AIATS For One Year Medical-2019 (XII

Studying)_Practice Test-01
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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 1
(skipped)

A charge +q having mass m is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. Momentum
acquired by the charge after time t is

Options:
qEt

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint:

Solution:
Step 1:

Step 2:

⇒ pf = qEt

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 2
(skipped)

Two electric dipoles of dipole moment 2 Cm and 4 Cm respectively are kept inside a cube of
side'a' m. Total electric flux linked with the cube is (in SI units)

Options:

Zero
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1: Net charge of an electric dipole is zero, irrespective of its dipole moment.

Step 2: So qnet = 0, hence flux through the cube is

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 3
(skipped)

A block of mass m having charge –q is placed midway between two parallel walls. A uniform
electric field is switched on as shown in figure. The time after which it will collide with the
right wall for the first time is [All collisions are elastic and surfaces are smooth]
Options:

It will not collide with the right wall

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Work done by conservative force in a closed path is zero.

Solution:

Step 1: Force on the block due to electric field

F = qE towards the left wall

It rebounds with same speed due to elastic collision.

Step 2: Now electric force does negative work as it is in opposite direction of velocity. Speed
of block becomes zero, when it reaches in between two walls and process is repeated. It will
not collide with right wall.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 4

If an electric dipole is kept in a uniform external electric field then

Options:
Net force on the dipole is always zero
Net torque on the dipole will never be zero
The dipole has minimum potential energy when it is directed in the direction of
external electric field
Both (1) & (3)
Solution :

Answer (4)
Hint: Dipole is positive-negative charge pair.

Solution:

Step 1:

Step 2: = –PEcosθ

PEmin = –PE

when, cosθ = 1

θ = 0°

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 5
(skipped)

Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of
lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The
charges begin to leak from both the spheres. As a result, the spheres approach each other with

constant relative speed v, then (x is separation at any time t), the rate of charge leakage
is proportional to

Options:
x1/2
x–1/2
x
x–1
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: (C is a constant)

Solution:

Step 1: Let at a given instant distance between two charges is x (x << l). Then
 ...(1)

...(2)

Dividing eq (1) by eq (2).

[For small θ, tanθ sinθ]

⇒ ...(3)

Step 2:

(k is constant)

[from eqn (3)]

So, for constant v

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 6
(skipped)

Two charges +q each are fixed separated by distance 2d. A third charge –Q of mass m placed
at the mid-point is slightly displaced by x (x << d) perpendicular to the line joining the two
fixed charges as shown in the figure. Time period of SHM of charge –Q will be
Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: T =

Solution:

Step 1: When charge –Q is displaced by x(x << d), then force due to individual charge is of
magnitude,

Resultant force on charge – Q

Step 2: Comparing with equation of SHM.

We get,

So,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 7
(skipped)

In the figure shown below, charge flown through switch 'S' after closing it, in the direction
indicated by arrow is

Options:
40 μC
90 μC
130 μC
50 μC
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: joining two plates.

Solution:

Step 1: Before closing the switch, both capacitors are in series.

Net charge joining plate numbers (2) and (3) is zero; so qi = 0.

Step 2: After closing the switch, p.d. across 2 μF capacitor = 20 V;

So charge on plate number 2 = –40 μC.

Charge on plate number 3 = +90 μC

⇒ qf = (– 40 + 90) = +50 μC;

So (Δq)s = 50 μC

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 8
(skipped)

A positive point charge 20 μC is located at the point where and are the unit
vectors along the x axis and y axis respectively. Electric field at a point having position vector
will be

Options:
N/C

N/C
N/C
N/C
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1: Position vector of the point w.r.t. position of point charge

Step 2:
 N/C

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 9
(skipped)

A point charge q is kept on equatorial position of an electric dipole of dipole moment p at

distance r as shown in the figure. Electric potential at the centre of dipole is

Options:

Zero

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Potential at the centre of dipole is zero, due to its own charges.

Solution:

Step 1: Potential at the centre of dipole due to its own charge,

Step 2: Potential due to point charge q at the given point,

So total electric potential,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 10
(skipped)
A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by connecting it to a battery of emf E. Now capacitor
is disconnected from this battery and is connected to another battery of emf 3E, with positive
plate of the capacitor with positive terminal of the battery. Heat developed in the circuit in
second case is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1: Initial charge on the capacitor qi = CE

Final charge on the capacitor, qf = 3CE

So, charge flown through the battery

...(1)

Step 2: Work done by battery.

...(2)

Initial potential energy stored in the capacitor,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 11
(skipped)

Choose incorrect statement

Options:
 The electrostatic potential of every point at the surface of conductor is same
Electrostatic field lines are always normal to the surface of conductor
Electrostatic field inside a conductor is non-zero
Both (1) & (3)
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Properties of conductor in electrostatics.

Solution:

Step 1:

Step 2: For conductor

= 0, because charge resides on surface.

⇒E=0

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 12
(skipped)

Three large conducting charged sheets are kept parallel to each other as shown in figure. Net
force experienced by a charge +q placed between plates A and B is

Options:
Zero
Towards right
Towards left
Both (2) & (3) are possible
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: F = qE
Solution: Charge on plates are redistributed as shown in the figure.

Now electric field at the position of charge,

So,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 13
(skipped)

Three point charges are placed on the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side 'a' as
shown in figure. Potential energy of charge q is U0. When this charge is moved to point D
then its potential energy will be

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Potential energy: U = qV

Solution: Electric potential at C due to charges at A and B.

So, potential energy of charge q at C.

...(1)

Now, Electric potential at point D

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 14
(skipped)

A ring of radius r is charged in such a way that its part has uniform positive charge

density (λ) and the remaining part has uniform negative charge density (–λ). The
potential at the centre of ring is (Consider SI units for all quantities)

Options:

Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1:

Step 2 :

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 15
(skipped)

The electrostatic potential existing in space is given by V = (xy + yz + zx) volts, where x, y
and z are in metres. The angle made by electric field at (2 m, 2 m, 2 m) with positive x-axis
is α. Then

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint:

Solution:
At (2 m, 2 m, 2 m),

N/C

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 16
(skipped)

A parallel plate capacitor is completely filled with two dielectric of dielectric constants
and as shown in the figure. When capacitor is charged by a battery, the ratio of charges
on the two parts of the same plate is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)
Hint:

Solution: As p.d. between two metal plates is equal,

⇒ ... (1)

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 17
(skipped)

A uniform electric field E = 2 × 106 Vm–1 is directed along positive X axis. A point charge
+20 μC is placed at origin and another point charge of – 20 μC is placed at (4 m, 0). The
electrostatic potential energy of the system is

Options:
160.9 J
159.1 J
– 120 J
– 169 J
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint:

Solution:
Let V1 and V2 are electrostatic potential at the positions of charges q1 and q2 respectively, due
to external field.

Now,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 18
(skipped)

Four capacitors with their capacitances and breakdown voltages are connected as shown in
the figure. What can be the maximum voltage V applied safely?

Options:
10 kV
9 kV
2 kV
6 kV
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Maximum safe voltage for combination is smaller of maximum voltage across either
row.

Solution: Maximum charge for C1

(q1)max = C1(V1)max = 12 mC

Similary,
As C1 and C2 are in series, maximum charge can be smaller of these two, i.e., 12 mC.
Equivalent capacitance for upper row CU = 2 μF. So maximum voltage for upper row.

For lower row of capacitors,

, mC

⇒ .

So,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 19
(skipped)

In the given figure, charge on the capacitor in steady state is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint:

Solution: In steady state no current flows through the capacitor.

 ... (1)

From loop rule,

⇒ ...(2)

So, charge on the capacitor

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 20
(skipped)

Two concentric metallic shell have radii 10 cm and 20 cm. The outer shell is given a positive
charge 5 μC and the inner shell is earthed. What is the charge on the inner shell?

Options:
–5 μC
–2.5 μC
2.5 μC
5 μC
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: After earthing, potential of inner shell becomes zero.

Solution:

Step 1:
Q = 5 × 10–6 C

x = charge on inner shell

Step 2: Potential of inner shell

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 21
(skipped)

Two point charges – 4Q and +Q are placed on X axis as shown in the figure. Distance
between two charges is 4 m. Electrostatic potential is zero on the X axis at a distance.

Options:

m from charge +Q

m from charge –4Q

m from charge –4Q

Both (1) and (3) are correct
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Potential on the straight line joining two charges will be zero at two points. One in
between two charges, another outside closer to smaller charge.

Solution:

For point C:
⇒

⇒ m

So, from + Q charge (4 – 3.2) = 0.8 m

For point D:

⇒ m from + Q

⇒ from 4Q.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 22
(skipped)

A capacitor of capacitance 2 μF is given a charge 20 μC. It is connected with a battery of emf

10 V as shown in figure. Switch S is closed at time t = 0. Initial current in the circuit is

Options:
Zero

1A
2A
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Initial p.d. across the capacitor

Solution: Initial p.d. across the capacitor

After closing the switch at t = 0,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 23
(skipped)

Two cells A and B of equal emf E are having internal resistances r1 and r2 (r2 > r1)
respectively. These two cells are connected in series with external resistance R = (r2 – r1) as
shown in the figure. Terminal potential difference across one cell is zero. The cell is

Options:
A
B
Both A and B
Not possible for given value of R
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Potential difference will be zero across the cell having higher internal resistance.

