1.

The Voges–Proskauer (VP) test right eye was obtained by an

detects which end product of ophthalmologist, who ordered a
glucose fermentation? culture and sensitivity test. The
a. Acetoin culture was plated on blood agar
b. Nitrite and MacConkey agar. At 24
c. Acetic acid hours, growth of a gram-
d. Hydrogen sulphide negative rod that tested positive
2. Which genera are positive for for cytochrome oxidase was
phenylalanine deaminase? noted. The Mueller–Hinton
a. Enterobacter, sensitivity plate showed a
Escherichia, and bluish-green “lawn” of growth
Salmonella that proved highly resistant to
b. Morganella, Providencia, most of the antibiotics tested
and Proteus except amikacin, tobramycin,
c. Klebsiella and and ciprofloxacin. What is the
Enterobacter most likely identification?
d. Proteus, Escherichia, and a. Burkholderia cepacia
Shigella b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Presumptive tests used for c. Stenotrophomonas
identification of the maltophilia
Pseudomonas spp. are: d. Acinetobacter baumannii
a. Oxidase, oxidation– 5. Smooth gray colonies showing
fermentation (OF) glucose no hemolysis are recovered
(open), OF glucose from an infected cat scratch on
(sealed), motility, pigment blood and chocolate agar but fail
production to grow on MacConkey agar. The
b. Growth on blood agar organisms are gram-negative
plate (BAP) and eosin– pleomorphic rods that are both
methylene blue (EMB) catalase and oxidase positive
agars, lysine and strongly indole positive. The
decarboxylation, catalase most likely organism is:
c. Growth on MacConkey, a. Capnocytophaga spp.
EMB, and XLD agars and b. Pasteurella spp.
motility c. Proteus spp.
d. Growth on mannitol salt d. Pseudomonas spp.
agar and flagellar stain 6. Which medium is best for
4. A 15-year-old female complained recovery of Legionella
of a severe eye irritation after pneumophila from clinical
removing her soft-contact specimens?
lenses. A swab of the infected a. Chocolate agar
 b. Bordet–Gengou agar 11. A fourfold rise in titer of which
c. New yeast extract agar antibody is the best indicator of
d. Buffered charcoal–yeast a recent infection with groups A
extract (CYE) agar β-hemolytic streptococci?
7. The HACEK group of organisms a. Anti-streptolysin O
(Haemophilus aphrophilus, b. Anti-streptolysin S
Actinobacillus c. Anti-A
actinomycetemcomitans, d. Anti-B
Cardiobacterium hominis, 12. A Gram stain of a urethral
Eikenella corrodens, and discharge from a man showing
Kingella spp.) are all known for extracellular and intracellular
which type of infection? gram-negative diplococci within
a. Urinary tract segmented neutrophils is a
b. Endocarditis presumptive identification for:
c. Pharyngitis a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. Tonsillitis b. Neisseria meningitidis
8. The test used most often to c. Moraxella (Branhamella)
separate the Micrococcaceae catarrhalis
family from the d. Neisseria lactamica
Streptococcaceae family is: 13. Large gram-positive spore-
a. Bacitracin forming rods growing on blood
b. Catalase agar as large, raised, β-
c. Hemolysis pattern hemolytic colonies that spread
d. All of these options and appear as frosted green-
9. Which of the following tests is gray glass are most likely:
used routinely to identify a. Pseudomonas spp.
Staphylococcus aureus? b. Bacillus spp.
a. Slide coagulase test c. Corynebacterium spp.
b. Tube coagulase test d. Listeria spp.
c. Latex agglutination 14. Primary atypical pneumonia is
d. All of these options caused by:
10. Staphylococcus saprophyticus a. Streptococcus
is best differentiated from pneumoniae
Staphylococcus epidermidis by b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
resistance to: c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
a. 5 μg of lysostaphin d. Mycobacterium
b. 5 μg of novobiocin tuberculosis
c. 10 units of penicillin 15. Which of the following
d. 0.04 unit of bacitracin organisms is the cause of Lyme
disease?
 a. Treponema pallidum smooth-walled, club-shaped
b. Neisseria meningitidis macroconidia appearing singly
c. Babesia microti or in clusters of two to three
d. Borrelia burgdorferi from the tips of short
16. Gram-positive bacilli recovered conidiophores. The colonies did
from two blood cultures from a not produce microconidia. What
60-year-old diabetic patient gave is the most likely identification?
the following results: a. Trichophyton spp.
