JEE-ADVANCE: TEST-3

TEST SERIES
PAPER-I
Time : 3 hrs. M.M.: 180
PBG
S
TESTET
CODE - A-1
TOPIC COVERED :
PHYSICS: Waves, Electrostatics and Current Electricity
CHEMISTRY: p-Block Element, Thermodynamics, Surface Chemistry, Alcohol, Phenol, Ether, Ionic Equilibrium,
d-Block Element, Coordination compound, Gaseous State Aldehydes and Ketones.
MATHEMATICS: Calculus

ATTENTION: Kindly ask for the Roll No. from the invigilator to fill in OMR SHEET. Mark the Roll
No. & Test code on the answer sheet properly. (No other sheet will be issued)
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1. The Test Paper consists of 60 questions
2. There are Three Subjects (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics) in the question paper.
3. This paper is divided into 3 parts: Physics Section (I), (II) and (III); Chemistry Section (I), (II) and
(III) & Mathematics Section (I), (II) and (III).
 Single Choice: Physics Section (I) (1 to 10) Chemistry Section I (16 to 25) and Mathematics
Section I (31 to 40), 2 marks for each correct answer and no negative marking for incorrect
answer.
 Multiple correct answer type questions : Physics Section (II) (11 to 15) Chemistry Section II
(26 to 30) and Mathematics Section II (41 to 45), 4 marks for each correct answer and
–1 mark for incorrect answer.
 Integer Type: Physics Section-III (1 to 5); Chemistry Section-III (6 to 10) and Mathematics
Section- III (11 to 15), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases,
minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

Name of the Student : ________________________________________________

Section : ________________________________________________

Centre : ________________________________________________

Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________________________

[1] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

 PHYSICS
SECTION- I: STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choice (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY-ONE is correct

1. The period of oscillations of a point is 0.04 sec. and the velocity of propagation of oscillation is 300 m/sec. The
difference of phase between the oscillations of two points and distance 10 and 16 m respectively from the source
of oscillations is
(a) 2 (b) /2 (c) /4 (d) 

2. A firecracker exploding on the surface of a lake is heard as two sounds a time interval t apart by a man on a boat
close to water surface. Sound travels with a speed u in water and a speed v in air. The distance from the
exploding firecracker to the boat is
uvt t ( u  v) t (u  v) uvt
(a) (b) (c) (d)
uv uv uv uv

3. A tuning fork of frequency 280 Hz produces 10 beats per sec when sounded with a vibrating sonometer string.
When the tension in the string increases slightly, it produces 11 beats per sec. The original frequency of the
vibrating sonometer string is :
(a) 269 Hz (b) 291 Hz (c) 270 Hz (d) 290 Hz

4. A point charge 50mC is located in the XY plane at the point of position vector r0  2 
i  3j . What is the electric

field at the point of position vector r  8
i  5j
(a) 1200V/m (b) 0.04V/m (c) 900V/m (d) 4500 V/m

5. A small particle of mass m and charge –q is placed at point P and released.

If R >> x, the particle will undergo oscillations along the axis of symmetry with an
angular frequency that is equal to

qQ qQx qQ qQx
(a) (b) (c) 4 mR 3 (d) 4 mR 4
40 mR 3 40 mR 4 0 0

6. Figure shows the electric field lines around an electric dipole. Which
of the arrows best represents the electric field at point P ?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

[2] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

7. A thick spherical shell with an inner radius ‘a’ and an outer radius ‘b’ is made of
conducting material. A point charge +Q is placed at the centre of the spherical shell b

and a total charge – q is placed on the shell. Charge –q is distributed on the surfaces
are Q a
(a) –Q on the inner surface, – q on outer surface
(b) –Q on the inner surface, –q + Q on the outer surface –q
(c) –Q on the inner surface, –q – Q on the outer surface
(d) The charge –q is spherical uniformly between the inner and outer surface.

8. In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 60V is applied across AB. The
potential difference between the point M and N is
(a) 10 V (b) 15 V
(c) 20 V (d) 30 V

9. Find the equivalent capacitance across A & B

28 15
(a) f (b) F
3 2
(c) 15 F (d) none

10. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance A/2 A/2
C is filled with three different dielectric materials having dielectric
K1 K2 d/2
constants K1, K2 and K3 as shown. If a single dielectric material is to d
K3
be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor then its
dielectric constant K is given by
A = area of plates
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a)    (b)  
K K1 K 2 2 K 3 K K1  K 2 2 K 3

1 K K K1 K3 K 2 K3
(c)  1 2  2K 3 (d) K  K  K  K  K
K K1  K2 1 3 2 3

SECTION- II: MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 11 to 15. Each question has 4 choice (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct

[3] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

11. The length, tension, diameter and density of a wire B are double than the corresponding quantities for another
stretched wire A. Then.