Solution: Current flowing the circuit

 ...(i)

For p.d. to be zero.

⇒ ...(ii)

From equation (i) + (ii),

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 24
(skipped)

Electrical power is transmitted from power stations to different places via transmission cables
at very high voltage to/for

Options:
Minimize power loss during transmission
Safety of people
Maximize power loss during transmission
Both (2) and (3)
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Power loss during transmission

Solution: Power loss, , R is resistance of transmission cable

Where P is power transmitted.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 25
(skipped)

A variable resistor R is connected across a cell of emf ε and internal resistance r. Potential
difference V across R is measured and V – R graph is plotted as shown in the figure. Internal
resistance of the cell is
Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: ; when ;

Solution: From graph,

volt ...(1)

and when R = 3 Ω, volt

So,

⇒ 12 + 4r = 15

⇒ .

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 26
(skipped)

In the figure given below, current flowing in 6 Ω resistor is 2 A. The emf E of the battery is
Options:
84 V
24 V
96 V
80 V
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: .

I is main current

Solution:

P.D. across 6 Ω resistor

So, current through 3 Ω resistor

current through 2 Ω resistor

Main current I = 12 A

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 27
(skipped)

When a cell discharges then inside the cell

Options:
Positive charges move from negative terminal to positive terminal of the cell due to
electrostatic field
Negative charges move from negative terminal to positive terminal of the cell due to
non-electrostatic field
Positive charges move from positive terminal to negative terminal of the cell due to
non-electrostatic field
Positive charges move from negative terminal to positive terminal of the cell due to
non-electrostatic field
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Non electrostatic field

Solution:

When a cell discharges, current inside the cell flows from negative terminal to positive
terminal.

Electrostatic field opposes the motion of cations. Non-electrostatic field En exerts a force
towards positive terminal on cations.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 28

In the given figure if V is the potential difference between C and D and I is the current
flowing through it then
Options:
V = 0, I = 0

V = 0, I ≠ 0

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Even if ; I can be non zero if

Solution:

Potential of C and D is same.

RAC = 2 Ω and RCB = 2 Ω

So, VAC = VCB = 6 V

So, from C to D.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 29
(skipped)

Two cylindrical wires of same material and equal length are having ratio of their radii 1 : 2.
These wires are connected with a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of current in two
wires is Ir and that of drift speed is vr. Then
Options:

Will depend on R
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: ; for parallel combination.

Solution: Ratio of resistance of two wires

[As ρ and l are same]

For parallel combination V is same.

So,

Also, for a given material

So, as E is same across both resistor

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 30
(skipped)

In a Meter Bridge shown in the figure, the null point is found at a distance m from A. If
now a resistance of 6 Ω is connected in parallel with S, the null point occurs at 60 cm from A,
then the value of S is

Options:
6Ω
12 Ω
4Ω
 20 Ω
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint:

Solution: Initially,

⇒ ⇒ S = 2R ...(i)

When 6 Ω resistor is joined across S, effective resistance of right hand arm becomes .

Now, ⇒

⇒ ⇒ S = 12 Ω

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 31

A carbon resistor of resistance MΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours

for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

Options:
Red – Green – Green – Gold
Red – Blue – Blue – Gold
Orange – Blue – Blue – Gold
Orange – Violet – Violet – Gold
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: B. B. ROY of Gr. Britain

Solution: Resistance is

i.e., %

So colour sequence will be

Orange – Blue – Blue – Gold

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 32
(skipped)

Driver battery of a potentiometer is having emf 16 V and internal resistance 1 Ω.

Potentiometer wire of length 10 m is having resistance 15 Ω. A cell of emf 1 V and internal
resistance 1 Ω is connected with the potentiometer as shown in the figure. Balanced length
from the left end, when switch S is closed, will be

Options:

m
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: V = kl

Solution: Current through the potentiometer wire

Potential gradient in wire

V/m. ...(1)

Now, terminal p.d. across 1 V cell

...(2)
As V = Kl

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 33

Electron mobility is

Options:
Always positive
Always negative
Always zero
May be positive or negative
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint:

Solution: Mobility is ratio of magnitude of drift velocity to the electric field. So it is positive
for both negative and positive charge.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 34
(skipped)

At temperature 23°C the resistance of a wire is 100 Ω. The temperature at which resistance
becomes 104 Ω is nearly (Given, temperature coefficient of resistance of material is 1.5 × 10–
4
°C–1 )

Options:
1027°C
827°C
290°C
290 K
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: R = R0 [1 + αΔT].

Solution: As percentage change is small formula

R = R0 [1 + αΔT] can be directly used.

∴ Tf = 267 + 23 ≈ 290°C.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 35
(skipped)

A cylinder of radius R is placed in an electric field as shown in the figure. The net
electric flux through the cylinder is (consider SI units for all)

Options:
Zero
(a2) R2
(3a2) R2
(5a2) R2
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1: Through curved surface = 0

Flux will be only through circular cross-section

Step 2:

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 36
The relation V = IR is applicable to (Symbols have their usual meanings)

Options:
All conducting devices

Only ohmic conductors

Only semiconductors
Only silver, copper and aluminium
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Definition of resistance.

Solution: Relation V = IR is definition of resistance which is applicable to all conducting

devices.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 37
(skipped)

A resistance of 1 Ω when connected across a cell of emf 3 V consumes power of 4 W. When

this resistance is replaced by another resistance R, then also same power is consumed. The
value of R is

Options:
4Ω
2Ω
0.25 Ω
3Ω
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: For same power,

Solution: P = I12 × R1 ⇒

⇒ ⇒1+r

⇒ r = 0.5 Ω

Now, For same power.

 ⇒

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 38

The maximum safe current which can pass through a fuse wire can be found using

Options:
Ohm's law
Kirchhoff's junction rule

Stefan's law
Wien's displacement law
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Rate of heat production = Rate of heat radiated.

Solution: In equilibrium rate of heat produced by fuse wire is equal to rate of heat radiated,
which can be calculated from Stefan's law.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 39
(skipped)

Four identical bulbs are connected as shown in the figure. When switch S is closed, power
consumed by bulb B1 is P. Power consumed by bulb B3 when S is opened

Options:
P

Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint: P = I2R

Solution: Let resistane of each bulb is R.

When switch is closed, main current

... (1)

Power consumed by bulb B1.

...(2)

When switch is open, same current flows through B1, B2 and B3. So power consumed by B3,

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 40
(skipped)

In the given figure, potential at point A is

Options:

– 10 V
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: No current flows through 4 Ω resistor.

Solution:

As current flowing through a particular cell is same. No current flows through 4 Ω resistor
connecting two loops.

Now,

⇒ volt.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 41

When a voltmeter is connected across 150 Ω resistance as shown in the figure, it reads 6 V.
When this voltmeter is connected across 900 Ω resistor, its reading will be

Options:
12 V
24 V
36 V
48 V
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Voltmeter reading

Solution: In the first case.

Voltmeter reading is 6 V, so p.d. across 900 Ω resistor is (60 – 6) = 54 V.

Main current is

Now,

⇒ ⇒ 3RV = 300 + 2RV

⇒ RV = 300 Ω

When voltmeter is connected across 900 Ω.

Equivalent resistance of 900 Ω and RV

Current

So voltmeter reading

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 42
(skipped)

In the circuit shown in the figure, the current flowing through 4 Ω resistor is

Options:

A from a to b

A from a to b

A from b to a
 A from b to a
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Kirchhoff's loop rule/node method.

Solution:

Applying KVL in loop 1:

⇒ 6I1 – 4I2 = 5 ... (i)

In loop 2:

⇒ 4I1 + 10I2 = 8 ...(ii)

On solving,

A and

So, current through 4 Ω resistor

A from b to a.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 43
(skipped)

In the given figure, the current flowing through 2 Ω resistor is

Options:
 12 A

A
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: I2Ω =

Solution: Let potential of junction is V.

From junction rule,

⇒ 20 – 6V = 5V – 36 ⇒ 11V = 156

⇒ volt.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 44
(skipped)

Charge flowing through a resistor of resistance R at any time t is given by ; where

'a' is a constant. The rate of heat generation in resistor at t = 0 is

Options:
 Zero
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 45
(skipped)

If we increase the potential difference across an ohmic resistor then

Options:
Conductivity increases
Electric field strength inside the resistor decreases
Current density remains unchanged
Drift velocity of electron increases
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint:

Solutions

Step 1:

Step 2: as v ↑ E ↑

as E ↑ J ↑

as E ↑ vd ↑

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 46

Sodium oxide has antifluorite structure. If 'a' is the edge length of unit cell then the nearest
distance between the centres of Na+ and O2– is
Options:

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : In antifluorite structure, anion form fcc lattice and cation occupy all the tetrahedral
voids.

Sol.: Nearest distance between Na+ and O2– = r+ + r– =

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 47

Incorrect statement regarding voids is

Options:
In ccp unit cell, there are total nine voids along all the body diagonals

In ccp unit cell, the nearest distance between two tetrahedral voids is (a = edge
length)
In hcp unit cell, all octahedral voids lie inside the unit cell
In simple cubic unit cell, there are two cubical voids in one unit cell
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : In simple cubic unit cell atoms are present at each corner of cube.