Spores seen = Neg b. Alternaria spp.
Hemolysis = + (double zone) c. Epidermophyton spp.
Motility = Neg d. Microsporum spp.
Lecithinase = + 19. An India ink test was performed
Volatile acids by GLC (PYG) = on CSF from an HIV-infected
acetic acid (A) and butyric acid (B) male patient. Many encapsulated
What is the most likely identification? yeast cells were seen in the
a. Clostridium tetani centrifuged sample. Further
b. Clostridium perfringens testing revealed a positive
c. Clostridium novyi (B) urease test and growth of brown
d. Clostridium sporogenes colonies on niger-seed agar. The
17. Acid-fast staining of a smear diagnosis of meningitis was
prepared from digested sputum caused by which yeast?
showed slender, slightly curved, a. Candida albicans
beaded, red mycobacterial rods. b. Cryptococcus
Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 neoformans
slants produced buff-colored c. Cryptococcus laurentii
microcolonies with a serpentine d. Candida tropicalis
pattern after 14 days at 37°C. 20. Which of the following viruses is
Niacin and nitrate reduction implicated along with Epstein–
tests were positive. What is the Barr virus as a cause of
most probable presumptive infectious mononucleosis?
identification? a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
a. Mycobacterium b. Coxsackie A virus
tuberculosis c. Coxsackie B virus
b. Mycobacterium ulcerans d. Hepatitis B virus
c. Mycobacterium kansasii 21. A very small, single-stranded
d. Mycobacterium avium– DNA virus that causes a febrile
intracellulare complex illness with a rash and is called
18. Microscopic examination of a the fifth childhood disease after
fungus cultured from a patient rubeola, rubella, varicella, and
with athlete’s foot showed large, roseola is:
 a. Rotavirus a. Include those that are the
b. Adenovirus type 40 common agents of
c. Coxsackie A virus infectious disease.
d. Parvovirus B19 b. Require only standard
22. To be sterilized in an autoclave, good laboratory
media or instruments should be: technique.
a. Packed tightly to avoid c. Include Mycobacterium
dangerous pressure tuberculosis, M.
pockets. Gordonae, and Brucella.
b. Processed for 15 to 20 d. Require the use of
minutes at 121° C and 30 maximum containment
pounds per square inch facilities.
(psi) pressure. 25. The acid-fast stain is specifically
c. Processed for 30 to 60 designed for bacteria whose cell
minutes at 132° C and 15 walls contain:
psi pressure. a. Teichoic acids.
d. Processed for at least 1 b. Mycolic acids.
hour at 121° C and 15 psi c. Peptidoglycan.
pressure. d. Disaccharide-
23. Class III biological safety pentapeptide subunits.
cabinets: 26. Magnifications in excess of
a. Sterilize the air as it 100,000x are achieved by
passes over the material ________ microscopy?
in the cabinet. a. Bright-field
b. Protect the environment b. Electron
from contamination by c. Dark-field
biological agents by d. Phase-contrast
filtering the air as it is 27. The examination of sputum may
exhausted from the be necessary to diagnose
cabinet. infection with:
c. Are completely enclosed a. Paragonimus westermani
and have gloves that b. Trichinella spiralis
enable the worker to c. Wuchereria bancrofti
manipulate the material in d. Fasciola hepatica
the cabinet. 28. Eating poorly cooked pork can
d. Are often called laminar lead to an infection with:
flow hoods. a. Taenia solium and
24. Biosafety Level 2 agents: Trichinella spiralis
b. Taenia saginata and
Hymenolepis nana
 c. Trichuris trichiura and 33. Some strains of leishmaniae
Hymenolepis diminuta have reservoir hosts, including
d. Diphyllobothrium latum dogs and wild rodents.
