UCE Revision Questions and Answers

MODULE  ONE :    DIVERSITY OF LIVING  THINGS
QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Diversity of Living things
1. The following belong to the same group of organisms
except
A. Trypanosoma B. penicillium
C. plasmodium D. entamoeba histolytic
2. Which of the following protozoa has cilia?
A. amoeba B. euglena
C. paramecium D. plasmodium
3. Which one of the following is the correct order of
arrangement from the smallest to the largest group?
A. species, order, genus, class phylum
B. species, class, order, genus, phylum
C species, class, genus, order, phylum
D. species, genus, order, class, phylum
4. Which one of the following may not be used for classifying
insects?
A. mouth parts B. feeding habits
C. structure of legs D. type of eyes
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of insects only?
A. Exoskeleton. B. Jointed legs.
C. Two pairs of wings. D. Three body divisions.
6. Which of the following features of an amphibian are suited
for aquatic life?
A. possession of wings
B. muscular hind limbs
C. moist skin without scales
D. webbed toes

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7. Which one of the following sets of organisms belong to the

same group?
A. Butterfly, beetle and starfish
B. crab: tapeworm and liver fluke
C. scorpion, mite, spider
D. jelly fish, slug and sea urchin
8. Which of the following features are shared by both birds
and reptiles?
A. both are warm blooded and posses scales.
B. both produce shelled eggs and posses scales
C. both produce shelled eggs and posses feathers
D. both are cold blooded and produce shelled eggs
9. Which of the following features of an amphibian are suited
for aquatic life?
A. possession of wings B. muscular hind limbs
C. moist skin without scales D. webbed toes
10. The following are structures of a cell
(i) cell wall (ii) cell membrane (iii) nucleus
(iv) chloroplast
Which of them are found in both plant and animal cells?
A. (i), (ii) and (iv) B. (i) (iii) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii) D. (ii) and (iv)
11. Which of the following features belong to both an
arachnida and an insect1?
A. cuticle and two pairs of wings
B. six legs and two pairs of wings
C. six legs and antennae
B. jointed legs and cuticle
12. Which one of the following is not an arthropod ?
A. a crayfish
B. A flea
C. A snail
D. An ant.

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13. Spiders can be distinguished from insects by the fact that

spiders have
A. a hard outer skeleton B. a large abdomen
C. Four pairs of legs D. Biting mouth parts
14. The scientific name of human beings is Homo sapiens. The
word Homo and Sapiens in that order refer to
A. family and species B order and family
C. genus and species D phylum and class
15. Butterfly and spider both belong to the phylum Arthropoda
because
A. both of them have two pairs of wings each
B. both of them have a pair of antennae each
C. both of them have segmented bodies
D. both of them have jointed legs
16. Which of the following statements is not true about
mammals?
A. they give birth to live young ones
B. have hairs or fur on their bodies
C. they are cold blooded
D. they have mammary glands
17. A natural population of organisms, which can interbreed
and produce fertile offsprings
A. class B. phylum
C. kingdom D. species
18. Wild life refers to
A. Wild animals only
B. all wild animals and plants
C. Animals found in game parks only
D. large wild animals only
19. The earthworm belongs to the phylum annelida as the
grasshopper belong to the phylum
A. Arthropoda B. orthoptera
C. mollusca D. insect

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20. Which one of the following shows the correct order of cell
organization?
A. organism system organ
B. tissue organ organism
C. organ tissue organism
D. tissue organ system
21. Which one of the following cells could have their functions
adversely affected by the AIDS virus?
A. erythrocytes B. blood plasma
C. leucocytes D. platelets
22. Which of the following combination of words about
amoeba are related?
A. pseudopodia, reproduction
B. nucleus, movements
C. contractile vacuole, water
D. ectoplasm, digestion
23. Which one of the following best explains why a car is not a
living thing?
A. it does not move B. it does not feed
C. it is not under self D. it does not excrete
24. Which one of the following is a fungus?
A. Mushroom B. Fern
C. Algae D. Dodder
25. Which one of the following is not a division of the plant
kingdom?
A. Saprophyte B. Bryophyte
C. Pteridophyte D. Spermatophyte
26. Which one of the following is a mollusc?
A. Tape worm B. Snail
C. Earthworm D. Hydra
27. Roots which develop from the stem of an onion sucker are
known as
A. Lateral roots B. Prop roots
C. Aerial roots D. Adventitious roots

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28. Which one of the following is NOT an underground stem?

A. couch grass rhizomes B. Corms of yam
C. Cassava D. Irish potato tuber
29. Which one of the following is not a function of stems?
A. conducting water from roots to leaves
B. Exposing flowers to pollinating agents
C. anchoring plant strongly into the ground
D. Translocation of manufactured food.
30. Study the following diagram of a leaf to answer the
question which follows.

The leaf can best be classified as

A. simple divided. B. Compound pinnate
C. Compound D. Simple digitate
31. Which one of the following contains the female gamete of
a plant?
A. androecium B. Embryo sac
C. Stigma D. Seed
32. Which one of the following is NOT true about rules
concerning biological drawing
A. arrows should never be used as label lines
B. Always use a sharp pencil
C. Label lines should never cross each other
D. Always good color must be used for shading.
33. A specimen was viewed under a microscope using an
objective lens labeled X40 and an eye piece labeled X10.
The total magnification of the specimen was
A. 50 B. 400 C. 30 D, 4

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34. Which one of the following pairs is NOT present in an

animal cell?
A. cellulose and chloroplasts
B. Cell vacuole and cytoplasm
C. cell membrane and cytoplasm
D. Cell membrane and cell wall.
35. Which one of the following DOESNOT prevent the spread
of malaria?
A. draining stagnant water
B. Boiling drinking water
C. slashing the compound
D. Applying oil on stagnant water
36. Which one of the following is the vector for dysentery?
A. tsetse fly B. Tiger mosquito
C. Housefly D. Anopheles mosquito
37. Which one of the following plants has leaves with parallel
leaf venation?
A. Bean plants B. maize plants
C. Cassava D. groundnuts
38. Butterfly and spider both belong to the phylum arthropoda
because:
A. both of them have two pairs of wings each.
B. both of them have a pair of antenna each
C both of them have segmented bodies
D. both of them have jointed legs
39. Which of the following structures separates the
nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm in a cell?
A. Cell wall B. plasma membrane
C. Cell membrane D. nuclear membrane
40. A bat is classified as a mammal and not as a bird. This is
because
A. it doesn't posses feathers like the bird do
B. it has two hind legs and two wings

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C. its body is covered by fur

D. its toes and fingers have claws
41. Which of the following statements is NOT true about
mammals?
A. mammals give birth to live young ones
B. mammals have hair or fur covering their bodies
C. mammals are cold blooded animals
D. mammals have mammary glands
42. A leaf tendril is used for:
A. breathing B. absorption of water
C. food storage D. climbing
43. Which one of the following possesses chlorophyll?
A. green grasshoppers B. Paramecium
C. mushroom D. Spirogyra
44. Which of the following characteristics is unique to birds
only?
A. reproduction by laying eggs
B. possession of back bones
C. possession of feathers
D. having variable body temperature
45. ________ is used by a housefly for walking on smooth
surface and up and down.
A. arolium B. spiny pads C. spiracles D. halters
46. An adult mosquito that rests with its abdomen inclined to
the ground is a species of?
A.anopheles B. aedes Cculex D. none of the above
47. The pupa stage in a housefly takes——— days to develop
into an adult.
A. 4 - 5 days B. 14 days C. 7-8 days D. 3 -10 days.
48. _________ is the stage in the life cycle of a housefly where
there is no feeding or movement
A. maggot B. larva C. pupa D.adult
49. _________ are used for movement in the larva stage.
A.arolium B. legs C.spiny pads D. wings

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50. The case that covers the stage after the larva stage is
referred to as
A. ootheca B. halteres C. puparium D. tubules
51. Which of the following is the odd man out in the life cycle?
A. housefly B. cockroach C mosquito D.butterfly
52. A male cock roach is different from a female by having
A.style B.cercus C. longer antennae D.larger abdomen
53. A mosquito larva breathes by means of
A. internal gills B. external gills
C. spiracles D. none of the above
54. State the odd man out.
A. frog B. Toad C.salamander D. gecko
55. Seaweed belongs to the group of plants known as
A. bryophyta B.thallophyta C. Algae Dschizophyta
56. The name of the larvae of the housefly is ?
A. wriggler B. Tumbler C.pupa D. maggot
57. Which of the following tissues has a protective function in
plants?
A. xylem B.phloem C. epidermis D. cambium
58. What part of the microscope is used for controlling the
amount of light entering into the microscope?
A. the diaphragm
B. the course adjustment knob
C. the objective lenses
D. the fine adjustment knob
59. A senior one student drew a diagram of a leaf on the
blackboard. The length of the diagram was 80cm. The
length of the actual leaf used for drawing was 20cm long.
What is the magnification of the drawing?
A. ×4 B. ×20 C. ×80 D. ×100
60. The scientific name of human beings is Homo sapiens. The
word Homo and sapiens in that order refer to;
A. family and species B. genus and species
C. phylum and class D. order and family

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61. The type of placentation as in an orange is known as?

A. marginal placentation B. Parietal placentation
C. Free central placentation D. Axile placentation
62. A pistil of a flower is apocarpous when:
A. it consists of more than one carpel which are not
fused
B. it consists of more than one carpels which are fused
together.
C. it consists of only one carpel
D. it consists of both fused and unfused carpels.
63. Which one of the following is not a class of arthropoda?
A.myriapoda B.Insecta C. Nematoda D. Arachnida
64. Which one of the following is not an insect?
A. spider B.Cockroach C.Locust D.Termites
65. Both angiosperms and gymnosperms are
A. bryophytes B. Spermatophytes
C. Pteridophytes D. Thallophytes
66. Which of the following is a correct order of classification
beginning with the broadest?
A. kingdom, phylum, order, class
B. kingdom, class, phylum, order
C. kingdom, order, class, phylum
D, kingdom, phylum, class, order

B: Short Answer Questions on Diversity of Living Things

1 a) What are vertebrates?

b) Name the five classes of vertebrates and in each
case give an example.
c) State any 3 characteristics of mammals
2. (a) state any 3 economic importances of a butterfly to
man
(b) Classify the butterfly as follows

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-Kingdom -phylum -class -order

3. (a) Name the five classes of arthropoda and give any
examples of each.
(b) Name the order of the following insects •
(i) House flies (ii) Butterfly (iii)Bee (iv) Cockroach
(v) Termite (vi) Beetle
4. (a) Classify man into the following:
(i) Kingdom (v) Family
(ii) Phylum (vi) Genus
(iii) Class (vii) Species
(iv) Orde
5. Classify maize as indicated below:
(i)family (ii)genus (iii)species

6. a) State the five kingdoms and give one example of

each.
b) Give two characteristics of each kingdom

C: Essay Questions on Diversity of Living Things

1. a) State the external characteristics on the following

parts of the body of housefly.
(i)the head (ii) the thorax (iii) The abdomen
b). Draw and label the diagram of the hind leg of a
cockroach.
c) Describe the mode of life of a cockroach
d) Using a simple scheme, describe the life cycle of a
cockroach.
e) State the kingdom, phylum, class and order of the
cockroach.
2. a) State the main groups of plant kingdom.

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b) Outline two examples of each of the groups you

have stated above and give one
characteristic of each.
3. (a) Using suitable diagrams, give an account of the
lifecycle of a house fly.
b) Explain how the spread of diseases by housefly can
be controlled.
4. (a) (i) Define the term Biology.
(ii) How does Biology differ from other science
subjects like physics and Chemistry?
(b) List any six Branches of Biology you know.
(c) Which branch of biology is concerned with each of
the following jobs:
(i) Production of new types of plants by
farmers.
(ii) Prevention of spread of sleeping sickness.
(iii) Controlling water weeds like hyacinth
(iv) Prevention of the spread of elephantiasis and
malaria.
5. (a) Draw a well labeled Structure of a plant cell
(b) Give any four differences between plain and animal
cells.
(c) State any five differences between plant and animal
as organisms.

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ANSWERS
A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions
1 B 11 D 21 C 31 B 41 C 51 B 61 D
2 C 12 C 22 C 32 D 42 D 52 A 62 A
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 B 43 D 53 B 63 C
4 B 14 C 24 A 34 A 44 C 54 D 64 A
5 D 15 D 25 A 35 B 45 A 55 C 65 B
6 D 16 C 26 B 36 C 46 A 56 D 66 D
7 C 17 D 27 D 37 B 47 D 57 C
8 B 18 A 28 C 38 D 48 C 58 A
9 D 19 A 29 C 39 D 49 C 59 A
10 C 20 D 30 B 40 C 50 C 60 B

B: b) Answers to Short Answer Questions

1 (a) Vertebrates are animals with back bones.
(b) The five classes of vertebrates and their examples.
Classes Examples
i) Reptilalia - Lizards, Gecko
ii) Amphibia - Toads, Frogs and Newts
iii) Mammalia - Kangaroo, bear
iv) Fish (pisces) - Tilapia, Nile perch
v) Birds (Aves) - Ostrich,dove
(c) Characteristics of mammals.
 Produce their young ones alive
 feed their young ones on milk from mammary
glands
 Bodies covered with fur
 Have external ear (pinna)

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2 (a) Three economic importance of butterflies to man

(i) They pollinate man's crops
(ii) Their lava stages (caterpillars) are very
destructive to man's crops.
(iii) The larvae of silk worms produce silk used
by man in making clothes.
(b) Classification of butterfly.
Kingdom - Animalia
Phylum - Arthropod a
Class - Insecta
Order - Lepidoptera
3. The five classes of arthropoda and examples
(i) Diplopoda centipede
(ii) Chilopoda millipede
(iii) Arachnida spider
(iv) Crustachea scorpion
(iv) insect mosquito
4. insect. Order
Housefly Diptera
Butterfly lepidoptera
Bee Hymenoptera
Cockroach Dictyoptera
Termite Isoptera
Beetle Coleoptera
5. Classification of man
Kingdom - Animalia
Phylum - Chordata
Class - Mammalia
Order - Primates
Family - Hominidae

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Genus - Homo
Species - Sapiens
6. Classification of maize
Kingdom - Plantae
Phylum - Spermatopliyta
Class - Angiosp^rmae
Order - Graminales
Family - Grassminae
Genus - Zea
Species - May
C: c) Answers to Essay Questions

1. a) (i) The head of a house fly bears

-A pair of compound eyes -A pair of proboscis
-A pair of antenna. -Simple eyes.
(ii) The thorax bears:
-Three pairs of jointed legs. -A pair of wings.
-A pair of balancers
(iii) The abdomen bears:
-A pair, of spiracles on each segment.
-The reproductive structure on the last segment.
-Hairs covering the body.

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Diagram of the hind leg of a cockroach.

Femur
Coxa
Tibia

Tarsus

Claw Arolium
c) A cockroach lives in a dark and warm place e.g. in
boxes, cup boards and cracks in the wall, It has
dorsoventrally flattened body which enables it to
hide in narrow cracks in the wall. It is a nocturnal
animal so it hides during day and feeds at night. The
insect is an omnivore so it feeds on all kinds of
food e.g. papers, clothes, and other dead animals.
(Flesh).It can move both by flight and use of legs,
It possesses a pair of long antennae which are used
as sense organs for smell.

The life cycle of a cockroach.

After mating the eggs are fertilized internally: The eggs
are laid when enclosed in a capsule (ootheca) and each
contains about 16 eggs. The ootheca is carried by the
female in the podicai plates and later deposited in a dark
place. These eggs hatch into Nymphs after a period of 40 to
45 days. The nymph produced resembles the adult insect
but lacks wings.

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The nymph moults several times within the next 11-14 days
and then turns into adult. The insect has an incomplete
metamorphosis. The adult may live for about 3 to 12
months.
DIAGRAM

The cockroach belongs to:

 kingdom - Animalia
 phylum - Arthropoda
 class -Insecta
 order - dictyoptera.
2. a) Main groups of plant kingdom are:
(i) Schizophyta (bacteria)
(ii) Thallophyta (fungi)
(iii) Pteridophyta
(iv) Bryophyt V) Algae
b)
Examples of the groups. Characteristics.
I)Schizophyta (bacteria) e.gcocci -Have no definite nucleus
and bacilli
-Are unicellular non-green plants
ii)Thallophyta(fungi) e.g. -Lack chlorophyll
Toadstool, rhi zopus -Reproduce both sexually and
asexual
iii. Pteridophyta e.g. club mosses, -Reproduce by special gametes
ferns. and spores.
iv. Bryophyta e.g. -mosses and -Have structures resembling stems,
liverworts. roots and leaves
v. Algae e.g. spirogyra, pond weed -They have chlorophyll.

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3. a) The Life cycle of a housefly:

The housefly undergoes a complete metamorphosis. The
adult female lays eggs after mating with the male. The eggs
are laid in about 2-7batches each with between 100-150
eggs. The eggs are laid in moist, rotting organic matter.
These eggs hatch with in about 8-12 hours, form the
maggots. They feed and grow rapidly. The stage moves by
means of spiny pads and they have spiracles for breathing.
Larvae live in dark place where they change into pupa.
The pupa stage doesn't feed; they are oval with rings
around them. The structure is a protective coat called
puparium. There is neither feeding nor movement in this
stage but formation of body parts takes place. Between 3 to
10 days the structure emerges from the pupal case as an
adult insect. This takes 2 weeks to mature and begins
mating. The complete cycle is about 3-4weeks.

b) The spread of diseases by housefly can be

controlled in the following ways
 By spraying the adult housefly with insecticide.
 By improving the sanitation i.e. proper disposal of
sewage, house hold refuse and cleaning of utensils.
 Destroying their breeding places by burning the
rubbish regularly or burying.
 Use of dust bins and covering them.

4, a) (i) Biology is a branch of science which deals

with the study of life.

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The word biology comes from two Greek words:

bios-which means life and
logos-which means the study of
(ii) Biology differs from other science subjects
in that it deals with the study of living things
unlike physics and chemistry which deal
with non-living things.
b) The branches of biology:
-Ecology -entomology
-Cytology -physiology -zoology -botany
c) (i) he branch concerned with production of new
types of plants by farmers is Genetics
(ii) Prevention of spread of disease/sickness is
Entomology
(iii) Control of spread of water hyacinth is
Ecology.
(v) Prevention of spread of elephantiasis and
malaria is Entomology and physiology.
5. a) Diagram showing the structure a plant cell

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b) Differences between plant cell and animal cell

Plant cell Animal cell
i, Contains cell wall made of -Has no cell wall
cellulose.
ii. Has a large vacuole. -Has small and temporary vacuole
or none.
iii. Has a small nucleus at the side. -Has a large nucleus centrally
placed.
iv. Has a thin layer of cytoplasm -The cell is entirely filled with
cytoplasm.
v. Has a definite shape -Doesn't have a definite shape.

c) Differences between plants and animal as

organisms,
i, Plants contain chlorophyll while animals do
not.
ii. Plants have unlimited growth while animal
have limited growth,
iii. Plants make their own food while animals
depend on already made food.
iv. Plants have localized movement while
animals can move from place to place
(unlimited movement).
v. Plants do not have limited number of parts
e.g. branches, leaves e.t.c while animals
have limited number of parts.

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MODULE TWO: THE FLOWERING PLANTS

QUESTIONS
B: Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following fruits is an example of a drupe?

A. Avocado B. Passion
C. Tomato D, Orange
2. The figure below shows a leaf type.
LEAF DIAGRAM

Which type of leaf is shown in the figure above?

A. compound bipinnate B. compound pinnate
C. compound trifoliate D. compound palmate
3. The drawings below are of different types of leaves.

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

What is the leaf labelled (i)

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A. compound pinnate B. compound bipinnate

C. simple trifoliate D. compound digitate
4. Leaf labelled (iii) is a
A. compound digitate B. compound trifoliate
C. simple palmate D. compound palmate
5. Which of the structures in 3 above is a simple palmate?
A.(i) B.(i) and (iii) C.(ii) D.(iii)
6. Which of the following is a modified root?
A. Sweet potato tuber. B. Irish potato tuber
C. Rhizome. D. Conn.
7. Which of the following parts of a plant cell provides
protection?
A.protoplasm B.Nucleus C.cell wall D.cell membran
8. Figure 1 below shows the structure of a part of the lower
epidermis of a leaf.

What is the structure labeled T?

A.stoma B.vacuole C.chloroplast D.guard cell
9. Which of the following is an example of a berry?
A.avocado B.passion C.ground nut D.cotton
10. The dry fruit which splits open along both sutures is
A.afolllde B. a capsule C. anachene D. a legume
11. Which of the following plants have leaves with parallel leaf
venation?
A.bean plantsB.cassava plantC.banana plant D.orange plant
12. The root, which grows from near the base of the trunk of
some woody plant is called
A. Lateral root B, Aerial root

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C. Prop root D. Adventitious root

13. Which of the following sets of flower parts do not match?
A. Sepals and petals together form the perianth
B. Sepals form calyx
C. Sepals form corolla
D. Carpels form the gynoecium
14. The increase in the girth of woody stems is due to mainly
the formation of.
A. Sclerenchyrna fibers B. secondary xylem
C. secondary phloem D. secondary cortex
15. Which one of the following plant food storage organs
contains most food substances?
A.Stern tubers B.root tubers C.fruits D.seeds
16. Which one of the following is not the Main function of the
roots?
A. anchorage B. storage
C. conducting water to the stern
D. absorption of water and mineral salts
17. Which characteristic belongs to a maize flower?
A. has sticky stigma inside the flower
B. produces small amounts of large spiky pollen
C. has long feathery stigma outside the flower
D. has large, brightly colored petals
18. The increase in girth of a stern is usually referred to as
secondary thickening.
The tissue responsible for it is
A.xylem B.phloem C.cambium D.parenchyma
19. Which of the following serves a different function from the
others?
A. clasping root B. buttress root
C. stilt roots D. root tuber
20. Which one of the following flower parts is most important
in promoting Insect pollination?
A. calyx B.Corolla C. stamens D. pistil

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21. The root modification shown below is for

A.storage B.excretion C.breathing D.extra support

22. A runner is
A. Stem which bends over and roots in soil
B. horizontal stem above the ground which give roots
and aerial shoots at the nodes.
C. Horizontal stem beneath the ground which gives
rise to roots aerial shoot at the nodes.
D. Short vertical stem that buds beneath the roots
23. The diagram in fig one is of a transverse section of a plant.

From which of the following was the section taken

A. Monocotyledonous stem
B. Monocotyledonous root
C. Dicotyledonous root
D. Dicotyledonous s stem
24. Which one of the following is not a primary function of
roots
A.manufacture of food B.anchor the plant into the soil
C.store food and water D.absorb water and mineral salts
25. Which of the following is a modified root?
A. sweet potato tuber B. an onion bulb

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C. Rhizome D. corm
26. Maize grain is both a seed and fruit because
A. shows hypogeal germination
B. has a fused pericarp and testa
C. shows two attachment of scars
D. has both endosperm and cotyledon
27. Which of the following is an example of a berry?
A.avocado B.passion C.groundnut Dcotton
28. In fig 2 below, which part transports water and dissolved
salts

R
Q
A. O B. P C. R D. Q
29. Which of the following is an example of a modified root
A. Irish potato tuber B. cassava tuber
C. rhizome D, corm
31. Figure one shows a leaf type

Which type of leaf is shown in the fig above

A. compound bipinnate B. compound trifoliate
C. compound pinnate D. compound palmate

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For each of the questions 32-35, select from the following

alternatives and write your chosen alternative against the
question.
A. rhizomes B. corms C. stem tubers D. bulb
32. Under ground stem that grows vertically
33. Underground stem, grows horizontally bears scale leaves
and buds.
34. Ginger belongs to this group.
35. Very short underground stem covered by swollen leaves.
For each of the questions below, select from the following
alternatives against the question.' A. synocarpous B.
apocarpous C. monocarpous D. androecium
36. Male part of a flower.
37. Flower bearing many unfused carpels
38. Flower bearing many but fused carpels
39. Part of a flower responsible for the production of pollen.
40. The placentation as in a pawpaw fruit is known as?
A. parietal placentation B. axile placentation
C. free central placentation D. marginal placentation
41. The non-essential parts of a flower are?
A. calyx and sepals B. androecium and corolla
C. corolla and calyx D. gynoecium and androecium
42. Which one of the following is least likely to be carried out
by roots?
A. anchoring the plant into the ground
B. manufacturing food for the plant
C. absorbing water and mineral salts for the plant
D. carrying out respiration
43. Transfer of pollen grains from one flower on a branch to a
flower on another branch of the same plant is known as?
A. artificial pollination B. cross pollination
C. self pollination D.incompatible pollination

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44. Which one of the following will most likely happen

if all the stamens of a self- pollinating fig were
removed?
A. the petals will dry and fall off
B. the androecium will dry and fall off
C. the pollen will be transferred to another flower
D. the ovules will not develop into seeds

B: Short Answer Questions

1. The figure below is the internal structure of a leaf.

INTERNAL STRUCTURE OF A LEAF

A
B
D
C

G F
a) Name the parts labeled A to G
b) The process that takes place within structure labeled
E
c) What is function of part labeled F

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2. The figure below shows a cross section of part of a plant.

E

G
F
H

I
a) Name the parts labeled E to I.
b) Giving reasons state the part of the plant from
which the section was taken
Part of plant
Reason
c) State the functions of parts H and I
d) give two similarities between the cells in part G and
those found at the tips of growing shoots
3. a). What do you understand by the following terms
(i) self pollination (ii) cross pollination
b). State any 4 differences between insect pollinated
flower and wind pollinated flower.
Insect pollinated flower Wind pollinated flower

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

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C: Essay Questions
1. How is the dicotyledonous leaf adapted to perform its
function?
2. (a) Draw and label a transverse section of a stern of a
herbaceous dicotyledonous plant.
(b) State the function of five parts that can be identified
on the section.
(c) Describe how stems are modified to perform other
functions other than conducting materials within the
plant.
3. Using named examples, describe the methods of fruit and
seed dispersal
a) State the 3 basic functions of a leaf to a plant.
b) Draw a well-labeled diagram of a leaf.
c) Leaves can be classified depending on the form of
their lamina. State four compound leaf types.
4. a) Make a large well-labeled diagram of a complete
flower to show the four floral whorls.
b) State the different types of dispersal in seeds and
fruits. Include the features, fruits and seeds posses

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that enhance their dispersal.

ANSWERS
A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions
1.A 6 11 16 21 26 B 31 A 36 41 A
A A C C D
2 B 7 12 17 22 27 B 32 B 37 42 B
C B B
3 D 8 D 13 C 18 23 28 D 33 A 38 43 C
C B A
4 B 9 B 14 19 24 29 B 34 A 39 44 D
B D
5 C 10 15 B 20 B 25 30 A 35 D 40
D A A

B: b) Answers to Short Answers

1. a) A -Cuticle B - Upper epidermis
C -Palisade mesophyll cells
D -Chloroplast E -Intercellular air space
F -Stoma G -Guard cell
b) The process is gaseous exchange
c) F allows entry of CO2 in for photosynthesis and
water out during transpiration
2. a) Cross-section of plant part.
E - Epidermis F- cortex
G - Cambium H - xylem I - Phloem
b) The part is the transverse section of a
dicotyledonous stem because the structure contains
the cambium separating the xylem from phloem.
c) Function of
H- is for transportation of water and mineral salts.

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I- is for transportation of manufactured food

from the leaf to storage organs
d) Similarities between cells in the cambium and those
at the tip of growing shoots.
 Both have the same size of cells,
 Both do not have central vacuole.
 Both have thin cell walls.
 Both divide to give rise to other cells/tissues.

C: c) Answers to Essay

1. How a dicotyledonous leaf is adapted to perform its

function.
 It has broad flat shape; this provides large surface area for
absorption of sunlight energy used for photosynthesis.
 The leaf is thin and this reduces the distance for diffusion
of gases.
 The leaf surface contains numerous stomata used for
absorption of carbon dioxide during photosynthesis as a
raw material and removal of 02 as a by product of the
process.
 The leaf contains palisade mesophyll cells on the upper
side and these contain most
 Chloroplasts that aid in light absorption.
 Within the spongy mesophyll layer the cell
 s are loosely packed with inter cellular air spaces for
gaseous exchange.
 The vascular bundles are contained in the leaf i.e. the
xylem for transporting water in the leaf as a raw material
and phloem vessels for transporting the manufactured food
from the leaf to other parts of the plant
 It contains chlorophyll which enables it to attract sunlight
for photosynthesis.