Sol. : In simple cubic unit cell there is one cubical void at body centre of unit cell.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 48
(skipped)

The freezing point depression constant of H2O is 1.86 K kg mol–1. When 3.42 g of Al2(SO4)3
is dissolved in 90 g H2O, the freezing point of solution becomes –0.50 °C. The van't Hoff
factor for Al2(SO4)3 is [Given : Molar mass of Al2(SO4)3 = 342 g/mole]
Options:
3.52
2.42
5
4.12
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : ΔTf = i Kfm

Sol. : m =

ΔTf = i Kfm

i= = 2.42

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 49
(skipped)

A solution containing 20 g/dm3 of glucose (C6H12O6) is isotonic with 4% solution of a

strong electrolyte of type AB. The molar mass of the electrolyte is

Options:
1440 g mol–1
720 g mol–1
360 g mol–1
220 g mol–1
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : i1C1 = i2C2

Sol. :

⇒ MAB = = 720 g mol–1

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 50
(skipped)

An ideal solution has 2 : 3 mole ratio of two volatile liquids A and B. The vapour pressure of
pure liquids A and B at 25°C are 220 mm of Hg and 180 mm of Hg respectively. The mole
fraction of A in the vapour phase would be

Options:
0.45
0.90
0.36
0.72
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : PA = YA Ptotal, where YA : mole fraction of A in vapour phase.

Sol. : ∴ YA =

= = 0.45

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 51
(skipped)

100 g of 20% (w/v) H2SO4 is electrolysed for 9.65 minute with current of 200 ampere having
50% current efficiency. The mass of solution left after the electrolysis is

Options:
90.35 g
94.6 g
84.34 g
88.12 g
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : During electrolysis :

At anode: 2H2O(l) O2 (g) + 4H+ + 4e–

At cathode: 2H+ + 2e– H2 (g)

Sol. :

No. of equivalents deposit = No. of Faradays passed

For O2:

Weight of Oxygen = 4.8 g

For H2 : = 0.6 g

Weight of solution Left = 100 – (4.8 + 0.6) = 94.6 g

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 52
(skipped)

If the standard reduction potential for Cu2+/Cu is +0.34 V, then the reduction potential at pH
= 12 for the above couple in saturated solution of Cu(OH)2 will be [Given, Ksp of Cu(OH)2 is
1.0 × 10–10]

Options:
0.16 V
0.52 V
0.32 V
0.26 V
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint :

Ksp of Cu(OH)2 = [Cu2+][OH–]2 ⇒ [Cu2+] =

Sol:

pH = 12 ⇒ pOH = 2

[OH–] = 10–2 M
⇒ [Cu2+] = = 10–6 M

Therefore, reduction potential of Cu2+ (aq) + 2e– Cu(s)

= = 0.16 V

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 53
(skipped)

Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is + 0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/Cr couple
is –0.74 V. The cell potential of given cell at 25°C will be

Options:
0.89
0.93
0.85
0.46
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint :

Cell equation, 2Cr(s) + 3Sn4+ (0.1 M) 2Cr3+

(0.01 M) + 3Sn2+ (0.1 M)

Sol. :

= 0.15 – (–0.74) = 0.89 V

Ecell =

= = 0.93 V

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 54
(skipped)

The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol L–1 s–1 at 20 second and 0.02 mol L–1 s–1 at 40
second after the initiation of the reaction. The half-life of the reaction is approximately

Options:
15 second
25 second
20 second
30 second
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint & Sol. : For first order reaction,

k=

⇒ t1/2 = 20 sec

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 55

If the initial concentration of reactants is reduced to half in a reaction, then the half life of a
reaction becomes two times. The order of the reaction is

Options:
0
1
2
3
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint.: , n is order of reaction

Sol.: For n = 2,

⇒
So on reducing the initial concentration of reactant to one half, the half life of reaction
becomes double.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 56
(skipped)

In the reaction

If rate of disappearance of Br– ion is 4.5 × 10–3 molL–1 s–1, then rate of appearance of Br2 is

Options:
9.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
1.35 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1
2.7 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
1.5 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Rate of reaction:

Sol.:

= 2.7 × 10–3 mol L–1 sec–1

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 57

Correct order of coagulating value of the following electrolytes for a positive charged sol is

Options:
Na3PO4 > Na2SO4 > NaCl
NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4

Na2SO4 > Na3PO4 > NaCl

Na2SO4 > NaCl > Na3PO4
Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint : Coagulation value is inversely proportional to flocculating power of an effective ion.

Sol.: According to Hardy-Schulze rule, greater the valency of the flocculating ion greater is
its power to cause coagulation.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 58
(skipped)

Incorrect statement regarding enzyme catalysis is

Options:
One enzyme can catalyse more than one reaction
Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme catalyst
The optimum pH for enzyme catalysed reaction is 5-7
Inhibitors reduce the catalytic activity of the enzyme
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Enzyme catalysis is highly specific in nature.

Sol. : Each enzyme is specific for a given reaction i.e., one catalyst cannot catalyze more than
one reaction.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 59
(skipped)

Which of the following is not a method of purification of colloidal solution?

Options:
Dialysis
Electrodialysis
Ultrafiltration
Electrophoresis
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Electrophoresis is the movement of colloidal particles under electric field.

Sol. : Dialysis, electrodialysis and ultrafiltration method are used for the purification of
colloids.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 60

A solid compound AB has CsCl type structure. If radius of cation (A+) is 120 pm, then the
maximum radius of anion (B–) will be

Options:
133.68 pm
163.93 pm
290.25 pm
309.83 pm
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : For BCC arrangement, = (0.732 to 1)

Sol. : = 0.732

∴ = 163.93

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 61

A mixed oxide has ccp structure. The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed of oxide
ions. One eighth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and half of
Octahedral voids are occupied by trivalent metal B. The formula of oxide is

Options:
A2B3O4
AB2O4

AB2O2
A2B2O
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : In ccp lattice, number of atoms = n

Then, number of octahedral voids = n

Number of tetrahedral voids = 2n

Sol. :

Number of oxide ions = n

Number of A2+ ion =

Number of B3+ ion =

Formula of mixed oxide is

⇒ A1/4B1/2O = AB2O4

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 62

Sodium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal. If atomic radius of sodium atom is
186 pm then the length of the side of unit cell is

Options:
526 pm
429.56 pm
372 pm
440.24 pm
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : For BCC , a =

Sol. : a = = 429.56 pm

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 63

In Fe0.96O, the percentage of Fe3+ in total iron present in the oxide is

Options:
8.33
11.23
15.94
 24.58
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Non-stoichiometric neutral compound Fe0.96O contains both Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions.

Sol. :

Fe0.96O = (Fe2+)0.96–x (Fe3+)x(O2–) 1

∴ Net charge = 0

(+2)(0.96 – x) + (+3)x + (–2)1 = 0

⇒ x = 0.08

∴ % of Fe3+ in total Fe =

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 64

The correct order of solubility of He, CO2 and O2 in water at 298 K and 1 atm is

Options:
He > O2 > CO2
O2 > CO2 > He
CO2 > O2 > He
CO2 > He > O2
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Higher the value of KH, lesser will be the solubility.

Sol. : KH value: He > O2 > CO2

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 65
(skipped)

The freezing point of 0.1 molal solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of Y
in water. Which one of the following conclusion can be drawn regarding X and Y?

Options:
X undergoes dissociation while Y does not
 X undergoes association while Y does not
Degree of dissociation of X is higher than degree of association of Y
Both X and Y do not dissociate or associate
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint :

For dissociation, i > 1

For association, i < 1

Sol. : ΔTf = i Kfm

∴ ΔTf ∝ i

Solution having lower value of 'i' will have high freezing point.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 66

The graph between PTotal (Total vapour pressure of solution) and XB (mole fraction of solute)
is given below ( : Vapour pressure of pure liquid A and is vapour pressure of pure liquid
B)

The slope of graph is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint : Total vapour pressure of solution containing two volatile liquids is given by Ptotal = PA
+ PB

Sol. :

PTotal =

Graph between Ptotal and XB will be straight line with.

∴ Slope =

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 67
(skipped)

Which of the following electrode does not have zero electrode potential?

Options:
Pt(s) | H2(g, 1 bar) | H+(aq, 1M)
Pt(s) | H2(g, 10–7 bar) | H+(aq, pH = 7)
Pt(s) | H2(g, 10–8 bar) | H+(aq, pH = 4)
Pt(s) | H2(g, 10–2 bar)| H+(aq, pH = 1)
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Electrode potential of hydrogen electrode,

2H+(aq) + 2e– H2(g) is given by

Sol. : For Pt(s) | H2(g, 10–7bar) | H+ (aq, pH = 7)

= = –0.206 V

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 68
(skipped)

Which of the following expression correctly represents the equivalent conductance of

Al2(SO4)3 at infinite dilution? (Given that and are the molar conductance at infinite
dilution of the respective ions)

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint :

Sol. : (Al2(SO4)3) = (Al3+) + (SO42–)

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 69

On the basis of the following Eo values,

Cr2O72–(aq) + 14H+(aq) + 6e– 2Cr3+(aq) + 7H2O(l); Eo = 1.33 V

NO3– (aq) + 4H+ (aq) + 3e– NO(g) + 2H2O(l); Eo = 0.97 V

, Eo = –0.83 V

The correct order of oxidizing power of the species is

Options:
H2O > NO3– > Cr2O72–
 Cr2O72– > NO3– > H2O
NO3– > Cr2O72– > H2O
Cr2O72– > H2O > NO3–
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Higher the value of reduction potential better will be oxidizing agent.