1
(a) Fundamental frequency of B is times that of A
2 2

1
(b) The velocity of wave in B is times that of velocity in A.
2
(c) The fundamental frequency of A is equal to the third overtone of B.
(d) The velocity of wave in B is half that of velocity in A.

12. In the circuit shown, when the key k is pressed at time t = 0, which of the following statements about current I in
the resistor AB is true
(a) I = 2mA at all t
(b) I oscillates between 1 mA and 2mA
(c) I = 1 mA at all t
(d) At t = 0, I = 2mA and with time it goes to 1 mA

13. Two batteries one of the emf 3V, internal resistance 1 ohm and the other of emf 15
V, internal resistance 2 ohm are connected in series with a resistance R as shown.
If the potential difference between a and b is zero the resistance of R in ohm is
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 1

14. An string has resonant frequencies given by 1001 Hz and 2639 Hz.
(a) If the string is fixed at one end only, 910 Hz can be a resonance frequency.
(b) If the string is fixed at one end only, 1911 Hz can be a resonance frequency.
(c) If the string is fixed at both the ends, 364 Hz can be one of the resonant frequency.
(d) 1001 Hz is definitely not the fundamental frequency of the string.

15. Two infinite sheets of uniform charge density +s and –s are parallel to each other as shown in the figure. Electric
+ –
field at the + –
–
(a) points to the left or to the right of the sheets is zero. + –
+ –
+ –
(b) midpoint between the sheets is zero –
+ –
+ –
(c) midpoint of the sheets is /0 and directed towards right. –
+ –
(d) midpoint of the sheet is 2/0 and directed towards right. + –
+ –

[4] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

 CHEMISTRY
SECTION- I: STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 16 to 25. Each question has 4 choice
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY-ONE is correct

16. The value of n in the molecular formula BenAl2Si6O18 is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
17. The species having pyramidal shape is
(a) SO3 (b) BrF 3 (c) SiO 32 (d) OSF2

18. The synthesis of 3-octyne is achieved by adding a bromoalkane into a mixture of sodium amide and an alkyne.
The bromoalkane and alkyne respective are

(a) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3 CH2CCH (b) BrCH2 CH2CH3 and CH3 CH2CH2CCH

(c) BrCH2 CH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CCH (d) BrCH2 CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2CCH

19. Solubility product constants (K sp ) of salts of types MX, MX 2 and M 3 X at temperature “T” are
4.0 × 10–8, 3.2 × 10–14 and 2.7 × 10–15, respectively. Solubilities (mol dm–3) of the salts at temperature “T” are in
the order
(a) MX > MX2 > M3X (b) M3X > MX2 > MX (c) MX2 > M3X > MX (d) MX > M3X >MX2

20. In the following reaction sequence, the correct structures of E, F and G are

O O
I2
 [E] 
Heat
 
NaOH [F] + [G]
Ph * OH
(* implies 13C labelled carbon)

O O O O
(a) E = F= G = CHI3 (b) E = * F= G = CHI3
Ph * CH3 Ph * ONa Ph CH3 Ph ONa

O O O O
*
(c) E = * F= G = CHI3 (d) E = * F= G = *CH3I
Ph CH3 Ph ONa Ph CH3 Ph ONa

[5] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

21. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives
(a) Na 2 S 4 O 6 (b) NaHSO4 (c) NaOH (d) SO2
2 2
22. 2.5 mL of M weak monoacidic base (Kb = 1 × 10–12 at 25°C) is titrated with M HCl in water at 25°C. The
5 15
+ –14
concentration of H at equivalence point is (Kw = 1 × 10 at 25°C)
(a) 3.7 × 10–13 M (b) 3.2 × 10–7 M (c) 3.2 × 10–2 M (d) 2.7 × 10–2 M

23. The reaction of P4 with X leads selectively to P4O6. The X is

(a) Dry O2 (b) A mixture of O2 and N2
(c) Moist O2 (d) O2 in the presence of aqueous NaOH

24. For the reaction PCl5(g) ‡ˆ ˆˆ †ˆ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g); which of the following conditions are correct?
(a) H < 0 & S < 0 (b) H > 0 & S < 0 (c) H = 0 & S < 0 (d) H > 0 & S > 0

25. If work done by a gas is 144.5 J when heat given to the gas in isobaric process is 506 J. Then the gas is
(a) SO2 (b) NH 3 (c) He (d) O 2

SECTION- II: MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 26 to 30. Each question has 4 choice (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct