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2 (a) Drawing of the transverse section of a

herbaceous Dicot stem epidermis

cortex

cambium

xylem

phloem

(b) Functions of parts

(i) Epidermis: offers protection to the inner
structures
(ii) Cortex: Supports the stem.
(iii) Cambium: separates xylem from .phloem
and gives rise to new xylem by under going
mitosis,
(iv) Phloem transports manufactured food from
the leaves to other parts of the plant
(v) Xylem: transports water and mineral salts
from the room (soil) to the leave
(c)
 Some stems are modified to carry out storage of
food material. This includes the rhizomes, corms
and stem tubers like Irish potato. They are normally
swollen with food.
 Some stems bear tendrils which are used by soft
stemed plants for support and climbing. Others are
modified for vegetative reproduction e.g. the
rhizomes which have buds.
 Stems also contain lenticels used for gaseous
exchange and transpiration

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 Other green stems also carry out photosynthesis

3. Methods of fruit and seed dispersal,

Dispersal by water: some seeds have air spaces in them,
these allow them to float on water so that they are carried
by currents e.g. coconut and water lilies.
Dispersal by wind: Seeds of some plants are light and
small such that they can be easily carried by wind e.g.
orchids.
Some seed coats are modified into parachute like tuft
(pappus) or surrounded by a. mass of floss of thread.
This makes them to be blown about by wind. e.g. Cotton
and tridax.
Some are wing-like making them to be blown about by
wind e.g. jacaranda.
Dispersal by animals
Some fruits are succulent and thus can be eaten by animals
while the seeds it contains are thrown away e.g. avocado,
mango, oranges, pawpaw
Some seeds are tiny and can be eaten together with the fruit
but have hard seeds that are not digested e.g. guavas,
tomatoes. These when eaten raw can be passed out
undigested together with feaces and can later germinate
Some seeds can be dispersed by man through deliberate
farming e.g. beans, maize, wheat etc Other seeds contain
hooks which make them get attached onto the animals' fur
or clothes e.g. blackjack, desmodium
Dispersal by self explosion: Some fruits have dry
pericarps which split along the lines of weakness e.g.
legumes (beans, cowpeas)

MODULE THREE : INSECTS

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QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which one of the following does not lay eggs in its life
cycle?
A. bees B. grass hopper C. tsetse fly D. house fly
2. Which of the following vectors transmit malaria
A. aedes mosquito B. anopheles mosquito
C. culex mosquito D. tsetse fly
3. Which of the following are social insects?
A, bees and termites B. bees and butterflies
C. bees and grasshoppers D. bees and houseflies
4. Biological control as a method of prevention of malaria
would include
A. spraying oil on the surface of stagnant water
B. spraying of insecticides on the mosquito
C. introducing fish in water bodies
D. draining of stagnant water.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of insects only?
A. Exoskeleton B. Jointed legs
C. two pairs of wing D. three body divisions
6. Which of the following features belong to both an
arachnida and an insect?
A. cuticle and two pairs of wings
B. six legs and two pairs of wings
C. six legs and antennae
D. jointed legs and cuticle,
7. Which one of the following parasites is transmitted by
anopheles mosquitoes?
A. filarialworm B Trypanosome
C. plasmodium D. chistosoma

8. Which one of the following is an example of biological

control of pests?
A. application of pesticides
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B. destruction of pests' habitats

C. interruption of pests' breeding cycle
D. introduction of pests' predators
9. Which of the following vectors transmit elephantiasis.
A. aedes mosquito B. anopheles mosquito
C. culex mosquito D. tsetse fly
10. Malaria in humans is caused by?
A.Bacteria B.virus C.fungus D.protozoa
11. A male cockroach is different from the female cockroach
by having
A. Styles. B. Cercus C. Longer antennae D.Vitamin
12. Which one of the following organisms does not use blood
to carry oxygen within its body?
A. fish B. Bee C. snake D. an earthworm
13. Which one of the following diseases is not transmitted by
insects?
A. elephantiasis B. trypanosomiasis
C. yellow fever D. rabies
14. Which one of the following features is not characteristic of
all the class insecta?
A. jointed legs B. three body parts
C. complete metamorphosis D. exoskeleton
15. The following are characteristics of insects
(i) they undergo complete metamorphosis
(ii) they have 1 or 2 pairs of wings
(iii) they have 3 pairs of jointed legs
(iv) they possess exoskeletons
A. (iii) and (iv) B. (i) (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) (iii) and (iv) D. (iii) (ii) and (iv)
16. Which of these insects has one pair of wings?
A. tsetse fly B. butterfly
C. winged termite D. dragon fly
17. E, F G and H are characteristics of insects
E - undergo complete metamorphosis

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F - possess wings
G - have three pairs of legs
H - divided into three body parts
Which of these are common to all insects?
A. E and F B. G and H C. F and G D. E and G
18. Which one of the following activities takes place during the
pupa stage in the life cycle of an insect?
A. Hibernation B. Organ formation
C. Feeding D. resting
19. Which of these are characteristic of all insects?
A. complete metamorphosis and possession of three
pairs of legs
B. possession of three pairs of jointed legs and body
divided into three body parts.
C. possession of one or two pairs of wings and having
three pairs of jointed legs.
D. complete metamorphosis and body divided into
three main parts.
20. The last segment of a caterpillar bears a pair of structures
called?
A. Prologs B. Ovipositors C. Claspers D. true legs
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.D
6.D 7.C 8.D 9.C 10.D
11.A 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.A
16.A 17.B 18.B 19.B 20.C

MODULE FOUR : SOIL

QUESTIONS
A. Multiple Choice Questions
1. A soil sample with marked colloidal properties, swells in
water and shrinks when dry, and has a high content of
water is likely to be

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A. Silt B. Sandy soil C. Clay soil D. Loam soil

2. The following are hypothetical results from an experiment
to determine the water and humus content of a garden soil
weight of a crucible - Pg
weight f a crucible + soil - Qg
weight of a crucible -f- soil after drying to constant weight
Rg.
Weight of a crucible H-soil after heating to red hot = Sg
Which one of the following expressions gives the
percentage of the humus content of the soil?
A. R-P x 100%
Q
B. R-P x l00%
Q-S
C. R-S x 100%
Q-P
D. R-S x 100%
S-P
3. Which of the following best describes the practice of
mulching?
A. spreading of rotten kitchen refuse, weeds, grass
cuttings and dead leaves over a garden.
B. digging of animal droppings to fertilize gardens
C. addition of artificial fertilizers to the soil
D. spreading dry grass over the soil surface
4. Which of the following will prevent soil erosion?
A. regular hoeing B, growth of grass plants
C. addition of fertilizers D. ploughing down the slope
5. Which of the following types of bacteria causes the
conversion of ammonia into nitrites and nitrates?
A. nitrifying bacteria B. denitrifying bacteria
C. putrefying bacteria D. nitrogen fixing bacteria
6. Addition of humus to the sandy soil will
A. decrease the capillarity of the soil

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B. improve the water retention of the soil

C. increase the aeration of the soil
D. decrease its mineral content
7. A student heated strongly a dry sample of soil to a constant
mass, The loss of mass of soil is due to?
A. loss of mineral salts B. loss of water
C. escape of air D. destruction of humus
8. Which one of the following types of farming helps in
maintaining soil fertility?
A. crop rotation B. bush fallowing
C. monoculture D. mixedfarming.
9. Which of the following is characteristic of a soil with low
capillarity?
A. poor water retention B. poor drainage
C. poor aeration D. small particles
10. The following are sizes of different soil particles in
millimeters
P = 2.0 - 0.02 Q = 0.2 - 0.02 R - 0.02 - 0.002 S
- less than 0.0 which of the following soil particles would
you expect the rise of water by capillarity highest?
A. P B. Q C. R D. S
11. Which of the following farming practices would control
soil erosion?
A. Application of artificial fertilizers
B. addition of compost manure
C. terracing
D. mixed farming
12. Which of the following soil particles has the lowest
capillarity?
A. clay B.loam C. silt D. sand
13. Nitrogen fixation means conversion of
A. nitrites to nitrates B. nitrates to nitrites
C. nitrites to nitrogen D. nitrogen to nitrates

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14. Which of the following is the best advantage of crop

rotation?
A. It helps reduce soil erosion.
B. The growth of used weeds is brought under control,
C. It prevents exhaustion of particular mineral salts
from the soil.
D. It helps improve soil condition.
15. Which of the following; soil type has the highest
capillarity?
A. Silt. B. Loam. C. Clay. D. Sand.
16. The following results were obtained from an experiment
done to determine the percentage of air in the soil Sample.
Volume of water used =10 cm3
Volume of soil + water =40cm3
Volume of soil+water after stirring = 37cm3
From the results the percentage of air is
A. 7.5 B. 8.1. C. 10 D. 23.
17. The type of soil with minute air space and high rate of
retention capacity is
A. sand B. clay C. silt D. loam
18. Which one of the following are characteristics of sandy
soil?
A. poor aeration and poor drainage
B. good water retention and poor drainage
C. sticky when wet and poor drainage
D. good aeration and good drainage
19. While analyzing a soil sample, the following results were
obtained
Sand - 200 cm3 Water = 300 cm3
Water and sand after stirring = 450 cm3
What was the percentage of air in the sand?
A. 10% B.20% C. 25% D. 30%
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of soil with low
capillarity?

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A. poor water retention B. poor drainage

C. poor aeration D. small particles
21. Which type of soil has the following characteristics?
(i) heavy to cultivate
(ii) rich in dissolved minerals
(iii) high capillarity
A.loam B.clay C. sand D. silt loam
22. The results of an experiment to determine percentage of
water in a sample of soil are shown below
Mass of crucible = 15g
Mass of crucible plus soil = 30g
Mass of crucible plus soil after drying =25g
What is the percentage of water?

A.33.3% B.18.7% C.66.7% D.20.0%

23. All the following perform the same function except
A. Free living bacteria in the soil
B. symbiotic bacteria living in root nodules or legumes
C. Thunderstorms D. Fungi
24. Which one of the following does not lead to loss of
minerals from the soil?
A. Gulley erosion B. mulching
C. leaching D. sheet erosion
25. Which one of these properties are true of clay soil?
A. Low porosity and low capillarity
B. low porosity and high capillarity
C. High porosity and low capillarity
D. high porosity and high capillarity
26. Which of the following soil particles has the lowest
capillarity?
A.clay B.loam C.silt D. sand
27. One reason as to why farm crops exhaust soil whereas
natural bush vegetation does not is that

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A. Natural bush vegetation does not take much of the

mineral salts
B. Farm crops encourage erosion
C. natural bush vegetation live longer than farm crops.
D. Farm crops are often removed from the fields.
28. Which one of the following is not a method for soil
conservation?
A. Terracing B. contour laughing
C. deforestation D. strip cropping
29. The soil nitrates are transformed into nitrogen by
A. Root nodule bacteria
B. nitrogen fixing bacteria in the soil
C. denitrifying bacteria
D. nitrifying bacteria
30. The following occur in the nitrogen cycle
1. Nitrification 2. Nitrogen fixation 3. Denitrification
4. Putrification
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of this
process?
A. 1,3,4,2 B.2,4, 1,3 C.4,3, 1,2 D. 3, 1,2,4
31. Which of the following represents better, the diameter of a
silt particle
A. 2-0.2mm B. 0.2-0.02mm
C. 0.02-0.002rn D. less than 0.002mm
32. Which of the following farming practices would control
soil erosion
A.application of fertilizers B.addition of compost manure
C. terracing D. mixed farming
33. While analysing a soil sample, the following results were
obtained sand = 200cm3 water = 300 cm3 ,
water and sand after stirring = 450cm3 What was the
percentage of air in sand?
A. 10% B.20% C.25% D. 30%

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34. A student heated strongly a wet sample of soil. Loss in

weight of soil was due to
A. Evaporation of water B. Destruction of humus
C. Escape of humus D. None of the above
35. The least effective environment factor in soil formation is
A.wind B. heat C.water D. light
36. Clay soil is usually water logged due to
A. too much water B. poor drainage
C. small pores D.a higher force of capillarity
37. Which one of these methods is not important in the
maintenance of soil fertility on a given piece of land?
A. practicing crop rotation
B. addition of organic manure
C. maintaining of vegetation cover
D. burning of grass in the plot regularly
38. Which one of the following can be applied so as to reduce
the acidity of a soil?
A. ammonium compound B. nitrate
C. phosphate D. lime
39. Which one of the following farming methods would cause
pollution in an aquatic habitat?
A. mulching B. crop rotation
C. use of fertilizers D. application of farm yard manure
40. Which one of the following organisms improves aeration
and drainage of soil?
A.snails B.fungi C.termites D.bacteria
41. Which type of soil has the following properties?
(i) heavy to cultivate ii. High water retention
iii. High capillarity
A. Sandy loam. B.loam C.sand D.clay
42. The best method that prevents the start of gully erosion on
a cultivated hill is
A. contour cultivation B. strip cropping
C. mulching D. tree belts

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43. The results of an experiment to determine the percentage in

a sample of soil are shown below
Mass of crucible=15g
Mass of crucible plus soil =30g
Mass of crucible pus soil after drying =28g
Mass of crucible plus soil after heating to red hot=25g
What is the percentage of humus in this soil sample?
A.33.3% B.10.7% C.66.7% D. 20.0%
44. Which of the following are characteristic of sandy soil ?
A. poor aeration and poor drainage
B. good water retention poor drainage
C. Sticky when wet and poor drainage
D. good aeration and drainage
45. A student wanted to determine the percentage-of air in a
sail
Volume of very dry soil- 250 cm3
Volume of water ad- 160 cm3
Volume of mixture of soil +water= 380 cm3
What was the percentage of air in the oil sample?
A. 7.9 B. 12 C. 25 D. 34
46. The following results were obtained from an experiment
done to demonstrate the percentage air in a sample of soil.
Volume of water used = 10cm3
Volume of soil +.water = 40cm3
Volume of soil and water after stirring =37cm3
From the results, the percentage of air in the soil is
A.7.5% B.8.1% C. 10% D. 23.3%
47. Which one of the following can be applied so as to improve
the water holding capacity of sand?
A. Ammonium compound B. Nitrate
C. Phosphate D. Humus
48. Which one of the following increases the amount of
nitrogen in the atmosphere?
A. excretion

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B. action of fungi on dead organic matter

C. action of nitrifying bacteria
D. action of denitrifying bacteria
49. Which of the following farming practices would control
soil erosion hi a hilly place.
A.application of fertilizers B.addition of compost manure
C. terracing D. mixed fanning

ANSWERS
A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice
Questions on Soil
1. C 2. D 3. D 4.B 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. A 10.
B
11.C 12.D 13.D 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.D 19.C 20.A
C C C C
21. 22.A 23.D 24. 25. 26.D 27.D 28. 29.C 30.D
B B B C
31. 32. 33. 24.A 35.D 36.C 37.D 38.D 39.C 40.C
C B C
41.D 42.D 43.D 44.D 45.B 46C 47.D 48.D 49.C

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B: Short Answer Questions

1 (a) What is soil erosion
b) List any three types of soil erosion
c) State any five causes of soil erosion,
d) Give any five methods you can use to reduce soil
erosion in a hilly area.
2. Study the data below carefully and answer questions that
follow;
Type of ground Kg. Of soil No, of years need
cover removed annually to remove topsoil at
per 100m2 this rate
Virgin forests 5 500,000
Grass 775 3,225
Rotational 35,800 70
cropping
Cotton 79,000 32
Bare ground 166,000 15

Which type of ground cover is

(i) most efficient
(ii) least efficient, in soil conservation,
b) Why does a garden of cotton lose soil at a higher
rate virgin forest?
c) How would you reduce the rate of soil erosion of
bare ground?

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3. Figure below shows the nitrogen cycle.

Nitrogen in the atmosphere

B
A plants

E
Soil nitrates
C
animals
D

Ammonium salts in the soil

(a) Name the processes taking place at A, B, C, D and
E
(b) (i) How is the process at B useful to plants?
(ii) What organisms are responsible for the
process at C?
(c) State the importance of the process at A in the cycle
4. (a) Give three ways of maintaining soil fertility.
(b) State four ways by which soil organisms contribute
to soil fertility.
(c) The scheme below represents the nitrogen cycle.
Study it carefully and answer the questions that
follow that follow.

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Free nitrogen in
the atmosphere
X

Animals Plants
Nitrogen
A Decay

Ammonia Y C Nitric
acid Nitrogen
B

Nitrite

Nitrate
Nitric acid

(i) Give the general name of bacteria represented by by

letters A, b and C -
(ii) Name the process labeled x and y.
(iii) On the diagram show by means of arrows, the
direction of the process
C: Essay Questions on Soil
1. (a) What is soil profile?
(b) Draw and label a structure of soil profile
(c) State two characteristics of each zone. ?
2. Distinguish the following
(a) Strip cropping and intercropping
(b) Monoculture and mixed farming
(c) Crop rotation and contour sloughing
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(d) Terracing and bush farming

(e) Soil fertility and soil exhaustion
3. (a) Define the following biological terms.
(i) Weathering (ii) Soil profile
(iii) Soil exhaustion (iv) Soil fertility
(b) (i) What factors are considered when planning
a crop rotation?
(ii) What is the importance of including
legumes in crop rotation?
(iii) How are fertilizers applied?
4. (a) What is soil erosion?
(b) State man's activities that may lead to soil erosion.
(c) How can soil erosion be controlled?
5. (a) What are the constituents of fertile soil?
(b) In what ways may human activities
(i) Improve soil (ii) Degrade soil
6. (a) Explain the value of earthworms in maintaining the
soil in a condition suitable for crop growth.
(b) How does clay soil affect the fertility of soil?
7. (a) What is soil erosion?
(b) State the various types of soil erosion
(c) Explain how man’s activities may lead to soil
erosion
8. (a) What is soil erosion
(b) Name four types of soil erosion
(c) State the causes of soil erosion
(d) How does mulching help the farmer in
(i) Water conservation (ii) Soil erosion
9. Give the importance to the plants of each of the soil
components that make up a fertile soil.
10. (a) Explain ho w the small size of soil particles in a soil
type affect the soil’s suitability for plant growth.
(b) Describ e an experiment to compare the rate of
drainage of two soil samples.(qn.36 UNEB 2009)

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B: b) Answers to Short Answers Questions on Soil

1 a) Soil erosion is the washing away of the top most
fertile soil.
b)
-Sheet erosion -Rill erosion -Gulley erosion.
c) -Deforestation -Over grazing
-Cultivating up and down the slope.
-Monoculture -Bush burning
d) -Re-a forestation -Strip cropping
-Mulching -Terracing -Contour ploughing
2 a) (i) Virgin forest (ii) Bare ground
b) -In cotton garden, plants are more spaced than in a
virgin forest. This leaves chance to running water
and direct rain drops
-A cotton garden is constantly ploughed, hence
loosening the soil, unlike a virgin forest which is
intact
c) -By planting cover crop
-By digging trenches (terracing).
-By contour ploughing.
3. a) A - Denitrification B -Nitrogen fixation
C -Decomposition D -Nitrification
E -Absorption
b) (i) Plants get nitrogen in form of nitrates for
chlorophyll formation.
(ii) Bacteria and Fungi
c) Helps to prevent exhaustion of nitrogen from the
atmosphere.
4. a) -Applying manure -crop rotation -Mulching.
b)
 Decompose dead matter to nutrients.
 They die and form nutrients
 Some fix nitrogen in the soil.
 They create spaces in the soil that ease soil aeration,

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c)
(i) A -Nitrogen fixing bacteria
B -Nitrifying bacteria
C -Denitrification
(ii) X -Nitrogen fixation Y - Absorption

C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Soil

1. (a) Soil profile is the vertical arrangement of soil from,

top to, bottom
(b) Drawing showing soil profile

Top Soil

Sub Soil

Parent Rock
(c) Characteristics of Top soil
(i) Contains much humus. (ii) Has a lot of plant roots.
Characteristics of Sub Soil
(i) Has a few plant roots. (ii) Has fewer air spaces.
Parent Rock Material
(i) Has no plant roots. (ii) Has no air spaces

2. Distinguish between
(a)Strip cropping and intercropping
In strip cropping there are alternate bands of tilled
and untilled land following the contour. The grass
or cover crop strips between the ploughed land
prevent soil from being washed away. While in
intercropping two or more crops may be planted on

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the same piece of land at the same season e.g. maize

and beans.
(b) Monoculture and mixed farming
Monoculture is planting only one type of crop on
the same piece of land season after season while
mixed farming involves planting of crops and raring
of animals on the same piece of land.
(c) Crop rotation and contour ploughing
Crop rotation is the planting of different types of
crops on the same piece of land but at different
seasons while contour ploughing is ploughing round
or at right angle to the slope instead of ploughing up
and down the hills.
(d) Terracing is ploughing along the lines of contours
in horizontal strips supported by walls thus breaking
the steep downward rapid
movement of run off. Bush fallowing is when the
land is left to rest without cultivating so that grass
can grow and the soil regains its fertility.
(e) Soil fertility is when the soil contains all the
necessary components/ nutrients required for proper
plant growth while soil exhaustion is when the soil
has lost its fertility that supports plant growth.
3. (a)(i) Weathering is the disintegration of rocks
leading to the formation of soil.
(ii) Soil profile is the vertical arrangement of
soil from, top to bottom
(iii) Soil fertility is when the soil contains all the
necessary components/ nutrients required
for proper plant growth while soil
exhaustion is when the soil has lost its
fertility that supports plant growth
(b) (i) Factors considered when planning a crop
rotation.

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-Nutrients removed by the previous crop

-Crop that replenish the lost nutrients e.g. legume
which is a source of the nitrogen
-Crops that shed their leaves and those that cover
the soil
(ii) Importance of including legumes in crop
rotation:
They help to maintain soil fertility by adding
nitrogen to the soil
(iii) Fertilizers are applied by spreading them
over the surface of the soil or placing them
around the plants at the base.

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MODULE FIVE: NUTRITION

QUESTIONS

A: Multiple Choice Questions on Nutrition

1. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
A.heterotrophism is a type of nutrition whereby an
organism makes its own food
B. dry dehiscent fruits are dispersed by self explosive
dispersal.
C. fertilization is the fusion of the pollen tube nucleus
with egg nucleus of embryo sac
D. clay settles at the bottom during a sedimentation
test.
2. Heterodont teeth are of different shapes and size. Which of
the following is the odd man out?
A. incisor B. canine C. molars D. carnassials
3. A medium of low pH stops the action of
A. Pepsin B. Lipase C. Ptyalin D. Maltase
4. It is known that a lactating mother may suffer from the
weakening of teeth and bones. Which vitamin and minerals
would she need to correct this condition?
A. Vitamin K, iodine and phosphorous
B. Vitamin C, Phosphorous and Calcium
C. Vitamin A, Calcium and Iron
D. Vitamin D, Phosphorous and Calcium
5. Which one of the following groups of insects all have
similar feeding habits?
A. bee, mosquito, caterpillar
B. housefly, cockroach, praying mantis
C. bees, butterfly, cockroach
D. bees, butterfly
6. What mode of nutrition is used by Rhizopus?

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A. Heterotropism B. autotropism
C. parasitism D. saprophytism
7. The tapeworm taenia solium has a primary and secondary
host. Which of the following are the primary and secondary
hosts in that order?
A. pig and cow B. cow and man
C. man and cow D. man and pig
8. Which one of the following dental formulae is that of man?
A. 1 0/3 C 0/1 PM 3/3 M 3/3 B, 12/2 C l/1 PM 2/2 M 3/3
C. 1 3/3 C 0/0 PM 3/3 M 2/2 D.1/2 C O/1 PM 4/4 M 3/3
9. Bacteria that often live in their hosts where both partners
cannot survive without the other are called.
A.Parasites B.symbionts C.commensals D. saprophytes
10. In which two parts of the alimentary canal is starch
digested?
A. Small intestine and mouth B. mouth and duodenum
C. Duodenum and stomach D. mouth and stomach
11. Which of the following parts of a tooth contains living
tissue?
A. Cement B. pulp cavity C.enamel D. dentine
12. Kwashiorkor results from severe deficiency of
A. Vitamin B. Proteins C. carbohydrates D. fats
13. Lack of vitamin A in the diet causes
A. scurvy B.scabies C. night blindness D. goiter
14. In green plants most photosynthesis takes place in
A. guard B. epidermal cell
C. spongy mesophyll D. palisade cells
15. Which of the following is the main function of leaves?
A. storage of food B. manufacture of food
C. providing shade to the plan D. for transpiration
16. Which of the following substances is digested in a cow but
not in man?
A. protein B.starch C. cellulose D.hydrochloric acid

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17. Which of the following reagents is used for testing for

starch in a food substance?
A. sodium hydroxide B. benedict's reagent
C. iodine solution D. hydrochloric acid
18. Which of the following mineral elements are for bone
formation? .
A. Iodine, sodium and calcium.
B, Iron, fluorine and calcium.
C. Iodine, Fluorine
D. phosphorous, calcium
19. Which of the following organism is not a heterotroph?
A. Mushroom. B.Algae. C.Tick. D.Grasshopper.
20. In which part of the guts does mucus have a protective
function?
A.Oesophagus B.Stomach.C.Small intestine. D.Rectum.
21. What would happen to an enzyme if the temperature of its
medium were increased to above 50°C? The enzyme
would be
A.Killed B. Activated C.Denatured. D.Inactivated.
22. A rabbit is able to utilize cellulose because it
A. Has symbiotic bacteria in the stomach,
B. Has symbiotic bacteria in the caecum.
C. Has a very long alimentary canal.
D. Secretes the enzyme cellulose.
23. What are the products of digestion of lactose sugar?
A.Glucose only. B.Glucose and galactose.
C.Galactose and Fructose. D.Fructose and Glucose.
24. Green plants produce less carbon dioxide during the day
because
A. the rate of respiration is low during the day.
B. some of the carbon dioxide produced is used up
internally for photosynthesis
C. transpiration interferes with carbon dioxide
evolution by leaves

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D. most stomata close due to strong heat during the

day.
25. In which two parts of the alimentary canal are lipids
digested?
A. mouth and ileum B.duodenum and ileum
C. mouth and stomach D.duodenumand stomach
26. What mode of nutrition is used by a bread mould?
A. Heterotrophism B. Autotropism
C. Parasitism D. Saprophytism
27. Which of the following vitamins are soluble in fats?
A. A, C, D, E B. A, B, C, K
C. A,B,C,E D. A,D,E,K
28. Lack of iodine in the human diet causes
A. anaemia B. scurvy C. goiter D. rickets
29. Enzymes differ from catalysts because enzymes
A. are required in small amounts
B. respond to temperature changes
C. are protein in nature
D. speed up reactions
30. When preparing to test for starch in a leaf, the leaf is boiled
in alcohol in order to
A. burst chloroplasts
B. remove colored materials in a leaf
C. quicken the reaction of starch with iodine
D. soften the leaf
31. Bacteria that often live in their hosts where both partners
cannot survive without the other are called
A. parasites B. symbionts
C. commensals D. saprophytes
32. Which one for the following statements is not correct about
photosynthesis?
A. water is required B. oxygen is a by-product
C. sugar is a product D. energy is released
33. The following are body secretions

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(i) amylase (ii) trypsin (iii) hydrochloric acid

(iv) pepsin (v) rennin
Which of them are contained in gastric juice?
A.(i) and (iii) B. (ii) and (iv) C. (iii) and (iv) D.(i) and (ii)
34. What relationship exists between a groundnut plant and
nitrogen-fixing bacteria in its root nodules?
Aparasitism B. saprophytism C. naturalism
D.symbiosis
35. what gas is likely to be evolved from a submerged aquatic
plant placed in bright sunlight?
A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen C.hydrogen D. nitrogen
36. Yellowing of leaves in growing maize plants indicates
deficiency of
A, calcium B. sulphur C. nitrogen D. magnesium
37. A man's urine gave a positive test with Benedict's solution.
What is the best deduction this man?
A. he had been eating a lot of sugar
B. there was too much insulin in his blood
C. there was too much glycogen in his blood
D. he was suffering from diabetes
38. Which of the following mineral elements are for bone
formation?
A. iodine, sodium and calcium
B. iron, fluorine and calcium
C. phosphorus, sodium and fluorine
D. calcium, fluorine and phosphorus
39. Which of the following organisms is not a heterotroph?
A. mushroom B. Alga C. Tick D.grass hopper
40. Vitamin Bl is also called
A.Retinol B. Thiamine C. Riboflavin D.Nicotinic acid.
41. Cane sugar consists of
A. Glucose only B. glucose and galactose
C. glucose and fructose D. fructose only

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42. Faulty bone formation in children is a deficiency disease

caused by lack of
A.Calciferol B.Retinol C.Ascorbic acid D.Thiamine
43. On addition of sodium hydroxide to a test solution followed
by copper (ii) sulphate drop by drop a purple solution was
formed. The deduction was that is present.
A.Proteins B.starch C.vitamin D. lipids
44. DCPIP tests for
A.Vitamin C B.Fats C. Proteins D.Reducing sugars.
45. Which one of the following is the hardest part of a tooth?
A.Cement B. dentine C. enamel D.root .
46. Roughage in a human diet is essential because it
A. Helps the body to reabsorb water
B. adds bulk to the food and eliminates possibilities of
constipation
C. It is easily digested by man
D. it contains some nutrients.
47. The bacteria which live in the root nodules of plants like
beans belong to the genus called
A. Nitrobacter B. nitrosomonas
C. azotobacter D. Rhizobium
48. The organisms that obtain their nutrients from dead organic
matter are called.
A.Parasites B.symbionts C.saprophytes D. predators
49. Which of the following is not a function of leaves?
A. gaseous exchange B. manufacture of food
C. absorption of water and mineral salts
D. storage of food.
50. Enzymes are said to be specific in nature because
A. they are protein
B. act on one kind of substrate
C. remain unchanged at the end of a reaction
D. are destroyed by high temperature
51. The chemical digestion of fats starts in

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A. stomach B. duodenum C. liver D. ileum

52. Which of the following is not true for photosynthesis?
A.oxygen is released B. carbon dioxide is used
C. light and water are also necessary
D. carbon dioxide is released
53. Which part of a leaf has most chloroplasts?
A. Palisade layer B. spongy layer
C. mesophyll layer D. epidermal layer
54. Deficiency of ascorbic acid in the diet causes
A. Rickets B. scurvy C. Beriberi D. kwashiorkor
55. The saprophytic and holozoic modes of feeding are similar
because both
A. Do not feed on cellulose B. do not require chloroplasts
C. Utilize enzymes to breakdown complex food substance
D. feed only on dead organic matter
56. Which one of the following pairs of organs is important in
the digestion of fats?
A. stomach and liver B. Pancreas and liver
C. liver and stomach D. stomach and mouth
57. Which one of the following is not a function of the liver
A.regulation of blood sugar B.production of insulin
C.formation of bile D.storage of iron
58. Which of the following biological processes describes a
fungus growing on the leaves of a living potato plant?
A. predation B. parasitism C. competition D. symbiosis
59. The role of rennin in children during digestion is
A. braking down milk protein into peptides
B. mixing milk protein with the digestive enzyme
C. activating pepsin to digest milk protein
D. coagulating milk protein
60. A farmer who grows beans noticed that the leaves turned
yellow while the veins remained green. The minerals likely
to be deficient in the soil are
A. magnesium and iron B.potassium and magnesium

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C. calcium and potassium D.zinc and calcium

61. An adult person who constantly feeds on iodine-deficient
diet may show one of the following conditions
A. anaemia B. Goiter C.Cretinism D. dry scaly skin
62. What would result if secretion of gastric juice were
inhibited in an individual who has just had a meal of posho
and beans
A. The person would suffer from heart burn
B. The person would suffer from constipation
C. Digestion would not take place
D. Digestion of certain food types would delay
63. Photosynthesis is said to have a pair of conditions, a pair of
raw materials and a pair of products. Which of these is the
correct set?
A Carbon dioxide and light; water and chlorophyll,
oxygen and sugars
B. Water and light; carbon dioxide and chlorophyll;
oxygen and sugars.
C. Light and chlorophyll; carbon dioxide and sugar;
oxygen and sugars
D. Carbon dioxide and water; light and chlorophyll;
oxygen and sugars
64. Which of the following cells in the leaf contain the least
number of chloroplasts.
A. palisade cells B. guard cells
C. epidermal cells D. spongy mesophyll cells
65. What is the function of albumen in an egg?
A. is a source of fat and protein for the embryo
B. source of protein and water for the embryo
C. suspends the embryo
D. stores embryo's excretory products
66. The milk teeth in humans consist of
A. incisors only B. incisor and canines
C.incisors, canines and premolars D.Incisors and premolars

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67. Which of the following reasons supports natural feeding of

baby on mother's milk is (i) easy to digest
(ii) Made up mainly of carbohydrates
(iii) contains correct antibodies
(iv) fosters relationship between mother and baby
A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (ii),(iii) and (iv) D. (i), (iii) and (iv)
68. Which of the following factors is not important in as far as
nutrition of the common mould is concerned
A. it produces large quantities of spores
B. It can respire anaerobically
C. It has a highly branched mycelium
D. It secretes enzymes
69. A plant with poorly developed roots is likely to be growing
in a soil that is deficient in
A.sulphur B. phosphorus C.magnesium D.iron
70. Which one of the following organism carries out
intracellular digestion
A.fungi B. algae C.amoeba D.hook worm
71. The mode of feeding displayed by a mucor is described as
A. holozoic B. filter feeding C. parasites D.saprophytic
72. Which one of the following would contain the largest
number of proteins
A. blood plasma B. glomerular filtrate
C. urine D. serum
73. Which one of the following would be observed in the plant
growing in a soil lacking magnesium
A. poorly developed shoot system
B. yellowing of leaves
C. poorly developed root system
D. yellowing of buds
74. What is the function of phloem in green plants?
A. transporting water B. supporting the plant
C. transporting mineral salts

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D. transporting manufactured food

75. The element that is essential for the formation of both plant
cell walls and bones in animals is
A. Phosphorus B. Iron C. Calcium D. Sulphur
76. Which one of the following diets would be recommended
for an over weight person?
A. Low carbohydrate, high protein, low fat
B. High carbohydrate, low protein, low fat
C. High carbohydrate, high protein, low fat
D. Low carbohydrate, low protein, low fat
77. Which one of the following dental formulae represents that
of a man?
A. 2:1:2:3 B. 2:1:2:0 C. 0:1:2:3: D.0:1:3:3
78. Which one of the following-monosaccharide is a common
component of sucrose starch glycogen?
A.fructose B. galactose C. glucose D. mannose
79. Blockage of the bile duct would impair the digestion of:
A. proteins B. cellulose C. starch D. fat
80. The chisel-shaped structure of incisor is suitable for
A.Cutting B.tearing C.chewing D.grinding
81. Which of the following promotes the digestion of fats?
A. amylase B. bile
C. pancreatic juices D. hydrochloric acid
82. The process by which amoeba removes undigested food
material is
A. osmosis B. osmoregulation C. diffusion D.egestion
83. Which one of the following food substances is digested in a
rabbit but not in man?
A. glycogen B. starch C. cellulose D. vitamins
84. Which of the following metal/metals is required for blood
formation?
A. copper B.calcium C.magnesium D. iron
85. The largest organ in the mammalian body is the
A. liver B. Lungs C.skin D. stomach

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86. The non green parts of variegated leaves get sugars from
photosynthesis by the process know as
A.osmosis B.diffusionC. translocation D.active transport
87. Which of the following biochemical tests are for proteins?
A.biuret and benedict's test B. millons and felhing's tests
C. benedict's and felhing's tests D. biurets and millon's tests
88. The following is a list of some parts of the alimentary
canal. Stomach, ileum, colon and oesophagus. Which of the
following places them in the correct order in which food
passes through?
A. stomach, ileum, colon, oesophagus
B. oesophagus, stomach, colon, ileum
C. oesophagus, stomach, ileum, colon
D. stomach, colon, oesophagus, ileum
89. A man with a full set of teeth has more
A. molars than premolars B. more incisors than molars
C.more premolars thanmolarsD. more canines than incisors
90. Animal x has the following dentition I 0/3 C 0/3 pm3/3 m
3/3
What type of feeder is animal X?
A.Omnivore B. carnivore C. herbivore D. scavenger
91. Which group of organisms is least limited in the sources of
food?
A.carnivores B.saprophytes C.omnivores D. herbivores
92. Artificial immunity to a disease is developed by
A. catching the disease and recovering from it
B. inoculation with a mild strain of the pathogen
C. receiving antibiotic injections against the disease
D. taking drugs that prevent the disease
93. Which one of the following structural adaptations of leaves
is important for light absorption during photosynthesis?
A. dense network of veins
B. large number of stomata on leaf surfaces

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C. large intercellular air spaces in the spongy layer

D. broad and flat shapes of leaves
94. Which of the following vitamins is deficient in a person
whose gums bleed?
A. vitamin C B. vitamin E C. vitamin B2 D. vitamin K
95. Which one of the following is not an enzyme?
A. maltase B. ptyalin C. insulin D. pepsin
96. What would be the best reason for classifying an animal as
a carnivore?
A. more teeth in the upper jaw than lower jaw
B. larger number of teeth in comparison with a
herbivore and omnivore
C. well developed canines and carnassial teeth
D. large gaps between the teeth and posses molar and
premolars with two or more cusps
97. Which one of the following structures is not part of the
digestive system?
A. villi B. gall bladder C. alveoli D. spleen
98. Which one of the following compounds is a constituent of
enzymes?
A. lipids B. polysaccharides C.proteins D.vitamins
99. The enzyme responsible for the conversion of soluble
caseinogens in milk to soluble casein in babies is known
as?
A.pepsin B. Trypsin C. rennin D.rennin
100. Which of the following are monosaccharides
A. fructose and glucose B. glucose and galactose
C. galactose and fructose D. Two glucose molecules

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B: Short Answer Questions on Nutrition

l. The graphs below show the effects of temperature and PH
on the activity of an enzyme in the digestive system
Graph A Graph B

Rate of Rate of
reaction reaction

1 2 3 PH 20 30 40 50 Temp
A. At what temperature and PH does the enzyme show
optimum activity?
B. suggest one reason for the sharp fall in the rate of
reaction of enzyme as shown in graph A.
C. (i) Suggest the identity and location of this enzyme
Give a reason for your answer to c (i) above.
For the enzyme in (i) above, suggest the food it acts on
and the end products.