Sol. : So correct order of oxidizing power is

Cr2O72– > NO3– > H2O

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 70

If the Eocell for a given reaction has a positive value then which of the following gives the
correct relationship for the values of ΔGo and Keq?

Options:
ΔGo > 0, Keq = 1
ΔGo > 0, Keq < 1

ΔGo < 0, Keq > 1

ΔGo < 0, Keq < 1
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : ΔGo = –nFE°Cell

ΔGo = –2.303RT logKeq

Sol. : If, is positive.

Then, ΔGo < 0 and Keq > 1.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 71

During the electrolysis of concentrated H2SO4, the reaction taking place at anode is

Options:
4OH–(aq) O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e–
2SO42–(aq) S2O82–(aq) + 2e–
 2SO42–(aq) S2O72–(aq) + O2(g) + 2e–
2H2O(l) 4H+(aq) + O2(g) + 4e–
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : For concentrated H2SO4, oxidation of sulphate ions take place at anode.

Sol. : At anode: 2SO42–(aq) S2O82–(aq) + 2e–

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 72
(skipped)

Consider the reaction, A + B + C Products

The rate of the reaction is doubled when the concentrations of both A and B are doubled and
rate of reaction increases by four times when concentration of both B and C are doubled. The
possible rate law expression of the reaction is

Options:
Rate = k[A]1 [B]1 [C]1
Rate = k[A]0 [B]1 [C]2
Rate = k[A]0 [B]2 [C]1
Rate = k[A]0 [B]1 [C]1
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Rate of reaction ∝ [A]x [B]y [C]z

Sol. : Let rate law expression is

Rate = K [A]x [B]y [C]z

Case-I : (2)x+y = 2 ⇒ x + y = 1

Case II : (2)y+z = 4 = (2)2 ⇒ y + z = 2

If x = 0, then y = z = 1

∴ The possible rate law expression is

Rate = K [A]0 [B]1 [C]1

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 73

Antiferromagnetic substance among the following is

Options:
MnO
Ni
CrO2
Fe3O4
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Antiferromagnetic oxide has zero net magnetic moment.

Sol. : MnO: Antiferromagnetic.

Ni : Ferromagnetic

CrO2 : Ferromagnetic

Fe3O4: Ferrimagnetic

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 74
(skipped)

If 40% of first order reaction was completed in 50 minute then 50% of the same reaction
would be completed in approximately [Given : log 3 = 0.47, log 5 = 0.7]

Options:
79 minute
65 minute
61 minute
74 minute
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint & Sol. :

For first order reaction, k =

For 40% completion, k =

t1/2 =

t1/2 = 65.4 minutes 65 minutes

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 75
(skipped)

If activation energy of a reaction for forward direction is greater than backward direction then

Options:
ΔH = 0
ΔH < 0
ΔH > 0
ΔH > Ea (forward)
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : For reversible reaction, ΔH = Ea(f) – Ea(b)

Sol. : If Ea (f) > Ea (b).

ΔH > 0

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 76

Which of the following is incorrect graph for Freundlich adsorption isotherm?

Options:

Both (2) & (3)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Extent of adsorption decreases with increase in temperature.

Sol. : According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 77

Gold number of some of the protective colloids are given.

Colloid Gold Number

Gelatin 0.005
Gum arabic 0.15
Sodium oleate 0.4
Starch 25

Which of the following has highest protecting power?

Options:
Gelatin
Gum arabic
Sodium oleate
Starch
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Lower is the gold number of protective colloids higher will be its protecting power.

Sol. : Gelatin has highest protecting power.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 78
(skipped)

When silver nitrate solution is added to excess potassium iodide solution, the colloidal
particles formed is

Options:
Positively charged
Negatively charged
 Neutral
May be positively or negatively charged
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Charge present on colloidal particle will depend on the adsorption of common ion,
which is present in excess.

Sol. :

So, Colloidal particles will be negatively charged.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 79

Sodium metal crystallises in a body centered cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit
cell of sodium is 430 pm, the density of the unit cell is approximately

Options:
0.96 g cm–3
0.53 g cm–3
0.46 g cm–3
0.86 g cm–3
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : d =

Sol. : For bcc, Z = 2

d= ⇒ d = 0.96 g cm–3

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 80

An aqueous solution of a nonvolatile solute boils at 101.20°C. At what temperature the

solution will freeze? (Given: Kb = 0.512 K kg mol–1 and Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)

Options:
–2.17°C
 –1.2°C
–3.46°C

–4.36°C
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: ΔTb = Kbm and ΔTf = Kfm

Sol. :

⇒ ΔTf = 4.36

Freeing point of solution = (0 – 4.36)°C = –4.36°C

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 81
(skipped)

The mass of urea to be dissolved in 100 g of water (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1) to prepare a
solution having boiling point 101°C, is

Options:
10.26 g
4.2 g
11.54 g
14.66 g
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: ΔTb = Kbm

Sol. : 1 = ⇒ WB = 11.54 g

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 82
(skipped)

The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of potassium ferrocyanide K4[Fe(CN)6] at 27°C is

(Assume, 60% dissociation of salt)
Options:
8.37 atm
4.21 atm
2.15 atm
9.66 atm
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : K4[Fe(CN)6] 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4–

i = 1 + (n–1)α = 1 + (5–1) × 0.6 = 3.4

Osmotic pressure, = iCRT

= 3.4 × 0.1 × 0.0821 × 300 = 8.37 atm

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 83
(skipped)

Standard Gibb's energy for the given reaction is

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

(Given and )

Options:
–212.3 kJ mol–1
212.3 kJ mol–1
110.61 kJ mol–1
–110.61 kJ mol–1
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : ΔG° = –nFE°Cell

Sol. : E°Cell =

= 0.34 – (–0.76) = 1.1 V

ΔG° = –2 × 96500 × 1.1 J = –212.3 kJ

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 84
(skipped)

A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of electrolyte AB2 freezes at –0.88°C. If Kf for H2O is 1.86 K
kg mol–1 then degree of dissociation of AB2 is

Options:
0.52
0.68
0.76
0.84
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : ΔTf = iKfm

Sol. : ΔTf = 0.88°C

∴ 0.88 = i × 1.86 × 0.2 ⇒ i = 2.36

Now α = = 0.68

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 85
(skipped)

For strong electrolyte, variations of molar conductivity with concentration is given by

equation

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Molar conductivity for strong electrolyte is given by Debye-Huckel equation

Sol. :

∴
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 86
(skipped)

During recharging of lead storage battery, the reaction taking place at cathode is

Options:
Pb(s) + SO42–(aq) PbSO4(s) + 2e–
PbSO4(s) + 2H2O (l) PbO2 (s) + SO42–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e–
PbSO4(s) + 2e– Pb(s) + SO42– (aq)
PbO2(s) + SO42–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e– PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : During charging and recharging of Lead storage battery, the terminal of anode and
cathode remain same.

Sol. : Cathode reaction during recharging is

PbSO4(s) + 2H2O PbO2 + SO42–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e–

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 87
(skipped)

Select the incorrect graph among the following

(1) First order reaction

(2) Zero order reaction
(3) Zero order reaction
(4) First order reaction

Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : For first order reaction,

log [A]t = log [A0] –

Sol. : For first order reaction

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 88
(skipped)

The energy of activation of a reaction for which rate doubles when the temperature is raised
from 300 K to 310 K is

Options:
9.8 kcal
14.2 kcal
12.9 kcal
11.2 kcal
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint :

Sol. :

Ea = 12.9 kcal.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 89
(skipped)

Incorrect statement with respect to Lyophilic colloids is

Options:
Lyophilic colloids are easily formed by direct mixing of dispersed phase with
dispersion medium
Lyophilic colloids are reversible sols
Lyophilic colloids can be easily coagulated
 Lyophilic colloids are highly solvated
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Lyophilic colloids are highly solvated.

Sol. : Lyophilic colloids are stable colloids and cannot be easily coagulated.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 90

Which of the following is positively charged sol?

Options:
Haemoglobin

Gold sols
Acid dye stuff
Gelatin
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Acid dye, gold sol and gelatin are negatively charged colloid.

Sol. : Haemoglobin is positively charged colloid.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 91

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Options:
Asexual reproduction occurs by a single parent with or without the involvement of
gamete formation
Lifespan of organisms are not necessarily correlated with their size
Mode of reproduction can be determined by organism's habitat and its internal
physiology
Asexual reproduction is common among monerans, plants and animals with relatively
complex organisations
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Asexual reproduction is preferred by organisms like monera, protista, algae, fungi and
sponges.
Solution: Asexual reproduction is common in plants and animals with relatively simple
organisation.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 92

Refer the table given below and select the option which is correct for A to H.

Options:
A - 12, C - Butterfly, E - Rice, G - 36
B - 7, D - 39, E - Rat, G - 20
A - 12, C - Dog, F - 24, H - 17
B - 10, C - Cat, E - Maize, H - 17
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Number of chromosomes in a meiocyte is 2n (diploid) and gamete is n(haploid).

