0% found this document useful (0 votes)
31 views

14 Unit 14

This document contains a test with 45 multiple choice questions covering topics in evolution, genetics, and biotechnology. The test was created by Dr. Muhammad Arslan and is intended for UHS students. The questions cover various genetics and evolutionary topics including sex determination, sex chromosomes, sex-linked traits, color blindness, evolution theories of Darwin and Lamarck, evidence for evolution, and concepts in biotechnology like recombinant DNA.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
31 views

14 Unit 14

This document contains a test with 45 multiple choice questions covering topics in evolution, genetics, and biotechnology. The test was created by Dr. Muhammad Arslan and is intended for UHS students. The questions cover various genetics and evolutionary topics including sex determination, sex chromosomes, sex-linked traits, color blindness, evolution theories of Darwin and Lamarck, evidence for evolution, and concepts in biotechnology like recombinant DNA.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
You are on page 1/ 4

BIOLOGY Dr Muhammad Arslan

Cell #.0300-9767341
UHS TOPIC WISE TEST (UNIT–14)
TOPICS

 Evolution & Genetics


 Biotechnology

Q.1 The male of grasshoppers and bugs possess two sets of autosomes and
A) Only Y – Chromosome C) X and Y – Chromosome
B) Only X – Chromosome D) Neither X nor Y – Chromosome
Q.2 Balance Theory of sex determination holds good for
A) Humans C) Allium cepa
B) Drosophilla D) Grasshoppers
Q.3 Drosophilla melanogaster has
A) 1 pair of autosomes and 3 pairs of sex chromosomes
B) 2 pair of autosomes and 2 pairs of sex chromosomes
C) 3 pair of autosomes and 1 pairs of sex chromosomes
D) 2 pair of autosomes and 1 pairs of sex chromosomes
Q.4 Sex determination in Drosophilla melanogaster is based on
A) Pseudoalleles
B) XY – Chromosomes mechanism
C) Chromosome environment
D) Genetic balance between X – Chromosome and autosomes
Q.5 2A + XO Drosophilla are
A) Intersex C) Fertile female
B) Sterile male D) Sterile female
Q.6 Pick the chromosomal formulation is responsible for the expression of meta – male
character in Drosophilla
A) 2A + 3X C) 4A + 3X
B) 3A + 3X D) 3A + XY
Q.7 Sex determining chromosomes are called
A) Autosomes C) Centrosomes
B) Heterosomes D) None of these
Q.8 Sex chromosomes of a male are
A) Autosomes C) Homozygous
B) Hemizygous D) Heterozygous
Q.9 Sex chromosomes are also called
A) Allosomes C) Hemisomes
B) Autosomes D) None of these
Q.10 Sex chromosomes are found in the cell of
A) Testes C) Kidney and liver
B) Ovaries D) All of these
Q.11 Drosophilla belongs to arthropoda and its sex is determined by male, in other
arthropods like butterfly and moth which individual determines sex?
A) Male C) Both “A” and “B”
B) Female D) None of these
Q.12 What is true about the round worm i.e. Ascaris incurva
A) Have compound sex chromosomes
B) X – Chromosomes present in both sex with 2:1
C) No. of autosomes is same but total no. of chromosome is different
D) All of these