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2. The figure below shows part of the human alimentary canal

and associated organs.

a) Name the parts labeled A to E

b) Briefly explain the importance of the structure
labeled D in digestion
4. The figure below is the longitudinal section of a
mammalian tooth.
i
ii
iii
iv
v

vi

(a) Name the parts labeled i - vi

(b) State the functions of the parts (i)-(iv)

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5. The diagram below shows the structure of a villus.

A
D
E
B

C
a) Name the parts labeled A to E.
b) What food substances are absorbed from (i) part D?
c) State any two factors which make the villus an
effective absorbing surface.
d) State two nutrients which are absorbed in the gut
before reaching the villus.
6. The figure below shows part of the Human alimentary
canal and associated organs.

C
B
D
E

(a) Name the parts labeled A to E

(b) Describe what would happen in the event of a.
malfunction in structure D

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(c) What is the fate of the substance from structure B.

Name these substances.
(d) Complete the table below by stating one function
and one effect of deficiency in flowering 08 for
each of the elements listed.
Element Function Effect of deficiency
Nitrogen
Phosphorus
Magnesium

8. The figure below shows the diagram of a stomach of a

ruminant animal
(i)
(vi)
(v) (ii)

(iv) (iii)

a) Name the parts labelled (i) to (vi)

b) Using arrows, indicate the direction of food
movement in the stomach of the ruminant.
c) Write the dental formula of a sheep.
d) Give any two reasons why herbivorous animals
obtain maximum nourishment from plant tissues.
9. a) What is the difference between;
(i) Fats and Oils
(ii) starch and sugars
(b) Define the following terms
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(i) Autotrophis(ii) Heterotrophis (iii) Parasitism

10. The figure below shows an internal structure of leaf
wax cuticle
a
chloroplast
b
xylem

phloem c air space

stoma
(a) Label the layers a, b, c and d on the diagram
(b) Give three differences between layers b and c
(c) Using evidence from the diagram, describe how the
structure of a leaf is suitable for photosynthesis
(d) What is the importance of wax on layer a?
11. To investigate the effect of carbon dioxide on
photosynthesis, a green plant was destarched by leaving it
in darkness for 24 hours. After destarching, leaf A was put
into a conical flask as shown in the figure below while leaf
B was immediately tested for starch. The set up was left in
light for 1 hr after which leaves A and C were tested for
starch.

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Conical flask
Leaf B

Leaf A Leaf C

Sodium
Hydroxide
Solution

(a) Why was sodium hydroxide used inthe experiment?

(b) State two reasons why when the plant was placed in
the dark for 24 hrs, it became destarched?
(c) State the purpose of including leaves B and C in the
experiment;
(d) What was observed when leaves A, B and C were
tested for starch ?
(i) Leaf (ii) Leaf B (iii) Leaf C
(e) Give reasons as to why each of the following is
carried out while testing for starch?
(i) put the leaf in boiling water
(ii) put the leaf in boiling ethanol
12. The table below shows the effect of temperature on the
activity of amylase on starch. Six test tubes, each
containing a mixture of starch and amylase, were placed in
water baths maintained 0°C, 10°C, 20°C, 30°C, 40°C and
50°C and allowed to stand. Study the table and answer the
questions that follow

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Test tube Temperature ( C) Time taken for starch

digestion(minutes)
1 0 Starch still present
after 60 minutes
2 10 22
3 20 11
4 30 5
5 40 3.5
6 50 Starch still present
after 60 minutes

a). How does temperature affect the rate of amylase?

b). Give one reason in each case for the results
obtained in the tubes kept at
i) 00c ii) 500c
13. (a) What is an enzyme?
(b) Study the experimental set up in fig below and
answer the questions

Hydrogen
Raw potato peroxide
Distilled water tissue Boiled
Boiled potato
potato
tissue
tissue

(i) What is being investigated

(ii) Suggest what was observed in each of the
test tubes.
(ii) Explain the observations suggested in (b)
(ii) above
14. (a) What is an enzyme?
(b) State three factors which affect enzyme action.

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(c) The optimum pH for enzyme X is 2,00 and for

enzyme y 9.00. Suggest the names of the enzymes
X and Y, and name the parts of the alimentary
canal where you would expect to find each enzyme.
Name of Part of the enzyme is
enzyme alimentary canal
found

(a) State two enzymes contained in the pancreatic juice ,the

food substance acted on by each enzyme and the
product formed in each case.

Food substance Product formed

acted upon

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15. Figure below is an experimental set up to investigate the

conditions for photosynthesis.The plant is in light but
previously been kept in the dark.
Cotton wool soaked in lime water
Cork
Sodium hydroxide solution

Cork
stem of a plant

Cotton wool soaked

in lime water
Sodium hydroxide solution
a) Which condition is being investigated?
b) Why
(i) was it necessary to keep the plant in the dark
overnight?
(ii) is the leaf attached to the plant?
(c) What is the purpose of sodium hydroxide in the
flask?
(d) How would you test for starch in the leaf after
sometime?
16. The graphs in figure below show results of an experiment
carried out in a glass bath containing water plants.
Oxygen concentration and the PH of the water in the bath
were measured over a 24-hour period.
(a) At what time of the day is PH
(i) Lowest (ii) Highest
(b) Explain why PH is lowest and highest at the times
given in answers to (a) above
(c) Explain the rise in Oxygen concentration between
6,00am and 12.00 noon,

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(d) What would be the effect on PH if some fish were

introduced in the water?
(e) The water bath was covered tightly with a dark
polythene sheet and after sometime the fish
introduced in the water died. Explain why this
happened. Oxygyn
concentration

Oxygyn
concentrati
on,/ph
pH

12.00
midnight 6.00am 12.0noon 6 pH midnight

17. The diagram in the figure below shows the structure of a

villus.

i
ii
iii
iv

a) Name the parts labeled (i)-(v)

b) state the function of part (ii)
c) State two features, which make a villus an effective
absorbing surface,

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d) How does absorbed food in part (ii) reach the

general circulating system?
e) State two nutrients, which are absorbed in the gut
before reaching the villus.
18. a) briefly comment on the function of the following
when a man is eating cooked cassava.
i) saliva ii) the tongue
iii) incisors iv) molars
b) What happens to the cassava
i) in the stomach ii) in the small intestines
(ileum)
19. (a) What is a balanced diet?
(b) In which way is the il eum adapted for its
function?
(c) outline the fate of food after digestion.
(Qn 34 UNEB2008)

C: Essay questions on Nutrition

1. (a) Briefly describe the digestive process that takes
place in the
(i) Duodenum (ii) ileum
(b) How is the absorption surface of the Alimentary
canal adapted for it functions?
2. (a) Give two examples in each case, explain the
following ,
(i) parasitism (ii) symbiosis
(b) How is the tape worm adapted to its parasitic mode
of life?
3. Describe an experiment to show that oxygen is produced
during photosynthesis.
4. Describe experiments to show that starch and reducing
sugar are present in a given solution X
5. Describe an experiment you would carry out to show that
starch is produced during photosynthesis by green plants.
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6. (a) (i) Give any five sources of Carbohydrates

(ii) State any two functions of carbohydrates.
(a) (i) List any five sources of proteins.
(ii) State any 3 functions of proteins.
(iii) Name the deficiency disease caused as a
result of lack of protein in the diet, list the
symptoms of the disease.
8. a) (i) What is dentition? ii) What is dental
formula?
b) Write the dental formulae of the following
mammals
(i) man (ii) dog (iii)cow (iv) pig

c) Draw and label the structure of alimentary canal of

man.
9. (a) What is photosynthesis?
(b) What are the conditions necessary for
photosynthesis?
(c) Describe an experiment to show that chlorophyll is
necessary for photosynthesis.
10. a) state 5 adaptations that make absorption possible
within the ileum.
b) (i) Draw and label the structure of the stomach
of a ruminant.
(ii) Using arrows indicate the direction of
movement of food within the stomach.
11. a) Name the different types of teeth found in man.
b) State the function of each of the types of teeth you
have named in a above.
c) Draw a well-labeled longitudinal section of an
incisor tooth.
d) State the functions of the parts labeled.
12. (a) Suggest the time it would take amylase to digest
starch if temperature is kept at 0°C

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(b) Describe the test you would carry out to determine

the substance into which the starch has been broken
13. Describe an experiment to show that carbon dioxide is
necessary for photosynthesis.
14. (a) Name the main food constituents in milk.
(b) How would you test for any of the main
constituents mentioned and what results would you
expect to obtain?
(c) For one of these constituents give
(i) The region of the alimentary canal where it
is digested.
(ii) One enzyme concerned with its digestion
(iii) The end product of its digestion
(iv) The use made of this end product by the
tissues
15. a) What are enzymes?
b) State the properties of enzymes
c) Outline the factors that would affect enzyme
activity
d) Give the importance to the plants of each of the soil
components that make up a fertile soil
16. (a) State the danger of parasitic mode of life
(b) Describe how a tape worm is adopted to its mode of
life
17. (a) Describe the digestion of proteins in a mammal
(b) Explain how the ileum is suited for its function
18. (a) give three characteristics of enzymes
(b) Describe an experiment to show tat enzyme activity
is affected by temperature
19. Describe an experiment that you would carry out in the
laboratory to test for the presence of non reducing sugars
in the solution of food sample. In your description state
the use of each reagent used

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20. a) What are enzymes?

b) State the characteristics of enzymes.
c) Explain the factors that affect the activity of
enzymes.
21. (a) In what ways is Nitrogen added and removed from
the soil?
(b) Give the importance of organic matter in the soil.
( Qn.35 UNEB 200
ANSWERS
A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions on Nutrition

1. 2. D 3. 4.D 5.D 6.D 7.B 8.B 9.B 10.B

B C
11. 12. 13. 14.D 15.B 16.B 17.C 18. 19.A 20.B
B B C D
21. 22. 23. 24.B 25.B 26.D 27.D 28. 29.B 30.A
C B C C
31. 32. 33. 34.D 35.B 36.D 37.D 38. 39.B 40.B
B D C D
41. 42. 43. 44.A 45.C 46.B 47.D 48. 49.C 50.B
C A A C
51. 52. 53. 54.B 55.C 56.B 57.B 58.B 59.D 60.B
B D A
61. 62. 63. 64.D 65.B 66.C 67.D 68. 69.B 70.C
B D C A
71. 72. 73. 74.D 75.C 76.B 77.A 78. 79.D 80.A
D A B C
81. 82. 83. 84.D 85.C 86.B 87.D 88. 89.A 90.A
B D C C
91. 92. 93. 94.A 95.C 96.C 97.C 98.C 99.D 100.B
C B D

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B: b) Answers Short Answer Questions on Nutrition

1 a) Temperature-40°C
PH-2
b) The enzyme has been inactivated (denatured)
c) (i) Pepsin. Located in the stomach
(ii) Because it is active in acidic medium.
d) Food acted on - Protein
End product - Amino acids
2 a) Insecta
b) It has 2 large compound eyes and a pair of
antennae.
c) 1 -antennae 2 -compound eye
3 -Simple eye 4 -Mandible
5 -Maxillary palp
d) 1 - For sensing/acts as a sense organ.
2 - For vision.
3 - To increase the sensitivity of the
compound eye.
4 -For seizing food particles during feeding
5. - Used as sense material.
a) A-live B-Oesophagus C-Stomach
D -Pancreas E -Pancreatic duct
b) D secretes pancreatic juice which contains enzymes
trypsin pancreatic lipase and pancreatic amylase
that carry out digestion in the duodenum.
4, a) (i) Dentine (ii) Pulp cavity (iii) Nerve endings
(iv) Blood capillaries (v) Jawbone

a) (i) Protection of inner parts/ strengthening the

tooth.
(ii) Protection of inner parts/ strengthening the
tooth,

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(iii) Contains the nerve endings and blood

capillaries.
(iv) For sensing different conditions such as
coldness, hotness, pain, e.t.c.
5. a) A -Epithelium B -Lacteal
C -Lymphatic vessel D -Epithelial cell
E -Blood capillary
b) Glucose, amino acids.
c) (i) Has numerous micro-villi which increases
its surface area for absorption
(ii) Has a thin epithelium
d) (i) mineral salts (ii) Vitamins
7(a)
Element Function Effect of Deficiency
Nitrogen Chlorophyll formation Chlorosis
Phosphorous Proper root Poorly developed
development roots
Magnesium Chlorophyll formation Intervened chlorosis
b) (i) Iodine - swelling of the thyroid gland
(ii) Calcium- poorly developed bones and teeth
(iii) Iron - reduced red blood cell count
8. a) (i) oesophagus (ii) rumen (iii) reticulum
(iv) true stomach/abomasum
(v) duodenum (vi) omasum
c) I °/3 C °/i PM 3/3 M 3/3
d) (i) They chew cud
(ii) They have a very long digestive system
consisting of four chambers of stomach.
9. a) (i) Fats are solid at room temperature while oils
are liquid at room temperature
(ii) Starch is not sweet arid is insoluble while
sugars are sweet and soluble

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b) (i) Autotrophism is the mode of nutrition where

an organism makes its own food from
inorganic materials Using light as an
external form of energy.
(ii) Heterotrophism is the mode of nutrition
whereby an organism obtains its food by
feeding on already made organic
compounds.
(iii) Parasitism is the form of heterotrophic
nutrition whereby an organism parasite)
feeds on another (host) from which it gets
benefits other than food and gives nothing in
return except harm.
10. a) a - upper epidermis
b -palisade mesophyll
c -spongy mesophyll
d - lower epidermis
B C

Has many chloroplasts Fewer chloroplasts

No vascular bundles Has vascular bundles

Few and small airspaces Large airspaces

c)

Has a large surface area for light absorption

Has several chloroplasts for light absorption

Has stomata for easy gaseous exchange

Has vascular bundles for transporting water and
manufactured food
 Has a transparent cuticle for light penetration
d) To prevent excessive water loss from the leaf.

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11. a) To absorb all the carbon dioxide present

b) (ii) The starch originally in the leaf was used up
for respiration after being converted to
glucose.
c) (i) B - To ensure that the leaves had been
completely destarched
C - To act as control experiments
d) (i) A - It remained brown on addition of
iodine
B - It remained brown on addition of
iodine
C - It turned blue-black on addition of
iodine
e) (i) To kill protoplasm
(ii) To remove all the chlorophyll.
12. a) At 0°C, amylase does not act. From 10°C - 40°C,
the rate of amylase activity doubles, for each 10°C
rise in temperature. At 50°C, amylase does not act.
b) (i) Amylase is inactivated
(ii) Amylase is denatured
c) Starch will not be digested completely.
d) To 1 cm3 of the solution in a test tube, add 3 drops
of Benedict's solution, boil, the color changes from
blue to green, yellow, orange, red indicating
presence of reducing sugar.
13. a) An enzyme is a biological catalyst, protein in nature
that controls and speeds up chemical reactions in
the body.
b)(i) The effect of heat on the rate of enzyme
catalase activity.
(ii) In the test tube with distilled water, no bubbles were
evolved/ no observable change. In the test tube with
hydrogen peroxide and raw potato tissue, gas

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bubbles evolved. In test tube with boiled potato

tissue gas bubbles were not produced
(iii) Distilled water had no effect on the enzyme
in the raw potato tissue, thus no gas bubbles
were produced.
Enzyme catalase produced by raw potato
tissue was decomposed/ broken down to
carbon dioxide and water by hydrogen
peroxide.
Enzyme catalase produced by raw potato
was destroyed by boiling the potato hence
no gas bubbles evolved.
14. a) See 13 (a)
b) (i) Temperature of the medium
(ii) PH of the medium
(iii) Substrate concentration
c) X - Pepsin in the stomach
Y - Ptyalin in the mouth

Enzyme Substrate Product

(i) Trypsin Proteins Peptides
(ii)Pancreatic lipase Lipids Fatty acids and
glycerol

15. a) To show whether carbon dioxide is necessary for

photosynthesis .
b) (i) It was necessary to keep the plant in the dark
over night in order to destarch it.
(ii) The leaf is attached to the plant in order to
keep it alive.
c) Sodium hydroxide is to remove carbon dioxide.
d) (i) Testing a leaf for starch
Detach the leaf from the plant. Place it in boiling
water for 30 seconds to kill the protoplasm and

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burst any starch grains present Boil it in ethanol to

extract chlorophyll out of it. Dip the leaf again in
warm water to soften it. Place the leaf on a Petri
dish and apply iodine solution to it.
Observation:
The leaf retains the brown color of iodine.
16. a) (i) Lowest- About 4:30am-6:00am
(ii) Highest-About 3:30-4:00pm
b) (i) At 6am, there is less light hence there is
some little photosynthesis, more carbon
dioxide given out by plants dissolves in
water forming carbonic acid hence the low
PH.
(ii) At 4pm, there is plenty of light, favoring
photosynthesis to occur, hence the carbon
dioxide is used up. So, less carbonic acid is
formed resulting in a high PH.
c) At this time there is much light, hence
photosynthesis occurs yielding more oxygen.
d) PH would fall, since the fish will respire and give
out more carbon dioxide.
e) No photosynthesis occurred to yield oxygen as light
had been cut off by the dark polythene. So, fish
could not breathe and died
17. For part a, b and c as in number 5
d) It is transported by the lymph in lymphatic vessel to
the lymphatic system which joins the general
circulation at the left jugular vein, into the blood
circulatory system.
e) (i)Mineral salts(ii) Vitamins (iii) Alcohols
18. a) (i) Saliva
 Provides the ptyalin enzyme.
 Softens the food.

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 Lubricates the Oesophagus with its mucus.

 Binds food particles together,
(i) Tongue- Rolls the cassava into a bolus form
for easy swallowing,
(ii) Incisors- Cut up the cassava into smaller
bits,
(iii) Molars-Grind the cassava.
b) (i) Stomach- No chemical digestion occurs to
it as the ptyalin is inactivated by the acidic
medium. It is pounded into chyme and sent
to the duodenum
(ii) Ileum- The maltase enzyme in succus
entericus acts on it to turn it into glucose.

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C: c) Answers to Essay Question on Nutrition

l. a) (i) The presence of food in the duodenum
stimulates the duodenal walls to produce
secretin which stimulates the liver to secrete
bile. Bile is secreted to the duodenum via
bile duct, the bile then emulsifies fats. While
pancreas produces pancreatic juice, its three
enzymes, amylase converts starch to maltose,
trypsin converts protein to
peptides and amino acids while lipase converts fats
to fatty acids and glycerol.

(ii) The ileum: Here final digestion and absorption

takes place.
Peptidase or erepsin - converts peptides to amino
acid
Sucrase -converts sucrose to glucose
and fructose.
Lactase -changes lactose to glucose
and galactose
Lipase - fats to fatty acids and
glycerol
Maltase - maltose to glucose
b) Adaptations of the ileum for food absorption
 Many blood capillaries for absorption of food
substances through them
 Thin epithelium for easy diffusion of fluid food
substances through them
 Have thousands of villi providing large surface area
for absorption
 Being long and coiled presents a large surface area
for absorption

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2. (a) (i) Parasitism is a mode of nutrition/ feeding in

which one organism (parasite) feeds on or
gains an advantage from the other (host).
The host doest not in any way benefit
from this association. In most cases the host
suffers harm and may die. Examples, tick
(parasite), cow (host).
(ii) Symbiosis is an association in which both
organisms derived mutual benefits,
examples are bacteria in the stomach of the
ruminant,nitrogen fixing bacteria in the root
nodules of leguminous plants.
b). Adaptation of tapeworm to parasitic mode of life
 Have high rates of reproduction
 Possession of inhibitors/ devices for self protection
against damage by the host enzymes e.g. mucus
 Have attachment devices e.g. hooks,
 Have devices for penetrating the host e.g. suckers
 They use intermediate hosts for their transfer to the
primary hosts
 Loss of some unwanted structures e.g. limbs, eyes
etc
 They under go a period of dormancy in their life
cycles i.e bladder worms in tape worm

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3. EXPERIMENT TO SHOW THAT OXYGEN IS

PRODUCED DURING PHOTOSYNTHESIS
Apparatus and material
elodea, beaker containing water, funnel, test tube, support.
SET UP

Gas collected
Sun light
Test tube

Beaker
Funnel
Elodea plant
Support to keep the
funnel off the bottom
Procedure:
 Invert a funnel over elodea plant placed in a beaker
which is full of water.
 Fill a test tube and invert it over the funnel stem
 Place plasticine support in order to raise the funnel
above the bottom of the beaker
 The apparatus is then placed where there is sunlight
 A control experiment can be set up but without the
water plant.
Observation:
 Bubbles of gas from the plant are collected in the
test tube.
 In the control, no gas was produced.

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 Remove the test tube and insert a glowing splint in

it.
 Glowing splint bursts into a flame.
Conclusion
Rekindling of the glowing splint into flame shows that the
gas collected was richer in oxygen.
4.(i) AN EXPERIMENT TO SHOW THAT STARCH
IS PRESENT IN A SOLUTION
Apparatus/materials
-Iodine solution -Test tube -Drpper
PROCEDURE
To 1cc o f solution in a test tube,2 drops of iodine solution
are added
OBSERVATION
If starch is present the solution turns blue-black
I f starch is absent , the solution turns brown
(ii) AN EXPERIMENT TO FO THE PRESENCE OF
REDUCING SUGARS
Apparatus/materials
-Test tube -Source of heat -Benedict’s solution
Procedure
To 2cc of the test solution add an equal volume of
benedicts’ solution and boil
Observation
The color changes from blue to green to yellow and
to brown
Reducing sugars present.
5. An experiment to show that starch produced during
photosynthesis
Procedure
Destarch a potted plant by putting it in darkness fsor
24huours.
Immediately detach a leaf fro each plant and test it for
starch to confirm that there is no tarch present

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Transfer one of the plants in sun light and leave the other
in darkness for six hours
Detach a leaf from each plant and test it for starch
Observation
the leaf from a plant which was put on sun light turned blue
–black with iodine and the one that remained in darkness
turned brown
Conlusion Starch is formed in light
Explanation
the leaf leaf is tested for starch immediately to confirm that
the plant was completely distracted after six hours in sun
light the leaf from a plant that was exposed to sunlight
shows a positive test for starch and the one from a plant
that remained in darkness turned brown showing that
starch was manufactured in light.
6. (a) sources of carbohydrates
-Cassava -Maize -Wheat -Millet
(ii) they are energy giving foods
They form structure components in cell walls
(b) sources of proteins
-Eggs -Meat –Fish -Soya beans
Functions of proteins
o Formation of new cells
o Repair of worn out cells
o Structure components of the cell membrane
o Sources of energy in the body in periods of
starvation
(iii) Kwashiorkor Symptoms

-Loss of weight -Swollen body -Hair turns brown

8. (a)(i) Dentition is the number of teeth in the
mouth of an organism

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(ii) Dental formula is the arrangement of teeth

stypes and their corresponding
number using a simple formula.
(b) man I 2/2 c 1/1 pm 2/2 m 3/3
Dog i3/3 c 1/1 pm4/4 m2/3
Cow i0/3 c 0/1 pm3/3 m3/3
STRUCTURE OF THE HUMAN ALIMENTARY CANAL

Oesophagus

Gall bkadder Stomach

Liver
Pancreas
Duodenum

Large Intestine /
colon
Ileum

Caecum Rectum

Appendix Anus

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9. (a) Photosynthesis is the process by which plants make

their own food from carbon dioxide and water
using sun light energy
(b) Carbon dioxide –Water -Sunlight -Chlorophyll
An experiment to show that chlorophyll is necessary for
photosynthesis
Apparatus /materials
-Potted plant with variegated leaves -Iodine -White tile
-Water -Source of heat -Ethanol -Dropper
Procedure
Put a plant with variegated leaves in darkness for 24 hours
to destarch the leaves
Place the in sunlight for 6 hours
Remove a leaf from the plant using a razor blade
out a starch test on the leaf
Setup

Green Blue
Black
White
Brown

Before testing for starch After testing for starch

Observation
Parches on the leaf which were green turned blue-black
with iodine and those which were white sturned brown
Chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis

Explanation

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A green color in the leaf meant that it contained

chlorophyll and nay other color means no chlorophyll.
Since only the green parts turned blue-black after testing
for starch, it means that chlorophyll is necessary for
photosynthesis to take place

10. (a) adaptations of the ileum for food absorption

 It is folded on the inner surface to increase the
surface area for absorption
 It is also very long which increases the surface for
absorption
 The presence of villi on its surface also increases
the surface area for food absorption
 The lining of the epithelium is very thin which
presents a short distance for absorption
 It has a rich supply of blood capillaries which carry
away the absorbed materials thus maintain a high
diffusion gradient.

(b)
omasum
oesophagu
s

Rumen

Reticulum
Abomasum
11. (a) -incisors -Canines -premolrs -Molars
(b) Incisor- for cutting food
Canines-for tearing fresh

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Premolars-for grinding food

Molars-grinding/chewing food
(c) longitudinal section of an incisor
(d) Enamel –for protection
Dentine -for protection
Pulp cavity –contains and blood vessels and
therefore supplies the with blood
and oxygen
The root -fixes the tooth in the jaw bone
12. (a) At temperature 0oc amylase does not act because it
is in activated
(b) this should be a test for starch because it has not
been hydrolyzed
Starch test
To I cc of starch solution add 2 drops iodine solution
Observation
The solution turns blue black
13. An experiment to show that carbon dioxide is necessary
for photosynthesis
Apparatus/materials
-ransparent polythene paper
-Two potted plants -Soda lime -Iodine
-Boiling tube -Beaker -Source of heat -Dropper
Procedure
Keep two green potted plants for 24 hours
Place a Petri dish containing so lime in one and another
containing sodium hydrogen carbonate
Enclose each of them in a transparent polythene paper
using a rubber band
Put both of the sun light of the intensity for 6 hours
Detach a leaf from each plant and Carry out a test for starch
on each leaf

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SET UP

Observation
After carrying out a starch test the leaf from plant that was
enclosed in a polythene bag containing soda lime turned
brown while the from where there was sodium hydrogen
carbonate turned blue-black
Conclusion
Carbon dioxide is necessary for photosynthesis to take
place
EXPLANATION
Soda lime absorbs all the carbon dioxide from the
polythene and sodium hydrogen carbonate produces
more carbon dioxide
14. (a) Main food constituents in milk
Lactose sugar -Proteins -Carbohydrates -Fats
Test for proteins
The Burette test
Reagents
NaOH/KOH
Copper II sulphate solution
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Procedure
To 1cc of protein solution add 2cc of sodium hydroxide
and shake to mix
Add 2cc of copper II Sulphate solution wait for a few
minutes and shake
Observation The solution turns from blue to purple
Conlusion Proteins spresent
16. (a) dangers of parasitic mode of life
 Failure of the parasite to find the right host
 Failure of the parasite to penetrate the host
 The danger of being dislodged in the host
 Danger of being destroyed by the host
 A danger of host dying

(b)
 it lays a great number of eggs to ensure high
survival of the young ones
 Have hooks for attachment to the host’s intestines
 They produce mucus which protects them from a
the corrosive action of host’s digestive juices
 They have reduced sense organs like eyes and can
easily live in dark conditions of the intestines
 They can depend on anaerobic respiration and thus
able to live in oxygen deficient conditions of the
intestines
 They have secondary hosts which help them
complete their life cycles
 Their eggs can be viable for quite a long period of
time and can survive harsh conditions

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18. Characteristics of enzymes

 They are protein n nature
 Catalyze both forward and backward reactions
 Denatured by very high temperatures
 They are inactivated by very low temperatures
 Work best in a small pH range
 Work best in a small temperature range
 Work on a specific food type
 They are not used up by the reactions they catalyze
 They work best in the presence

(b) An experiment to show that enzyme activity is

affected by temperature.
Apparatus and materials
-Test tubes -2%starch solution -White tile
-Thermometers -Source of heat -Iodine solution
procedure
 Three test tubes are prepared each containing 1cc of 2%
starch solution
 The mouth is rinsed using water and saliva is collected into
a small beaker
 Three water baths are prepared (O,P and Q) each at
different temperature(O-300c, P-350c, Q-40Oc)
 Maintain a constant temperature for each water bath using a
thermometer
 A white tile is prepared and points O, P, and Q are marked
on it
 To each test tube 1cc of saliva is warmed and added and
each test tube is placed a different water bath (O, P and Q).
 The initial time is then recorded
 Stir the contents of each test tube

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 Using a glass rod, draw a drop of the mixture from O and

add onto it a drop of iodine solution on the tile. Repeat for
P and Q and note the changes
 Repeat the test above for every 5 minute interval

Results
Starch disappears faster in test tube Q, P and O respectively
showing yellow brown color of iodine unchanged
Enzyme action increases with increase in temperature
An experiment to show the presence of non reducing sugars
Apparatus/materials
-Sodium hydroxide -Source of heat
-Boiling tube -Benedict’s solution
Procedure
To a test solution, add 1cc of hydrochloric acid and boil.
Cool under tap water .Add 1cc of sodium hydroxide shake
to mix. Add 1cc of Benedict’s solution and boil
Observation
The color changes from blue to green to yellow to
brown/red precipitate
Conclusion
Non reducing sugars present
Uses of the reagents used
Hydrochloric acid is used to hydrolyze the non reducing
sugars into reducing sugars.
Sodium hydroxide is used to neutralize the acidic medium
because Benedict’s solution does net work in an acidic
medium

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MODULE SIX: TRANSPORT IN PLANTS AND PLANTS

QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Transport in Plants and
Animals
1. Which one of the following cells could have their functions
adversely affected by the AIDS virus?
A. Leucocytes B. Blood platelets
C. Nerve cells D. Erythrocytes
2. A person with blood group O is said to be a universal donor
because
A. lacks antibodies in his serum
B. has both the antigens in his blood
C. has only antigen A in his red blood cells.
D. lacks antigens in his red blood cells.
3. In the process of blood clotting, thrornbin acts as an
enzyme to bring about conversion of
A. fibrinogen to fibrin
B. fibrin to fibrinogen
C. prothrombin to thrombokinase
D. thrombokinase to prothrombin
4. Which one of the following blood components carries
carbon dioxide?
A. plasma and red blood cells
B. red blood cells and white blood cells
C. platelets and red blood cells
D. plasma and white blood cells
5. Which of the following blood vessels are connected to the
right side of the heart?
A venacava and pulmonary artery
B. aorta and pulmonary artery
C. venacava and pulmonary vein
D. aorta and pulmonary vein

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6. The blood of a universal recipient contains

A. antigen A only B. antigen B only
C. both antigens A and B D. no antigen
7. Phagocytosis is a process whereby
A. white blood cells ingest and destroy bacteria
B. W.B.C cause the bacteria to stick together
C. R.B.C dissolves the outer coats of invading bacteria
and so destroying them
D. antibodies fight antigens
8. Which of the following statements is biologically true
about lymphatic system flow?
A. facilitated by the pumping action of the heart
B. takes place in one direction only from heart to the
tissue
C. takes place in one direction only from tissue to heart
D. takes place in one direction only from the lymph
nodes to the tissue
9. In which of the following does active transport not occur?
A. Kidney tubules B. phloem sieve tubes
C. xylem vessels D. ileum villi
10. In the human heart, the mixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood is prevented by
A. septum B. bicuspid valve
C. tricuspid valve D. semilunar valve
11. A certain plant had the following characteristics. Leaves
reduced to spikes, Stomata shrunken in pits, Leaves
covered with thick cuticle .Which one of the following
would be the likely habitat for the plant?
A. open grassland B. arid land
C. wet land D. tropical rain forest
12. Which one of the following is the correct reason for the
thickness of the walls of atria and ventricles?