Solution :

Chromosome no. in meiocyte Chromosome no. in gamete

House fly 12 6
Dog 78 39
Rice 24 12
Apple 34 17
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 93

Mark the true statement regarding gamete transfer

Options:
In a majority of organisms both female and male gametes are motile
In bryophytes, pteridophytes and gymnosperms, water is the medium through which
the gamete transfer takes place
Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma is relatively easy in papaya than pea
Successful transfer and coming together of gametes is essential for the most critical
event of sexual reproduction
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Fertilisation is the most critical event of sexual reproduction.

Solution: Essential requirements of fertilisation are:

(i) Transfer of gametes

(ii) Coming together of gametes.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 94

The vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation and the
next is

Options:
Gamete
Zygote
Embryo
Egg
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: First cell of the new generation in all sexually reproducing organisms connects two
successive generations.

Solution: Zygote is the first cell and vital link that ensures continuity of species through
generations.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 95

Identify the label A and B in below given diagram and choose the option with correct set of
features for A and B.

Features:

(i) Has a cap of five coronary cells.

(ii) Matures prior to other sex organ

(iii) Its jacket is formed by five tube cells.

(iv) Forms starch and oil globules laden gamete

(v) Its jacket is formed by eight shield cells.

(vi) Contains a single egg.

A B
(1) i, ii, v, vi iii, iv
(2) i, iii, iv, vi ii, v
(3) i, iv, v ii, iii, vi
(4) iv, v, vi i, ii, iii
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Chara is generally a monoecious green alga having nucule and globule as sex organs.

Solution: A – Nucule / Oogonium.

B – Globule / Antheridium

• Globule shows protandrous conditions i.e., matures prior to nucule.

• The jacket of nucule is formed by 5 tube cells.

• The egg is laden with starch and oil globules.

• Nucule contains a single egg.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 96

Statement A: In some plants, where flowering occurs more than once, the inter flowering
period is called juvenile phase.

Statement B: Recovery phase is not the juvenile phase but is a part of the mature phase.

Options:
Only statement A is correct
 Only statement B is correct
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Interflowering period is the mature phase found in polycarpic plants.

Solution: Inter flowering period is used for building up resources and is, therefore, called
recovery phase.

It is a part of mature phase.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 97

External fertilization is found in all, except

Options:
Majority of algae
Amphibians
Majority of plants
Fishes
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: External fertilisation occurs in the external medium (water), i.e., outside the body of
the organisms.

Solution:

• External fertilisation is found in a majority of algae and fishes as well as amphibians.

• In majority of plants (bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms), internal

fertilization takes place.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 98

State true (T) or false (F) for the following statements.

a. The ploidy level of gamete, embryo and endosperm in most of the angiosperms is n, 2n and
3n respectively.

b. Both Agave and Bryophyllum vegetatively propagate by bulbils.

c. Strobilanthus kunthiana is a monocarpic plant that flowers once in 12 years.

d. The 'eyes' of Solanum tuberosum are floral buds.

e. Heterogametic condition is found in Fucus, Rhizopus, Ulothrix and Chara.

abc de
(1) T F T F F
(2) T F T F T
(3) F T T T T
(4) T F F T F
Options:
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Bulbil is the vegetative propagule in Agave.

Bryophyllum vegetatively propagate by its leaves.

Solution: Eyes of potato are axillary buds.

Heterogametes – Fucus, Chara

Isogametes – Rhizopus, Ulothrix.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 99

The anther wall layer(s) that perform(s) the function of protection is/are

a. Epidermis

b. Endothecium

c. Middle layers

d. Tapetum

Options:
Only a
Only a and c
 All except c
All except d
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection.

Solution: Epidermis, endothecium and middle layers perform the function of protection.

They also help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.

While tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 100

As the anther matures and dehydrates, the microspores dissociate from each other and
develop into

Options:
Microsporangium
Megasporangium
Pollen grains
Male gametes
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: A mature anther contains male gametophyte.

Solution: When anther matures the microspores dissociate from each other and develop into
pollen grains.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 101

Vegetative cell differs from generative cell as it

Options:
Is bigger and has abundant food reserve
Has a large irregularly shaped nucleus
Is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm
All except (3)
Solution :
Answer (4)

Hint: Generative cell floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell.

Solution: Generative cell is spindle shaped and has dense cytoplasm.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 102

Examine the figure given below and select the option which correctly labels the parts A, B, C
and D.

Options:
A- Cotyledon, B- Hypocotyl root axis, C- Root tip, D- Endosperm
A- Testa, B- Cotyledon, C- Shoot apex, D- Scutellum
A- Cotyledon, B- Shoot apical meristem, C- Root tip, D- Endosperm
A- Seed coat, B- Hypocotyl root axis, C- Cotyledon, D- Coleoptile
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Figure depicts structure of onion seed.

Solution:

A – Cotyledon.

B – Hypocotyl root axis, just below shoot apical meristem.

C – Root tip

D – Endosperm

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 103

An embryo develops at the __A__ of the female gametophyte. In monocots, __B__ has a
shoot apex and a few __C__ enclosed in a __D__ called coleoptile.

Fill the blanks (A–D) by selecting the correct option.

Options:
A-Chalazal end, B-Leaf primordia, C-Epicotyl, D-Coleoptile
A-Micropylar end, B-Epicotyl, C-Leaf primordia, D-Hollow foliar structure
A-Chalazal end, B-Leaf primordia, C-Hypocotyl, D-Leaf primordia
A-Micropylar end, B-Epicotyl, C-Plumule, D-Coleorhiza
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Embryo generally develops at micropylar end.

Solution:

A – Micropylar end, where the zygote is situated.

B – Epicotyl

C – Leaf primordia

D – A hollow foliar structure.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 104

After entering the embryo sac, the pollen tube releases two male gametes into

Options:
The cytoplasm of the central cell
The filiform apparatus
The cytoplasm of the egg cell
The cytoplasm of the helper cell
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Synergids are also known as helper cells.

Solution: The pollen tube enters the embryo sac through a degenerating synergid.

The pollen tubes releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergids.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 105

The coconut water

Options:
 Is free nuclear endosperm
Contains more than thousands of nuclei
Contains only one nucleus
Both (1) & (2)
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Coconut water is a free nuclear endosperm.

Solution: Free nuclear endosperm of coconut contains thousands of nuclei.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 106

Study the statements (a–d) given below and select the correct ones w.r.t. outbreeding devices

a. Promote inbreeding depression.

b. Dioecy prevents autogamy but promotes geitonogamy and Xenogamy.

c. Self incompatibility.

d. Protandry and protogyny.

Options:
Only b & d
All except, a
Only c
Only c & d
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Outbreeding devices are features to prevent self pollination.

Solution: Dioecy (Dioecious condition) prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

Protogyny and protandry are differential maturity of male and female sex organs which avoid
selfing.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 107

Identify the incorrect statement

Options:
 In aquatic plants such as water lily and water hyacinth, the flowers are pollinated by
insects
Ophiophily takes place in Arisaema and Santalum
Sticky pollen grain, small sized clustered flowers and presence of nectaries,
characterise the entomophilous plants
Queens of Bombus affinis perforate Aquilegia spurs and steal nectar
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Ophiophily is pollination by snake.

Solution: Ophiophily occurs in Santalum and Michelia.

Malacophily (pollination by snails) e.g. Arisaema (Cobra plant).

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 108

In artificial hybridization, stigma is protected by

Options:
Post fertilization removal of anther
Bagging
Tagging
Both (1) & (2)
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: In artificial hybridization stigma is dusted with desired pollen grains.

Solution: Stigma is covered by paper or butter paper to avoid contamination. This process is
called bagging.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 109

How many of the following statement(s) is/are true for female gametophyte of a typical
angiosperm?

a. Seven of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls.

b. During mitotic divisions in a functional megaspore, nuclear divisions are immediately

followed by cell wall formation.
c. Has 7 cells and 8 nuclei.

d. Filiform apparatus present at micropylar part guides the pollen tube entry into the embryo
sac.

Options:
One
Two

Three
Four
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Mature female gametophyte is 8 nucleated and 7 celled structure.

Solution: During female gametophyte i.e., embryo sac formation, cell wall is laid down after
eight nucleate stage. Only six of eight nuclei are surrounded by cell wall.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 110

Seeds, that retain a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo
development are found in all, except

Options:
Wheat and maize
Wheat and castor
Maize and castor
Pea and groundnut
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Monocots have usually endospermic seeds

Dicots have usually non-endospermic seeds.

Solution: Pea and Groundnut – Dicot seeds which are exalbuminous.

Wheat, Maize, Barley-monocot seeds.

Castor – Dicot seed but endospermic.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 111
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of another flower of different plant of the
same species is called

Options:
Geitonogamy

Xenogamy
Autogamy
Cleistogamy
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Such pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma.

Solution: Xenogamy or allogamy or cross pollination involves transfer of pollen grains from
one plant to the another.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 112

Which of the following is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics the sexual
reproduction?

Options:
Polyembryony
Syngamy
Amphimixis
Apomixis
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: This method can produce seeds from a sporophytic tissue.

Solution: Apomixis is a special mechanism to produce seeds without fertilization.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 113

Sometimes nucellar cell surrounding the embryo sac starts dividing, protrudes into embryo
sac and develops into embryo in

Options:
Mango
Citrus
 Banana
Both (1) & (2)
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Polyembryony occurs through sporophytic budding.

Solution: Mango and Citrus – show polyembryony from nucellar cells.

