elements
(C) The number of elements in ∩ ∶| 1 | 5 is at most 2
(D) If has more than one element, then has infinitely many elements

Answer for Q.5: (A), (C), (D)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.6 Let : 0, → be a twice differentiable function such that

lim sin for all ∈ 0, .
→

If , then which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A)
√

(B) for all ∈ 0,

(C) There exists ∈ 0, such that ′ 0

(D) 0

Answer for Q.6: (B), (C), (D)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)
 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.  The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. 
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to 
the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30) using the mouse and the on‐
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. 
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks  :   3  If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer. 
Zero Marks  :   0 In all other cases. 
  

Q.7 The value of the integral

1 √3

1 1
is _____ .

Answer for Q.7: 2 (range for correct answers [1.9999, 2.0001])

Q.8 Let be a matrix of order 3 3 such that all the entries in are from the set 1, 0, 1 . Then,
the maximum possible value of the determinant of is _____ .

Answer for Q.8: 4 (range for correct answers [4, 4])

Q.9 Let be a set with exactly 5 elements and be a set with exactly 7 elements. If is the number
of one-one functions from to and is the number of onto functions from to , then the
value of is _____ .
!

Answer for Q.9: 119 (range for correct answers [118.9999, 119.0001])

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.10 Let : → be a differentiable function with 0 0. If satisfies the differential

equation
2 5 5 2 ,

then the value of lim is _____.

→

Answer for Q.10: 0.40 (range for correct answers [0.3999, 0.4001])

Q.11 Let : → be a differentiable function with 0 1 and satisfying the equation

for all , ∈ .
Then, the value of log 4 is _____.

Answer for Q.11: 2 (range for correct answers [1.9999, 2.0001])

Q.12 Let be a point in the first octant, whose image in the plane 3 (that is, the line
segment is perpendicular to the plane 3 and the mid-point of lies in the plane
3) lies on the -axis. Let the distance of from the -axis be 5. If is the image of
in the -plane, then the length of is _____ .

Answer for Q.12: 8 (range for correct answers [7.9999, 8.0001])

Q.13 Consider the cube in the first octant with sides , and of length 1, along the -axis,

-axis and -axis, respectively, where 0,0,0 is the origin. Let , , be the centre of

the cube and be the vertex of the cube opposite to the origin such that lies on the diagonal
. If , , and , then the value of
is _____ .

Answer for Q.13: 0.5 (range for correct answers [0.4999, 0.5001])

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.14 Let
10
C1 2 10
C2 3 10
C3 ⋯ 10 C10 ,
10

where 10
Cr , ∈ 1, 2, ⋯ , 10 denote binomial coefficients. Then, the value of

is _____ .

Answer for Q.14: 646 (range for correct answers [645.9999, 646.0001])

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions. 
 Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. 
 FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of 
these four options corresponds to a correct matching. 
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching. 
 For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme: 
Full Marks           :    3  If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen. 
      Zero Marks     :     0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). 
      Negative Marks  :   1   In all other cases. 


Q.15 Let ∈ ∶ 1 and 0

and ∈ ∶ sin log is a real number .

Here, the inverse trigonometric function sin assumes values in , .

2 2
Let : → be the function defined by log

and : → be the function defined by sin log .

LIST–I LIST–II

P. The range of is 1. ∞, ∪ , ∞
Q. The range of contains
2. 0, 1
R. The domain of contains
3. ,
S. The domain of is
4. ∞, 0 ∪ 0, ∞

5. ∞,

6. ∞, 0 ∪ ,

The correct option is:

(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 1
(B) P → 3; Q → 3; R → 6; S → 5
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 6
(D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 6; S → 5

Answer for Q.15: (A)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.16 In a high school, a committee has to be formed from a group of 6 boys

, , , , , and 5 girls , , , , .
(i) Let be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such that
the committee has 5 members, having exactly 3 boys and 2 girls.
(ii) Let be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such that
the committee has at least 2 members, and having an equal number of boys and girls.
(iii) Let be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such that
the committee has 5 members, at least 2 of them being girls.
(iv) Let be the total number of ways in which the committee can be formed such that
the committee has 4 members, having at least 2 girls and such that both and
are NOT in the committee together.

LIST–I LIST–II
P. The value of is 1. 136
Q. The value of is 2. 189
R. The value of is 3. 192
S. The value of is 4. 200
5. 381
6. 461

The correct option is:

(A) P → 4; Q → 6; R → 2; S → 1
(B) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3
(C) P → 4; Q → 6; R → 5; S → 2
(D) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1

Answer for Q.16: (C)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.17 Let : 1, where 0, be a hyperbola in the -plane whose conjugate axis

subtends an angle of 60 at one of its vertices . Let the area of the triangle be
4√3.

LIST–I LIST–II

P. The length of the conjugate axis of is 1. 8

Q. The eccentricity of is 2.
√
R. The distance between the foci of is
3.
√
S. The length of the latus rectum of is
4. 4
The correct option is:
(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2
(C) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
(D) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1

Answer for Q.17: (B)

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JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2

Q.18 Let : → , : , → , : 1, 2 → and : → be functions

defined by

(i) sin 1 ,
| |
(ii) if 0 , where the inverse trigonometric function tan
1 if 0
assumes values in , ,

(iii) sin log 2 , where, for ∈ , denotes the greatest integer

less than or equal to ,

sin if 0
(iv) .
0 if 0

LIST–I LIST–II

P. The function is 1. NOT continuous at 0

Q. The function is 2. continuous at 0 and NOT
R. The function is differentiable at 0
S. The function is 3. differentiable at 0 and its derivative
is NOT continuous at 0
4. differentiable at 0 and its derivative
is continuous at 0

The correct option is:

(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4
(B) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 3
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
(D) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 3

Answer for Q.18: (D)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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