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A. atria are thicker because they have to generate

higher pressure
B. atria are thicker because they have to resist higher
pressure
C. ventricles are thicker because they have to generate
higher pressure.
D. ventricles are thicker because they have to resist
higher pressure
13. The following are characteristics of blood vessels
(i) presence of valves (ii) thick walls
(iii) wide lumen (iv) elastic walls
Which of the characteristics belong to veins?
A. (i)and(ii) B. (i) and (iii) C. (ii) and (iii) D. iii) and (iv)
14. Phagocytosis is the process whereby white blood cells
A. ingest bacteria
B. cause the bacteria to stick together
C. dissolve the outer coats of invading bacteria
D. neutralize bacteria
15. The following are factors that affect the rate of
transpiration:
(i) high temperature (ii) high relative humidity
(iii) low atmospheric pressure (iv) low light intensity
Which two of these would favor increased transpiration?
A.(i) and (ii) B. (i) and (iii) C. (ii) and (iv) D. (iii) and (iv)
16. Which of the following is the best description of the term
double circulation in a mammal
A. blood flows into the lungs and then into the body
B. blood passes through two chambers of the heart
C. blood passes through the heart twice in one
circulation
D. blood first flows through arteries and then through
veins
17. Why is a shoot being prepared for transpiration experiment
normally cut under water? To

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A avoid water loss which may cause wilting

B. prevent loss of sap
C. prevent air from entering the xylem vessels
D. remove damaged tissue
18. Which one of the following takes place by the process of
active transport inplants?
A. uptake of water B. intake of carbon dioxide
C. transpiration D. up take of mineral salts
19. Which one of the following is not transported in blood?
A. amylase B. urea C. insulin D. sodiumchloride
20. Individuals with blood group AB are said to be universal
recipients because they have
A. no antigens B. no antibodies
C. both antigens and antibody D.antibodies a and b
21. Which one of the following absorbs water from the soil?
A.xylem vessel B.root cap C. root D. phloem tissue
22. In a tall tree the biggest force which takes water up to the
leaves is
A. transpiration pull B. root pressure
C. capillarity D. osmotic pressure
23. The liquid which bathes the body cells is known as
A.blood B.water C.plasma D.the lymph
24. Blue cobalt paper turns pink when moist. Pieces of blue
cobalt paper were attached to both the lower and upper
surfaces of the leaf of a land plant, After about 30 minutes,
one would expect the piece of cobalt paper on the
A. underside of the leaf would become pink and other
would not.
B. upper side of the leaf would become pink and the
other wouldn't .
C. under and upper sides of the leaf would turn pink.
D. under and upper sides of the leaf would remain
blue.

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25. Which of the following pair of cells does not have nuclei
when mature?
a) Sieve tube cells and companion cells
b) Erythrocytes and Leucocytes
c) Sieve tube cells and Erythrocytes
d) Companion cells and leukocytes
26. Decrease in number of mammalian red blood cells. Could
reduce the ability of the blood to
A. clot B. transport oxygen
C. destroy harmful bacteria D. distribute heat
27. Which one of the following has no effect on the rate of
diffusion?
A. density of diffusion medium
B. length of diffusion pathway
C. size of diffusion molecules
D. concentration gradient
28. Which of the following is a likely effect of a decrease in the
number of platelets in blood?
A. the blood may not be able to carry enough oxygen
B. there may be prolonged bleeding in case of injury
C. the body may not be able to fight disease
D. the body may not be able to distribute heat
efficiently.

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29. Which of the following conditions increase the rate of

transpiration?
A. high temperatures, windy conditions and high
humidity
B. low temperatures, windy conditions and high
humidity
C. high temperature, low humidity, windy conditions
D. low temperatures, low humidity, still air
30. Which one of the following is true about a person of blood
group O
A. Receives blood from people of all other blood
groups
B. Donates blood to people of all other blood groups
C. Receives blood from only people of blood groups
AB and 0
D. Donates blood to only people of blood group AB
31. Lack of a nucleus in a red blood cell is advantageous
because
A. enables the cell to pass through thin epithelium
B. helps the cell to fight disease causing organisms
C. allows the cell to carry a lot of oxygen
D. allows the cell to carry a lot of dissolved blood
32. Which one of the following maintains a transpiration
stream in flowering plants?
A.capillarity B.osmosis C.diffusion D.active transport
33. Which one of the following groups of animals possesses an
open circulatory system?
A.amphibians B.insects C.mammals D.fish
34. Which of the following cells are very important in
formation of a blood clot?
A. white blood cells B. red blood cells
C. platelets D. neuron

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35. Which of the following make up the vascular tissue in

plants?
A. xylem and phloem B. xylem and sclerenchyma
C. phloem and parenchyma D. phloem and cortex
36. A sample of blood from the hepatic portal vein contain
A. Fat B. Protein.
C. High concentration of urea.
D. High concentration of products of digestion
37. Which one of the following would occur if a potato strip
was placed in distilled, water?
A. increase in. length B. strip would soften
C. decrease in length D. remain unchanged
38. Which one of the following events occurs during osmosis?
A. solute molecules move from more to less
concentrated solution.
B. solvent molecules move from more to less
concentrated solution
C. Solvent molecules move from less to more
concentrated solution
D. solute molecules move from less to more
concentrated solution.
39. The forces which mostly help water to move up a small
plant are
A osmosis and diffusion B.capillarity and transpiration
C.osmosis only D.capillarity and osmosis
40. What is the main function of the .phloem in green plants?
A. transporting water B. supporting the plant
C. transporting mineral salts
D. transporting manufactured food
41. Which one of the following helps to transport the main
product of photosynthesis away from leaves?
A. Cortex B.veins C. Xylem D. phloem
42. Which of the following possesses closed circulatory
system?

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A.butterfly B.housefly C.dragon fly D.tilapia fish

43. Water is conducted up the stem through the
A.Cambium B.Phloem C.Xylem D.Pith
44. In the flowering plants translocation of photosynthesis
products is by the
A. xylem vessels B. sclerenchyma
C. sieve tubes D. companion cells
45. Which one of the following events doesn't occur following
the contraction of ventricle mammalian heart?
A. blood flows from ventricles into arteries
B. the blood pressure increases in the aorta
C. atrioventicular valves open
D. arterial valves open
46. The blood serum of a universal donor contains
A. antigen A B. antigen B
C. neither antigens A and B
D. Both antigens A and B
47. Which of the following blood vessels transport blood rich
in nutrients?
A. pulmonary artery B. hepatic portal vein
C. mesenteric artery D. renal vein
48. The following are characteristics of blood vessels
(i) Presence of valves (ii) Thin walls
(iii) Narrow lumen (iv) Elastic walls
Which of these characteristic belongs to artery?
A.(i)and(ii) B. (i) and (iii) C. (ii) and (iii) D. (iii) and (iv)
49. The blood constituents that help in the formation of blood
clot at the sight of an injury are
A. Platelets and erythrocytes B. Hormones and plasma
C. Plates and leucocytes D. Plateletsand fibrinogen
50. Blood flows in the pulmonary artery at a lower pressure
than in aorta because in pulmonary circulation
A. blood travels a shorter distance
B. the right ventricle has thinner walls

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C. the vessel carrying blood is smaller

D. fewer organs are supplied.
51. Which one of the following reactions is likely to occur
when a donor of blood group A gives a recipient of blood group B?
A. His blood would become more diluted
B. There would be no change in the blood
C. His blood would agglutinate
D. His blood would become thicker
52. Which one of the following blood vessels contain the least
amount of urea
A. hepatic portal vein B. renal artery
C. hepatic vein D. renal vein
53. In plant tissue, water moved from cell A to cell B. this
indicates that
A. cell A and cell B had the same osmotic potential
B. Cell A had a higher osmotic potential than cell B
C. Cell A had a lower osmotic potential than cell B
D. Cell A older than cell B
54. What would happen to a plant tissue placed in a strong
sugar solution?
A. it becomes longer and softer
B. maintains the original length and texture
C. becomes shorter and softer
D. becomes shorter and hard
55. Which one of the following is not a function of blood?
A. regulation of sugar level into the body
B. healing of damaged part's of the body
C. regulation of body temperature
D. transportation of wastes
56. Which of the following is true about arteries? They
A. Carry blood away from the heart
B. Carry deoxygenated blood
C. Carry oxygenated blood
D. Posses valves along their length

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57. Food substances absorbed in the small intestine reach the

heart through the blood circulatory system. The blood rich
in food enters the heart via
A. pulmonary artery B. vena cava
C, pulmonary vein D. aorta.
B: Short Answer Questions on Transport in Plants and
Animals

1.

A R
C B

Soil particles

a) What part of the root do cells labeled A, B, C

represent
b) How does the osmotic potential of the cell labeled R
compare with that of the surrounding soil solution?
c) By what means does the cell labeled R obtain water
and mineral salt from surrounding soil solution?
(i) Water (ii) Mineral salts
d) Briefly explain the movement of water from cell
labeled R to cell labeled C.
2. Define the following terms
(i) Guttation (ii) Transpor (iii) Diastole
(iv) systole (v) phagocytosis

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3. Figure below shows the vertical section of a mammalian

heart.

ii

vi

iii v
iv

X
Y

a) Name the parts labeled (I) - (VI).

b) What is the function of the structure
c) Which side of the heart contains deoxygenated
blood?
d) Explain why wall Y is thicker than wall X
e) Complete the following table by naming the main
artery and vein
which serve the parts of the body listed in the first
column.
Part of body Main artery Main vein

Lungs

Liver

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Kidney

a) Why is it an advantage for blood to pass through the

heart twice in order to circulate around the body?
4. Figure below shows the set up of an experiment to
investigate Osmosis

Salt crystals
Fresh
potato Boiled
Water
potato
a) What is meant by the term osmosis?
b) If the set up was left to stand overnight, state what
was observed,
i) in A ii) in B
c) Explain your observations
i) In A ii) In B
5. The table below shows the effect of wind, still air and
stomatal opening on the rate of transpiration of a plant in
milligrams of water lost per hour per dm . Study the table
and answer the questions that follow.
Stomatal 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Opening (HM)

Wind 44 63 74 86 94 110 124

Still Air 0 6 12 19 23 27 30

a) i) Compare the rates of transpiration in windy

and still conditions
ii) Explain your observation

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b) How does stomatal opening affect transpiration

rate?
c) Name three other factors that affect the rate of
transpiration
d) State two functions of transpiration to plants
6. (a) What is the red color in the red blood cell due to
(b) Where are the red blood cells made?
(c) Where are the red blood cells destroyed
(d) Write 2 structural differences between a red and a
white blood cell
(e) What are the functions of white blood cells
7. (a) What is transpiration?
(b) The graphs below show how temperature and
humidity affect the rate of transpiration
Rate of transpiration

Rate of transpiration

(i) From the graph on fig 1.

(a) Describe how the rate of transpiration changes with
temperature
(ii) From fig l.
(b) Describe how the rate of transpiration changes with
humidity
(c) Explain why: humidity
temperature
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(i) temperature affects the rate of transpiration

as shown in fig l(a) .
(ii) humidity affects the rate of transpiration as
shown in fig l(b)
d) State the importance of transpiration to plants
8. a) Distinguish between Osmosis and Diffusion.
b). List the materials transported in
(i) Animals (ii) Plants
c) Name the medium of transport used by plants and
animals.
d). State the channel used in transportation of materials
in
(i) plants (ii) animals.
9. The figure below shows an experimental set up to
demonstrate transpiration in plants

Plant

Polythene bag

vaselin
e
(a) Explain why
(i) Vaseline is smeared between the glass plate
and the bell jar
(ii) Polythene bag was wrapped around the pot
and tied at the base of the plant.
(b) (i) What will be observed in this experiment

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(ii) how do you test for the substance observed in

(b)(i)?
(c) Describe the set up of the control experiment
(d) State two factors that affect the results of this
experiment.
10. (a) What is an artery?
(b) State three structural differences between an artery
and a vein.
11. Six strips of fresh and peeled Irish potatoes each measuring
0.5 x 0.5 x 5.0 cm were placed in sugar solutions of
concentrations 0%, 5%. 10%, 15%, 20% and 25%.
Respectively in test tubes. After 20 minutes, the strips were
removed and measured to find the changes in lengths. The
following table shows the results.

Concentrations of sugar solutions

0% 5% 10% 15% 20% 25%

Initial length 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 .5.0

of strip (cm)

Final length 5.3 5.2 5.1 5.0 l4.9 4.7

of strip (cm)

Difference in
length of strip

a) On the table, workout the differences in length between

final length and initial length for each strip.
b) Interpret the meaning of the following ;

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(i) A difference in length of less than 0.00cm

(ii) A difference in length of more than 0.00cm
(iii) No difference in length
(iv) Which of the cell contents is isotonic to cell contents of
the strips.

12. Define the following as used in cell-water relationship.

(a) turgid (b) plamolysed
(c) hypertonic (d) isotonic
C: Essay Questions on Transport in Plants and Animals
1. (a) What is Osmosis?
(b) Describe an experiment to illustrate Osmosis in a
living tissue.
(c) How is the root hair adapted to its functions?
2. Give the importance to the plants of each of the soil
components that make up a fertile soil.
3. (a) Distinguish between diffusion and Osmosis
(b) Describe an experiment to demonstrate Osmosis
using a named plant material
(c) How is the root hair adapted to its function?
4. (a) What structures in the blood carry oxygen
(b) How is oxygen transported by these structures?
(C) Draw a labeled diagram to show the appearance of
one of the structures in blood which protect the
body from invasion of harmful bacteria
(d) How do these structures provide protection against
bacteria in blood?
(e) How do these structures pass from the blood vessels
into the skin?
5. (a) How do capillaries differ from other blood vessels?
(b) How is the flow of blood maintained in the
capillaries?
6. (a) What is the importance of tissue fluid?
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(b) What is the importance of plasma?

(c) State two main differences between tissue fluid and
plasma and state how these differences are brought
about?
7. (a) What is lymph?
(b) What is the main difference between lymph and
tissue fluid?
(c) What is the largest lymph duct in our body?
(d) From where does the duct collect lymph
(e) What is the liquid part of blood called?
(f) What do you understand by the term double
circulation?
8. (a) What part do the platelets play in the formation of
blood clot at the site of the wound?
(b) What is the importance of blood clotting?
(c) Which mineral ion present in the blood, helps in
clotting of the blood
(d) What is fibrin?
(e) Why do people leaving regularly at higher altitude
have more red blood cells more than people leaving
regularly at sea level?
(f) What substances are added to blood and removed
from blood
9. In humans, the blood circulatory and lymphatic systems
transport body fluids.
(a) Outline the functions of the lymphatic system
(b) Explain the changes in the composition of blood in
the capillaries as it passes through the following
parts of the body.
(i) Lungs (ii) liver (iii) Kidneys
10. (a) List the substances transported by the circulatory
system
(b) Give the importance of transporting each of the
substances named in (a) above

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11. a) What is transpiration?

b) State the environmental factors that affect the rate
of transpiration.
C) Describe an experiment to show that a plant
transpires. in (a) above
12. (a) Of what use is water to plants?
(b) Describe ways in which water loss by plants and
animals is regulated
13. (a) Describ e ho w light, humidity and air movement
affect the rate of transpiration in plants.
(b) Describe an experiment to show that more
transpiration occurs occurs in the lower epidermisof
a plant leaf. (Qn 36.UNEB 2008)

A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice to Transport in Plants and

Animals

1.A 2.D 3.A 4.A 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.D 10.A
11.B 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.C 17.C 18.D 19. 20.B
21.C 22.A 23.C 24.A 25.C 26.B 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.B
31.C 32.A 33.B 34.C 35.A 36.D 37.A 38.C 39.D 40.D
41.D 42.D 43.C 44.C 45.C 46.C 47.D 48.D 49.D 50.B

B: b) Answers to short answer Questions

l. a) Cortex
b) The osmotic potential of R. is higher than that of the
soil solution.
c) (i) Water by osmosis and diffusion
(ii) Mineral salts by diffusion and active
transport.

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d) R receives water by osmosis, which dilutes its cell

sap as compared to that of A. So, water moves
from R to A by osmosis.
Then the cell sap of A becomes diluted as compared
to that of B, in the same pattern, water continues to
move up to cell C i.e. from A to B then to C.
2. (i) Guttation is the process by which plants lose their
water in form of solution.
(ii) Transport is the movement of substances from one
part of an organism to another.
(iii) A diastole is a situation when the heart ventricles
contract and send blood into the arteries.
(iv) A systole is a situation when the arteries or
ventricles relax so that blood enters them.
(v) Phagocytosis is the process by which leucocytes
engulf and ingest any foreign substances.
3. a) (i) Aorta (ii) Venacava
(iii) Tricuspid valve (iv) Left ventricle
(v) Septum (vi) Left auricle/atrium
b) Prevents back flow of blood,
Allows blood to flow from the Auricle into the
ventricle.
c) Right side.
d) Wall Y has to generate higher pressure to pump
blood to all parts of the body unlike the wall X
which pumps blood just to the lungs.
e)
Lungs Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein

Liver Hepatic artery Hepatic vein

f)
Kidney Renal artery Renal vein
The first
time, it is

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pumped to the lungs for oxygenation. Then it

must come back to be pumped to other body organs,
hence the double circulation.
4. 0smosis is the process by which solvent molecules move
from the region where they are more concentrated to a
region where they are less concentrated across a semi-
permeable membrane.
b) (i) A
-The table sugar dissolved and the
solution was inside the potato cup.
-Water level in the beaker reduced.
(ii) B
-The sugar remained undissolved.
-Water level remained unchanged in the beaker.
c) (i) A
- The potato cup was fresh and semi- permeable. So,
osmosis occurred and water moved from the beaker
into the cup to dissolve the
(ii) B
-Boiling the potato cup killed it, and osmosis did
not occur, since it takes place in living tissues.
5. a) (i)
- They all increase with increase in stomatal
opening.
-In the windy conditions, the rate is higher
than that in still air conditions.
(ii) In windy conditions, the wind blows off an
water molecules on the leaves, and causes
more stomata to open which is not the case
in still air conditions. Hence the rate of
transpiration in windy conditions is higher
than that in still air conditions.

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b) The higher the stomatal opening, the higher the rate

of transpiration and the lower the stomatal opening,
the lower the rate of transpiration.
c) (i) Temperature (ii) Humidity content
(iii) Light intensity
d) -Helps to cool the plant
-Helps in the absorption and upward movement of
water and mineral salts.
6. a) Haemoglobin pigment.
b) In the bone marrow.
c) In the liver
Red blood cell White blood cell

-No nucleus -Has nucleus

-Bi concave in shape -Shapeless

e) To destroy any disease causing organisms.

7. a) Transpiration is the loss of water from the plant
leaves in form of vapor.
b)'(i) The higher the temperature the higher the
rate of transpiration,
(ii) The higher the humidity content the lower
the rate of transpiration.
So, the higher the temperature, the higher the latent
heat, hence the higher the transpiration rate.
(ii) As humidity content increases, more of it collects
on the plant leaves and blocks the stomata, hence
reducing water loss and the rate of transpiration
falls.
d) See 5 (d.
8. a) Osmosis is the movement of solvent
moleculefrom where they are more concentrated to
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where they are less concentrated across a-semi-

permeable membrane, WHILE diffusion is the
movement of molecules from where they are more
concentrated to where they are less concentrated
across a fully- permeable membrane until
equilibrium is attained.
b) (i) Materials transported in animals
 Food nutrients. -Respiratory gases.
 Waste products -Hormones -Antibodies
 Enzymes -Blood cells and plasma proteins.
(iii) Materials transported in plants
-Water and mineral salts -Manufactured food.
-Respiratory gases -Enzymes -Wastes
c) Animal - Blood
Plants - Water.
d) Animals -Blood vessels
Plants - Vascular bundles.
9. a)(i) Vaseline is to prevent entry of moisture
from out side.
(ii) Polythene bag is to prevent evaporation of
water from the soil.
b) (i) Droplets of a colorless liquid will be observed on
the sides of the jar.
(ii) Using anhydrous copper (ii) sulphate which
turns from white to blue.
Or Use cobalt chloride paper, this turns from
blue to pink.
c) The setup for the control for this experiment could
be the same setup but without a plant.
d) Factors which affect the results of this experiment
-Light - temperature -humidity.
10. a) An artery is a blood vessel that transports blood
away from the heart.

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b)
Artery Vein
-Thicker walls -Thinner walls
-More elastic walls. Less elastic walls.
-No valves, except at bases of -Valves along their length
main arteries.

c) (i) Arteries
-Have thick walls to generate higher pressure.
-Have elastic walls to with stand higher pressure.
-Have narrow lumen to create higher pressure.
Veins
-Wide lumen to reduce blood pressure.
-Have valves to prevent back flow of blood.

C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Transport in Plants and

Animals

1. a) Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from

where there is low concentrated to where there is
high concentration of solute across a semi-
permeable membrane.
b) An experiment to demonstrate osmosis:
Material
2 Potato tubers -Water -Salt crystals -2Beakers knife

Method
 Obtain two potatoes and slice the bottom of each
flat.
 Scoop out the middle part to make a "cup-shaped
structure.

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 Leave one potato fresh with living tissue and label it

A and boil the second potato and scoop out the
middle part as in A.
 Make sure both are of equal size.
 Place the fresh potato A in a beaker containing some
water in it and put some salts crystals in the potato
cup,
 In potato B place same amount of salt crystals in the
potato cup and make it stand in a beaker containing
also the same amount of water as in A.
 Leave the setup to stand for 3-6hours and then make
your observation.

Experimental setup
Experiment beginning Experiment end

Observation
The sugar crystals in potato cup A got dissolved and the
volume of solution in it increased. While in potato B there
was no observable change i.e. the salt crystals were not
dissolved and the water in the beaker remained as before.
Conclusion
Osmosis takes place in a living plant tissue.
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c) How the root hairs are adapted to perform its

function.
 They are numerous therefore increasing the surface
area for absorption,
 Slender and flexible so that they can grow through
the particles of soil easily.
 They have cell membrane which are semi-
permeable that allows water and salts to be
absorbed.
 They lack the cuticle thus movement of materials is
not restricted.

2. a) The structures in the blood that transport oxygen are

the Erythrocytes or red blood cells
b) Oxygen is transported by the RBC in that oxygen
inhaled when it reaches the alveoli, the
concentration becomes higher than what is in the
surrounding capillaries.
Due to this concentration gradient, oxygen diffuses
very fast out of alveoli and into the Red blood cell.
The oxygen then quickly combines with the
haemoglobin forming oxyhaemoglobin, the blood
then becomes oxygenated and transported through
the arteries.

c) Structure of a White Blood Cell (leucocytes)

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d) The structure is capable of amoeboid type of

movement therefore it can engulf, digest and
destroy any disease causing germs,
e) In the process of formation of tissue fluid the White
Blood cells are filtered out, and they find their way
into the skin.
4. (a) insects-Malpighian tubule
Amoeba – contractile vacuole
(b) it is located between the hind and the mid gut
(c) (i) uric acid (ii) carbon dioxide
iii) it carries out osmoregulation
5. (a) Excretion is the removal of waste products of
metabolism from the body
(b) Carbon dioxide from the tissues diffuses into the
capillaries which unite into veins to the heart
through the venacava. From the heart blood is
pumped to the lungs through the pulmonary artery
which divides into capillaries. From capillaries of
the lungs carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli.
Diaphragm muscles relax, the diaphragm becomes
dome shaped and intercostals muscles and he ribs
are lowered which reduce the volume of the chest
cavity and increases its pressure above that of the
atmosphere so air from the alveoli is forced into the
atmosphere.
6. (a) Excretion is the removal of waste products of
metabolism from the body.
(b) See number 2(b) above.
7. Plants possess simpler excretory organ than those in
animals because;
 The rate of metabolism in plants is usually much
slower than in animals of the same weight. Due to
this the waste products accumulate more slowly in
plants.
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 Metabolism in plants is majorly based on

carbohydrates; as a result waste products are less
poisonous than the waste products of protein
metabolism.
 Plants keep on growing through out their life and so
can use nitrogenous waste in the synthesis of new
proteins.
 Green plants use many of their waste products in
many other metabolic processes.

8. (a) importance of water to animals

 Provides a medium in which chemical reactions
take place
 Water is a universal solvent and dissolves all other
chemicals in the body
 Evaporation of water from the body leads to cooling
 Water helps in the regulation of blood concentration
 It is important for diffusion of substances in the
body e.g. oxygen in the lungs
 in the maintenance of a constant body temperature
since it has a very high latent heat of vaporization.

(b) Water balance in the mammalian body

Water can be gained by eating and drinking and it
can be lost through urine, feces, sweat and exhaled
air. Water loss and gain cause changes in the
concentration of blood. These changes are detected
by the hypothalamus in the brain .when blood
concentration is high, the hypothalamus stimulates
the pituitary gland to secrete antiduiretic hormone
(ADH) which on reaching the kidneys tubules
causes them to absorb more water from the
glomerular filtrate back into blood. When blood

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concentration is low, ADH secretion is suppressed

and less water is re absorbed from the glomerular
filtrate
9. (a) Endothermic animals can maintain a constant body
temperature irrespective of the changes in the
external temperature while ectothermic animal the
body temperature changes with a change in the
body temperature.
(b) Endothermic animals can live in a wider range of
environmental temperatures
(c) They reduce on the body activity
Some bask in sun shine in order to get heat
Somme hibernate in periods of prolonged coldness
10 (a) Excretion is the removal of waste products of
metabolism from the body
(b) Carbon dioxide from the tissues diffuses into the
capillaries which unite into veins to the heart
through the venacava. From the heart blood is
pumped to the lungs through the pulmonary artery
which divides into capillaries. From capillaries of
the lungs carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli.
Diaphragm muscles relax, the diaphragm becomes
dome shaped and intercostals muscles and he ribs
are lowered which reduce the volume of the chest
cavity and increases its pressure above that of the
atmosphere so air from the alveoli is forced into the
atmosphere.
7. (a) Excretion is the removal of waste products of
metabolism from the body.
(b) See number 2(b) above.
8. Plants possess simpler excretory organ than those in
animals because;
 The rate of metabolism in plants is usually much
slower than in animals of the same weight. Due to

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this the waste products accumulate more slowly in

plants.
 Metabolism in plants is majorly based on
carbohydrates; as a result waste products are less
poisonous than the waste products of protein
metabolism.
 Plants keep on growing through out their life and so
can use nitrogenous waste in the synthesis of new
proteins.
 Green plants use many of their waste products in
many other metabolic processes.
9. (a) importance of water to animals
 Provides a medium in which chemical reactions
take place
 Water is a universal solvent and dissolves all other
chemicals in the body
 Evaporation of water from the body leads to cooling
 Water helps in the regulation of blood concentration
 It is important for diffusion of substances in the
body eg oxygen in the lungs
 in the maintenance of a constant body temperature
since it has a very high latent heat of vaporization
(b) Water balance in the mammalian body
Water can be gained by eating and drinking and it
can be lost through urine, feces, sweat and exhaled
air. Water loss and gain cause changes in the
concentration of blood. These changes are detected
by the hypothalamus in the brain .when blood
concentration is high, the hypothalamus stimulates
the pituitary gland to secrete antiduiretic hormone
(ADH) which on reaching the kidneys tubules
causes them to absorb more water from the
glomerular filtrate back into blood. When blood
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concentration is low, ADH secretion is suppressed

and less water is re absorbed from the glomerular
filtrate
10. (a) Endothermic animals can maintain a constant body
temperature irrespective of the changes in the
external temperature while ectothermic animal the
temperature changes with a change in the body
temperature.
(b) Endothermic animals can live in a wider range of
environmental temperatures
(c) They reduce on the body activity
Some bask in sun shine in order to get heat
Somme hibernate in periods of prolonged coldness
11. Functions of the lymphatic system
 Draws tissue fluid from the body
 Fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed through the
Lymph vessels before they reach the general
circulation
 Phagocytes at lymph nodes help in fighting against
disease causing micro organisms
(b) (i) In the lungs oxygen is gained, carbon dioxide lost
and water vapor lost due to gaseous exchange
(ii) In the liver urea is gained resulting from
deamination of excess amino acids, glucose is
gained resulting from conversion of glycogen to
glucose or glucose is lost resulting from the
conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage. Fats
are lost for storage or being converted to glucose.
Excess amino acids are lost due to deamination .
Vitamins are lost due to storage. Hormones are lost
due to destruction

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(iii) In the kidneys urea is lost excess water and excess

salts are lost through ultra filtration, carbon dioxide
is gained and oxygen lost due to respiration.
12. (a) substances transported in blood
 Oxygen -Carbon dioxide Mineral salts
Digested food -Urea -Hormones
 Plasma proteins
(b)
 Oxygen is transported from the lungs to the respiring cells
all over the body
 It helps in the transportation of digested food from the parts
(cell) for growth and energy production.
 Carbon dioxide has to be transported from respiring cells to
the lungs for excretion.
 Mineral salts are also transported from the alimentary canal
to the sites where they are needed.
 Heat is transported from the liver and muscles to all parts
of the body which helps in maintaining a constant body
temperature.
 Platelets and plasma proteins are also transported to injured
parts to assist in blood clotting.
 The white blood cells and antibodies are also transported to
injured parts and helps to fight against infections.
 The hormones that are transported from the ductless glands
to where they are required to bring about response.