Banana – A parthenocarpic fruit.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 114

Identify the figures given below from P to S and select the option that correctly labels a, b
parts of fruits and c, d parts of the seeds.

P. Q.

R. S.

a b c d
(1) Mesocarp Achene Endosperm Shoot apical meristem
(2) Endocarp Achene Endosperm Shoot apical meristem
(3) Endocarp Berry Cotyledon Root tip
(4) Mesocarp Berry Endosperm Root tip
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :

Answer (2)
Hint: Figures (P) and (Q) represent fruits of apple and strawberry respectively.

Figures (R) and (S) – Castor seed.

Solution:

'a' shows endocarp

'b' shows achene.

'c' shows endosperm (3n) of castor

'd' shows shoot apical meristem.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 115

What would be the number of chromosomes in a cell of scutellum and aleurone layer
respectively of maize seed, if it has eight chromosomes in an antipodal cell?

Options:
32 and 16
16 and 24

8 and 16
24 and 8
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Antipodal cells are haploid.

Solution : Antipodal cells (n) = 8

Cells of Aleurone layer (3n) = 3 × 8 = 24

Scutellum (2n) = 2 × 8 = 16

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 116

All of the following are related to inheritance, except

Options:
It is the basis of heredity
It is the degree by which progeny differs from their parents
It is the process by which characters are passed on from parents to progeny
 Genetics deals with it
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Inheritance is the process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny.

Solution: Variation is the degree by which progeny differs from their parents.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 117

Select the odd one w.r.t. dominant traits of pea

Options:
Green pod colour
Green seed colour
Full pod shape
Yellow seed colour
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Green seed colour expresses itself only in homozygous condition.

Solution:

Green seed colour is a recessive trait

Dominant traits :

Green pod colour.

Full pod shape.

Yellow seed colour.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 118

How many true-breeding pea plant varieties were selected by Mendel?

Options:
7
36
14
 24
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Mendel selected 7 characters in pea plant.

Solution: Initially mendel took 34 varieties of pea plants then 22 but ultimately worked with
only 7 pairs of varieties or 14 true breeding pea plants.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 119
(skipped)

Select the correct statement

Options:
Sahiwal cows of Punjab are developed by domestication and natural selection
Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on sweet pea for seven years
Mendel's experiments had a small sampling size, which gave credibility to his results
A true-breeding line shows the stable trait inheritance and expression for several
generations
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: New hybrids are developed by man through artificial selection.

Solution: Sahiwal cows are developed from domestication and artificial selection from
ancestral wild cows.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 120

Which of the following characteristics do not represent 'inheritance of ABO blood group' in
humans?

a. Polygenic inheritance

b. Multiple allele

c. Incomplete dominance

d. Dominance

e. Co-dominance

Options:
 Only b and d
a and c
Only d and e
b, d and e
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Human blood group (ABO) is controlled by one gene that has three alleles.

Solution: Inheritance of blood group in human is characterised by dominance, co-dominance

and multiple allelism.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 121

Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
a. Alleles (i) A single gene product producing more than one effect.
b. Genes (ii) The units of inheritance
c. Pleiotropy (iii) Forms of a gene which code for a pair of contrasting traits.
d. Multiple allelism (iv) Presence of more than two alleles for a gene

Options:
a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: In multiple allelism, one gene has more than two alleles in a population.

Solution: Alleles are two contrasting forms of a gene.

A pleiotropic gene may affect more than one phenotypes.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 122
When a cross is made between red flowered and white flowered snapdragon plants, the
proportion of offsprings having pink and white flowers respectively in F2 generation will be

Options:
25% and 50%
50% and 25%
50% and 0%
25% and 0%
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: In snapdragon, flower colour is an example of incomplete dominance.

Solution: Phenotypic ratio in incomplete dominance is

1:2:1

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 123

The __A__ which represents the original phenotype is __B__ and the __C__ is generally the
mutant type.

Fill in the blanks (A – C) by selecting the correct option.

Options:
A- Unmodified allele, B- Dominant allele, C- Modified allele

A- Wild allele, B- Dominant allele, C- Unmodified allele

A- Modified allele, B- Functional allele, C- Mutant allele
A- Functional allele, B- Wild allele, C- Unmodified allele
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Unmodified allele represents the original phenotype, i.e., dominant allele or wild type.

Solution: The modified allele is generally the recessive allele or mutant type.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 124

Morgan and his colleagues worked with Drosophila melanogaster and found it a very
suitable experimental material to study chromosomal theory of inheritance, because

a. A single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies.

b. It has many types of hereditary variations.

c. Its hereditary variations can be seen with high power microscopes only.

d. It completes its life cycle in about two weeks.

e. Smaller females are easily distinguishable from larger males.

Options:
Only c & e
Only a, b & c
Only d
Only a, b & d
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: The experimental organism should be easily grown, have small lifespan, show
variations.

Solution: There was a clear differentiation of the sexes between the male and female flies
and they are easily distinguishable even in low power microscopes.

Female is larger than male.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 125
(skipped)

Which one of the following is not a wild type trait taken by T.H. Morgan during his dihybrid
cross on Drosophila?

Options:
Brown body colour
Red eye colour
Yellow body colour
Normal wings
Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint: Wild type traits are dominant traits.

Solution: Red eye colour, brown body colour and normal wings are dominant features.

In dihybrid cross of his experiment, Morgan showed that yellow body (y) colour is a
recessive trait.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 126

Calculate the sum total of genotypes and phenotypes, if a character is controlled by three
pairs of genes.

Options:
27
7
14
34
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Character is controlled by 3 pair of genes, thus its a polygenic inheritance.

Solution:

Number of genotypes for a polygene = 3n

Number of phenotypes for a polygene = 2n + 1

n = Number of pair of polygenes.

Detailed solution: Number of genotype = 33 = 27

Number of phenotype = 2n + 1

=2×3+1

=6+1=7

Sum total = 27 + 7 = 34

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 127
(skipped)
In a dihybrid cross of Mendel's experiment; what will be the ratio of wrinkled with pure
yellow, pure round with green and hybrid round with pure yellow seeds in F2 generation?

Options:
2:1:2
1:1:2
4:1:2
1:1:1
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Genotypic ratio was 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 :1 in Mendel's dihybrid cross in pea plant

Solution:

Wrinkled, pure yellow – rrYy = 1/16

Pure round, green – RRyy = 1/16

Hybrid round, pure yellow – RrYY – 2/16

Genotypic ratio = 1 : 1 : 2

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 128

Which gene codes for testis determining factor?

Options:
Cry gene of autosome
Sry gene of X-chromosome
Sry gene of Y-chromosome
Sry gene of autosome
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: TDF is present in human males.

Solution: Y-chromosome carries a gene Sry that codes for TDF (testis determining factor)

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 129

Identify the correct statement w.r.t. sex determination in the given organisms
Options:
Egg determines the sex in Dioscorea
Homozygous condition of sex chromosomes (XX) is found in male grasshopper
Sperm determines the sex in moth
Females are heterogametic in butterflies
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Female forms two different types of gametes in butterflies.

Solution:

Males Females Offsprings

AA + XO AA + XX Dioscorea, Grasshopper
AA + ZZ AA + ZW Birds
AA + ZZ AA + ZO Butterflies, moth
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 130

Mark the incorrectly matched pair

Options:
Sex influenced trait – Pattern baldness
Sex limited trait – Beard in man
Holandric trait – Hypertrichosis
Sex influenced trait – Milk glands in female
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Genes of sex limited traits are found in both sexes but express in one sex only.

Solution: Holandric trait – Hypertrichosis

Sex influenced trait – Pattern baldness

Sex limited trait – Milk glands in female and beard in man

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 131

Statement A: Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

Statement B: Deletions and insertions of base pairs of DNA causes frameshift mutations.
Options:
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Both statements A and B are correct
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Cancer can occur due to mutation.

Solution: Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

Frameshift mutations are caused by deletions and insertions of DNA base pairs.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 132

Find the combination of gametes that results in trisomic condition

Options:
n × (n – 1)
(n – 1) × (n – 1)
n × (n + 1)
(n + 1) × (n + 1)
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Trisomy in humans occurs when an extra chromosome is present apart from 44
chromosomes i.e., 45 chromosomes.

Solution: n × (n + 1) = 2n + 1 is trisomic condition.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 133

In the following pedigree chart, the shaded symbols represent the affected individuals.
Identify the correct option for the given pedigree chart.
Options:
Autosomal recessive disorder : Myotonic dystrophy
X-linked recessive disorder : Colourblindness
Autosomal recessive disorder : Cystic fibrosis
Allosomal disorder : Sickle cell anaemia
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: On analysis, given pedigree depicts autosomal recessive disorder.

Solution: Cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anaemia are autosomal recessive disorders.

Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder.

Colourblindness is an X-linked recessive disorder.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 134

An individual affected by Down's syndrome can be characterised by all the following

features, except

Options:
Palm crease and flat back of head
Broad flat face and congenital heart disease
Many 'loops' on finger tips
Testicular atrophy and too small tongue
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: They have big and wrinkled tongue.

Solution: Down's syndrome develops due to trisomy of chromosome number 21. It is also
characterised by short stature, partially open mouth and under developed gonads and genitals.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 135
(skipped)

Select the incorrect statement from the following

Options:
Thalassemia is a quantitative problem of synthesizing too few globin polypeptides
Phenylketonuria is caused due to lack of a liver enzyme, phenylalanine hydroxylase
 Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize is a function of defective chloroplast gene
Haemophilia and myotonic dystrophy are mendelian disorders
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize occurs due to defect in gene of an organelle known
as power house of the cell.