26. Aqueous solutions of HNO3, KOH, CH3COOH and CH3COONa of identical concentrations are provided. The
pair(s) of solutions which form a buffer upon mixing is(are)
(a) HNO2 and CH3COOH (b) KOH and CH3COONa
(c) HNO3 and CH3COONa (d) CH3COOH and CH3COONa

OH

27. In the reaction NaOH (aq )/Br2

  the intermediate is(are)

- -
O O O -
O
Br

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Br Br Br
Br Br

[6] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

28. In the reaction: [BH 2 (X) 2 ] [BH 4 ] the amine(s) X is(are)
2X  B 2 H 6 
(a) NH 3 (b) CH 3 NH 2 (c) (CH3 )2 NH (d) (CH3 ) 3 N

29. The correct statement(s) concerning the structures E, F and G is (are)

H 3C O H 3C OH H 3C CH3

H 3C CH3 H 3C CH3 H 3C OH
(E) (F) (G)
(a) F and G are diastereomers (b) E, F and E, G are tautomers
(c) F and G are geometrical isomers (d) none of these

30. Which of the following expression is correct for an adiabatic process?

1 1
T2  V1  P2  T1  
(a) =  (b) =  (c) P1V1 = P2V2 (d) P1V1 = P2V2
T1  V2  P1  T2 

MATHEMATICS
SECTION- I: STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 31 to 40. Each question has 4 choice
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY-ONE is correct

x  1  sin x 
31. e   dx equals
 1  cos x 

x x
(a) ex + tan x + c (b) e x tan  c (c) ex cot x + c
x
(d) e cot c
2 2

1  ln x
32.  4  x ln x 2
dx equals

1 1
(a) ln | 4  x ln x 2 | c (b) ln | 4  x ln x 2 |  c
2 4
1 1
(c) ln | 2  x ln x 2 | c (d) ln | 2  x ln x 2 |  c
2 2

[7] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

 sec2 d 
33. The value of  (sec   tan )4 =

1 (sec   tan )5 1 (sec   tan )5

(a)  (sec   tan )3  C (b) (sec   tan )3  C
6 4 6 5
4
1 3 (sec   tan )
(c) (sec   tan )  C (d) none of these
6 4
2 log(  x )
34. The function g ( x )  e x ( x  0) is
log (e  x)
(a) increasing on [0, )
(b) decreasing on [0, )
(c) increasing on [0, /e) & decreasing on [/e, )
(d) decreasing on [0, /e) & increasing on [/e, )

35. If f(x) = x2 + 2bx + 2c2 and g(x) = – x2 – 2cx + b2 are such that min f(x) > max g(x), then the relation between
b and c is
(a) no relation (b) 0 < c < b/2 (c) | c | < | b | 2 (d) | c | > | b | 2

[ x ]  [2 x]  [3 x]  ...  [ nx]
36. If [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x then lim equals
n  n2
(a) x/2 (b) x/3 (c) x (d) 0

37. Area enclosed by the curve | x + y – 1 | + | 2x + y – 1 | = 1 is

(a) 2 sq unit (b) 3 sq unit (c) 6 sq unit (d) 7 sq unit

dy y ( x  y ln y )
38. Solution of the differential equation  is
dx x ( x ln x  y )

x ln x  y ln y x ln x  y ln y ln x ln y ln x ln y
(a)  c (b) c (c)  c (d)  c
xy xy x y x y

et dt
1 b e  t dt
39. If 0 t  1  a , then b1 t  b  1 is equal to
(a) ae b (b) ae b (c) be  a (d) aeb

[8] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

 1
40. If f (x) = f(x) +  0
f ( x) dx and given f(0) = 1, then f(x) is equal to

ex 1 e  2e x  1  e  ex 2e x
(a)   (b)   (c) (d)
2  e 1 e  3e 3e 2e 3e

SECTION- II: MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 41 to 45. Each question has 4 choice (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct

41. The equations of the tangents to the curve y = x4 from the point (2, 0) not on the curve, are given by

1098 2048  8 32 80  2
(a) y = 0 (b) y – 1 = 5(x – 1) (c) y    x   (d) y   x 
81 27  3 243 81  3

 | x  2|
 for x  2
42. If f ( x )   tan 1 ( x  2) then
 2 for x  2

(a) f is continuous at x = – 2 (b) f is not derivable at x = – 2

(c) f is not continuous at x = – 2 (d) f is continuous at x = – 2 but not derivable.