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MODULE SEVEN : RESPIRATION AND GASEOUS

EXCHANGE,
QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Respiration and Gaseous
Exchange

1. Which of the following is true of respiration but not of

photosynthesis?
A. Oxygen is given out B. Carbon dioxide is taken in
C. Glucose is synthesized D. Carbon dioxide is released
2. Which one of the following is not an adaptation to facilitate
gaseous exchange in an organism
A. increased surface area of organisms involved
B. decrease in the thickness of exchange surface
C. Increased body size of organism
D. increase in concentration gradient of gas
3. The process by which the stored foods in the cotyledons are
broken down to simple food substances to be used by the
embryo is
A. glycolysis B. hydrolysis C. oxidation D. condensation
4. Which of the following processes does not use anaerobic
respiration?
A.brewing B.cheesemaking C.breadmaking D. cooking
5. A good mammalian respiratory surface should be
A. dry with large surface area
B. moist with reduced surface area
C. dry with many blood vessels
D. moist with many blood vessels
6. Which of the following are characteristics of surfaces for
gaseous exchange?
A. large surface area, thinness and moistness

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B. thinness, moistness and presence of fine blood

vessels
C. large surface area, thinness and presence of arteries
and veins
D. thinness, moistness and presence of arteries and
veins
7. Which one of the following explains the accumulation of
lactic acid in muscles during vigorous activity?
A. carbohydrate is completely broken down
B. the oxygen supply to the muscles may not be
enough
C. much of the stored glycogen is converted into
glucose.
D. the blood vessels leading from the muscles are
constricted
8. Which of the following events occur during inhalation in a
mammal?
A. diaphragm contracts, ribs raised
B. diaphragm relaxes, ribs lowered
C. internal intercoastal muscles contract, pressure in
chest cavity increases.
D. internal intercoastal muscles relax, pressure in chest
cavity increases
9. During inspiration the
A. pressure in the thoracic cavity is reduced
B. external intercoastal muscles relax
C. diaphragm becomes dome shaped
D. the thoracic cavity becomes smaller
10. The condition known as oxygen debt occurs during active
physical exercise in animals because of the
A. accumulation of carbon dioxide during physical
exercise
B. the high rate of breathing during physical exercise
C. accumulation of lactic acid in the body

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D. accumulation of alcohol in the body

11. Which one of the following is a respiratory organ in an
insect?
A.malphigian tubule B. spiracle C.trachea D. zygote
12. The structures in insects that serve as respiratory surfaces
for gaseous exchange are
A, trachea B. bronchioles C. trachioles D. spiracles
13. Which one of the following substances accumulates in
muscles during vigorous exercise?
A, water B. lactic acid C. carbon dioxide D. oxygen
14. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate
definition of respiration?
A. the oxidation of sugar to produce energy and water
B. breathing in oxygen, oxidation of food and release
of water, carbon dioxide and energy
C. the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in lungs
D. the oxidation of sugar to produce carbon dioxide
and energy
15. What are the final products of anaerobic respiration?
A. carbon dioxide, water and energy
B. carbon dioxide, water and alcohol
C. carbon dioxide, alcohol and energy
D. carbon dioxide and alcohol
16. Which one of the following structures represents the
respiratory surface of a fish?
A. gill bars B. gill rakers C. gill chamber D. gill filament
17. Which of the following make the skin of a toad an effective
respiratory surface?
(i) moist surface (ii) rough skin
(iii) rich blood supply to skin
(iv) large numbers of secretory glands on the skin
A. i , ii, and iii B. i and iii
C. ii and iv D. iii and iv

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18. In plants, anaerobic respiration is less efficient than aerobic

respiration because during anaerobic respiration
A. not all the carbohydrates are broken down
B. the amount of carbon dioxide released is less than in
aerobic respiration
C. there is less energy released per unit weight of
carbohydrate broken down
D, less water is produced in anaerobic respiration
19. Which of the following are respiratory surfaces in toads
and frogs?
A. the mouth, .webbed-toes and skin
B. nostrils, mouth and lungs
C. webbed toes, lungs and mouth
D. the mouth, lungs and skin
20. In which of the following structures does gaseous exchange
not take place?
A.tracheoles B.bronchioles C. filaments D. alveoli
21. Which of these movements is essential for inspiration to
take place?
A.contraction of diaphragm B. relaxation of diaphragm
C. lowering of the ribs
D. relaxation of intercoastal muscles
22. People living at high altitudes have more red cells than
those at lower altitudes in order to
A. breath more quickly B. keep the body warm
C. absorb enough oxygen D. pump more blood.
23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
respiratory surface?
A. thin walls B. moist surface
C. smooth surface
D. densely supplied with blood capillaries
24. Which one of the following is true, of respiration but not of
photosynthesis?
A. Oxygen is given out B. carbon dioxide is taken in

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C. glucose is synthesized D. energy is released

25. By which one of the following does carbon dioxide leave
the blood capillaries in the alveoli
A. osmosis B. active transport
C. diffusion D. capillarity
26. The best explanation for panting in an athlete immediately
after a race is to
A. allow fast blood flow to the lungs
B. restores the used up energy
C. takes in more oxygen
D. allow fast blood flow from the muscles
27. The main value of panting in a dog is that
A. excess water is removed from the body
B. latent heat of vaporization of water cools the body
C. excess mineral salts are removed from the body
D. the dog relaxes from exhaustion
28. A good mammalian respiratory surface should be
A. dry with a large surface area
B. moist with reduced surface area
C. dry with many blood vessels
D. moist with large surface are
29. Which one of the following occurs during exhalation in a
mammal
A. diaphragm relaxes
B. intercostals muscles contract
C. volume of chest cavity increases
D. ribs move upwards and outwards
30. A mosquito larva breathes by means of
A. spiracles B. gills C. segments D. nostril
31. Which of the following processes need energy?
A. osmosis B. diffusion
C. plasmolysis D. active transport
32. What are the final products of anaerobic respiration?
A. Carbon dioxide, water and energy

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B. Carbon dioxide, water and alcohol

C. Carbon dioxide and water
D. Carbon dioxide and alcohol
33. Which one of the following process needs oxygen?
A. Absorption of water by root hairs
B. Gaseous exchange in the alveoli
C. Loss of turgidity by the plant cell
D. Absorption of mineral salts by the root hairs
34. The structures in leaves that serve as respiratory surface for
gaseous exchange are
A. lenticels B.xylem C. stomata D. phloem
35. Which one of the respiratory organ is of a fish?
A. malpighian tube B. spiracle
C. gills D. lateral line
36. Which one of the following is an adaptation of reptile and
fish?
A. Limbs B. Lungs C. Scales D. Elongated body
37 Aerobic respiration is more efficient than anaerobic
respiration because it
A. uses more oxygen B. yield lactic acid
C. uses less oxygen D. yields more energy
38. The data below shows the amount of carbon dioxide in
haled in air, rate of breathing at rest the volume of air in a
breath, in humans
Percentage of carbon dioxide in inhaled air O.025%
Number of breaths per minute=3 6
Volume of one breath taken in at rest= 500cm3
The volume of carbon dioxide in haled per min while at
rest is
A. 0.9cm3 B. 4.5cm3 C. 12.5cm3 D.450cm3
39. How is lactic acid produced in muscles got rid of?
A. converting into water B. storing it in the liver
C. converting it into ethanol D. oxidation

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40 Which one of the following is the correct response to

increased carbon dioxide?
A. Breathing is slowed B. heart beat is slowed down
C. heart beat is increased D. the pulse is slowed down
41. Which one of the following respiratory surface is true of
humans but not insects?
A. highly vacularised B. Have large surface area
C. moist D. thin walled
42. Which one of the following is true about respiration and
photosynthesis?
A. involve enzyme B. need light energy
C. Are exothermic D. Occur in all living things
43. The following are products of tissue respiration in living
organism,
i. Energy ii. carbon dioxide iii. water iv. ethanol v.
lactic acid
Which of them are common in both aerobic and anaerobic
respiration in plants
A. (i)and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) ,(ii) and (iii) D. (ii), (iv) and (v)
44. In which of the following reaction does expired air take a
different route from that of inspired air
A.birds B. reptiles C.bony fish D.mammals
45. Which one of the following groups of animals possesses an
open circulatory system
A. amphibians B. birds C. fish D. insects
46. During inspiration the
a) The volume of the thoracic cavity is increased
b) External inter-coastal muscles relax
c) Thoracic cavity becomes smaller
d) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is increased.
47. In which one of the following would you expect to find the
least concentration of oxygen?
A. pulmonary vein B. liver cells

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C. pulmonary artery D. alveolus

48. The Figure below shows a gill of a fish and function of part
labeled A is
A. gill filaments for gaseous exchange
B. gill rakers for filtering food
C. gill bar for support
D. Gill arch for increasing surface area

B: Short Answer Questions on Respiration and Gaseous

Exchange
1 What is the importance of the following features to a
respiratory surface
a) Thin epithelium
b) Dens network of capillaries
c) Large surface area
d) Make a labeled structure of a gill and state the of
the parts labeled
2. a) Describe the mechanism of inspiration and
expiration in a bony fish
b) Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic
respiration
3. a) Differentiate between internal and external
respiration
b) Describe an experiment to show that germinating
seeds liberate heat.
4. a) What is tissue respiration?
b) What is the importance of tissue respiration?
c) Describe an experiment to show that germinating
seeds liberate carbon dioxide

5. A student carried out an experiment using the set up in

figure 5.In set R, bean seeds soacked in water were used.In
S, oiled seeds sprinkled with a preservative were used, W

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hile in T, boiled bean seeds with out preservative were

used.
C: Essay Questions on Gaseous Exchange and Respiration
1. (a) Distinguish between respiration and breathing
(b) Write the function of each of the following
(i) epiglottis
(ii) the C-shaped rings in the trachea
(c) Describe an experiment to show that there is more
carbon dioxide in the air breathed out than in the air
breathed in
2. (a) Describe an experiment to show that carbon dioxide
is produced during respiration of an Organism
(b) Differentiate between respiration and photosynthesis
3. The apparatus in figure 6is to investigate an aerobic
respiration in yeast

Delivery tube

Boiling tube
test - tube

Liquid Bubbles of a gas

Paraffin

Liquid x

Water bath at 300 Glucose and

(a) Wh Yeast mixture

b) What is the purpose of;

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(i) Liquid paraffin

(ii) Using glucose in the boiling tube
(b) Name the colorless gas evolved
(c) Name the liquid x
(d) Suggest the purpose of liquid x
(e) Suggest the suitable control experiment
4. (a) Explain the following terms as used in gaseous
exchange
(i) Tidal air
(ii) Residual air
(iii) Virtual capacity of lungs
(b) State the similarities between the respiratory surface
of a mammal and fish?
(c) Briefly explain the observation that bigger plants
have no complex respiratory organs like those of
bigger animals?
(d) Why does a person breathe faster at higher altitudes
than at level after a vigorous exercise?
5. (a) Define the following terms;
(i) Aerobic respiration (ii) Anaerobic respiration
(iii) Metabolism (iv) Catabolism
(v) Anabolism (vi) Anaerobes
(b) Anaerobic respiration in mammals causes oxygen
debt
(i) How is oxygen debt caused?
(ii) How is oxygen debt repaid?
(c) What is respiratory quotient?
6. (a) How does gaseous exchange take place in a
protozoan such as amoeba?
(b) what happens when the diaphragm muscles and
external intercostals muscles
(i) Contract (ii) Relax
(c) How are lungs adapted for gaseous exchange?

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7. (a) Describe the breathing mechanism in a bony fish

(b) How are the gills in a bony fish adapted to their
functions? (Qn.34 UNEB 2009)

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A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions on Respiration and

Gaseous Exchange
1.D 2.C 3.C 4.D 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.A 9.A 10.C
11.C 12.C 13.B 14.B 15.C 16.D 17.B 18.C 19.D 20.B
21.A 22.C 23.C 24.D 25.C 26.C 27.B 28.D 29.A 30.B
31.D 32.D 33.B 34.C 35.C 36.C 37.D 38.B 39.D 40.C
41.A 42.A 43.A 44.C 45.D 46.A 47.C 48.A

B: b) Answers to Short Answer Questions on Respiration

and Gaseous Exchange
1. (a) Thin epithelium reduces the distance across which
diffusion of gases takes place thus increasing the
diffusion rate.
(b) Dense network of capillaries transports away the
absorbed gases hence maintaining a high diffusion
gradient. This enables the absorption of more
gases to take place
(c) A moist surface makes gases to dissolve in the
moisture making easy diffusion across the
membrane of the surface and also increasing the
rate of diffusion
(d) Large surface area provides more area for diffusion
of gases resulting to increase in the amount of gases
diffuse
(e) (i) Structure of a gill of a fish

Gill raker
Gill bar
Gill filament

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 Gill rakers trap any foreign material that might have

entered in together with water to prevent it from
damaging the gill filament
 Gill bar supports the gill filament
 Gill filament is the sight for gaseous exchange
2. (a) (i) Mechanism of inspiration in a bony fish,
The fish opens the mouth while the
operculum closes the floor of the buccal
cavity is lowered. The volume in the mouth
cavity increases and pressure in the mouth
cavity is decreased. Water flows into the
mouth and over the gills. As this happens
oxygen is extracted from the water
(ii) During the expiration, the mouth closes the
floor of the buccal cavity is raised and the
operculum opens then water is passed out of
the body, In the process carbon dioxide is
removed from the body,
(b) Differences between Aerobic and Anaerobic
respiration
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
(i) Occurs in the - Occurs in the absence of Oxygen
presence of Oxygen
(ii) There is complete - There is incomplete break down of
break down of glucose glucose molecules.
molecules
(iii) No intermediate - Intermediate substances are plan
substance is produced produced e.g. in ethanol and in ts
animals lactic acid
(iv) Much energy is - Less energy is released
released

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3. (a) Internal or tissue respiration is the process which

involves the oxidation of food within the body to
release energy.
External or surface respiration is the type of
respiration which involves the taking in of oxygen
which is used, in tissue respiration and the removal
of Carbon dioxide produced as a by-product of
tissue respiration
(b) An experiment to show that germinating seeds
liberate heat
Apparatus (Materials)
- Germinating seeds - Boiled seeds
- 2 vacuum flask - 2 thermometers
- Cotton wool - formalin
Method
Put some germinating seeds in one flask A and Put a
thermometer and plug with cotton wool. Place the boiled
seeds washed with formalin. In another flask (B) and
set up as flask A. Take the thermometer readings

Leave the experimental set up for about 6 hours to 1 week.

Take the final thermometer reading

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Observation:
In flask A the thermometer shows rise in temperature
while in flask B there is no rise in temperature
Conclusion:
Germinating seeds liberate heat
4. (a) Tissue respiration is the oxidation of glucose to
release energy Carbon dioxide, and water.
(b) It releases energy for use by the organism for
growth and contraction of muscle which bring about
movement.
(c) Experiment to show that germinating seeds
liberate Carbon dioxide
Requirements:
-2 flasks -soaked seeds -wet cotton wool
-boiled seeds -antiseptic

Procedure Wet cotton wool with

Place wet cotton wool in flask A and B. Soaked seeds are
antiseptic
placed in flask A. While in B equal number of seeds are
also placed in but containing some antiseptic to prevent
bacteria and fungi from growing in which might produce
Carbon dioxide.
The flasks are corked and left in a similar condition of light
and temperature until the seeds in A are germinated. Seeds
in B should not germinate.
At the end of the investigation the gases in each flask are
tested by removing the cork and tilting the flask over a test
tube of lime water and then shaking the content in the test
tube.

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Observation:
The air in flask A turns the lime water milky while that in
B will show no observable change,
Conclusion:
Germinating seeds give out Carbon dioxide

C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Respiration and

Gaseous Exchange
1. (a) Respiration is the breaking down of glucose by help
of enzymes to liberate energy carbon dioxide and
water as a byproduct. While breathing is the
muscular movement that involves taking air into the
lungs and taking air out the lungs
(b) (i) Epiglottis – Prevents food or any foreign
body entering the lungs.
(ii) To keep the trachea ope

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(c) An experiment to show that there is more carbon dioxide

in the air breathed out than in air breathed in.
Apparatus
- Delivery tube - lime water
- Cork - test tube

Pr
ocedure
Arrange the apparatus as shown above. Then breath in and
out through the mouth piece and observe the changes in the
lime water in tubes A and B
Observations
Lime water in test tube A remains clear while that in B
turns milky.
Conclusion
Exhaled air contains more carbon dioxide than inhaled air.
Explanation
The fact that lime water in test tube A where inhaled air
passed remained clear and that in B where exhaled air
passed turned milky, proves that exhaled air contained

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more carbon dioxide than inhaled air. Carbon dioxide turns

lime water milky.
2. (a) An experiment to show that carbon dioxide during
respiration of an animal
Apparatus / materials
- small animal e.g. rat
- delivery tubes
- glass jars
- lime water
PROCEDURE

Arrange the apparatus as shown above. Put Sodium

hydroxide in jar A and lime water in B and D leave the
set up for about 1 hour and observe the changes in the glass
jars.
Observations
Lime water in Jar B remains clear while that in jar D turns
milky.
Conclusion
Carbon dioxide is produced by respiring animals (Rat)
Explanation
Carbon dioxide turns lime water milky. Sodium hydroxide
absorbs carbon dioxide in jar A that is why lime water in

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glass B remains milky. The fact that lime water in glass

jar D turns milky proves that carbon dioxide is produced by
the respiring animal (Rat)

(b) Respiration Photosynthesis

- Breakdown of glucose to - Build up of starch from
release energy carbon dioxide and water
using sunlight energy
- Energy produced - Energy absorbed (used)
- Occurs in both plants and - Occurs in green plants
animals only.

3. (a) (i) Prevents oxygen from entering the

suspension during the experiment
(ii) Glucose acts are a respiratory substrate
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Lime water
(d) To test for the presence of carbon dioxide
(e) Set up the apparatus in the same way using boiled
yeast suspension
4. (a) (i) Tidal air – is the air breathed in and out when at rest
(ii) Residual air – is the amount of air that
remains in the lungs after a forced expiration.
(iii) Vital capacity of lungs- Is the amount of air
exchanged after breathing in and out air as much as
possible.
(b) In both, the respiratory surfaces;-
(i) are moist (ii) Are thin walled
(iii) Have increased surface area for gaseous exchange
(iv) Have a rich supply of blood vessels /
capillaries

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(c)
o Plants are not active like animals; therefore they
have a lower metabolic rate.
o Much of the plant tissue is made up of xylem which
does not respire, thus gaseous exchange per
unit mass is less in plants than in animals.
o Bigger plants have large surface area to volume
ratios than animals of the same size, thus they can
exchange gases by diffusion over most of their
surfaces through the stomata and lenticels.
(d) The amount of oxygen in the air is less at higher
altitudes than at sea level. Due to this less oxygen is
absorbed by haemoglobin and in order to increase
the oxygen absorption, breathing rate increases.
5. (a)(i) Aerobic respiration is the breakdown of
glucose carbon dioxide, water and energy
using oxygen.
(ii) Anaerobic respiration is the break down of
glucose to release energy without the use of oxygen.
(iii) Metabolism refers to all chemical reactions
taking place in an organism for maintenance
of life.
(iv) Anabolism .This refers to the synthesis of
complex substances from simple substances.
(v) Catabolism . refers to the breakdown /
decomposition reactions that are involved
in the release of energy.
(vi) Anaerobes These are organisms that can
respire an aerobically.
(b)(i) Oxygen debt is caused during anaerobic respiration
in the muscle when energy expenditure is more than
the rate of oxygen absorption.
(ii) Oxygen debt is repaid by fast breathing in
the recovery period after vigorous exercise is over.

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(c) Respiratory quotient is the ratio of the quantity of

carbon dioxide produced and oxygen consumed
during the oxidation of a substrate in the given
period of time.
Thus RQ = Carbon dioxide released
Oxygen consumed
6. (a) Gaseous exchange is protozoa (amoeba).
In amoeba, the surface for gaseous exchange is the
cells membrane which is thin and permeable to
respiratory gases and is surrounded by water.
Amoeba has a large surface area to volume ratio.
Gaseous exchange takes place through its entire
surface.
Oxygen from the surrounding water diffuses into
the cytoplasm in solution through the whole surface
of the ectoplasm. Oxygen is then used for the
oxidation of food with the production of energy and
carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide diffuses out into
the surrounding water in a similar way.

Co2 Oxygen
higher
(higher concentration)
(Concentration)

(b) (i) The diaphragm flattens and the thorax (rib cage) is
raised upwards and outwards. The volume inside
the thorax and the lungs increases and pressure in
them decreases. The increase in volume raises the
capacity of the lungs and the atmospheric pressure
forces air into the lungs through the nostrils and
trachea.

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But the pressure in them increases greater than the

atmospheric pressure. So the air from the lungs
is then expelled through the trachea and the nostrils

(c) Adaptations of lungs for gaseous exchange

 They both lie in thorax and connected to external air
via the trachea Lungs are spongy and elastic to
provide a large absorbing surface area.
 Each lung has to very many alveoli to increase the
surface area over which gaseous exchange occurs.
 The alveoli are lined by a dense network of blood
capillaries that carry away the diffused oxygen thus
maintaining a large diffusion gradient.
 The lining of each alveolus is covered by a thin
layer of moisture which dissolves oxygen enabling
it to diffuse in the blood in solution.
The exchange of air in the lungs and the atmosphere
outside is brought about by the muscular
movements of the thorax and diaphragm.

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7. (a) mechanism of breathing in a bony fish.

Inspiration
The buccal cavity expands.
Pressure in the buccal cavity decreases
Water is drawn in through the mouth to a region of
low pressuire.
At the time, the outside water pressure presses the
posterior end of the operculum shut preventing
entry of water from this region. The muscles of
the opercular cavity contract causing it to be
enlarged.this lowers pressure in the opercular hat
in the buccal cavity hence water is drawn from
the buccal cavity over the into the opercular cavity.
Experation
The mouth closes
The entrance of the oesophagus also closes
The floor of the bucal cavity is raised, volume with
in deceases and pressure increases.this forces water
through the gill slits into the opercular cavitywhere
the inreased pressure forces open the posterior
end of the operculum.
(b) Adaptations of gills to their functions

-The numerous gill filaments provide al arge

surface area over which gaseous exchange occurs.
-The gills are lined with a dense network of
capillaries which constantly carry away diffused
gases(oxygen) thus maintaining a high diffusion
gradient.
-They are lined by a layer of moisture in which
gases first dissolve before diffusion occurs.
-The surface membrane of the gills is very thin to
reduc e on the diffuysion distance

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-The neighbouring gill filaments overlap at their

tips providing resistance to water flow. This slows
down the water flow over the gill lamellae thus
inreasing time available for gaseous exchange to
take place
MODULE EIGHT: EXCRETION AND HOMEOSTASIS
QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Excretion and Homeostasis

1. Which of the following is a long-term adaptation of

mammals to low environmental temperature
A. Raising of hair
B. Increase in metabolism
C. Deposition of fats under the skin
D. Reduction of blood flow to the skin
2. Which one of the processes helps to lower mammalian
body temperature to normal?
A. Vasodilation B. Vasoconstriction
C. Shivering D. Raising of hairs on the skin
3. Functionally the most diversified organ in the human body
is the
A. brain B. Liver C. stomach D. kidney
4. Secretion and excretion occur at the same time in the
A. lungs B. Bile C. skin D. heart
5. The urine of a girl was tested by boiling it with Fehling's
solution. A brown precipitate was observed. The organ
that had malfunction was the
A. kidney B. Pancreas C. liver D.heart
6. Which one of the following is not an example of excretion?
A. a man sweating B. a tree dropping its leaves
C. a dog salivating D. a goat exhaling
7. Insects in the dry areas conserve water by passing waste in
form of

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A. urea B. uric acid crystal C. ammonia gas D. urine

8. The main value of sweating in man is that during the
process
A. excess water is lost B. excess salts are got rid of
C. the body temperature is lowered
D. excess nitrogenous waste is got rid
9. Which one of following is a reaction to over-cooling by a
mammalian body?
A. dilation of blood vessels B. sweating
C. decrease in metabolic rate D. shivering
10. In which part of the kidney nephron does re-absorption of
glucose occur?
A. proximal convoluted tubule B. distal convoluted tubule
C. descending loop of Henle D. ascending loop of Henle
11. Which of the following would not be found in the
glomerular filtrate?
A. fibrinogen B. glucose C. mineral salts D. urea
12. The following are body responses to changes in
temperature of a mammal:
(i) shivering (ii) increased blood supply to the skin
(iii) decreased sweat production
(iv) relaxation of erector pilli muscle Which of these
responses occurs during cold temperature?
A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (iii) and (iv) D. (i) and (iii)
13. Urine is formed by
A. ultra filtration arid selective re-absorption
B. selective re-absorption in the proximal tubule
C. selective reabsorption at the loop of Henle
D. ultra filtration in the Bowman's capsule
14. The following are physiological processes that occur in the
body of a mammal
(i) elimination of urea
(ii) regulation of salts in the body
(iii) regulation of water in the body

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(iv) deamination of excess amino acids

Which of them are carried out by the kidney?
A. (i) (ii) and (iv) B. (ii) (iii) and (iv)
C. (i) (ii) and (iii) D. (ii) and (iii) only
15. In body temperature regulation, vasoconstriction
A. allows less blood to enter the skin capillary
network
B. allows less urine to be secreted into the bladder
C. allows more sweat to be secreted by the sweat
glands
D. increases heat loss by radiation
16. Which of the following substances are secreted in
mammalian sweat?
A. urea, ammonia, water
B. urea, carbon dioxide, sodium chloride
C. urea, water, sodium chloride
D. urea, carbon dioxide, water
17. The filtrate out of kidney glomeruli contains water,
glucose, salts and urea. Urine contains a lot urea, less
water, very little glucose and salts compared with the
filtrate. Which of the following true about the kidney
functions?
A. Removing water from the body
B. maintenance of a constant blood composition
C. storage of salts in the body
D. elimination of urea from the blood
18. During excretion in the kidney there is filtration of some
blood fluid and re-absorption of some substances dissolved
in the fluid so that
A. Most of the water is retained and excess proteins
excreted
B. The useful substances are retained and the blood
composition is kept constant
C. All the mineral salts and glucose are reabsorbed.

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D. only the poisonous nitrogenous compounds are

extracted
19. The Agama lizard is frequently seen exposed to sunshine
on walls, rocks e.t.c in the early hours the day and in the
evening. When the sunshine becomes hot, they move to
shady places. These animals are not normally seen moving
about at night. Which of the following deductions could be
correct? The Agama lizard
A. Becomes blind at night B. is fond of sunshine
C. Probably does not feed at night
D. Makes effort to regulate its body temperature.
20. A man's urine gave a positive test with Benedict's solution.
What is the best deduction about is man?
A. He had been eating a lot of sugar.
B. There was too much insulin in his blood.
C. There was too much glycogen in his blood
D. He was suffering from diabetes mellitus.
21. The kidney purifies blood through
A. Ultra filtration B. Absorption and filtration
C. selective absorption and filtration
D. Ultra filtration and selective absorption
22. The group of organs performing excretory functions is
A. lungs, spleen and gall bladder
B. skin, kidneys and pancreas
C. liver, kidneys and pancreas
D. kidneys, lungs and skin
23. Which one of the following excretory products are
removed from the body by the kidneys
A. urea, excess water and excess salts
B. urea, excess water and carbon dioxide
C. carbon dioxide, excess water and salts,
D. carbon dioxide, urea and excess salts
24. Which one of the following layers of the human skin helps
the body to retain water?

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A. Granular layer B. Malpighian layer

C. subcutaneous layer D. Cornified layer
25. A sample of urine from a man was boiled with Benedict's
solution and the mixture turned orange in color. Which of
the following is the best deduction about the condition of
this man?
A. There was a lot of glycogen in his blood.
B. He has a deficiency of insulin in his blood
C. His diet has a lot of sugar
D. His kidneys were damaged.
26. Which one of the following organs is responsible for
removing excess amino acids from blood?
A. gall bladder B. Kidney C. liver D. Spleen
27. What is the function of contractile vacuole in the amoeba
A. storage of solid particles
B. digestion of food
C. storage of unwanted gaseous compounds
D. control of water content of the body
28. Which of the following statements best explains why urine
does not normally contain glucose?
A. glucose molecules are too large to pass through the
capillaries of the glomerulus
B. glucose present in the renal tubule is changed to
carbon dioxide and water.
C. All the glucose is filtered and re-absorbed back into
the blood in the proximal tubule
D. The bladder re- absorbs all the glucose filtered
29. The following are body responses to changes in
temperature of a mammal
(i) Shivering
(ii) Increased body supply to these skin
(iii)decreased sweat production
(iv)Relaxation of erector pill muscle
Which of these are responses to a fall in body temperature?

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A. (i) and(ii)B. (ii) and (iii)C. (iii) and (iv) D. (i) and (iii)
30. The reason the urine of a healthy person does not contain
glucose is that
A the glomerulus is impermeable to glucose
B. glucose is used for respiration before reaching the
collecting duct
C. glucose passes back into the blood steam
D. the kidney converts glucose to urea
31. Where in the mammalian skin is melanin pigment found
A. Malpighian layer B. Granular later
C. cornified layer D. Subcutaneous layer

B: Short Answer Questions on Excretion and Homeostasis

1. The graph below shows the variation in the amount of
sweat and urine with temperature of

Sweat

Quaantity of
urine/sweat

urine

Surrounding temperature
a) (i) How does the increase in temperature affect
urine production?
(ii) Sweat production?
b) Explain your answers in (a) (i) and (ii) above,

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(i) Explanation for a (i)

(ii) Explanation for a (ii)
c) State three conditions under which humans pass out
concentrated urine.
d) Apart from sweating, state three other body
responses by mammals to over heating
2. The figure below shows a mammalian urinary system
VENACAVA AORTA
A
B
C

E
F

a) Name the parts labeled A - F.

b) Briefly explain why the concentration of urea in B
is less than that in C.
c) What is the function of E?
d) A sample of urine was found to contain sugar.
(i) Suggest the type of sugar likely to be
contained in the urine sample.
(ii) What hormone is likely to be deficient in the
person from whom the urine was taken?
(iii) Name the disease that person is likely to be
suffering from

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(c) Another individual was found to be passing out a lot

of urine without sugar and complaining of thirst
most of the time.
(i) Suggest the hormone that is deficient into
his individual.
(ii) Name the organ which produces the
hormone referred to in (c) (i) above.
3. The graph below shows the relationship between body
temperature and external temperatures in a human being
and a reptile (lizard)
Human

40

Body Temp 30 Lizard

20

10

10 20 30 40
External Temp
(a) What happens to the temperature of each organism
as the external temperature creases?
Human Lizard
(b) Humans are sometimes described as warm-blooded
(homoeothermic) State the advantage of this
condition.

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(C) Suggest how a lizard in hot desert conditions might

avoid over heating if external temperatures rose
above 4 0°C.
4. (a) What do you understand by the term Excretion?
(b) State the excretory organs, arid excretory products
excreted by the following animals
(i) Insect (ii) bony fish
(iii) reptiles (iv) birds (v) man
5. Figure below shows a longitudinal section of a human skin
B
C
D
E

(a) Name the parts labeled A to F

(ii) Sate the function of each of the parts labeled
A, B, D and F
6. Table 1 shows the body sursace area and volume of two
land mammals A and B.Table 2 shows the rate of
metabolism in arbitrary units, of the animals at varying
environmental temperatures.
Table 1
Mammal Surface area (m2) Volume(m3)
A 1.2 0.92
B 0.6 0.18

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Table 2
Environmental Metabolic rate
Temperature(oc) (arbitrary units)
Mammal A Mammal B
16 10.5 12.9
18 8.9 10.9
20 7.5 9.2
22 6.4 7.8
24 5.6 6.7
26 5.0 5.8
(a) From Table 1
(i) Work out the surface area ;Volume ratio of each
mammal.
(ii) State the structural difference between mammal
A and B.

(b) Using the space provided, plot on the same graph

the metalic rate of of the two animals against
environmental temperature.
(c) From your graph, determine the metalic rate of each
mammal at environmental temperature of 25oc
(d) (i) How does environmental temperature affect
the metabolic rate of the mammals?
(ii) Explain why variation of temperature
affects the metaaabolic rate of the mammals
as stated in (c)(i) (Qn 31 UNEB

C: Essay Questions on Excretion and Homeostasis

1. (a) (i) Give the main difference between cold-
blooded (ectothermic) and warm blooded
(endothermic) animals.
(ii) Give one advantage that an endothermic
animal has over an ectothermic animal.

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(iii) Why are ectothermic animals said to be

cold-blooded?
(b) Give four ways in which an ectothermic reacts to
the lowering of external temperature.
2. (a) List the excretory products of animals.
(b) With the aid of a labeled diagram describe the part
played by the mammalian kidney in excretion.
3. (a) Draw a well- labeled structure of the skin
(b) State the functions of the parts labeled.
4. a) What is excretion?
(b) Describe how the mammalian kidney forms urine.
(c) What part is played by the mammalian skin in
excretion?
5. (a) Which is the excretory organ for nitrogenous
wastes?
(i) In insects (ii) In an amoeba
(b) Where is the organ located in the body of an insect?
(c) (i) What nitrogenous compound is excreted by
the organ in (b) above?
(ii) Give a reason for the form of the excretory
product you have mentioned in c(.i) above.
(iii) Name any other excretory products in
insects.
(iii) What other function does the excretory organ in
the amoeba perform?

6. (a) What is meant by the term Excretion ?

(b) Describe how carbon dioxide is removed from the
mammalian body tissues into the atmosphere
7. (a) What is excretion?
(b) With the aid of a labeled diagram, describe the
functioning of the kidney in excretion?
8. (a) Why do flowering plants possess simpler excretory
organs than those found in mammals?

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(b) Describe how mammalian kidney forms urine.