Solution: Defective mitochondria results in male sterility in maize.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 136

The cell which first enters in meiosis during spermatogenesis is

Options:
Spermatogonia
Primary spermatocyte
Secondary spermatocyte
Spermatid
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Spermatogonia differentiate or grow into diploid structures that undergo meiosis.

Sol: Primary spermatocytes enter into meiosis I that results into secondary spermatocytes
which further undergo meiosis II and produce fourspermatids.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 137

The ducts which open into nipple of a mammary gland are

Options:
Mammary tubules
Lactiferous ducts
Mammary ducts
Mullerian ducts
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Mammary ampullae open into these ducts

Sol: Glandular tissue of mammary gland comprises of 15-20 lobules. The sequence of ducts
that lead to nipple of mammary gland is :

Mammary duct Mammary ampullae Lactiferous duct Nipple

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 138

After ovulation, ovum is released from ovary into

Options:
Coelom
Infundibulum
Fallopian tube
Uterus
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Another term for this location is body cavity.

Sol: At the 14th day of ovulation, ovum is released from ovary into coelom and sweeping
movement of fimbriae of infundibulum collect the ovum which then enters into fallopian
tube.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 139

Choose the correct sequence of embryonic development in humans

Options:
Zygote Morula Gastrula Blastocyst
Zygote Morula Blastocyst Gastrula
Gastrula Morula Zygote Blastocyst
Zygote Gastrula Morula Blastocyst
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: After fusion of gametes, zygote is formed.

Sol: Zygote divides and forms morula that further differentiates into blastocyst and then
gastrula.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 140
Mucous plug is formed in cervix during pregnancy under the influence of hormone

Options:
Estrogen
Progesterone

LH
Estrogen and progesterone
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Hormone responsible for stability of endometrium during pregnancy.

Sol: In secretory phase, corpus luteum is formed which secretes high concentration of
progesterone and low concentration of estrogen. Progesterone forms thick mucous in cervix
so that it protects pathogens from entering the uterus.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 141

Which of the following is correctly matched?

Options:
Spermatogonia – Haploid
Primary spermatocyte – Haploid
Secondary spermatocyte – Haploid
Spermatid – Diploid
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Structure which is the result of meiosis-I.

Sol: Spermatogonia are diploid cells which proliferate by mitosic division. After
proliferation, some spermatogonia grow and differentiate into primaryspermatocytes
(diploid), then these primary spermatocytes enter meiosis-I so that chromosome number
becomes half in resultant secondary spermatocyte (n).

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 142

If a mother gives birth to twins of same sex and both have nearly 99.9% of genetic similarity
(DNA), probably these children are

Options:
Monozygotic twins
 Dizygotic twins
Fraternal twins
Both (2) & (3)
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Monozygotic twins are always of same sex while dizygotic twins may be of same sex
or different sex.

Sol: DNA of monozygotic twins exhibit 100% genetic similarity while dizygotic twins also
called fraternal twins have nearly 99.9% similarity in DNA.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 143

In which of the following methods of assisted reproductive technologies, does in-vivo

fertilisation take place?

Options:
IUT
ICSI
ZIFT

GIFT
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: In-vivo fertilisation implies that fertilisation occurs inside the body.

Sol: In GIFT i.e., gamete intra fallopian transfer, sperms and ova are simultaneously
transferred into fallopian tube. Inside the fallopian tube, sperm and ova fuse to form zygote.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 144

The most effective contraceptive method among following in humans is

Options:
IUDs
Oral contraceptive pills
Vasectomy
Periodic abstinence
Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint: Method of male sterilization.

Sol: Vasectomy is most effective method of contraception because male gametes are not part
of the ejaculate released into the female reproductive system. In vasectomy, vas deferens is
cut and the two ends are ligated.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 145

Syphilis is a STD caused by

Options:
Virus
Bacterium
Fungus
Protozoan
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Syphilis is caused by a prokaryote.

Sol: Syphilis is transferred through sexual contact and it is caused by a bacterium named as
Treponema pallidum.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 146
(skipped)

Which of the following diagnostic test(s) is performed from 9-10 weeks onwards for testing
of chromosomal abnormality in foetus?

Options:
Amniocentesis
Chorionic villi sampling
Ultrasound
Computed tomography scan
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Foetal cells are present in chorionic villi.

Sol: Aspiration needle is passed through the vagina and sample of chorionic villi is collected
to study karyotype of cell in order to diagnose genetic abnormality in the developing embryo.
Chorionic villi are well developed at 8th week after conception.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 147

The cells that undergo spermiogenesis and have 1 'C' DNA content are

Options:
Spermatogonia
Secondary spermatocytes
Primary spermatocytes
Spermatids
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: These cells are end product of meiosis.

Sol: Spermatogonia grow and differentiate into primary spermatocyte. These spermatids have
1 'C' content of DNA in them and are haploid.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 148

Contraceptive method that is generally advised for the female partner as terminal method to
prevent any more pregnancies is

Options:
Vasectomy
Tubectomy
Oophorectomy
Hysterectomy
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Method of contraception which is poorly reversible in females.

Sol: In this method, fallopian tubes are cut and tied. As a result of this, after copulation
sperms do not reach the fertilisation site.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 149

IUD is an effective and popular contraceptive method. Select the one which is an example of
medicated IUD?
Options:
Cu7
Lippe's loop
Implanon
Vaults
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: IUDs are implanted inside the uterus.

Sol: Cu7 is an IUD which releases copper ions that increase phagocytosis of sperms. LNG-20
is also an example of medicated IUD which releases progesterone.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 150

Amniocentesis is the insertion of a needle through the abdominal and uterine walls into the
amniotic cavity to withdraw fluid for the examination of certain defects. By this process
which of the following cannot be diagnosed?

Options:
Biochemical disorder

Cleft lip
Spina bifida
Cystic fibrosis
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Some anatomical defects cannot be diagnosed by this method.

Sol: α-fetoprotein is present in amniotic fluid. Higher concentration of this protein in

amniotic fluid is an indication of neural tube defect. Some biochemical defects and genetic
defects are also diagnosed by this method.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 151

In which of the following methods of contraception, does the couple abstain from coitus from
day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle?

Options:
IUDs
Coitus interruptus
 Rhythm method
Lactational amenorrhea
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: This method involves avoiding copulation during fertile period of a female.

Sol: In menstrual cycle, chances of fertilisation are higher from day (10-17) in a fertile
female. So the absence of copulation during this period is known as periodic
abstinence/rhythm method/calendar method.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 152

Oral contraceptive pills generally contain combination of oestrogen and progestogens. In

females, probably these pills inhibit/alter which of the following?

a. LH and FSH secretion

b. Follicular development and ovulation

c. Quality of cervical mucus

Select the correct option

Options:
a only
a & b only
b & c only
a, b & c
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Progesterone gives negative feedback to hypothalamus.

Sol: Higher concentration of estrogen and progesterone during luteal phase give negative
back to hypothalamus, thereby inhibiting the release of GnRH from hypothalamus and LH,
FSH from pituitary.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 153

Choose the correct match, w.r.t. humans

 Column I Column II
(Major source) (Hormone)
(1) Placenta – Testosterone
(2) Corpus luteum – LH
(3) Placenta – FSH
(4) Syncytiotrophoblast – hCG
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: LH maintains corpus luteum which is source of estrogen and progesterone

Sol: Corticotropic releasing hormone is also produced by placenta along with foetal
hypothalamus.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 154

During early embryonic development, which type of cleavage occurs in a human zygote?

Options:
Superficial and determinate
Holoblastic and indeterminate
Discoidal and determinate
Meroblastic and indeterminate
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Cleavage in humans divides the cell completely into two blastomeres.

Sol: Cleavage in humans are indeterminate i.e., if cells of early embryo are separated then
each cell can develop into a complete human organism.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 155

Read the following points (a, b, c, d and e) w.r.t. human embryonic development and mark
the option with correct sequence

a. Notochord formation
b. Primitive streak formation

c. Formation of Amnion

d. Neural plate formation

e. Neural groove formation

Options:
c b a e d
c b a d e
a b c d e
c a b e d
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Notochord formation starts after gastrulation.

Sol: Primitive streak formation is the first sign of gastrulation. As a result of this, three germ
layers develop in embryo. After this, notochord is formed that induces organogenesis.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 156
(skipped)

All the given statements are correct except

Options:
DNA cytoplasmic ratio increases during cleavage divisions seen in embryogenesis
Embryonic mass does not form any extra embryonic membrane
Inhibin is a protein hormone secreted by Sertoli cells that inhibits FSH in male human
Structural and functional maturation of sperms occurs in epididymis
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Embryonic mass helps in formation of all the extraembryonic membranes.

Sol: Embryonic mass also called inner cell mass first differentiates into epiblast and
hypoblast. Epiblast forms amnion. Hypoblast forms extra embryonic yolk sac and allantois.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 157

In human menstrual cycle, estrogen is secreted by

Options:
Developing follicle in proliferative phase and corpus luteum in secretory phase
Corpus luteum in proliferative phase and developing follicle in secretory phase
Primordial follicle in both proliferative and secretory phase
Anterior pituitary in follicular phase and by corpus luteum in secretory phase
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Estrogen increases the thickness of uterine wall.