and Ascaris lumbricoides Transmission is via the bite of a:
29. Oocysts of Cryptosporidium a. Tsetse fly.
spp. can be detected in stool b. Tick.
specimens using: c. Sandfly.
a. Modified Ziehl–Neelsen d. Triatomid bug.
acid-fast stain 34. Delicate ring forms and
b. Gram stain crescent-shaped gametocytes
c. Methenamine silver stain are the only forms normally
d. Trichrome stain observed in the peripheral blood
30. The formalin–ether (ethyl of which Plasmodium spp.?
acetate) concentration a. P. vivax
procedure for feces is used to b. P. malariae
demonstrate: c. P. falciparum
a. Motility of helminth larvae d. P. ovale
b. Protozoan cysts and 35. A 4-year-old boy attended day
helminth eggs care 3 days per week. He was
c. Formation of amoebic irritable, and his parents noticed
pseudopods that he had persistent perianal
d. Trophozoites itching. A sticky paddle was
31. The eggs of which of the pressed against the perianal
following intestinal parasites are region and sent to the laboratory
not commonly found in feces for testing. The eggs
and must be detected by other microscopically observed would
diagnostic techniques? most likely have which one of
a. Giardia lamblia the following morphologic
b. Cryptosporidium parvum features?
c. Clonorchis sinensis a. Long with a short buccal
d. Enterobius vermicularis cavity
32. Which of the following b. Thin shell with internal
structures is used for motility of granules
Balantidium coli? c. Bipolar plugs
a. Pseudopod d. Flat-sided, football-
b. Flagella shaped
c. Cilia
d. Undulating membrane
36. A 36-year-old man entered the a. Snail
emergency department with b. Crustacean
bleeding and weight loss several c. Copepod
weeks after returning from a trip d. Freshwater fish
to South America. A stool 40. A helminth egg is described as
sample was taken and having terminal polar plugs. The
microscopically examined. most likely helminth is:
Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar a. Hookworm
plugs were observed. The b. Trichuris trichiura
organism can be identified as: c. Fasciola hepatica
a. Trichuris trichiura. d. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Ancylostoma duodenale. 41. Humans acquire infections with
c. Necator americanus. Diphyllobothrium latum adult
d. Strongyloides stercoralis. worms by:
37. Hydatid disease is associated a. Ingestion of freshwater
with which tapeworm? crabs
a. Taenia solium b. Skin penetration of
b. Echinococcus granulosus cercariae
c. Spirometra mansonoides c. Ingestion of water
d. Echinococcus chestnuts
multilocularis d. Ingestion of raw
38. The life-cycle stages of the freshwater fish
intestinal trematodes after the 42. These parasite can be identified
eggs are shed from the body via from ova detected in feces,
feces is best described as: EXCEPT;