43. Solution of the differential equation (1 + y2)dx = (tan–1y – x)dy is

1 1 1 1
(a) xe tan y
 (1  tan 1 y )e tan y
c (b) xe tan y
 (tan 1 y  1)e tan y
c
1  tan 1 y
(c) x  tan y  1  ce (d) none of these
(where c is arbitrary constant)

44. The tangent at any point P on y = f(x) meets x-axis and y-axis at A and B respectively. If PA : PB = 2 : 1, then
the equation of the curve, is
(a) | x | y = c (b) x2 | y | = c (c) | x | y2 = c (d) | x | = cy2

45 Which of the following is/are true

1 1 2 2
x2 x3 2 3
(a)  2 dx   2 dx
0 0
(b)  2 x dx   2 x dx
1 1
2 2 4 4
(c)  ln xdx   (ln x)
2
dx (d)  ln xdx   (ln x )2 dx
1 1 3 3

[9] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

 0 0 0 0 0 0
SECTION- III: INTEGER ANSWER TYPE 1 1 1 1 1 1
This section contains 15 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5
is to be darkened in the ORS. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers 6 6 6 6 6 6
to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example: 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8
If answer of question number (1) is 8, then the correct darkening of bubbles will 9 9 9 9 9 9

look like the following.

PHYSICS

1. A train of length l is moving with a constant speed v along a circular track of radius R. The engine of the train
emits a whistle of frequency f. The frequency of heard by a guard at the rear end of the train. (make suitable
assumption) is nf. Find n.

2. A point charge Q is located on the axis of a disc of radius R at a

distance a from the plane of the disc. If one fourth (1/4th) of the flux R

R
from the charge passes through the disc, then value of a is .
n a
Find n. Q

3. Two thin conducting shells of radii R and 3R are shown in the figure. The outer +Q
3R
shell carries a charge +Q and the inner shell is neutral. The inner shell is earthed
R S
with the help of switch S. The magnitude of charge attained by the inner shell
= Q/n. Find n.

4. A solid conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is enclosed by a thin metallic shell of radius 20 cm. A charge q = 20 µC
is given to the inner sphere. The heat generated in the process if the inner sphere is connected to teh shell by a
conducting wire, is n Joules. Find n.

5. The resistor in which maximum heat will be produced is n. find n.

V

[10] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

CHEMISTRY

6. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is

H 3 PO 4 H2 SO 4 H 3 PO 3 H2 CO 3 H2 S 2 O 7
H3 BO 3 H 3 PO 2 H2 CrO4 H2 SO 3

7. How many of the structurally isomeric pentyl alcohol will produce immediate turbidity in Lucas test?

8. A 4:1 molar mixture of He and CH4 is contained in a vessel at 20 bar pressure. Due to a hole in the vessel, the gas
mixture leak out. The composition of the mixture effusing out initially is x : 1. What is the value of x?

9. It is known that enthalpy of neutralisation of a strong acid and strong base is –13.68 kcal/mol. If enthalpy of
neutralisation of N2H4 (hydrazine) with strong acid is equal to –11.68 kcal/mol, then enthalpy of the reaction
N2H4 + H2O  N2H5+(aq) + OH– (aq) in Kcal/mol is:

10. 20% surface sites have adsorbed N2. On heating gas is evolved from sites and were collected at 10–3 atm and
298 K in a container of volume 2.46 cm3. Density of surface sites is 6.023 × 1014 cm–2 and surface area is
1000 cm2. Find out the no. of surface sites occupied per molecule of N2?

MATHEMATICS
11. The number of ponits on the curve 5x2–8xy+5y2 = 4 whose distance from the the origin is maximum or minima is
12. The number of integral values of 6b for which the equation (x3/3) – x = b has three distinct solutions is

4   x
13.  sin x cos3 x  e| x| ln  dx is
    x

14. The number of points where f(x) = sin–1 [2x/(1+x2)] is non-differentiable is

1  (1  t )t
15. The value of lim is equal to
t 0 ln(1  t )  t



[11] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I

 JEE-ADVANCE: TEST-3
TEST SERIES
PAPER-I
Time : 3 hrs. M.M.: 180
PBG
S
TESTET
CODE - A -1
ANSWERS
Physics: Section I to II

1 (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b)

7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (c,d) 12. (d)

13. (c) 14. (b,c,d) 15. (a,c)

Chemistry: Section I to II

16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (b)

22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (c,d) 27. (a,c)
28. (a,b,c) 29. (a,b,c) 30. (a,c)

Mathematics: Section I to II
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (a,c) 42. (b,c)
43. (b,c) 44. (c,d) 45. (a,c)
Section-III (PCM)

1 (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (9) 5. (4) 6. (6)

7. (1) 8. (8) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (7)

13. (0) 14. (2) 15. (2)

[12] JEE-Advance Test-3 Paper-I