(c) What part is played by mammalian skin in
excretion?
9. (a) What is the importance of water to animals?
(b) Describe how water balance in the mammalian
body is maintained
10. (a) What is Osmoregulation?
(b) How does the pituitary gland regulate the Osmotic
pressure of the blood and tissue fluid?
11. (a) State four ways by which the mammalian body
loses
(i) heat (ii) Water
(b) How does the mammalian body maintain a constant
temperature?
12. (a) Give the main difference between cold - blooded
(ectothermic) and warm blooded (endothermic)
animals.
(i) Give one advantage that an endothermic
animal has over an ectothermic animal.
(ii) Why are ectothermic animals said to be cold
blooded?
(b) Give four ways in which an ectotherm reacts to the
lowering of external temperature.
13. (a) Draw a well- labeled structure of the skin
(b) Statethe functions of the parts labeled.
14. (a) Describe how the human body controls temperature.
(b) what is the imporntance of having a constant body
temperature? ( Qn 37 UNEB 2008)

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ANSWERS
A: A) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions on Excretion
and Homeostasis

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C 31. A
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. A
11. A 12. D 13.A 14. C 15. A
16. C 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. D
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. B
26. B 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. C

B: b) Answers to Short Answer Questions on Excretion and

Homeostasis
1. a) (i) It lowers the quantity of urine produced,
(ii) It increases the quantity of sweat
produced.
b) (i) Increase in temperature increases sweat
production. So urine production must be
lowered so that the water loss from the body
is reduced i.e. to prevent excessive water
loss from the body,
(ii) Increase in temperature increases the latent
heat of vaporization of the body water.
(iii) It also increases the body temperature, hence
increasing sweat production so as to lower the body
temperature.
c) (i) Low water intake.(ii) High salt intake,
(iii) Excessive sweating.
d) (i) Falling of hairs on the surface of the body,
(ii) Vasodilation
(iii) Decrease in metabolic rate
3. (a) Parts showing the mammalian excretory system

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A - Kidney B -renal vein

C - Renal artery D - Ureter
E - Urinary bladderF - Urethra
b) The concentration of urea in B is less than in C
because filtration of blood had already taken place
and the urea was removed from the blood,
c) E is for storage of urine temporarily before it is
excreted from the body.
d) (i) The sugar is glucose (ii) Hormone - insulin
(iii) Diabetes mellitus
(e) (i) Anti diuretic hormone/vasopressin
(ii) Pituitary gland
3. a) Human-remains constant.
Lizard- increases with external temperature.
b) (i) Can live in a wide rage of environment .
(ii) Can digest food at optimum temperature,
(iii) Are more active and respond to stimuli
faster.
c) (i) By going to the shades,
(ii) By reducing activities
(iii) Going under cooler rocks.
4. a) Excretion is the process by which excess and
harmful waste products of metabolism are removed
from the body,
b)
Animals Organ Products
Insect Malpighian tubule Uric acid
Bony fish Kidney Urea
Reptile Kidney Urea
Birds Kidney Uric acid
Man Skin, kidney and Uric acid, urea, salt &
lungs water Carbon dioxide.

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5. a) A -sweat gland B - Sweat pore

D -Hair E -Erector muscle
b) A - To absorb sweat from blood capillaries
B - To pass sweat to the skin surface
D - Regulates body temperature.
F - Regulates body temperature.
c)
o Hair is bent over the surface of the skin
o Temperature condition- Hot
o Hair bent.
o Pore opened.
C -blood capillary F -Adipose tissue.

6. (a) (i) surface area to volume ratio

Mammal A, = surface area
Volume
= 1.2 = 1.304
0.92
Mammal B =0.6 =3.3
0.18
1;3.3
(ii) Mammal A is bigger than mammal B
(b) Graph
(c) At 25oc, mammal A, 5.3 arbitrary units
Mammal B, 6.2 arbitrary units
(d) (i)
incease in environmental temperature leads
to a decrease in metabolic rate of mammals
while a decrease in environmental
temperature leads to an increase in metabolic rate.
(ii)
At low environmental temperatures, the body loses
much heat to the surroundings, this leads to

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increased metabolic rate of the body so as to

maintain a constant body temperature.
(e) Mammal B has higher metabolic rate than A, it
loses more heat and thus requires a higher
metabolic rate at any environmental temperature.

(b) A GRAPH SHOWING VARIATION IN METABOLIC

OF MAMMALS WITH TEMPERATURE

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C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Excretion and

Homeostasis

l. (a)(i) The Ectothermic organisms are unable to

maintain a constant body temperature. Their
body temperature varies with that of the
environment.While the Endothermic
organisms are organisms that are able to
maintain a constant body temperature
irrespective of the changes in the
environmental temperature.
(ii) The advantages that the endothermic
organism has over that which is ectodermic,
is that the endotherms are able to live in a
wide range of environment irrespective of
the prevailing temperature.
(iii) They are called cold blooded because they
can not maintain a constant body
temperature such that their body temperature
can be lowered when the environmental
temperature decreases.
(b) How an ectothermic organism reacts to the lowering
of external temperature
o For lizards they can bask in the sun so that heat is
radiated to their bodies
o They can move to the heated rock or wall to gain
heat
o They can burrow into the cracks in "the wall
o They can also go into hibernation until the
condition becomes warmer

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2. (a) Excretory products of animals

Animal Products
Man - Carbon dioxide from -the
lungs
- Excess water and salts from
skin and kidney
- Urea, Uric acid and
ammonia from kidney
Insects - Uric acid
Birds - Uric acid
(b) Part played by mammalian kidney in excretion
Diagram of the nephron in the mammalian kidney

Ultra filtration of blood in the glomerulus happens because

of the wider capillary entering it and narrow capillary
leaving the glomerulus.

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Bowman's capsule collects filtrate made of many

substances like Uric acid, Urea, water a part from the blood
cells and proteins
There is selective re-absorption of useful materials like
glucose, some salts and water from the proximal
convoluted tubule.
Regulated amount of salt and water are absorbed from the
distal convoluted tubule and loop of Henle. More water
may be re-absorbed from the collecting duct if the blood
is concentrated. The urine from the collecting duct enters
the pelvis of the kidneys down the ureter and finally to the
bladder where it is removed from the, body through the
urethra
3 (a) Structure of the skin

Functions of the parts of the skin

(i) Sweat pore: Is where sweat is transported to the
skin surface
(ii) Sweat gland: Secretes sweat after being absorbed
from blood and tissue fluid
(iii) Blood capillaries: Carries nutrients to the skin
(iv) Erector Pilli muscles contract and bring about
raising of the hair to regulate body temperature
(v) Subcutaneous fats insulate the body against heat
loss
(vi) Hair insulate the body against heat loss

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3). a) Why flowering plants possess simpler excretory

organs than those found in mammals.
 They convert waste products into insoluble
compounds which can be stored in plant organs
which later drop off e.g. leaves, fruits.
 Plants produce less toxic waste
 In plants, some waste products like carbon dioxide
oxygen and water can be removed by diffusion from
the lenticels and stomata.
 Some waste can be used internally again e.g. CO2
used for photosynthesis and O2 which is a bi-
product of photosynthesis can be used for
respiration.
 Waste products are formed in plants in a much
slower rate than in animals.
(b) Urine formation takes place in the nephron which
are units found in the kidney. Blood enters the
kidney through the renal .artery.-The arteries are
further divided into smaller capillaries forming the
glomerulus. The arterioles that enter the glomerulus
are wider than the ones leaving the glomerulus. This
results into a high pressure on the blood in the
glomerulus. Ultra filtration takes place making
water, salts, glucose, urea, uric acid to diffuse into
the Bowman’s capsule. Structures with large
molecules e.g. blood cells are not filtered out. The
filtrate passes down the nephron to the proximal
convoluted tubule where substances like vitamins,
hormones, glucose and water are re-absorbed back
into the blood stream while in the loop of Henle and
distal convoluted tubule some water and mineral
salts are absorbed. In the collecting ducts absorption
of water continues depending on the body’s
requirements. The remaining part of the filtrate is

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not re-absorbed at all and contains excess salts, uric

acid, ammonia, urea. This is now called urine and
passes through the collecting ducts to pelvis, ureter,
bladder and finally out through the urethra.

Diagram: See number 2 abov

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MODULE NINE: COORDINATION

QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Coordination
1. The hormone that is responsible for the conversion of
glycogen to glucose in the liver is
A. secretin B. thyroid C.adrenalin D. insulin
2. Which one of the following human diseases is caused by
deficiency of a hormone?
A.Anaemia B. Beriberi C. Diabetes D. scurvy
3. Which one of the following parts of the mammalian ear is
concerned with balance?
A. cochlea B. semi-circular canal
C. Eustachian tube D. Oval widow
4. When a growing shoot is placed horizontally, it bends
upwards after some time. Which one of the following
best explains this response?
A. high auxin concentration on the upper side inhibits
growth on the upper side
B. high auxin concentration on the lower side makes
the lower side grow faster
C. lack of auxin on the upper side inhibits growth on
the upper side
D. lack of auxin concentration on the lower side makes
the lower side grow faster
5. Growth of plant root towards water is called positive
A. Hydrotropism B. Geotropism
C. Thigmotropism D. Phototropism
6. The photo receptors of the eye are found in the
A. sclera B. Retina C. choroids D. Cornea
7. Which of the following is released on hearing loud
explosions?
A.insulin B.adrenalin C.oestrogen D.thyroxine

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8. The diagram below shows the location of taste buds. Which

iv
ones are sensitive to sour taste?

ii
iii

ii
ii

A. i B. ii . C. iii D. iv
9. The growth movement of a plant in response to touch
stimulus is called
A. nastic movement B. phototropism
C. geotropism D. haptotropism
10. Select the organ that belongs to only one system in a
mammal.
A. ovary B. Pancreas C. stomach D. thyroid gland
11. Which one of the following is an example of a reflex
action?
A. eating B. screaming after kicking a stone
C. riding D. salivating on smelling food
12. Which one of the following controls the rate of heart beat
in a mammal?
A. cerebrum B. Pituitary
C. medulla oblongata D. Cerebellum
13. The effect of unidirectional light on auxins in the tip of a
plant shoot is
A. uniform distribution of auxins around the tip

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B. reduction in concentration of auxins on the

illuminated side of the plant
C. increase in auxins on the illuminated side of the
plant
D. inhibition of movement of auxins down the plant
14. Which of the following is a function of thyroxin hormone?
A. promotes development of follicle in the ovary
B. prepares the body for fright-flight action
C. controls body metabolic rate
D. regulates sugar content of the body
15. What is the function of the Eustachian tube in the human
ear?
A. detection of body posture
B. transmission of sound waves to the middle ear
C. equalizing pressure in the middle ear
D. transmission of sound waves to the inner ear
16. Which one of the following responses is a directional
growth movement?
A. taxis B. reflex C. tropic D. nastic
17. Removal of the thyroid gland in a young child may lead to
A. stunted growth and mental retardation
B. failure to develop secondary sexual characteristics
C. development of diabetes
D. increased metabolic rate and restlessness
18. Which one of the following controls the activities of other
ductless glands?
A. thyroid B. adrenal C. pituitary D.islets of langerhans
19. Which of the following is true about nastic response?
A. depends on the direction of the stimulus
B. does not involve hormones
C. it is relatively slow
D. does not involve only growth.
20. Nerves, the spinal cord and the brain make up
A. a tissue B. a system C.an organ D. an organism

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21. The part of the brain that controls breathing is the

A. cerebellum B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebrum D. hypothalamus
22. Which one of the following glands produces a hormone
whose normal effect is to influent rate of heartbeat?
A. pituitary gland B. islets of langerhans
C. adrenal gland D. thyroid gland
23. The figure below is a simplified reflex arc. The part labeled
K is receptor cells-muscle fiber

A. the relay neuron B. a ganglion

C. the sensory neuron D. a motor neuron
24. Which one of the following hormones control the use of
glucose in the body?
A. gonadotrophin B. thyroxin C. insulin D.Pituitrin
25. Mr. Juma had an accident at an age of 6. A hospital
diagnosis revealed that part of his endocrine system had
been affected. He is now 27 years old yet he sounds like a
boy and has r grown any beard. Which one of the following
glands have been affected?
A. adrenal B. testes C. pancreas D. thyroid

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26. Stunted growth and mental retardation in children may be

due to
A. deficiency of adrenaline hormone
B. deficiency of thyroxin hormone
C. under production of pituitary hormone
D. under production of insulin
27. What is the functional unit in a nervous system called?
A. Dendrite B. Neuron C. Axon D. Synapse
28. Which one of the folio wine is an example of a tactic
response?
A. rolling up of leaves on a sunny day
B. Withdrawal by blowfly larvae from light
C. withdrawal of the hand from a hot object
D. bending of a plant shoots towards light
29. Short sightedness is caused by the
A. lens becoming thicker
B. suspensory ligament becoming shorter
C. contraction of ciliary muscles
D. expansion of iris muscles
30. Which one of the following represents a reflex arc
A. receptor-motor neuron-central nervous system -
sensory neuron- effectors
B. receptor-sensory neuron -effectors -central nervous
system- motor neuron
C. receptor-central nervous systems-motor neurons-
effectors
D. receptor- sensory neuron- central nervous system -
motor neuron – effector
31. Which one of the following hormones is not secreted from
the pituitary gland?
A. gonadotrophic hormone B. Luteinizing hormone
C. progesterone hormone D. Follicle stimulating hormone
32. Which one of the diseases listed below is a result of lack of
Anti-Diuretic hormone (ADH) in the body

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A. diabetes mellitus B. Anemia

C. Goiter D. Diabetes inspidus
33. Which one of the following responses is due to stimulus
coming from one direction?
A, tactic B. reflex C. tropic D. nastic
34. When a seedling was placed on a clinostat and placed in a
horizontal position, the shoot continues to grow
horizontally but without the clinostat it bends up wards.
Which one of the following is true about the role of a
clinostat?
A. Enables the seedling to receive uniform light
B. Causes auxin to concentrate on the lower side of the
clinostat.
C. Causes the auxin to accumulate on the upper side of
the seedling
D. Causes auxin to accumulate uniformly on all sides
35. What happens when the ciliary muscles of the mammalian
eye contract? The lens becomes
A. thicker and eyes see a far distance
B. thinner and eyes see near objects
C. thicker and eyes see far objects
D. thinner and eyes see distant objects
36. The term irritability refers to
A. Ability to respond to stimulus
B. ability to sense light
C. ability to feel heat
D. resistance to enemies
37. What is the main function of the choroid layer in the human
eye
A. focusing rays of light on the retina
B. supplying nutrients to the eye
C. bringing about accommodation
D. Controlling amount of light entering the eye

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38. In short sightedness, light rays from a distant object

converge.
A. before the retina B. beyond the retina
C. on the cornea D. on the lens
B. Short Answer Questions on Coordination
1. (a) What is long sightedness
(b) State two causes of long sightedness
(c) In the space below, draw light rays from an object
into the eye to show long-sightedness
(d) What is the effect of each of the following
movements of the different parts of the eye?
(i) Contraction of the iris
(ii) Relaxation of the ciliary muscle
(ii) shortening and thickening of the lens
The figure below shows the effect of unidirectional
light on the growth of plant shoots. Study the
figure and answer the questions that;
follow.Experiment at beginning
Card
board

Moist
soil
Experiment at beginning Experiment after 5 days
Key
(i) Intact coleoptile
(ii) coleoptile with cup tip
(iii) coleoptile with tip covered with aluminum
foil,

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(a) Explain why each coleoptile appears as shown after

5 days
3. Study figure below and answer the questions that follow.

i
ii

iii
v iv
vi

(a) Name the parts labeled (i) to (vi) on the diagram.

(b) By means of an arrow show the direction of impulse
propagation in the diagram above.
(c) (i) Name the type of neuron drawn above.
(ii) What action does it induce in the body?
(d) What is the function of structure labeled (v)
4. (a) Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands.

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(b) Below is a diagram of a human female showing the

location of two endocrine glands

5. Figure below shows a section through the human eye

(a) Name the parts labeled A, B, C and D.

(b) What function is jointly performed by the parts A,
B C and D ?
(c) Other than the joint function , state two other
functions of the part labeled D
(d) Give the state of the part A,B and C when the eye is
viewing

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(i) nearby objects

(ii) distant objects ?
e) State two eye defects and how they are corrected
(i) defect
corrective measure
(ii) defect
corrective measure
6. State any four functions of each of the following parts of
the brain. Part of the brain function
(i) cerebrum (ii) cerebellum.
(iii) medulla oblongata (iv) hypothalamus
7. Figure 4 shows part of a section of a human eye

(a) name the parts labelled a and b

(b) what is the function of structure b in the ey e?
(c) If a person entred a room with bright light, state the
changes that would occur in each of the parts a and
b
(d) In the space below, draw the shape of the lens only,
when the eye is focusing on anear and distant object
respectively.
(e) Describe how the shape of the lens is brought about
w hen the eye is focusing on a near object.
(Qn 33 , UNEB 2009)

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C: Essay Questions on Coordination

1. (a) Define
(i) Phototropism (ii) Geotropism
(b) Describe an experiment you would carryout to
determine the effects of gravity on the root of a
dicotyledonous plant.
2. (a) What do you understand by the term irritability as
applied to plants and animals?
(b). Explain how plants respond to light as a factor of
irritability,
(C) Name any three other tropic responses in plants.
3. (a) What is an endocrine gland?
(b) Draw and label a diagram to show the location of
the endocrine glands in the human body.
(c) Outline the role of the master gland in the body.
4. (a) What are tropisms?
(b) Name any 4 types of tropisms and briefly explain
what happens in each type.
(c) State the differences between tropisms and nastic
responses.
(d) Describe an experiment to show that there is
positive geotropism in plant roots.
5. A Child sees a fierce looking dog. Gets frightened and
runs. Describe the sequence of the events leading to child's
reaction.
6. Describe the structures of a motor neuron
(b)(i) What is meant by a reflex action?
(ii) By means of a diagram, show the path
followed by nerve impulses during a reflex action
7. a) What is meant by tropism?
b) Describe the importance of the different types of
tropisms in plants (Qn.34UNEB 2007)
8. Describe how sound produced externally is heard by the
human ear. (Qn.36UNEB 2007)

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ANSWERS

A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions on Coordination

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C
11.D 12. C 13. B 14. C 15.
16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. B 22. C 23. A 24. C 25. B
26. B 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. D
31. C 32. D 33. C 34. D 35.D
36.A 37. B 38. A

B: b) Answers to Short Answer Questions on Coordination

1. (a) Long sightedness is when the eye is able to focus
distant objects but is unable to focus near objects as
a result of the eyeball being too short.
(b) The causes of long sightedness are
- When the eye ball is too small
- When the lenses become weak and in-elastic
(c) Light rays from an object going into the eye
showing long sightedness

d) (i) the effect of contraction of iris is to increase the

size of the pupil in order to allow light enter into the
eye.

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(ii) When the cilliary muscle relaxes, it pulls the

lens making it become thin and long so as to
focus distant objects.
(iii) Thickening and shortening of the lens reduces the
focal length of the lens in order to focus near
objects.
2. (a) (i) the coloeptile appears as shown after the five days
because light causes an even distribution of auxins
with more on the side of the tip not receiving light
(dark), Thus causes faster growth on that side
making the shoot to bend towards light.
(ii) The tip of the shoot remains short since the
source of the auxin has been removed by
cutting off the tip thus no growth occurs.
(iii) Due to uniform distribution of auxin, the
coleoptile grows upright. This was because
of covering the tip, leading to uniform
distribution of the hormone auxin,
(b) The response makes the plant's shoot to grow
towards light which is required for photosynthesis.
3. (a) (i) Cytoplasm (ii) Dendrite
(iii) Axon (iv) Schwann cell
(v) myelin sheath (vi) motor end plate
(b) The arrow is from the cell body to effectors
(c) (i) motor neuron
(ii) Causes the contraction of muscles
(d) Myelin sheath speeds up impulse propagation and
insulates the axon.
4. (a) endocrine glands are ductless and their secretions
i.e. the hormones are transported through the blood
while the exocrine glands do have ducts through
which their secretions are transported
(b) A: thyroid gland and it produces hormone
thyroxin Gland

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B: ovaries which produces oestrogen

(c) The effects of adrenalin in the body
(i) Causes dilation of pupil of the eye.
(ii) Dilation of coronary arteries
iii) Contraction of muscles
(iv) Causes excitement.
5. (a) A Cilliary muscle B Suspensory ligament
C Lens D Vitreous humour
(b) The function which is jointly performed by pans A.
B, C and D is focusing/accommodation.
(c) Two other functions of part D are;
-provides nourishment to the eye
-maintains, the shape of the eye.
(d) (i) when viewing nearby objects,
A - Contracts B – Relaxes C -
Thickens
(ii) When viewing distant objects,
A - Relaxes B -Contracts
C - Becomes long and thin
(e) The two eye defects and how they are corrected
(i) Defect; Long sightedness or hypermetropia
is corrected by wearing spectacles with
convex or converging lenses,
(ii) Defect; short sightedness or myopia can be
corrected by means of concave or diverging
lenses.

6. Functions of parts of the Brain.

(a) Cerebrum:
(i) Responsible for intelligence, imagination and
character
(ii) For integration of sensory impulses e.g. vision and
tasting.
(b) Cerebellum

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(i) for maintaining body balance

(ii) Coordinating body muscles.
(c) Medulla oblongata
(i) for controlling body involuntary activities
e.g. respiration, circulation of blood,
vomiting, swallowing, salivating e.t.c
(d) Hypothalamus
(i) Controls Osmoregulation and body
temperature.
(ii) Sleep, feeding and drinking.
7. (a) a pupil b Iris
(b) to adjust the size of the pupil (controls the amount
of light entering the eye)
(c) a reduces in size
B relaxes
(d)

When focusing near objects

When focusing far objects
(e) When focusing on a near object,
The ciliary musle contract
Suspensory ligament relaxes
The lens thickens.

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C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Coordination

1. a) (i) Phototropism is growth movement by plants

in response to light coming from a single
direction
(ii) Geotropism is the growth movement by
plants in response to the force of gravity
(b) Title. An experiment to determine the effect of
gravity on the root of a dicotyledonous plant
Apparatus
Bean seeds, cotton wool, Petri dish

Procedure
Germinate several-bean seeds and three seeds with straight
radicles are selected c
arranged so that the radicles of one is horizontal, second
points vertically upward third vertically down wards.
They are placed in cotton wool or blotting paper in dish. The
whole set up is placed in a dark cupboard for two days
Start of experiment End of experiment

Observation
Radicles which were pointing horizontally and vertically
upwards are now found to have bent down wards. The

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one which was pointing vertically down wards continued to

grow tow pull of gravity.
Conclusion:
This demonstrates that the roots of dicotyledonous plants
respond positively to the effect of gravity.
2. (a) Irritability is the ability of an organism to react or
respond to changes in the environment
(b) Procedure
A few seedlings with active growing shoots are
placed vertically in a closed black card board with a
small hole on the side to allow light in from a single
direction
Results
After 3-4 days, there is bending of the plant shoots
towards the direction of the light rays.
Conclusion:
This shows that growing shoots are positively
phototrophic
(c) Geotropism -Response to gravity
3. (a) Ductless gland which secretes chemical/hormones
directly into the blood stream
(b) Diagram showing the location of the endocrine
glands in human

Pituitary gland
Thyroid gland
Pancreas

Adrenal gland
Gonads(female)

Gonads(male)
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(c) The master gland controls all the activities of the

endocrine glands e.g
(i) ADH controls amount of water re - absorbed
into the blood by the kidneys
(ii) Growth hormones influence growth
(iii) ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex to produce
hormone cortisone
(iv) Luteinizing hormone induces ovulation
(v) Thyrotrophic hormone stimulates the
thyroid gland to grow and produce thyroxine
(vi) FSH stimulates the gonads to produce; Sex
hormone – Oestrogen and Testosterone
(vii) Prolactin for milk production
(viii) Oxytocin induces contraction during labour

5. Light rays from the dog enters the boy’s eye through the
pupil, lens and an upside down image is formed on the
retina. Impulses are generated and carried to the brain
through the optic nerves. the brain interprets the message
and sends back impulses via the sympathetic nerves to the
adrenal gland which then secretes adrenalin hormone into
blood. Adrenalin has the following effects
o Causes an increase in the heart beat
o Causes dilation of blood vessels
o Causes increased metabolism of glucose to produce
energy
o Causes an increase in the breathing rate
All the above changes bring about generation of enough
energy for the boy toy to take off.
6. (a) It is an elongated cell with branched ends. It
contains a cell body on one end with nucleus and
cytoplasm. The cell body has dendrons which end

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into dendrites. The axon is a long fiber that

originates from the cell body may be covered by
myelin sheath or not. The myelin sheath is broken
at the nodes of ranvier. The axon ends into terminal
dendrites.

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b) (i) A reflex action is a sudden automatic response to a

stimuli not under the control of the brain
(ii) The path taken or followed by a nerve impulse to
bring about a reflex action
Diagram of a reflex arc

z
7. a) A Tropism is the plant growth response to
unidirectional stimulus.
b)i) Hydrotropism – is a growth movement of part of
plant in response to unidirectional source of water.
It helps the plants to grow towards water sources
and able to obtain water.
ii) Ihigmotropism enables the weak stemmed
plants to get support onto others. While the plant
root tips grow away from stones and other
obstacles. (negative thigmotropism)

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iii) Chemotropism enables the pollen tube to grow.

Towards the micropyle in the ovary for fertilization
to occur.
iv) Growth of plant shoots away from the force
of gravity (negative geotropism) enables themto get
into the soil for plant anchorage and absorption
water and mineral salts.
v) Phototropism enables plants to grow
towards a unidirectional source of light for
maximum photosynthesis.
8. Sound waves from the sources are collected by the Pinna
and directed to the eardrum by the auditory canal. The
eardrum vibrates and passes the sound vibrations to the ear
ossicles the ear ossicles the ear ossicles transmit the sound
vibrations to the oval windows. The oval window vibrates
and creates pressure waves in the Perilymph of vestibular
and tympanic canal. The vibrations in perilymph causes the
tectorial membrane, they are stimulated generating an
impulse which is carried by the hearing centre in the brain
by the auditory nerve. On reaching the brain, the sound
impulses are interpreted and sensation is sound as sound is
produced

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MODULE TEN: LOCOMOTION

QUESTIONS
A. Multiple Choice Questions on Locomotion
1. Which one of these is not a structure for movement in the
protozoa?
A. coelom B. flagella C. cilia D. pseudopodia
2. A thoracic vertebra has
A. divided transverse process
B. an odontoid process
C. long neural spine
D. extra muscle bearing projector
3. The axial skeleton in mammals comprises of the
A. vertebra column and the limbs
B. pelvic and pectoral girdles
C. the girdles and the limbs
D. vertebral column and skull
4. The function of ligament is to
A. link bone to muscle
B. link a bone to bone
C. provide lubricating fluid at joints
D. provide cushioning at movable joints
5. Which one of the following parts of the ear transmits sound
waves from the middle ear to the inner ear?
A. tympanic membrane B. ossicles
C. auditory nerves D. Oval window membrane
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of cervical
vertebra?
A. broad neural spine B. long transverse process
C. presence of vertebraterial canal
D. presence of facets

7. Which of the following is NOT a pigment?

A.melanin B. carotene C. tocopherol D. haemoglobin

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8. Which of the following are structural adaptations to flight

in birds
A. light bones and webbed feet
B. webbed feet and light feathers
C. streamlined body and light bones
D. smooth body and light feathers
9. Which one of the following type of feathers is most widely
spread?
A. Covert feather B. Filoplumes
C. Quill feathers D. Down feathers
10. Below is a diagram showing a plan of the pent dactyl limb
part is represented by letter X?
Phalanger
Carpals

A. femur B. Humerus C. radius D. ulna

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of only axis
vertebra?
A. broad neural spine
B. long transverse process
C. presence of vertebraterial canals
D. presence of odontoid process
12. Which one of the following pairs of bones forms a ball and
socket joint?
A. Humerus and ulna B. Femur and pelvis
C. Humerus and radius D. Femur and tibia
3. In fish, the fins used in propulsion movements are
A. caudal B. dorsal C. pelvic D. ventral
14. The fins which keep a fish stable in water are

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A. anal and dorsal fin B. dorsal and pelvic fin

C. caudal and pelvic fin D. pelvic and pectoral fin
15. What happens to insect wings when depressor muscles are
relaxed? The wings
A. move down wards B. move upwards
C. rotate freely D. move in three directions

B: Short Answer Questions on Locomotion

1. The figure below shows a diagram of the internal structure
of an arm

B A

a. Name the parts labeled A, B, and C.

b. Give one function of structure A,B and C
c. Name the type of joint that exists at
d. What may cause the accumulation of lactic acid in
A and B?
e. What would be the effect of high concentration of
lactic acid in muscles A and B?

C: Essay Questions on Locomotion

1. (a) How are birds adapted to flight?
(b) Describe how flapping flight is brought about
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2. (a) State the number of each type of vertebrae found in

man.
(i) Cervical (ii) thoracic
(iii) lumbar (iv) sacral (v) caudal
(b) State the differences between the atlas and axis
vertebra.
(c) Draw and label the cervical vertebra (anterior
view)
3. (a) How are the birds adopted for flight?
(b) Name the types of feathers found in a bird
(c) Draw and label the structure of a quill feather.
4. (a) Describe the structure of different types of a bird's
feathers, stating the function of each type,
(b) What factors contribute to the birds' ability to fly?
5. (a) What are the functions of a skeleton in mammals
(b) With the aid of a labeled diagram, describe how
movement is caused by a named joint in a mammal
6. (a) Explain why a skeleton is necessary in the
mammalian body
(b) With the aid of diagrams describe how a human arm
can be straightened.
ANSWERS

A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions on Locomotion

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. D
6. C 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. C
11.D 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. B

B: b) Answers to Short Answers Questions on Locomotion

1. a) A -Triceps
B -Biceps
C -Humerus

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b) A -Straightens arm when contracted

B -Bends arm when contracted.
C -Provides attachment to the Biceps and
Triceps muscles.
c) P -Ball and socket joint
Q -Hinge joint
d) Vigorous exercise such as lifting heavy things.
e) Muscle cramps and pains.
2. (a) (i) Thorax/ chest/vertebral column,
(ii) Thoracic vertebra
(b) H - Neural spine I - neural arch
J - Neural canal K - Transverse process
L - Centrum
(c) (i) Both have a neural canal
(ii) Both have a neural spine
(iii) Both have transverse processes
(d)
Lumber Thoracic

Has long transverse processes. Has shorter transverse

processes
Has shorter neural spine Has long neural spine

C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Locomotion

1. a) How birds are adapted to flight.

 They have hollow bones which reduce the weight thus
making flight easy.

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 The birds have a rigid skeleton, this reduces friction.

 Birds have a streamlined body which reduces resistance to
movement.
 They have an efficient respiratory system that supplies the
needed oxygen for respiration.
 They have a deep keel of sternum for attachment of flight
muscles.
 Birds have powerful vision which enable them to judge
distances correctly especially on quick landing.
 Birds also have an efficient circulatory system which
supplies the needed oxygen and nutrients for production of
energy
 They posses the flight feathers attached on to the wings
which make flight possible.
b) There are two phases involved in the flight i.e.
upstroke and down stroke.
During down stroke:
The pectoralis minor/elevator muscle relaxes. The
pectoralis major/depressor muscle contracts thus
pulling humerus and the wings downwards. Air
resistance to the wings provides an up thrust force,
this is transmitted through the coracoid bones,
lifting the whole body.
The feather overlap and the barbules are
interlocked, hence preventing air to pass through.
The momentum is as a result of the stream of air
directed backwards since the wing is flapped with
the tip of the wings
During upstroke:
The pectoralis major relaxes while pectoralis minor
contracts and the humerus and wings are moved
upwards.

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The wings are bent at the wrist and air is allowed to

pass through the feathers because the barbules are
not interlocked this reduces the air resistances.
2. a) The number of each vertebra found in man
i. cervical are 7 ii. thoracic are 12
iii. lumbar are 5 iv. sacral are 5
v. caudal are 4

b) Differences between the atlas and axis

Atlas Axis
-Has no odontoid process -Has odontoid process.
-Has broad flat transverse -Transverse processes are
processes. not broad.
c) Drawing showing the anterior view of the
cervical vertebra

Neural spine
Neural arch
Anterior upward facing facets
Transverse process
Vertebraterial canal
Centrum
3. a) Answer as in Qnl (a)
b) Types of feathers found in a bird:
 Quill feathers
 Covert feather
 Down feather
 Filoplume feathers
c) Drawing of a quill featherSuperior umbilicus
Rachis/Shaft
Quill Barb
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After shaft
4. a) (i)
 The quill feather has a long quill.
 It has a few after shaft.
 Has a large vane with interlocked barbules
 Has a firm/strong shaft.
 The quill feathers are found on the wings and at the
tail
 The feathers are used for flight.
(ii) Covert feather has more after shaft compared to
quill feather.
o It has a softer shaft and a short quill.
o The barbules are not fully interlocked.
o The feathers are found on the back of the bird and
on the neck.
o The feathers provide warmth to the body
(iii) Down feathers are found around the abdominal
region.
 These provide warmth.
 The feathers are not firm.
 They are not interlocked with barbules.
(iv) Filoplumes are body covering feathers
They are found allover the body and can only be
seen when the others are plucked.
b) Factors which contribute to the birds' ability to
fly
 It has light bones which reduces its weight
 Has powerful flight muscle.