a. cercariae, miracidium a. Clonorchis sinensis
larva, metacercariae, and b. Hymenolepis nana
redia. c. Trichinella spiralis
b. redia, metacercariae, d. Ascaris lumbricoides
cercariae, and miracidium 43. The diagnosis of filariasis is
larva. usually made by the presence of
c. miracidium larva, redia, microfilaria in
cercariae, and a. Blood
metacercariae. b. Tissue
d. metacercariae, c. Lymph
miracidium larva, d. Urine
cercariae, and redia. 44. A patient has glucosuria,
39. Which second intermediate host hyperglycemia, and polyuria.
ingests the cercariae of These findings would be
Clonorchis and Opisthorchis? associated with:
 a. Renal glucosuria a. Filter the plasma
b. Diabetes mellitus b. Concentrate the urine
c. Emotional stress c. Alter the hydrogen ion
d. Eating a heavy meal concentration
45. To prepare the reagent used for d. Reabsorb sodium ions
mucin clot determination of 49. Pleural fluid from a patient with
synovial fluid, water is mixed congestive heart failure would
with: be expected to:
a. Hydrochloric acid a. Contain bacteria
b. Sodium hydroxide b. Have a high protein
c. Trichloroacetic acid content
d. Glacial acetic acid c. Be purulent
46. To prepare the reagent used in d. Appear clear and pale
confirmatory protein testing, a yellow
medical technologist would: 50. Synovial fluid is analysed with a
a. Dissolve 3 g sulfosalicylic polarizing microscope. Strongly
acid in 100 mL of water birefringent needles are seen,
b. Dissolve 5 g This most likely indicates:
trichloroacetic acid in 100 a. Monosodium urate
mL of water crystals
c. Combine 3 mL of b. Calcium pyrophosphate
hydrochloric acid and 97 crystals
mL of water c. Corticosteroid crystals
d. Combine 5 mL of glacial d. Talc crystals
acetic acid and 95 mL of 51. After warming to 60°C, a cloudy
water urine clears. This is due to the
47. To prepare a solution presence of:
appropriate for quality control of a. Urates
the refractometer, a medical b. Phosphates
technologist should use: c. WBCs
a. Urea with a specific d. Bacteria
gravity of 1.040 52. A 2-year old child had a positive
b. Water with a specific urine ketone. This would most
gravity of 1.005 likely to caused by:
c. Sodium chloride with a a. Vomiting
specific gravity of 1.022 b. Anemia
d. Calcium chloride with an c. Hypoglycaemia
osmolarity of 460 d. Biliary tract obstruction
48. Urine specific gravity is an index 53. A 62-year-old patient with
of the ability of the kidney to: hyperlipoproteinemia has a large
 amount of protein in his urine. which of the following reagents
Microscopic analysis yields runs into the pH pad?
moderate to many fatty, waxy, a. Tetrabromphenol blue
granular, and cellular casts. b. Citrate buffer
Many oval fat bodies are also c. Glucose oxidase
noted. This is most consistent d. Alkaline copper sulphate
with: 58. Which of the following crystals
a. Nephrotic syndrome appear as fine, silky needles?
b. Viral infection a. Cholesterol
c. Acute pyelonephritis b. Leucine
d. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Hemosiderin
54. A urine specimen with an d. Tyrosine
elevated urobilinogen and a 59. A 21-year-old woman had
negative bilirubin may indicate: glucose in her urine with a
a. Obstruction of the biliary normal blood sugar. These
tract finding are most consistent with:
b. Viral hepatitis a. Renal glycosuria
c. Haemolytic jaundice b. Diabetes insipidus
d. Cirrhosis c. Diabetes mellitus
55. In which of the following d. Alkaline tide
metabolic diseases will urine 60. A patient with renal tubular
turn dark brown to black upon acidosis would most likely
standing? excrete a urine with a:
a. Phenylketonuria a. Low pH
b. Alkaptonuria b. High pH
c. Maple syrup disease c. Neutral pH
d. Aminoaciduria d. Variable pH
56. A component seen during a 61. Which of the following
microscopic urinalysis stains components is/are present in
positively with Sudan III stain serum but NOT present in the
but does not polarize. This most glomerular filtrate?