Sol: Developing follicle secretes estrogen that acts on uterus lining and increases the
thickness of endometrium. After ovulation, corpus luteum is formed which secretes estrogen
and progesterone.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 158

Which of the following protein hormones of pituitary gland acts on follicles for their growth
and release of estrogen by them?

Options:
FSH only
hCG only
FSH and LH
GnRH and Gonadotropins
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Gonadotrophic hormones are glycoproteins in nature.

Sol: FSH and LH are secreted by anterior pituitary which act on developing follicle in ovary.
These hormones are proteins in nature. GnRH is secreted by hypothalamus and acts on
anterior pituitary.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 159

Prior to ovulation in menstrual cycle of humans, estrogen gives positive feedback to

hypothalamus and pituitary gland that result in increased concentration of

Options:
LH only
FSH only
 LH and FSH only
LH, FSH and estrogen
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Ovulation occurs due to positive feed back by estrogen.

Sol: Prior to ovulation, estrogen gives positive feed back to hypothalamus and anterior
pituitary gland, so that LH, FSH and estrogen levels increase.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 160

After the first trimester, which of the following steroid hormones is/are produced by
placenta?

Options:
Estrogen only
Estrogen, progesterone

Estrogen, progesterone, hCG

Estrogen, progesterone, hCS
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: hCG and hCS are proteinaceous in nature.

Sol: In the first trimester, corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone. Later, this
function is taken over by placenta i.e., second trimester onwards. These hormones are
steroidal in nature.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 161

Totipotent cells are the cells which can produce a complete organism. In humans, totipotent
cells are the cells of

Options:
Trophoblast layer of blastocyst
Morula stage of embryo

Stem cells of adult

Inner cell mass
Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint: Cells of embryonic mass i.e., inner cell mass are pluripotent.

Sol: Cell of morula if separated, can form a complete organism. However, the cells of
embryonic mass can differentiate into certain types of cell and cannot form complete
organism.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 162

Tertiary follicles in ovary during menstrual cycle are characterised by presence of

Options:
A fluid filled cavity called antrum
Receptors for prolactin
Nondifferentiated theca layer
A diploid ootid
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Developing follicles have receptors for gonadotropic hormone.

Sol: Undifferentiated theca-layer is present in secondary follicle while in tertiary follice theca
layer differentiates into outer and inner layer. In tertiary follicle, primary oocyte completes its
first meiotic division and results into a haploid secondary oocyte and a polar body.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 163

All the statements are incorrect about human sperm, except

Options:
Mitochondria is present in neck
Nucleus is present in middle piece
Acrosome is present in head region of sperm outside plasma membrane
Whole body of sperm is covered by plasma membrane
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Power house of this cell are located in middle piece.

Sol: Acrosome is present anterior to the nucleus and both these structures are present in head
region of sperm.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 164

Secretion of which of the following glands forms maximum part of semen?

Options:
Prostate gland
Cowper's glands
Seminal vesicles
Bulbourethral gland
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Paired glands which have fructose in their secretion.

Sol: Seminal vesicles are present in human male reproductive system and form 60% of total
semen volume.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 165

Correct sequence of anatomical structures of human male reproductive system is

Options:
Seminiferous tubules tubuli recti rete-testis vas efferentia epididymis
vas deferens
Seminiferous tubules rete-testis tubuli-recti vas efferentia epididymis
vas deferens
Seminiferous tubules epididymis vas efferentia rete-testis tubuli recti
Tubuli recti seminiferous tubule rete-testis epididymis vas deferens vas
efferentia
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Vas deferens combines with duct of seminal vesicles to form the ejaculatory duct.

Sol: Seminiferous tubules lead to tubuli recti that open into meshwork like network known as
rete testis. From here, 10-12 vasa efferentia emerge that open into head of epididymis.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 166

Consider the following:

a. Spermiogenesis
b. Capacitation

c. Cortical reaction

d. Acrosomal reaction

Arrange the following steps in chronological order to result in human fertilisation:

Options:
a b d c
a b c d
b a c d
d c b a
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Fate of sperm from cells of Sertoli upto karyogamy.

Sol: Spermiogenesis – Conversion of spermatids into sperms.

Capacitation – Activation of sperms in female genital tract.

Acrosomal reaction – Release of acrosomal enzymes.

Cortical reaction – Exocytosis of cortical granules.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 167

Which of the following is not an IUCD?

Options:
Lippe's loop
CuT 200
LNG-20
Sponge
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Structure placed in vagina with spermicidal cream.

Sol: Sponge is not placed in uterus, but is placed in vagina. Sponge a contraceptive sold by
name 'Today' contains compounds such as 9-nonoxynol that are spermicidal.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 168

The contraceptive that also protects against sexually transmitted diseases is

Options:
Condom
Lippe's loop
LNG-20
Saheli
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Barrier method of contraception.

Sol: Condoms are made from latex. These structures cover the penis or vagina. So, direct
contact of penis and vagina does not occur and sexually transmitted diseases are not spread
by sexual contact.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 169

ZIFT is one method of assisted reproductive technologies in which

Options:
Egg is transferred in fallopian tube followed by AI
Early embryo upto 8 blastomeres is transferred to fallopian tube
Early embryo upto 16 blastomeres is transferred to uterus
Sperm and ova both are directly transferred in fallopian tube
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: ART in which fertilisation takes place outside the body.

Sol: In IUT, more than 8 celled embryo is transferred into uterus.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 170

Choose the incorrect match:

Column I Column II
(Disease) (Caused by)
(1) Chlamydiasis – Bacterium
(2) Gonorrhoea – Bacterium
(3) Trichomoniasis – Ciliated protozoan
(4) AIDS – Virus
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Locomotory structure of causative agent is found in human sperm.

Sol: Trichomoniasis is a STD, caused by Trichomonas which is a flagellated protozoan.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 171

The period from birth to natural death of an organism represents its

Options:
Life expectancy
Lifespan
Reproductive period
Mortality
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Life expectancy is based on average lifespan of population.

Sol: Reproductive period does not start just after birth of any organism usually. Lifespan is
the period from birth to natural death.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 172

In which of the following organisms is cell division itself a mode of reproduction?

Options:
Amoeba
Hydra
Sycon
Man
Solution :
Answer (1)

Hint: Identify a single celled organism.

Sol: Hydra, Sycon and human are multicellular organisms. In multicellular organisms, mitotic
division itself does not directly result to production of an organism.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 173

Sexual reproduction in comparison to asexual reproduction is a

Options:
Simple process
Fast process
Slow and simple process
Complex and slow process
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Asexual process is simpler than sexual process.

Sol: Sexual reproduction is a slow method of multiplication. This process involves many
coordinated events that result into offsprings.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 174
(skipped)

Read the following statements and choose the correct statement

Options:
Reproductive phase is of same duration in all living organisms
Sexual reproduction always involves the formation of male and female gametes by
different individuals of opposite sex
All birds living in nature lay eggs throughout the year
Humans are reproductively active throughout their reproductive phase, hence are called
continuous breeders
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Reproductive phase is not same in all organisms.

Sol: Some organisms reproduce during a particular season and are known as temporary
breeders like rat, cow etc. Some individual are hermaphrodite.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 175

Which of the following is a unisexual organism?

Options:
Leech
Earthworm
Tapeworm
Cockroach
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Sexual dimorphism is distinct in this organism.

Sol: Organism which have only either male or female reproductive organ are called dioecious
or unisexual organism. Leech, tapeworm and earthworm are bisexual or monoecious
organisms.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 176

Choose the incorrect match:

Column I Column II
(Organism) (Chromosome number in meiocyte)
(1) Dog – 78
(2) Butterfly – 380
(3) Cat – 36
(4) Fruit fly –8
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Meiocytes are diploid cells.

Sol: Butterfly has 380 chromosomes in their meiocytes while a cat has 38 chromosomes in
their meiocytes.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 177

During embryogenesis, a human zygote undergoes

Options:
Mitosis and meiosis both
Mitosis and cell differentiation
Meiosis and cell differentiation
Reductional division and cell differentiation
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: This process increases number of cells without any change in chromosome number.

Sol: First the zygote divides by mitosis that leads to increase in number of cells which further
differentiate into other type of cells to from different organs.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 178

140 years is expected lifespan of a

Options:
Butterfly
Crocodile
Fruitfly
Parrot
Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Lifespan is time period from birth to natural death.

Sol: 140 years is the expected lifespan of parrot that belongs to Class-Aves.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 179

In the first trimester of pregnancy, which of the following structures is a primary producer of
estrogen and progesterone?

Options:
Corpus albicans
Corpus luteum
Placenta
 Chorion
Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: This yellow coloured structure is remnant of graffian follicle in ovary.

Sol: After the decrease in LH level, hCG secreted by chorion maintains corpus luteum upto
the end of first trimester.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 180
(skipped)

At the time of parturition, ratio of which of the following increases?

Options:
Estrogen : Progesterone
Progesterone : Estrogen
LH : FSH
FSH : LH
Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Hormone responsible for LH surge increases.

Sol: At the time of parturition, estrogen levels increase and result in increase in number of
oxytocin receptors in myometrium. Progesterone is converted to cortisol that hastens the
maturation of the respiratory system.