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 Has deep keel of sternum for attachment of flight

muscles.
 Has high red blood cell count for efficient
transportation of oxygen.
 Has keen eyes of sight for seeing what is at a
distance especially on quick landing.
 Has light flight feathers which reduce the weight of
the bird.
5. a) Importance of a skeleton in a mammalian body.
 It stores calcium and phosphorous
 Provides a frame work for suspending the internal
 Provides shape to the mammal.
 Protects the delicate organs e.g. brain which
protects the skull.
 Production of blood cells by bone marrow,
For attachment of muscles which help in movement.
b) Stretching of the arm, is brought about by the contraction
of triceps while the biceps relaxes thus straightening the
arm.

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Bending of the human arm: The triceps relaxes while the biceps
contracts and the arm is bent by the lower part moving
towards the upper part.

Triceps relaxes

Biceps contracts

The arm bends

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MODULE ELEVEN : REPRODUCTION

QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Reproduction
1. Fertilisation immediately results in the formation of
A. an embryo B. a zygote C. placenta D. a foetus
2. Binary fission describes the type of reproduction where the
organism divides to form
A. Many spores B. Two daughters
C. Many buds D. Numerous rhizomes
3. Which of the following best describes the function of the
umbilical cord?
A. It feeds the embryo with digested food materials
B. Conveys nutrients and wastes to and from the
embryo respectively.
C. Removes waste material from the embryo to the
mother’s blood.
D. Supplies oxygenated blood from the mother to the
embryo.
4. The advantage that internal fertilization has over external
fertilization is that in internal fertilization.
A. New offsprings are exactly like the parent.
B. Production of large number of gametes is unnecessary.
C. Copulation and the fusion of gametes is passive.
D. Few individuals are produced.
5. The circulatory system of an embryo is never in direct
connection with mother’s blood vessel because;
A. Its connected to the uterus by the placenta
B. Mother’s blood pressure would burst the capillary
of the embryo.
C. The mother’s blood contains blood and respiratory
gases.
D. Many substances in mother’s blood

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6. The circulatory system of an embryo is never in direct

connection with the mother’s blood vessel because
A. Its connected to the uterus by the placenta
B. Mother’s blood pressure would burst the capillary
of the embryo.
C. The mother’s blood contains blood and respiratory
gases
D. Many substances in mother’s blood are poisonous.
7. The maturation of the androecium of a flower faster than
gynoecium is termed as
A. Ontogeny B. Male maturity
C. Protandry D. Protogeny
8. The following are flower parts
(i) Stigma (ii) Anther (iii) Corolla (iv) Style
(v) Calyx
A. (i), (iii) and (v) B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (i), (iv) and (ii) D. (iv) and (v) only
9. The Androecium is made up of
A. Anther head and filament B. Anther head and Style
C. Style and Stigma D. Stigma and Filament
10. In a monocarpous pistil is one where,
E. There are two carpels fused together.
F. There is only one carpel
G. The ovaries and styles are fused together
H. There are many free carpels.
11. Which of the following best describes sexual reproduction
in spirogyra?
A. Binary fission B. Conjugation
C. Binary fusion D. Fragmentation
12. Which of the following is incorrect about wind pollinated
flowers?
A Dull colored petals B Small petals
C Large petals D Feathery stigma
13. The following are flower modifications

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(i) Protogyny (ii) Protandry (iii)Self incompatibility

(iv) Large ovary (v) Inferior ovary
Which of the above encourage cross pollination
A (i), (ii) and (iii) B (i), (ii) and (iv)
C (i), (ii) and (v) D (ii), (iv) and (v)
14. Which of the following nuclei is diploid
A Pollen tube nucleus B Egg cell
C Synergrid D Secondary nucleus
15. Which of the following occurs during fertilization in a
flower
A The first male nucleus fuses with the egg cell to
form embryo
B The firs male nucleus fuses with egg cell to form
embryo sac
C The first male nucleus fuses with egg cell to form
zygote
D The first male nucleus fuses with egg cell to form
endosperm.
16. Which of the following does not represent an event that
occur after fertilization in plants.
A. Ovary develops into a fruit.
B The Micropyle may disappear or remain
C Endosperm nucleus forms endosperm
D Ovary wall forms a pericarp
17. Which of the following does not precisely fit the group
ABudding B Grafting C Cuttings D. Fragmentation
18. The term perianth can be explained as
A Corolla and Calyx which are very similar
B Corolla and Calyx which are different
C Stigma and anther which look alike
D Stigma and anther which are different
19. The term parthenocarpy refers
A Development of a fruit without fertilization
B Development of a fruit from the ovule

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C Development of a fruit from fertilized ovary

D Development of a seed from a fruit
20. The eggs of a frog are laid in a jelly albumen, this is
important due to the following except.
A .Protects the eggs from mechanical injury
B Prevents wading birds from eating the eggs.
C It is important for fertilization to occur.
D Spaces the eggs in order to get enough oxygen.
21. The function of chalaza in an egg is
A. Suspend the embryo
B. Allowing air into the egg
C. Source of water to the embryo
D. Source of food to the embryo
22. The function of the seminal vesicle (vascular seminalis)
A Store sperms until copulation occurs
B. Produce sperms
C Produce semester
D Feed the sperms
23. The placenta performs the following functions except
A. Transports oxygenated blood from the mother to the
embryo.
B Separates maternal blood from that of the embryo.
C Prevents mother’s blood pressure from bursting of
the capillaries of the embryo
D It’s a site of exchange between the mother and the
embryo
24. Miscarriage may result from low concentration of
A. Progesterone B. Estrogen C. Prolactin D. Relaxin
25. Which of the following birth control methods has the least
side effects.
A. Contraceptive pills B. Abortion
C. Coitus interuptus D. Diaphragm
26. Development of beards in female and very small breast in
females may result from

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A. Under secretion of Progesterone

B. Under secretion of Oestrogen
C. Over secretion of testosterone
D. Under production of testosterone
27. The transfer of pollen grains from one flower on a plant to
another flower on the same plant known as
A. artificial pollination B. Cross pollination
C. Transfer pollination D. Self pollination
28. The number of male nuclei found in the pollen tube is:
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
29. The maturation of the gynoecium before the androecium of
a flower is termed
A. protandry B Ontogeny
C. Protogyny D. Female maturity
30. Which of the following parts of a flower is essential for
reproduction?
A.corolla B.stigma C. style D. anther
31. Which one of the following is true about insect pollinated
flowers?
A. produce small and smooth pollen
B. have small greenish bracts
C. stigma and pollen grains are often sticky
D. filaments are flexible and anthers are loosely
attached

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B: Short Answer Questions on Reproduction

1. Figure below shows a longitudinal section through the
female reproductive system of a mammal

a) Name the parts labeled A, B, C , D and E on the

diagram
b) Study any two functions of B
c) In what ways are part A and C adapted to their
functions
2. The diagram in figure 4 shows part of the reproductive
system of a man

a) Name the parts A to E

b) (i) Name the hormone made in the male which
brings about secondary sex characteristics

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(ii) On the diagram, write H where the hormone

is made
(iii) Name two secondary sex characteristics in
the human male
c) What is the function of part D?
d) From which organ would fluid E come from?
3. The diagram below shows a section through a male
reproductive system. Use it to answer the following
questions.

a) Name the parts labeled A to G in the figure above

b) What does the above figure represent
c) State the functions of each of the parts labeled aa
and D
4. Below is a section through a female reproductive system.

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a) Name the parts labeled 1-9

b) Name the hormone from the pituitary gland that
affects part labeled 2
c) Oestrogen and progesterone are two hormones
produced in a female
i) State where each of the above hormones is
produced
ii) State one effect of each of the above
hormones on the uterus
5. Figure, below shows a cross section of a plant

ii
v
iii

iv

placenta
(a) Name the parts labeled 1 to 5

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(b) Giving a reason, state the part of a plant which the

section was taken
(i) Part of the plant
Reason
(ii) state the function of the part labeled (iii) to (
(iii) Give two similarities between the cells
in/part labeled (m) and those found at the tips of
the growing roots

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6. The figure below shows the relationship between blood

supply of the embryo, placenta and uterus.

(a) State the functions of the

(i) placenta to the embryo
(ii) Villi to the placenta
(b) Give two reasons why the mother’s blood does not
mix with that of the embryo
(c) Give two differences in the composition between
the blood in vessels A and B

C: Essay Questions on Reproduction

1. a) What do you understand by the following
(i) Zygote (ii) gestation
b) What are the differences between an ovum and a
sperm?
2. a) Define fertilization
b) The placenta contains blood vessels of the mother
and embryo. What is the importance of this
arrangement?
3. a) Describe briefly alternation of a generation in a fern
plant
b) What changes follow pollination and lead to the
formation of fruit and seeds

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4. a) Describe the formation of pollen grains

b) Describe the development of the embryo sac
5. a) What features hinder self-pollination
b) What are the characteristics of self-pollinated
flowers?
6. a) Give an illustrated description of a named insect-
pollinated flower b) Explain how the flower is
pollinated
7. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of
natural vegetative reproduction
b) Which artificial method of vegetative propagation
would you use for each of the following?
i) Sugar cane ii) Oranges iii) Bougainvillea
8. a) What is menstruation
b) Describe the role of sex hormones in the menstrual
cycle
9. a) Describe the events that occur during the following
stages of reproduction
(i) Fertilization (ii) Nutrition of the fetus
(iii) Protection of the fetus (iv) Birth
b) Draw a labeled diagram of the female urinogenital
system of a named mammal
10. (a) what is pollination?
(b) How is self pollination naturally prevented in plants
(C) Describe the features of a flower that favor
pollination by insects.
11. (a) (i) state the difference between cross
pollination and self pollination,
(ii) Give three structural features of flowers that
ensure cross pollination
(b). Give five adaptations of flowers for insect
pollination

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12. Describe the main events that occur during the menstrual
cycle in a mammal
(b) Describe the lifecycle of a housefly
(c) What is the economic importance of a house fly?
(d) How would you minimize the spread of house flies
in. a home?
13. (a) What is sexual reproduction
(b) Give the advantages of sexual reproduction in
plants.
(c) Describe how sexual reproduction occurs in a
mucor
14. (a) what is pollination?
(b) Describe the processes that take place after
pollination in a flowering plant.
(c) Give three differences between insect pollinated
and wind pollinated flowers.

ANSWERS
A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions on Reproduction

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. B
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10.B
11.B 12.C 13.A 14.D 15.C
16. A 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. A 23. A 24. A 25. C
26. B 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. A

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B: b) Answers to Short Answer Questions on Reproduction

1. (a) A - Fallopian tube B - Ovary C - Uterus
D - Cervix E - Vagina
(b) (i) Production of Ova
(ii) Production of hormone Oestrogen
(c) A - Has mucus to lubricate it.
- Has elastic muscles
C - Has mucus
- Has elastic and thick muscles.
2 (a) A - Testis B - Urethra C - Sperm duct
D - Urinary bladder E - Ureter
(b) (i) Testosterone hormone,
(ii) In the testis
(iii) Deepening of the voice - Growth of beards.
(c) Stores urine temporarily-before it passes out of the
body.
(d) Kidney
3. (a) B - Urinary bladder
C - Sperm duct D - Testis
E - Scrotal sac F - Penis G– Urethra
(b) Male reproductive organs.
(c) B - Stores urine temporarily
D - Produces sperms
4. (a) 1 - Oviduct 2 - Ovary
3 - Uterus 4 - Urinary bladder
5 - Urethra 6 - Vulva
7. - Ureter
(b) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
(c) (i) Oestrogen - Ovaries
Progesterone - Corpus luteum.
(ii) Oestrogen - Heals uterine wall
Progesterone - prepares uterine wall for implantation
5. (a) (i) Protective coat (ii) Embryo sac
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(iii) Egg cell (iv) Secondary nucleus

(b) (i) Testa/ seed coat (ii) Embryo sac
(iii) Zygote (iv) Micropyle
(v) Endosperm
(c) (iii) For entry of water and gaseous exchange
(iv) Source of food for the embryo
(iv) Micropyle
6. (a) (i) permits blood to operate at different
pressures
o Acts as a barrier to maternal hormones and other
chemicals in the mother’s blood which would have
an effect on foetal development
o Its an organ of exchange of respiratory gases and
nutrients between the mother and the fetus
o Transports antibodies from the mother’s blood to
the foetus
o Transports waste products from the foetus to the
mother’s blood
o Produces hormone progesterone responsible for the
maintenance of pregnancy.
(ii) Villi provides a large surface area for the
exchange of nutrients and oxygen from the
surrounding uterine blood to the foetus
(b)
 This is due to the presence of the barrier
between the mother’s blood and that of the
foetus which prevents the mother’s blood
pressure from bursting the vessels of the embryo
 Blood would agglutinate if the mother’s blood
group was different from that of the foetus
 It prevents poisonous substances from the
mother from entering the embryo.

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A B

-Rich in urea No urea

-Has a high concentration of Has a low concentration of
carbon dioxide
carbon dioxide
Has less antibodies Has more antibodies

C: Answers to Essay Questions on Reproduction

1. (a) (i) Zygote is formed immediately after
fertilization. It's the primary product of
fertilization. When the male gamete
(spermatozoon) fuses with the ovum a
zygote is formed
(ii) Gestation: refers to the time period from
conception to birth e.g. in man this is a
period about 9 months, this period varies
from species to species.
(b) The differences between ovum and sperms

Ovum Sperm
- Non-motile - Motile
- Contains no lytic enzymes- Contains enzymes in acrosomes
- No tail and mitochondria - Has tail for propelling -Has
mitochondria packed along the tail
to supply energy for propelling the
sperm.
- Has yolk - No yolk
- Larger in size - Small in size
- Has always X-chromosomes - Has X or Y- chromosomes

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2 (a) Fertilization is the fusion of the male gamete

(sperm) and the female gamete (ovum) to form a
zygote
(b) The placenta contains blood vessels of the mother
and embryo the importance of this is to allow
exchange of certain substances such as glucose,
amino acids, hormones, antibodies gases and other
wastes from the embryo to the mother and vice
versa. Wastes from the embryo are removed in this
way through diffusion.
3 (a) In ferns there are two generations, the sporophytes
the dominant generation and the gametophyte. The
two generations are independent of each other.
The fern plant is called the sporophyte generation
as it produces spores. The spores develop into the
prothalus which produces two types of gametes.
The prothalus is thus called the gametophyte
generation. The zygote that is formed from
the fusion of male and female gametes grows into
the new fern plant.
The regular alternation of sporophyte generation
and gametophyte generation is called alternation of
generation.
b) Changes which follow pollination.
The pollen grain is deposited on the stigma, absorbs
sugar solution from the sticky surface of the stigma
and germinates. A pollen tube grows through the
style, feeding on the tissue of the style, until it
enters the ovary. Two nuclei, male gametes, are
formed near the tip of the pollen tube. On reaching
the ovary, the pollen tube grows to one of the
ovules and enters it through the micropyle. The tips
of the pollen tube then breaks Fertilization occurs
when one of the male nuclei fuses with the egg

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nucleus to form the zygote which develops into

the embryo.
The other male nucleus fuses with the secondary
nucleus to form endosperm which feeds the
developing embryo.
After fertilization the petals, stigma, style and
stamens generally wither and fall off. The calyx
may wither and fall off or remain in shriveled form.
The ovary enlarges and grows into a fruit and the
ovary wall forms the pericarp. The ovules develop
into seeds. The integuments of each ovules become
thicker and harden and form the testa.
4. (a) Formation of the pollen grains
The anther has four pollen sacs in which the pollen
grains are formed. The pollen grains contain male
gametes. Each pollen sac contains diploid pollen
mother cells. Each pollen mother cell divides
meiototically and gives rise to tetrad of four haploid
pollen grains. Inside each-pollen grain, the nucleus
divides into two nuclei by mitosis. One of these
nuclei is called the tube nucleus whereas the other is
called the generative nucleus.

Diploid mother cell Tetrad 4 haploid nuclei

(b) Development of the embryo sac
In the centre of the ovule is an embryo sac which
contains a haploid egg cell. The embryo sac of an
ovule develops from a single diploid embryo sac
mother cell. This cell divides by the process of
meiosis and forms four haploid cells. Only one of
these four cells develops into the embryo sac

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whereas the rest degenerate. This cell enlarges and

its nucleus undergoes three mitotic divisions in
succession.
In this way, from one single nucleus eight daughter
nuclei are formed. All these nuclei are haploid.
Later, one nucleus from each group of four nuclei
shifts to the center of the embryo sac, both of them
are known as polar nuclei. The rest of the six
nuclei are separated from each other by cell walls.
In this way, the mature embryo sac has two free
polar nuclei in the centre and three at each end. One
of the three cells which are at the micropyle end
develops into a functional egg cell; while the
remaining two cells called synergids becomes non-
functional eggs. The three cells (antipodal cells) at
the opposite end perform only a little or no part in
the events thereafter.
mitosis
meiosis Antipodal cells
2 polar nuclei

-3cells degenerate Egg cell

Mature embryo sac
Diploid embryo sac
mother cell
4 haploid
5. (a) cells
Features that hinder self pollination are
o Plants produce pollen grains which cannot produce
viable seeds from the same plants (self
incompatibility)
o Dioecious condition in which a plant bears flowers
of one sex either staminate or pistillate.

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o The stigma ripens before the anther head

(protogeny)
o The anther head ripens before stigma (protandry)
o The carpel grows taller than the stamens of the
same flower.
o The corolla covers the stamens.
b) Characteristics of self pollinated flowers
 Have full colored flowers
 Do not produce scent
 Small and closed
 Do not produce nector
 Have small petals
 Have a lot of pollen grains
 The pollen grains are feathery and light
 The anther head is longer than the stigma
 They are bisexual
 Both carpels and stamens of a bisexual flower mature
of the same time.
7. (a) Advantages of vegetative reproduction
 Food necessary for earlier growth is always readily
available from the parent plants.
 The offsprings are identical to the parents and as
such desirable characteristics are retained in the
new generation.
 Reproduction requires only one parent thus no risks
involved.
 The new plants are able to continue growing even in
absence of their leaves due to stored food reserves
 The offsprings are resistant to unfavorable
environmental conditions.
Disadvantages of vegetative production
 Colonization of new areas is low.

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 In case of disaster (like fire, floods) many

individuals may get destroyed due to
overcrowding.
 Competition between the parents and off springs is
very high.
 Undesirable characteristics are passed onto new
generation because no new varieties are
produced.
 It slows down evolutionary process.

(b) (i) Sugar cane – use of cuttings

(ii) Oranges - by grafting
(iii) Bougainvillea – be use of cuttings.
8. (a) Menstruation is the discharge of blood from the
vagina of mature females due to periodic rapture of
the uterine lining.
(b) The menstrual cycle is a reproductive cycle of short
duration that occurs in sexually mature females.
At the end of menstruation, the levels of
progesterone and oestrogen will have fallen too
low. The pituitary gland produces follicle
stimulating hormone (FSH), this causes the
development of graafian follicle and stimulates the
ovary to start secreting oestrogen hormone which
helps in the healing and repair of the uterine lining.
The pituitary gland produces another hormone
called Luteinizing hormone (LH) which causes
ovulation at about 14 days from the onset of
menstruation. If fertilization occurs, The Pituitary
gland produces progesterone hormone which
maintains the lining of uterine wall and inhibits
FSH and LH.

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The empty corpus luteum secrets progesterone. If

fertilization does not occur, the endometrium
degenerates due to low levels of progesterone.
9. a) Events that occur during the following stages of
reproduction
(i) Fertilization
Occurs after copulation / coition whereby the erect
penis is inserted into the vagina. Sperms are
released near the cervix. The cervix relaxes and
opens as sperms swim through to the uterus, then to
the fallopian tube where the sperm nucleus fuses
with the egg-nucleus. The sperm releases an
enzyme acrosome which breaks the egg membrane
to enable the sperm nucleus to pass into the
cytoplasm.
(ii) Nutrition of the foetus
The embryo develops a series of projections on the
surface known as Villi which provide a large
surface area for the absorption of nutrients and
oxygen from the surrounding blood. This later
develops into the placenta.
(iii) Protection of the foetus
The embryo becomes enclosed in two membranes,
the outer called chorion membrane and the inner
called amnion membrane. The amnion secrets
amniotic fluid in which the embryo becomes
suspended and serves as a cushion against sudden
changes in pressure and shock or other forms of
mechanical damage. It also allows freedom of
movement of the embryo.
(iv) At birth, powerful contraction of the uterus
occurs, this expels the foetus out through the cervix
and shortly afterwards the placenta

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b) A labeled diagram of the human female urinogenital

system

10. (a) Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the

anther head to the stigma.
(b) Self pollination is naturally prevented in the
following ways
(i) Protandry- This is a situation where anthers ripen
before the stigma.
(ii) Protogyny- This is a condition where the stigma
ripens before the anthers.
(iii) Dioecious condition – It is a condition where a
plant bears only flowers of one sex either pistillate
or staminate.
(iv) Self incompatibility – This is where pollen grains
from the same flower fail to produce a viable
seed.
(v) The carpel grows taller than the stamens.
(vi) The corolla also covers the stamens
(c) Features the flower that favor pollination by
insects
 Having brightly colored petals (conspicuous)
 Have are strong scented to attract insects.

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 The stigma is compact and sticky to enable pollen

grains from insect’s body to stick onto them.
 Have sticky pollen grains to adhere to the body of
insects.
11. (a) Cross pollination is the transfer of pollen grains
from the anthers to the stigma of the different
flower of the same species while self pollination is
the transfer of pollen grains from the anthers to the
stigma of the same flower.
(b) Features of flowers that promote cross – pollination
(i) Bisexual flowers that are protandrous or
protogynous
(ii) Unisexual flowers either staminate or pistillate
(iii) When the stigma as taller than the anthers.
(iv) Some flowers hang their stamens outside the whorl
of corolla hence pollen grains are easily blown
away by wind.
(v) Flowers with brightly colored petals
(vi) In some plants, pollen grains do not germinate on
the stigma of its own flower or the germination is
quite retarded (self sterility)
(c) Refer to Qn 10(c)
12. The lifecycle of a housefly
The housefly undergoes complete metamorphosis.
The adult female lays eggs after mating with
the male. The eggs are laid in about 2 – 7 batches
each with between 100-150 eggs. The eggs are
laid in moist rotting organic matter. In about 8-12
hours the eggs hatch in larvae (maggots) which
continuously feed the eggs rapidly. In 4 – 5 days
from egg laying the maggot moves to a dry
condition to prepare for pupation. The pupa changes
from white to dark brown where tissue breakdown
and re- organization occurs and after 4 days, a

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mature image emerges. It grows into a mature

adult and start laying eggs again.

larva

b) Economic importance of housefly

 Spread diseases to humans
 Used as food by some organisms like the chameleon
 The maggots (larvae of housefly) help in
decomposition of feces
c) How to minimize the spread of houseflies in a home
 By spraying the adult flies with insecticide
 Burning rubbish regularly
 Use of dust bins and covering them
 Ensuring proper disposal of sewage.
13. (a) Sexual reproduction is a kind of reproduction which
involves the fusion of gametes
(b) Advantages of sexual reproduction
 Production of seeds brings about variation hence
enhances the process of evolution.
 There is a possibility of dormancy after seed formation
thus can pass adverse conditions.
 It leads to production of hybrids which have better
yields
c) Sexual Reproduction in Mucor

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(i) Two hyphae tips face each other and become swollen
+ -

(ii) Tips swell and nuclei from each tip develop

Nuclei

(iii) The tips meet and across wall is formed

Cross wall

(iv) The cross wall breaks and nuclei from different tips
pair and fuse

Zygote

(v) A thick wall develops around the zygote and a

zygospore is formed
Thick wall

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(vi) The zygospore remains constant under unfavorable

conditions and germinates if lands in favorable ones
sporangium

Sporangiophore

Zygospore germinating

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MODULE TWELVE : GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Growth and Development
1. The following are conditions necessary for germination
except
A. oxygen B. moisture
C. moderate temperature D. carbon dioxide
2. Which one of the following is correct about dividing cells
at the tip of plant shoots?
A. have large vacuoles B. are specialized
C. have soft cell walls D. have rigid cell walls
3. Which of the following is not necessary for germination of
seeds?
A. Suitable amount of water B. suitable temperature
C. fertile soil D. supply of oxygen
4. During seed germination, the dry weight initially decreases
because
A. stored food is used up for growth and respiration
B. soluble food materials diffuse out of seedlings
C. rate of water absorption is low
D. rate of cell division is low,
5. The best method of measuring the growth rate of a seedling
is by
A. talking records of dry weight
B. measuring the fresh weight
C. observing the increase in volume
D. observing the increase in the size of the leaves
6. The mammalian embryo exchanges materials with its
mother by
A. Osmosis B. Secretion C. Circulation D. Diffusion

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7. The Figure below shows a longitudinal section through a

maize grain
which of the parts 1-4 of the grain would you expect to
decrease in weight during germination?

3
4

A. I B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

8. Which one of the organisms below has a growth curve

represented by the graph in fig

Body
Volume

Time

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A. a bacterium B. an inset
C. a human being D. a bony fish
9. The rapid elongation of epicotyls during germination
causes
A. delay in emergence of photosynthetic leaves
B. cotyledons to grow above the ground
C. presence of photosynthetic cells
D. cotyledons to remain below the ground
10. An unknown sample f blood was found to agglutinate with
blood of O. What was the blood group of the unknown
sample?
A. O B. AB C. A D. B
11. Which one of the following carries out intermittent growth?
A. grasshopper B. Bean seed
C. Maize seed D. hydra
12. Secondary thickening in flowering plants is brought about
by division of the
A. phloem cells B. cambium cells
C. xylem cells D. cortex cells
13. A cuticle may be regarded as a disadvantage to insects
mainly because
A. it does not allow rapid locomotion
B. it does not prevent water loss
C. does not allow gaseous exchange
D. it limits the size of insects

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B: Short Answer Questions on Growth and Development

1. In the Figure below
1 2

3 4

(a) Name the parts labeled 1-4

(b) What type of germination is represented by the
seedling in the figure.
(c) Name the type of food stored in part 4 of the
diagram,
(d) State a function of the part labeled 2
(e) State the conditions necessary for germination to
take place.
2. The Figure below shows a vertical section of the end region
of a growing root and part (b) shows an enlargement of a
cell from a root

(i) name the region labeled A

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(ii) How does growth occur in region labeled B

(iii) What structures are expected in region
marked D
(b) Part (b) of the figure above shows a cell from
region B (i) Name the process taking place
in this cell (ii) Briefly describe what is
happening at this particular stage of the process
3. (a) What is germination.
(b) State two external factors that affect germination.
(c) The Figure below shows a growth curve of a bean
seedling.

Mass(g)

O 2 4 6 8
Time(hrs)

(i) Why does the mass of the seedling increase

between day 0 and day4?
(ii) What has caused the drop in mass between
day 4 and day 6. (d) Give a reason for the
steady increase in mass after day 6.
4. A student carried out an experiment using the set up
in the figure 5.In set R, bean seeds soaked in water
were uesd. In S,boiled bean seeds sprinkled with a
preservative were used, while in T, boiled bean

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seeds without the preservative were used

The temperature in each set was recorded for a

week.The results obtained are shown in figure 6..

State the aim of the experiment

(a) Using the information provided, explain the changes in
temperature in set R and T
(i) From day 0 to day 5
(ii) After day 5
(b) Explain why there was no significant change in
temperature in S for the whole week.

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(c) Sggest one way the above set up could be improved for
better results.Give reason for the sugges ted
improvement.
(d) What other changes could occur in the composition of
air in et up R and T duriong the experiment?
(Qn.31 UNEB 2008)

5. Table 3sho ws the change in mass of starch and protein in a

typical pea seed during the first 20 days of germination.
Table 3
Food substance Days of germination
in the seed
0 4 8 12 16 20
Starch(mg) 60 56 32 8 5 4
Protein(mg) 28 21 11 5 3 2
(a) Using the same axes draw two graphs to show the
change in mass of starch and protein during the
first 20 days of germination of the seed in the space
provided.
(b) How are the changes in the mass of starch and
protein
(i) Similar?
(ii) Different?
(c) Explain how the mass of starrch and proteins change in
the germinating seed. In each case state the reactions
that result into the changes.
(d) Suggest two ways in w hich the products from each of
the starch and proteins may be used in the germinating
seed.
(i) Starch (ii)Proteins (Qn 31, UNEB 2009)

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C: Essay Questions Growth and Development

1. (a) Define "GROWTH"
(b) In what ways does light affect the growth of a plant,
(c) Which factors other than light affect the growth of a
plant?
(d) How would you demonstrate the region of growth
in a root?
2. (a) Explain how the stages in the lifecycle of a housefly
are adopted to the environmental conditions under
which they live.
(b) What advantages does a mammalian fetus which
develops internally have over that of a housefly
which develops externally?
3. Describe the changes that occur during the
metamorphosis of a frog or a toad.

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4. (a) what are the factors necessary for germination in

seeds"
(b) Using labeled diagrams, describe experiments to
show the necessity of each factor for germination
5. (a) With the aid of well labeled diagrams explain the
difference between hypogeal and epigeal
germination
(b) Describe an experiment you would carry out to
show that heat is liberated by germinating seeds.
6. a) What is mitosis?
b) Describe how the process of mitosis takes place in a
wheat plan

A: a) Answers to Multiple choice Questions on Growth and

Development

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. A
11. A 12. B 13. A

B: b) Answers to Short Answers Questions on Growth and

Development
1. (a) 1 - Plumule 2 - Epicotyl
3 - Testa 4 -Cotyledons
(b) Hypogeal germination
(c) Starch
(d) Supports the leaves after emerging from the
cotyledon for easy access to sunlight for
photosynthesis.
(e) Oxygen Moisture and Suitable temperature
2. (a) (i) Region A is root cap.
(ii) Growth occurs in region B by cell mitosis.

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(iii) Cells in C become elongated, differentiation

starts and cells begin to take up water,
formation of vacuole takes place and cell
wall thickens.
(iv) Cells expected in region labeled D are the
root hairs,
(b) (i) The process is mitosis.
(ii) Chromatids are separated and are moving
towards the opposite poles of the spindles.
3. (a) Germination is the development of a seed into a
seedling or young plant,
(b) -Water/ moisture.
- Suitable temperature
- Oxygen (air)
(c) (i) Seedling is increasingly absorbing water.
(ii) Stored food in the cotyledon is being used
up for growth.
(c) Reasons for steady increase is that the seedlings
begin to develop foliage leaves which are used to
carry out photosynthesis resulting to formation of
more tissues
4. (a) To find out whether germinating seeds liberate heat
(b) (i) In R, the seeds germinate and during
germination,they respire and produce heat
which leads to a rise in temperature.
In T, boiling killed the seeds and thus they
do not repire and thus there is no production
of heat and the temperature remains a
constant.
(ii) After 5 days, in R, germimination has
occured, respiration reduces, less heat is
produced leading to a decrease in
temperature.

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In T,there is no preservative, this leads to

growth of microbes which later respire to
produce heat leading to an increase in
temperature.
(c) In S boiled seeds are dead, they do not respire and
thus produce no heat.the preservative also stops
microbial growth.
(d) the bulb of the thermometer should touch the seeds.
This makes it possible to record any slight change
in temperature.
(e) In R, carbon dioxide concentration increases while
oxygen concentration decreases. While in T, there
will be no significant change in composition of
gases for the first 5days, but after day 5,
carbondioxide concentration increases while
oxygen concetration decreases.
5. (a) GRAPHS SHOWING CHANGE IN MASS OF
STARCH AND PROTEIN WITH TIME.