Page 1 of 4
Q.13 A gamete without any sex chromosome is called nullo gamete, are produced in
which of the following type?
A) ZZ – ZW C) XY – XX
B) XO – XX D) None of these
Q.14 Which species of eukaryotes depend on genic system for sex determination?
A) Having compound sex chromosome
B) Having nullo gametes
C) Having sex chromosomes and autosomes balance
D) Having no sex chromosomes
Q.15 The sex ratio between male and female offspring is 1:1 in XY – XX type which
would be the sex ratio of XO – XX type having a gamete with any sex chromosomes?
A) 2 : 1 C) Can not be predicted
B) 1 : 1 D) Not applicable
Q.16 The trait whose gene are located on X – Chromosomes are known as
A) Sex – linked C) Sex controlled
B) Sex – limited D) Sex influenced
Q.17 Criss cross inheritance is observed for the genes present on
A) Autosomes C) X – Chromosomes
B) Y – Chromosomes D) X & Y both chromosomes
Q.18 In man sex linked characters are only transmitted through?
A) Autosomes C) Y – Chromosomes
B) X – Chromosomes D) X & Y both chromosomes
Q.19 The recessive genes located on X – chromosome in humans are
A) Lethal C) Expressed in males
B) Sub lethal D) Expressed in females
Q.20 A hereditary disease which is never pass on from father to son is?
A) X – Chromosomal linked disease C) Autosomal linked disease
B) Y – Chromosomal linked disease D) None of these
Q.21 Sex linked characters are usually
A) Pleiotropic C) Dominant
B) Lethal D) Recessive
Q.22 Women rarely expressed sex linked defects because they must be
A) Carrier C) Heterozygous
B) Homozygous D) Develop immunity
Q.23 A single recessive trait which can express its effects should occur on
A) Any autosome C) X – Chromosome of male
B) Any chromosome D) X – Chromosome of female
Q.24 A child gets sex linked traits from
A) Father C) Both from father and mother
B) Mother D) None of these
Q.25 Testicular feminization syndrome is
A) Y – linked dominant C) X – linked recessive
B) Y – linked recessive D) X – linked dominant
Q.26 Colour blindness in man is
A) Dominant character C) Sex limited character
B) Sex - linked character D) Sex influenced character
Q.27 One of the gene present exclusive on the X – Chromosome in human is concerned with
A) Baldness C) Red green colour blindness
B) Night blindness D) Facial hair in males
Q.28 Colour blindness results from
A) Inverted retina C) Abnormal cones
B) Obsence of rods D) Absence of eye lid
Q.29 Colour blindness is inherited in
A) Males only C) Both male and female
B) Female only D) None of these
Q.30 A normal woman whose father was colour blind is married to a normal man. The
sons would be
A) All normal C) 50% colour blind
B) All colour blind D) 75% colour blind
Q.31 If husband and wife have normal vision, but fathers of both were colour blind,
probability of their daughter to be colour blind is
Page 2 of 4
A) 0% C) 50%
B) 25% D) 100%
Q.32 The female children of a halemophilic man and carrier woman are likely to be?
A) All carriers C) Half normal and half carriers
B) All haemophilic D) Half haemophilic and half
Q.33 Concept of evolution is an excellent working hypothesis to approach the problem of
A) Matter, energy and life C) Prodigality in reproduction
B) Environmental conditions D) Diversity of organism upon earth carrier
Q.34 Darwin proposed that new species evolved from the ancestral forms by the
A) Accumulation of mutations
B) Struggle for limited resources
C) Inheritance of acquired adaptation to the environment
D) Gradual accumulation of adaptations to changing environment
Q.35 Who said that the traits acquired by the parents during their life time could pass on
to their offspring?
A) Darwin C) Sutton
B) Lamarck D) Lyell
Q.36 The presence of gill slits in the embryos of all vertebrates supports the theory of
A) Biogenesis C) Recapitulation
B) Metamorphosis D) Organic evolution
Q.37 “Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” is the brief definition of
A) Darwinism C) Mutation theory
B) Abiogensis D) Biogenetic law
Q.38 The most direct evidence of organic evolution is
A) Vestigial organ C) Fossil
B) Metamorphosis D) All of these
Q.39 Palaneontology deals with
A) Evolution of life C) Developing embrayo
B) Extinct life D) All of these
Q.40 The most important theory of general biology was proposed by
A) Beadle and Tatum C) Waston and Circk
B) Darwin and Wallace D) Mendel and Morgan
Q.41 The first attempt to solve the problem of mechanism of organic evolution was made by
A) Oparin C) Wallace
B) Darwin D) Lamarck
Q.42 The basis of lamarckism is
A) Reduction of organ C) Effect of environment
B) Effect of metabolism D) Development of organ
Q.43 Struggle for existence and survival of fittest are related to
A) Mendelism C) Oparin’s theory
B) Lamarckism D) Darwinism
Q.44 r – DNA is a
A) Chimaric DNA
B) Hybrid DNA – RNA
C) Recombination of vector DNA and desired gene
D) Both “A” and “C”
Q.45 Foreign DNA is also called
A) Vehicle DNA C) r – DNA
B) Passenger DNA D) Vector DNA

Q.46 E. Coli is frequently used for


A) Isolating plasmids C) Experimental material for genetic engineering
B) Cloning r – DNA D) All of these
Q.47 Phage mediated transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to the other is
referred to as
A) Conjugation C) Transduction
B) Transformation D) Translation
Q.48 Plasmid are
A) ss – DNA C) ds – DNA (circular)
B) ds – DNA (linear) D) Denatured DNA
Q.49 Plasmids can be taked out from bacterial cell after
Page 3 of 4
A) Killing
B) Boiling
C) Freezing
D) Using CaCl2 and slightly raising the temperature
Q.50 Which of the following is a palindrome
A) GAATTC C) TACGGA
B) GCCATT D) TAGACC
Q.51 During PCR, segment of DNA which is going to be amplified is determined by
A) Primer C) Both “A” and “B”
B) DNA Polymerase D) None of these
Q.52 Phenotypically XXXY would be
A) Male C) Ambiguous
B) Female D) All are possible
Q.53 A disease which effects „all generations‟ and specifically lethal in males would be
A) Autosomal dominant C) Autosomal recessive
B) X – linked dominant D) X – linked recessive
Q.54 Growth gene in human beings affects both height and weight. This phenomenon is
known as
A) Pleiotropy C) Bombay phenotype
B) Epistasis D) Translocation
Q.55 Genes for gene therapy are generally obtained from
A) Genomic DHA library C) Both of these
B) cDNA library D) None of these
Q.56 Transgenic animals prepared through
A) Genetic engineering C) Mutation
B) Cloning D) PCR
Q.57 A gene arising as a result of mutation is usually
A) Recessive C) CO – dominant
B) Dominant D) Level
Q.58 Transgenic animals are produced for
A) Study of genetics C) Eugenic aims
B) Protection of environment D) All of these
Q.59 The first step in polymerase chain reaction is?
A) Primer extension C) Annealing
B) Denaturation D) Cooling
Q.60 A child is blood type „O‟ his father is type A and mother is type AB. This result is
because of?
A) Pleiotropy C) Multiple allel
B) Codeminance D) Epistasis

Page 4 of 4

You might also like