likely is a: a. Glucose
a. Cholesterol ester b. Amino acids
b. Neutral fat c. Urea
c. Lipid d. Large molecular weight
d. Leucine proteins
57. Excess urine on the reagent test 62. White blood cells casts are most
strip can turn a normal pH result likely to indicate disease of the:
into a falsely acidic pH when a. Bladder
b. Ureter
 c. Urethra normal results on a multiple
d. Kidney reagent strip analysis. The most
63. Which of the following ketone likely cause of turbidity is:
bodies is excreted in the largest a. Fat
amount in ketonuria? b. White blood cells
a. Acetone c. Urates
b. Acetoacetic acid d. Phosphates
c. Cholesterol 68. Microscopic analysis of a urine
d. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid specimen yields a moderate
64. Oval fat bodies are defined as: amount of red blood cells in
a. Squamous epithelial cells spite of a negative result for
that contain lipids occult blood using a reagent
b. Renal tubular epithelial strip. The medical technologist
cells that contain lipids should determine if this patient
c. Free-floating fat droplets has taken:
d. White blood cells with a. Vitamin C
phagocytized lipids b. A diuretic
65. Refractive index is a comparison c. High blood pressure
of: medicine
a. Light velocity in solutions d. Antibiotics
with light velocity in 69. An abdominal fluid is submitted
solids from surgery. The physician
b. Light velocity in air with wants to determine if this fluid
light velocity in solutions could be urine. The medical
c. Light scattering by air technologist should:
with light scattering by a. Perform a culture
solutions b. Smell the fluid
d. Light scattering by c. Test for urea, creatinine,
particles in solution sodium, and chloride
66. The fluid leaving the glomerulus d. Test for protein, glucose,
normally has a specific gravity and pH
of: 70. A brown-black colored urine
a. 1.001 would most likely contain:
b. 1.010 a. Bile pigment
c. 1.020 b. Prophyrins
d. 1.030 c. Melanin
67. A urine specimen collected from d. Blood cells
an apparently healthy 25-year- 71. The protein section of the urine
old man shortly after he finished reagent strip is MOST sensitive
lunch was cloudy but showed to:
 a. Albumin c. Fixed around 1.010
b. Mucoprotein d. Fixed around 1.020
c. Bence Jones protein 76. While performing an analysis of
d. Globulin a baby’s urine, the medical
72. Use of a refractometer over a technologist notices the
urinometer is preferred due to specimen to have a “mousy”
the fact that the refractometer odor. Of the following
uses a: substances that may be
a. Large volume of urine and excreted in urine, the one that
compensates for MOST characteristically
temperature produces this odor is:
b. Small volume of urine and a. Phenylpyruvic acid
compensates for glucose b. Acetone
c. Small volume of urine and c. Coliform bacilli
compensates for d. Porphyrin
temperature 77. An urinalysis performed on a 2-
d. Small volume of urine and week-old infant with diarrhea
compensates for protein shows a negative reaction with
73. Broad waxy casts are LEAST the glucose oxidase reagent
likely to be associated with: strip. A copper reduction tablet
a. Advanced tubular atrophy test should be performed to
b. End-stage renal disease check the urine sample for the
c. Fatty degeneration presence of:
tubular disease a. Glucose
d. Formation in a b. Galactose
pathologically diluted c. Bilirubin
tubule d. Ketones
74. Glycosuria may be due to: 78. Round refractile globules noted
a. Hypoglycaemia on bright-light microscopy of a
b. Increased renal threshold urinary sediment were
c. Renal tubular dysfunction birefringent with polarized-light
d. Increased glomerular and appeared as perfect Maltese
filtration rate crosses. These globules are
75. Isosthenuria is associated with a most likely:
specific gravity, which is a. Neutral fats
usually: b. Starch
a. Variable between 1.011 c. Triglycerides
and 1.008 d. Cholesterol
b. Variable between 1.015 79. A reagent strip area impregnated
and 1.022 with stabilized, diazotized 2,4-
 dichloroaniline will yield a most likely indicates the
positive reaction with: presence of:
a. Bilirubin a. Amorphous urates
b. Haemoglobin b. WBCs
c. Ketones c. Amorphous phosphates
d. Urobilinogen d. Bacteria
80. Ketones in urine are due to: 83. The normal glomerular filtration
a. Complete utilization of rate is:
fatty acids a. 1 mL/min
b. Incomplete fat b. 120 mL/min
metabolism c. 660 mL/min
c. High carbohydrate diets d. 1200 mL/min
d. Renal tubular dysfunction 84. The sequence of light through a
81. On bright-light microscopic microscope is:
examination of urinary sediment, a. Condenser, stage,
round refractile globules are objective
noted in cells encapsulated b. Iris diaphragm,
within a hyaline matrix. A condenser, ocular
polarized-light microscopic c. Stage, condenser, iris,
examination of the urinary objective, ocular
structure showed the globules d. Diaphragm, condenser,
to be birefringent in the shape of objective, ocular
Maltese crosses. The urinary 85. Which parts of a microscope
structures can be identified as: magnify the images observed?
a. Waxy casts associated a. Ocular and condenser
with advanced tubular b. Objective and ocular
atrophy c. Aperture and objective
b. Granular casts containing d. Diaphragm and
plasma protein condenser
aggregates 86. A positive result for bilirubin on
c. Crystal casts associated a reagent strip should be
with obstruction due to followed up by:
tubular damage a. Notifying the physician
d. Fatty casts containing b. Requesting a new
lipid-laden renal tubular specimen
cells c. Performing an Ictotest
82. Following the addition of acid, d. Performing a urobilinogen
white precipitate in a cloudy 87. In most compound light
urine sample dissolves. This microscopes, the ocular lens
has a magnification of:
 a. 10x c. Polyuria
b. 40x d. Dysuria
c. 50x 93. To avoid falsely elevated spinal
d. 100x fluid cell counts:
88. A urine with an increased a. Use an aliquot from the
protein has a high specific first tube collected
gravity. Which of the following b. Use only those specimens
would be a more accurate showing no turbidity
measure of urine concentration? c. Centrifuge all specimens
a. Osmolality before counting
b. Ketones d. Select an aliquot from the
c. Refractive index last tube collected
d. pH 94. Which cells are involved in
89. Osmolality is a measure of: immediate hypersensitivity
a. Dissolved particles, reactions?
including ions a. Eosinophils
b. Undissociated molecules b. Basophils
only c. Plasma cells
c. Total salt concentration d. Reactive lymphocytes
d. Molecule size 95. A patient with thalassemia minor
90. An acid urine that contains characteristically has a(an):
haemoglobin will darken on a. Elevated A2 hemoglobin
standing due to the formation of: b. Low fetal haemoglobin
a. Myoglobin c. High serum iron
b. Sulfhemoglobin d. Normal red cell fragility
c. Methemoglobin 96. The Prussian blue staining of
d. Red blood cells peripheral blood identifies:
91. Which of the following can give a. Howell-Jolly bodies
a false-negative protein reading? b. Siderotic granules
a. Contamination with c. Reticulocytes
vaginal discharge d. Basophilic stippling
b. Heavy mucus 97. Plasma from a patient with lupus
c. Presence of blood coagulation inhibitor can show:
d. Very dilute urine a. A prolonged APTT and
92. The volume of urine excreted in normal PT
a 24-hour period by an adult b. May exhibit bleeding
patient was 500 mL. This tendencies
condition would be termed: c. No change with platelet
a. Anuria neutralization
b. Oliguria
 d. Complete correction when 102. The first step in the
incubated with normal determination of functional
plasma antithrombin III (AT III) is to:
98. vWF antigen can be found in a. Neutralize plasma
which of the following? antithrombin
a. Myeloblast b. Neutralize thrombin with
b. Monoblast test plasma
c. Lymphoblast c. Incubate plasma with anti-
d. Megakaryoblast AT III
99. In immunophenotyping by flow d. Precipitate AT III with
cytometry the emitting plasma
fluorescence intensity is 103. Which of the following is
proportional to the: characteristic of cellular
a. DNA content in the cell changes in megakaryoblasts
b. Amount of cell surface mature into megakaryocytes
antigen within the bone marrow?
c. RNA content in the cell a. Progressive decrease in
d. Size of the cell nucleus overall cell size
100. A patient has b. Increasing basophilia of
pancytopenia, decreased total cytoplasm
serum iron, and decreased c. Nuclear division without
serum iron-binding capacity, cytoplasmic division
and shows a homogenous d. Fusion of the nuclear
fluorescence pattern with a high lobes
titer on a fluorescent antinuclear 104. In laser flow cytometry,
antibody test. This is histograms combining the data
suggestive of: from forward-angle light scatter
a. Polycythemia vera with the data from right-angle
b. Lupus erythematosus light scatter permit the operator
c. Iron deficiency anemia to:
d. Haemoglobin SC disease a. Quantitate cell surface
101. Biological assays for protein
antithromin III (ATIII) are based b. Determine absolute cell
on the inhibition of: size
a. Factor VIII c. Distinguish internal cell
b. Heparin structures
c. Serine proteases d. Differentiate cell
d. Anti-AT III globulin populations from one
another
105. Dwarf or the same area. After making the
micromegakaryocytes may be appropriate calculations, the
found in the peripheral blood of next step would be to:
patients with: a. Repeat the procedure,
a. Pernicious anemia using a 1:20 dilution in a
b. DIC white cell pipet
c. Myelofibrosis with b. Report the calculated
myeloid metaplasia value
d. Chronic lymphocytic c. Collect a new specimen
leukemia d. Repeat the procedure,
106. A deficiency of protein C using a 1:200 dilution in
is associated with which of the the red cell pipet
following? 109. Laboratory tests
a. Prolonged activated performed on a patient indicate
partial thromboplastin macrocytosis, anemia,
time (APTT) leukopenia, and
b. Decreased fibrinogen thrombocytopenia. Which of the
level (less than 100 following disorders is the patient
mg/dL) most likely to have?
c. Increased risk of a. Anemia of chronic
thrombosis disorder
d. Spontaneous b. Vitamin B12 deficiency
haemorrhage c. Iron deficiency
107. A patient is diagnosed as d. Acute haemorrhage
having bacterial septicaemia. 110. Which of the following
Which of the following would stains is most frequently used to
best describe the expected differentiate acute myelocytic
change in his peripheral blood? from acute lymphocytic
a. Granulocytic leukemoid leukemia?
reaction a. Alkaline phosphatase
b. Lymphocytic leukemoid b. Nonspecific esterase
reaction c. Acid phosphatase
c. Neutropenia d. Peroxidase
d. Eosinophilia 111. Which of the following
108. A phase-platelet count is test systems has the SMALLEST
performed using a red cell pipet. standard deviation?
155 platelets are counted on one a. Manual white cell count
side of the hemacytometer in the b. Reticulocyte count
red cell counting area, and 145 c. Leukocyte alkaline
are counted on the other side in phosphatase score
 d. Haemoglobin by a. Thromboplastin
cyanmethemoglobin b. Prothrombin
112. The cell series most c. Platelets
readily identified by a positive d. Fibrinogen
Sudan black B is: 117. Which of the following
a. Erythrocytic stains is helpful in the diagnosis
b. Myelocytic of suspected erythroleukemia?
c. Plasmocytic a. Peroxidase
d. Lymphocytic b. Nonspecific esterase
113. Aspirin affects platelet c. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
function by interfering with d. Acid phosphatase
platelets’ metabolism of: 118. In von Willebrand’s
a. Prostaglandins disease, platelets give an
b. Lipids abnormal aggregation result in
c. Carbohydrates the presence of:
d. Nucleic acids a. Adenosine diphosphate
114. Of the following, the b. Epinephrine
disease most closely associated c. Collagen
with pale blue inclusions in d. Ristocetin
granulocytes and giant platelets 119. A heparinized blood
is: sample is collected from a
a. Gaucher’s disease patient during open-heart
b. Alder-Reilly anomaly surgery. The surgeon requests
c. May-Hegglin anomaly a complete blood count on the
d. Pelger-Huet anomaly specimen. The most appropriate
115. A 54-year old man was course of action is:
admitted with pulmonary a. Perform the complete
embolism and given blood count as requests
streptokinase. Which of the b. Report only the
following would be most useful hemogloin and
in monitoring this therapy? haematocrit on
a. Activated partial heparinized blood
thromboplastin time c. Report only the white cell
b. Bleeding time and platelet counts on
c. Prothrombin time heparinized blood
d. Thrombin time d. Report the white cell and
116. The combination of red cell counts on
increased capillary fragility and heparinized blood
prolonged bleeding time 120. Which of the following
suggests a deficiency in: stains can be used to
differentiate siderotic granules
(Pappenheimer bodies) from
basophilic stippling?
a. Wright’s
b. Prussian blue
c. Crystal violet
d. Periodic acid-Schiff