(b) similar.
They both decrease during the first 12 days then
become slightly a constant.
Differen
The rate of decrease in mass is faster in starch than
in proteins.
(c) Starch is hydralysed to maltose then glucose and
used to provide energy.
The proteins are hydralysed to amino acids and
used in the building of new cells.
(d) (i) Oxidised during respiration to provide energy.
(ii) the proteins are hydrolysed to amino acids and
used to build up new cells

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C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Growth and

Development
1. a) Growth is the measurable permanent increase in
size of an organism accompanied by increase in dry
weight.
b) How light affects the growth of a plant. Plants
depend on light energy to make their own food and
build new tissue and thus make growth dependent
on light. Limited light would result into slow
growth since limited food would be manufactured
and assimilated.
c) Other factors that affect the growth of a plant
include
 availability of water
 Availability of the needed nutrients in the soil.
 Over crowding of plants leading to competition.
 Temperature (optimum)
 Accumulation of by-products of metabolism.
 Internal conditions like hormones.
d) How to determine the region of growth in a root.
This can be determined by germinating some bean
seeds by rolling them up in a damp cloth, to make
the roots straight. Select the germinated seed with
straight radicle. Mark the one with straight radicle
at an interval of 1 mm each using the Indian ink.
Use a glass jar lined with damp blotting paper and
the seedlings placed between blotting paper and the
glass jar.
After a few days it is found out that as the root
grows down wards the equal spaces marked at
1mm are maintained especially at the upper
positions with the exception o f the part close
behind the root tips. Here the intervals between the

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marked parts are wider as indicated in the drawing

below
2. a)
At the beginning of At the end of the
experiment
the experiment

From the drawing the growth in length of a root occurs

behind the root tip. And when the tip is cut off, growth
stops.
3. a) Factors necessary for germination in seeds.
Water- This is needed for activation of enzymes
which control the metabolism of complex stored
food into simpler soluble food used for
germination
-It also dissolves the stored food,
b) Air especially oxygen used for respiration to provide
energy.
Suitable temperature; There are variety of plants
and each require a different optimum temperature
for germination.

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c) Experiment to show the necessity of the factors

for germination.

2 3 4
1

Moist cotton Dry cotton wool ice

wool.(moisture, No air
air and warmth No moisture

The experiment is set up as above. All the tubes are

kept in light tubes 1, 2, 3, are kept in a warm place
while 4 is placed in a very cold place. After a few
days it's noted that only the seeds in tube 1 were all
germinated since all the conditions necessary for
germination were availed i.e. warmth, moisture and
air. This indicates the seeds can only germinate if
those external conditions are availed.

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5 (a) Hypogeal
Epicotyl grows faster than hypocotyl.

ii) As a result the above cotyledon remains under

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Epigeal.
-hypocotyl grosws faster than epicotyl
-Cotyledon come above the ground

-As a result of (i) above the cotyledons come above

the ground with the

(b) An experiment to show that germinating seeds

liberate heat.
Apparatus/materials
o germinating seeds
o Boiled seeds
o 2 vacuum flasks, cotton wool

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o Formalin.
Method.
Put some germinating seeds in one flask A and put
a thermometer and plug with cotton wool. Place the
boiled seeds washed with formalin in another flask
B, and set up as in flask A. Take the thermometer
readings.

Flask A FlaskB

Leave the experimental set up for about 6 hours to 1

week .Take the final thermometer reading.
Observation
In flask A, the thermometer shows rise in
temperature while in flask B there is no rise in
temperature.
Conclusion
Germinating seeds liberate heat.

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MODULE THIRTEEN : GENETICS AND EVOLUTION

QUESTIONS
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Genetics and Evolution
1. How is seed dormancy due to embryo immaturity
overcome?
A. by improving seed coat permeability
B. allowing for ah after ripening period
C. putting hydrated seeds in cold room or refrigerator,
D. dry storage at high temperature
2. Which one of the following structures is not essential in the
life of a tadpole?
A.Lungs B. Horny jaws C. Gills D.Tail
3. In pea plants, tallness is dominant over shortness. If a
heterozygous tall plant is crossed with short plant, the
proportion of the offspring will be?
A. 50% short, 50% tall B. 100% tall
C. 25% tall, 75% short D. 75% tall, 25% short
4. Mitosis is different from meiosis in that mitosis results into
A. Four daughter cells with equal genetic matter
B. Two daughter cells with equal genetic matter
C. Four daughter cells with half the genetic matter
D. Two daughter cells with half the genetic matter
5. In cattle, when a white bull is mated with a red cow, the
offspring is roan. This indicates that the gene for white
color is
A. dominant to that of red B. recessive to that of red
C. co dominant with that of red
D. mutate to show roan
6. What would be the ratio of the phenotypes if a roan bull
and a roan cow from the offspring motioned in question 5
were mated
A. l red: 2 roan: 1 white B. 2 red: 1 roan: 3 white
C. 1 red: 1 roan: 3 white D. 1 red: 1 white

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7. A heterozygous red flowered plant is crossed with a

homozygous white flower. If red is dominant over white,
what would be the phenotypes of the offspring
A. a half red and a half white B. all white
C. all red D. three quarters red and a quarter white
9. Meiosis normally results in
A. halving the number of chromosomes
B. Production of identical cells
C. Maintaining the number of chromosomes
D. propagation of new organisms
10. In humans the male sex chromosomes are x and y (xy) and
the female sex chromosomes are x and x, When a male
gamete fusses with a female gamete the sex ratio is
A. I; 2 B. I; 3 C. I; 1 D. I; 4
10 In cattle a gene of red blood color, R is co-dominant to that
for white coat color, W. If a red cow was mated to white
bull, what would be the phenotype of F1 generation
A. All red B. All white
C. 3 red 1 white D. intermediate color
( roan)
11. In which part of the green plant does meiosis occur?
A. Seed B. Flower C. Fruit D. Shoot apex
12. A heterozygous red flower plant is crossed with a
homozygous white flowered plant. If the red I flower is
dominate over the white flower, what will be the
phenotypes of the offspring?
A. all red B. all white K
C. pink and white D. red and white
13. Which of the following is not true about mutation
A. mutation may affect single genes and chromosomes
B. All mutations produce harmful effects
C. a mutant gene can be passed onto the offspring
during fertilization
D. mutations are the raw materials for fertilization.

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14. Meiosis leads to the production of

A. Two daughter cells each with original number of
chromosomes
B. Four daughter cells each with original number of
chromosomes
C. Two daughter cells each with half the original
number of chromosomes
D. Four daughter cell each with half the original
number of chromosomes
15. When a homozygous black mouse (BB) was mated with
homozygous white moue (WW)the offsprings were all
brown? What would be the color of the mice produced if Fl
was crossed w a homozygous hide parent?
A. 3 brown: 1 white B. 1 brown: 3 white
C. I brown: 1 White D. all white
16. Albinism is caused by having a double recessive gene for
the skin pigmentation.
What is the probability of the children having normal skin
color if an albino woman marries an who is heterozygous
for albinism?
A. 100% B. 75% C. 50% D. 25%
17. Which of the following characteristics show discontinuous
variation?
A. body weight B. blood groups
C. size of leaves D. colour of flowers

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B: Short Answer Questions on Genetics and Evolution

1. In an experiment, a long winged male drosophila was
crossed with a short winged drosophila All the offspring
in the fl generation consisted of 62 long winged flies
and 21 short winged flies.
(a) Suggest and explain why all the Fl generation was
long winged.
b) i) What type of flies would develop from
mating between short winged flies in the
second; generation?
(ii) Give a reason for your answer.
(c) Mating between short winged fly in F2 generation
with long winged fly in Fl generation produced 90
flies
2. a) What is meant by the term mutation.
b) The gene for normal production of haemoglobin is
dominant to the mutant gene which causes sickle
cell anemia. If a female heterozygous for the
sickle cell anaemia marries a normal man, illustrate,
using suitable symbols, the possible genotype and
phenotype of the offspring.
3. In a breeding experiment, when plants with red flowers
were crossed, a total of 898 plants were produced out of
which 325 had white flowers.
(a) what was the recessive character? Give reasons.
(b) What was the genotype of the parents?
(c) Using suitable symbols show the expected phenotypic and
genotypic ratios in the experiment.
(d) Were the obsreved resultsin agreement with the laws of
monohybrid inheritance? Show your working.
(Qn.32 UNEB 2008)

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ANSWERS
A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions on Genetics and
Evolution

1.B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.C

6.A 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.D
11.B 12.A 13.B 14.D 15.C
16.C 17.B

B: b) Answers to Short Answer Questions on Genetics and

Evolution
1. (a) The figure represents inheritance of sex
(b) B (c) 22
(d) (i) B and E/F (ii) A and C/D
(e) F (g) G
2. a) Genes for long wings are dominant to those of short
wings: parents are genotypically homozygous.
b) i) All will be short winged.
ii) All parents have homozygous recessive
genes.
c) Let s represent allele for short wings, Let S
represent allele for long wings. Parents long winged
(in Fl) X short wings
Genotypes:
Ss X ss

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Gametes: Ss X ss

Fl genotypes Ss Ss ss ss
Phenotypes Ss-long winged
ss-short winged
Ratio of long winged :short winged 1 : 1
Number of long winged offspring is 90 x 0.5 =45
Long winged flies.
3. (a) Mutation is the sudden change in the number and
structure of genes or chromosomes,
(b) Let H — represent dominant genes for normal;h —
genes for sickle cell.

Parents : Male normal x Female (carrier)

Parental genotypes: HH x Hh
Gametes; HH H h

Fl generation: HH Hh HH Hh
Phenotype: All normal.
Genotypes - l heterozygous for sickle cell.

C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Genetics and

Evolution

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1. (a) yellow (b) yellow (c) 25%

(d) When plants of FI generation produced flowers,
they were allowed to be self pollinated. Seeds got from
these plants were then planted.
(e) 50% white and 50% yellow
(f) (i) Dominant: is that character which appears
after a cross is made.
(ii) Hybrid: is an organism got as a result of
cross between two plants which are
genetically different.
2. (a) These genes control some other characters. Such
genes and the characters they determine are said to
be sex linked.
(b) Haemophilia and color blindness
(c) (i) Genotype: is the genetic constitution of an
organism while phenotype is the outward
expression of a characteristic of an organism
irrespective of its genetic composition.
(ii) Homozygote is the organism which has
received identical genes from both parents
while heterozygote is the organism that has
received unlike genes for the same character
from both parents.
(d) (i) An allele is a pair of genes containing the
same characteristics located opposite to
each other on a homozygous pair of
chromosome
(ii) Backcross is a test carried out to find out the
genotype of an organism by crossing it with
the heterozygous recessive plant.

3. (a) Evolution is the study of origin or: the gradual

development of more complex organisms from their
simpler ancestors.

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(b) Natural selection: Darwin referred, to the "survival

of the fittest and the dying of the less suitable" as
the natural selection.
(c) (i) Inbreeding; is when a mating occurs
between closely related individual of
the same breed e.g. father and daughter,
brother and sister. In this case, many of the
resultant offspring are homozygous.
(ii) Cross breeding: is the mating of individuals
of different breeds. If the offsprings are
heterozygous, the desired characteristics are
normally dominant. The hybrid or resultant
offsprings are more vigorous than both the
parents.
4. (a) Fossils are remains of prehistoric animals and plants
( organisms which lived millions of years ago). The
remains are in form of teeth, bones or roots, and at
times the whole organism.
(b) Fossils are normally found on the sedimentary
rocks.
(c) Importance of fossils are
(i) show where and how different sedimentary
rocks were formed.
(ii) fossils support the theory of evolution of
species.
(iv) they help to determine the geography of the
earth. Incase fossils of the same species of
organism are found in two different
countries, it can be confirmed that the two
countries were joined together at onetime.

6. (a) Recessive gene is that gene which cannot

express itself in the presence of a dominant
gene,

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(b) Let A represent normal gene.

Let a represent gene for Albinism.
Parents: Female carrier x Male normal
Genotypes:
Genotype Aa x AA
Gametes: A a A A

Fl generation: AA AA Aa Aa
Phenotype Normal carriers

Genotype: ½Normal, ½carriers

(c) Benefits of studying human genetics.
7. (a) Distinction between dominance and co-dominance.
In co-dominance both alleles of a gene are
expressed equally in the phenotype while in
dominance, one allele of gene
suppresses the expression of another in the
phenotype. (b) (i) In FI generation all the
plants were tall since the tall parent was
homozygous dominant.
(ii) Let T represent allele for tallness
Let t represent allele for shortness
Parents Tall x short
Genotype TT x tt
Gametes T T t t

Fl generation Tt Tt Tt Tt
All are tall.
Cross between the members of the P generation
Parents : Tall x Tall

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Genotypes: Tt x Tt
Gametes; T t T t

F2 generation TT Tt Tt tt
75% Tall
25 Short
(c) The result of crossing a white flower with red Let R
represent allele for red flower Let W represent
allele for white flowers.
Parents: Red x White
Genotypes: RR x WW
Gametes: R R W W

Fl all pink: RW RW RW RW
Result of crossing a pink flower with a white
flower.
Parents: Pink x White
Genotypes: RW x WW
Gametes R W W W

RW RW WW WW
2 Are White 2 Are pink

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MODULE FOURTEEN : ECOLOGY

QUESTIONSx
A: Multiple Choice Questions on Ecology
1. Which of the following describes the carrying capacity of a
population? .
A. maximum number of organisms that can reproduce
freely in a habitat
B. area occupied by organisms of different species
C. maximum number of organisms that can be
supported by a specific area
D. maximum number of plants that can support
animals in a given area
2. Which one of the following would be a correct sequence of
plant succession on an abandonee tarmac road?
A. mosses herbs shrubs tree
B. Herbs mosses shrubs trees
C. shrubs herbs trees mosses
D. mosses herbs trees shrubs
3. In which one of the following associations do both
organisms benefit?
A. malarial parasite and man
B. tapeworm and human
C. a fungal parasite and a plant
D. cellulose digesting bacteria and a ruminant
4. Which one of the following is best for estimating the
population density of rats in a bush?
A. Direct counting B. quadrat method
C. line transect D. Capture-recapture method
5. When two organisms live together to their mutual benefit,
the relationship is called?
A. Parasitism B. Symbiosis
C. Commensalisms D. Saprophytism

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5. lf a gecko on the wall is seen eating mosquitoes, flies, moth

and grasshopper, this animal is said
A. Parasite. B. Symbiot C. Predator. D. Saprophyte.
6. When a piece of lichen is torn apart in a drop of water on a
glass slide and examined under the microscope, green cells
entangled in filaments of fungi can be seen. This is an
example of
A. Symbiosis B. saprophytism
C. parasitism D. commensalism
7. The living together of a fungus and an algae as a lichen is
called
A. Symbiosis B. parasitism
C. saprophytism D. commensalism
9. In which one of the following associations do both
organisms benefit?
A. malarial parasite and man
B. tapeworm and human
C. a fungal parasite and a plant
D. nitrogen fixing bacteria and leguminous plant
10. Which of these statements is not true of an ecosystem?
A. Consumers use less food compared to what
producers make
B. One of the ways of constructing a food chain is by
observing the animal feeding
C. The number of organisms decreases from the
bottom to the top of the pyramid of numbers
D. Because of man's feeding habits, he can be placed
in any of the feeding levels

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11. Study the food web below and use it to answer the
questions 11 and 12.

Dead organic matter

Bacteria

Unicellular animals water lice water

beetles

Unicellular green alga water fleas

Pond weed pond snail pond leeches

In this food web, which of the following group of

organisms are primary consumers'?
A. Pond leaches and water fleas.
B. Pond snails and unicellular organisms
C. Hydra and water beetles
D. Bacteria and water snails.
12. In this food web which one of the following group of
organisms are decomposers
A. unicellular green algae B. water beetles
C. water lice D. bacteria
13. Within an ecosystem, the total number of secondary
consumers must be
A. less than the total number of herbivores
B. greater than the total number of herbivores
C. equal to the total number of producers
D. constant year after year
14. Which of the following method would be used to estimate
the frequency of a plant species in an area?
A. Quadrat B. Belt transect

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C. Line transect D. Random Sampling.

15. Which of the following have the least energy content in the
food chain?
A. Producer B. Secondary consumer
C. Tertiary consumer D. primary consumer
16. Which of the following vegetative plants would appear
earliest in the rocky habitant?
A.mosses B. Lichens C. algae D. ferns
17. If energy from the sun was cut off from the eco system
containing the following organisms
(i) Greens (ii) Herbivores(iii) Saprophytes (iv) Carnivores
In which order would all organisms die out
A. (i), (ii),(iii) and (iv) B. (i), (ii),(iv) and (iii)
C. (iii),(i), (ii) and (iv) D. (i), (iii) (ii) and (iv)
18. The scheme below shows a food chain with corresponding
concentrations of organic chloride in mm
Grass plant-> herbivorous bug->predatory bug->lizard
0.01 0.9 2.3 2.8
Why does the tissue of the lizard contain the highest
concentration of organic chloride? Because the
A. Lizard eats all the organisms in the food chain
B. Organic chloride remains persistent in the food
chain
C. Organic chloride is cumulative in the tissue of the
organism
D. Organic chloride is not toxic to lizard
19. Which one of the following would be the first to colonize a
rocky surface?
A. lichens B. Mosses C.shrubs D. ferns
20. Which one of the following methods can be used to
estimate the population of butterflies in a flower garden?
A. direct count B. quadrates
C. line transect D. capture-release-recapture

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B: Short Answer Questions on Ecology

1. An ecologist carried out a survey to estimate the number of
organisms in a certain dam. The following table shows the
record of his survey.

ORGANISM ESTIMATED
NUMBER.

Microscopic plants 43000

Small fish 120

Mosquito larva 4100

Crocodiles 12

Large fish 90

(a) Which of the above organisms are called

(i) Producers
(ii) Primary consumers
(iii) Consumers of the last order
(b) Which organisms are likely to finish first in the
dam?
(c) Draw a sensible food web to show the energy flow
(d) Show the possible food chain.
2. a) What do you understand by the following terms?
i) Habitat (ii) Ecosystem
(b) There are four possible tropic levels that can exist in
a food chain
(c) give an example of food chain consisting of four
levels of found in a grassland

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(d) Construct a diagram of food web which may exist

in fresh water lake in Uganda composing of the
following organisms
Tadpole, green alga, heron, saprophytic bacteria,
small fish, big fish and mosquito larvae
3. (a) Distinguish between predator and prey
(b) Figure below shows predator/ prey relationship.
Study the figure and answer the questions that
follow

(i) Describe the relationship between the

predator and prey.
(ii) Explain the relation ship of the predator and
prey described in b (i) above
(iii) Name any two other external factors that
may affect the population of the prey in the
habitat

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4.In a food chain, when energy is transfered from one trophic level
to another, some of it is lost.figure 3 shows such a transfer of
energy in and out of a cow in a year.

eaten
Green plants
Cow
6060 Units of energy
in food
5757 ts lost energy
5758

(a)Name the trophic levels shown in the figure above.

(b) State two ways in which energy is lost from the cow. Calculate
the percentage of energy taken in during the year, which is retained
by the cow.
(c)In proportion to its body, a calf uses more energy to maintain its
body temperature than a cow.Explain why this is so. (Qn 3 2
UNEB 2009)

5 the following organisms live in a national park in uganda;

Bush rat,guinea fowl,hawk, grasshopper,Uganda Kob and grass.
(a)Show the feeding relationship that exist betweentheseorganisms.
(b) what name is gfiven to the feeding relationship in (a)?
(c) Which organism in the relationship are
(i) primary producers?
(ii) primary consumers
(iii) secondary consumers?
(d) suggest what would happen in the relationship if Uganda Kobs
were removed from the park? (Qn 33 UNEB 2008)

C: Essay Questions on Ecology

1. (a) In what way are denitrifying bacteria harmful to the
farmer.

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(b) Name two types of Nitrogen fixing bacteria and

state where each is found.
(c) How are the Nitrogen fixing bacteria keep the soil
to the farmer
(d) In what way do the thunderstorms keep the soil
fertile?
2. Write briefly about the following
(a) Flow of energy in the ecosystem
(b) Capture and recapture method
3. What measures would be taken to prevent the pollution of
the following?
(i) water (ii) soil (iii) air
4. (a) State any four factors that may affect the
distribution of animal population in a natural game
park.
(b) mention any three methods apart from the quadrat
that can be used to determine the population of
desmodium.
(c) how would you determine the population of
Desmodium in a given field using the Quadrat
method
5. Describe human activities which may result environmental
pollution
6. (a) What do you understand by the following terms
(i) Habitat (ii) An ecosystem
(b) Use the following organisms to construct a food
web showing their feeding relationship. Chameleon,
moth, grasshoppers, herbaceous bug, preying
mantis, predatory bug and plants
(c) What is the role of each of the following organisms
in a food web?
(i) Plants (ii) Grasshopper (iii) Predatory bug

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(d) Which one of the organisms listed in 6(b) above

will have the least energy for any single food
chain and why.
8. (a) What do you understand by the term environment
degradation.
(b) Describe how man’s activities lead to degradation
of the soil.
9. (a) Define the following ecological terms
i) Population (ii) Ecological niche
iii) Community iv) An ecosystem
(v) Climax community
b) Name any two sampling methods you can use to
determine the population of named organisms in an
ecosystem. For each method state the advantages
and disadvantages.
c) The data below the population of mice in the
Biology laboratory of a certain period of time.
Population of mice 2 8 14 38 95 140 220 280 300 310 312
Time / weeks 0 5 7 9 13 20 25 27 30 32
(i) Using the above information above construct the
population growth curve of mice
(ii) Briefly describe and explain the shape of your
graph
(iii) Name the natural factors that change the shape of
the graph at around 22nd Week
10. Giving examples in each case, explain what is meant by the
following terms
i) Commensalism ii) Symbiosis
iii) Parasitism iv) Saprophytism
v) Mutualism vi) Mimicry
11. a) What is pollution?
b) Outline human activities in Uganda that lead to
environmental pollution

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c) Apart from timber and its products explain other

importance of forests.
d) With examples, explain what is meant by the term
wildlife.
12. a) What are the major ecological problems caused by
water hyacinth on the waters of lake Victoria
b) Suggest methods of controlling the spread of this
weed in our lakes and rivers, stating the advantages
and disadvantages of different of methods.
13. a) What is a parasite mode of nutrition?
b) Describe the lifestyle of a beef tape worm
c) Give reasons why a tape worm has been a
successful parasites
14. (a) Define a pathogen
(b) List the factors necessary for microbial growth
(c) How can microbial growth be controlled?
15. (a) Describe the life cycle taenia solium
(b) What are the effects of taenia solium on its host?
(c) What measure would you take to prevent the spread
of this parasite?
16. (a) What is meant by the following?
(i) Parasitism
(ii) Symbiosis
(iii) Commensalism
(b) What is the importance of symbiotic bacteria and
mycorhizal fungi?
17 .a) Outline the importance of wild life conservation
b) What are the likely problems to be faced in wildlife
conservation?
18. (a) what is meant by pollution
(b) Explain how the continued use of polythene paper
may harm the environment.
(c) suggest ways of preventing the effects suggested in
(b) above. (Qn.37 UNEB 2009)zzz2zaq

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ANSWERS

A: a) Answers to Multiple Choice Questions on Ecology

1.C 2.A 3.D 4.D 5.C

6.C 7.A 8.A 9.D 10.C
11.B 12.D 13.A 14.A 15.C
16.D 17.B 18.A 19.A 20.B

B: b) Answers to Short Answer Questions on Ecology

l. (a) (i) Producers are microscopic plants
(ii) Primary consumers - mosquito larvae (iii)
Last consumer - crocodiles
(b) Small fish. Since the number of large fish feeding
on them is too big.
(c) Drawing of a food web showing the flow of energy

(d) Possible food chain Microscopic plants

mosquito larva small fish large fish
2. (a) (i) Habitat: The home of an organism

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(ii) Ecosystem: An area where various types of

living organism living together interact with one
another and with the abiotic factor (non-living)
(b) The four tropic levels,
i. Producers
ii. Primary consumers
iii. Secondary consumers
iv. Tertiary consumers
(c) An example of a food chain of organisms in
grassland
Grass Antelope cheetah vulture
Food web existing in a fresh water lake in Uganda

3. (a) The animal which eats the other is a predator and

the animal which is eaten is the prey
(b) (i) Population of prey is ever higher than for
the predator. As the predator population
increases, that of the prey decreases.
(ii) The population of prey decreases as soon as
the predator starts feeding on it, The
population then increases until that of the
prey decreases so the predator begins to starve.
When the number of predators declines, the prey

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population begins to increase again and the cycle is

repeated.
(iii) -Water availability
- Presence of mates
4 (a) -producers
-Primary consumers
(b) through excretion
As heat energy from respiration
(c) Energy retained =6060-5757
= 303

% of retained energy = x100 =05 %

(d) A calf has a larger surface area to volume ratio and

loses more heat than a cow.that is why it uses more
energy in order to maintain its body temperature.
(e) When the cow dies, the de composers break down
tissues itn it to release the nutrients back in the soil.
C: c) Answers to Essay Questions on Ecology
1. (a) The denitrifying bacteria change soil nitrates into
atmospheric nitrogen thus lead to loss of soil
nitrates.
(b) The Rhizobium species found in the root nodules
of leguminous plants.
Azotobacteur bacteria which lives freely in the soil
(c) The Nitrogen fixing bacteria fix atmospheric
nitrogen into the soil thus availing it to the plants.

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(d) Thunderstorms produce a great deal of heat energy

which makes oxygen combine with atmospheric
nitrogen to produce Nitrogen Oxides (i.e.
Nitrogen dioxide and Nitrogen trioxide)
i.e. O2(g) + N2(g) → NO3(g)
These oxides react with rain water to form weak
solution of Nitric acid. When Nitric acid reaches
into the soil it is reduced to Nitrates
i.e. NO3(g) + H2O(l) → HNO3(aq)
 
Then HNO3(aq) → H (aq)  NO 3 (aq)
2. The flow of energy in an Ecosystem.
The principle source of energy in an ecosystem is the sun.
Green plants absorb light from the sun and use it in
photosynthesis (make their own food). Only a small part of
energy trapped by plants and the rest is dissipated back into
the atmosphere.
The plants are then eaten by the animals (herb) and the
fixed energy is transferred to these primary considers.
There is energy loss due to respiration, excretion and some
plants left uneaten.
The primary consumers are also eaten by the secondary
consumers and similar energy as for the primary consumers
occur.
The plants and animals at all feeding levels die and the
decomposers help to release the nutrients in them into the
soil.
NB. Energy Primary Producers > Energy in Primary
Consumers > Energy in Secondary Consumers > Energy in
Tertiary Consumers > Decomposers.

b) Capture re-capture method

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This is a method of estimating the population of organisms.

The organisms in question should be small and fast moving.
When using this method, organisms are captured from a
premarked area, marked and released. The total number is
counted and noted (M). The second capture is made and
the total number is noted (N). The marked organisms in the
second capture are also counted and then noted (R). The
population is estimated using the formula.
Population=
Number of organisms Number of organisms

in the first capture in the second capture
Number of organisms in the second
capture but marked
M  N
=
R
3. (a) Measures that would be taken to prevent air, water
and soil pollution
o Massive awareness of people to the dangers of
pollution
o Proper discharge of human wastes
o Proper discharge of solid wastes e.g. in dust bins
from where they can be burnt.
o Recycling of some wastes from industries
o Use of electricity and gas in cooking instead of
charcoal and firewood.
o Putting in place laws that aimed at conserving the
environment.
o Banning polythene bags can mitigate soil pollution
o Treatment of sewage before releasing it to water
bodies.
o Avoid the use of non-biodegradable insecticides and
pesticides like DDT.

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o Use of unleaded diesel in cars and other vehicles

4. (a)
o Water availability
o Availability of food (e.g. grass)
o Competition
o Disasters like fire and floods
o Presence of predators
b)
o Line transect
o Belt transect
o Direct counting
c)
o
Demarcate the area under study and determine the
total area in m2
o
Throw a quadrat several times and make a count of
the number of desmodium in each throw
o
Make an average of the number of desmodium per
quadrat.
o
Multiply the average number of desmodium by the
total area to get the total estimated number of
desmodium in the area.
Example. Average number of desmodium per
quadrat = 7
Total area = 700m2
Total number of desmodium = 700 x 7
= 4,900.
5. (a) Environmental degradation is the decline in the
value of both renewable and non-renewable
resources.
(b) Human activities that lead to degradation of the soil
o Mining / quarrying that destroys soil texture.

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o Dumping of domestic wastes which include

indecomposable materials like polythene lead to
proper soil erosion.
o Use of pesticides, insecticides and herbicides also
produce chemicals which affect the soil
ecosystem.
o Bush burning also produces a lot of heat which
affects soil organisms.
o Dumping of domestic rubbish, when decomposed
produce methane and other gases which give out
an unpleasant smell.
o Deforestation may lead to soil erosion since trees
help to reduce water speed.
o Over cultivation leads to soil exhaustion.
o Overgrazing leads to loss of soil cover leading to
soil erosion.
6. (i) A population is a group of organisms of the species
living in a given area.
(ii) Ecological niche refers to a place in the
environment where an organism lives in relation to
its role.
(iii) A community refers to a group of populations.
(iv) Ecosystem is a place in the environment consisting
of both living and non living components existing
together in relation to each other or in harmony.
(v) A climax community refers to a final steady
community that develops during the course of
succession in very little changes occur in its
composition unless disturbed by man or other
factors.
(b) Organisms (i) Grass hoppers (ii) Buffalos
The population of grass hoppers could best be
estimated by use of capture recapture method.

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Advantages
-Best for small and fast moving organisms
Disadvantages
-the marked organisms may become damaged by
the exercise
-the marked organisms may become conspicuous in
the environment thus may be predated upon.
-it gives less correct results
(ii) The population of the buffaloes can be
estimated by direct counting
Advantages
-Easy to apply
-Gives more accurate results
-Suitable for large animals like buffaloes
Disadvantages
It is tiresome as the animals may continue to mix up

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(c) A graph showing population increase with time

Description of the curve

There is a slight increase in the population for the
first ten weeks, the population increase
exponentially from the 10th to 25th week and
then slightly decreases.
Explanation
For the first ten weeks the population increase is
slow because,
-Individuals are establishing themselves and getting
adapted to the environment

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- There are few reproducing individuals

-New individuals are still growing to reach
reproductive age
Between the 10th and the 25th week, the exponential
increase in population is due to,
-Increase in the number of reproducing individuals
-The mice are now adapted to the environment thus
can exploit available resources
-They have acquired ways of avoiding predators
-The birth rate is greater than the death rate

The slight decrease in the population of mice from

the 26th to the 32nd week is as result of
environmental resistance due to,
-Aging individuals stopping to reproduce or reduce
reproduction
-Shortage of basic necessities e.g. space, food,
water and setting in of stiff competition
-Quick spread of diseases due to overcrowding.
7. a) (i)commensalism is the relationship between
individuals of different species in which one
partner (the commensal) while the other is
unaffected. For example egrets in cattle, hydractinia
living on the shell of hermit crab. The hydractinia
benefits by being transported to the new food
sources while the crab is not harmed and neither
benefits.
Symbiosis is a relationship between individuals of
the different species in which both individuals
benefit from the relationship and none is harmed.
Example, nitrogen fixing bacteria living in the root
nodules of leguminous plants.The bacteria convert
nitrogen from the air into nitrates in the soil which

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are used by plants and in return the bacteria obtain

from the plant roots.
Parasitism is an association between two different
organisms of different species in which one
(parasite) obtains food and other vital factors like
shelter and protection while the other (host) is
harmed. Examples include ticks on cows, fleas on
feathers of a bird, tape worm in the intestines of
man.
Saprophytism is the relationship in which one
(saprophyte) depends on dead organic matter e.g.
mushrooms on dung.
Mutualism is the close relationship between
organisms of different species in which both
organisms benefit to an extent that none of them can
live independent to one another. Examples include,
-The lichens –an association between fungus and
algae
-Mycorrhiza- an association between roots of
plants and a fungus
-protozoa and bacteria living in herbivores
-Triconympha and termites
(b) Adaptations of parasites to their mode of life
(i) they posses attachment devices to enable
them cling on the host e.g. hooks in tape
worm.
(ii) Possession of resistant cuticle to withstand
host’s immune reactions
(iii) Loss of some sense organs like eyes to live
in low light areas
(iv) Ability to live in adverse conditions such as
low oxygen tension, ph fluctuations.
(v) Ability to suppress immune response of the
host.

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(vi) Possession of sucking devices like styles

and proboscis in mosquitoes.
(vi) Having intermediate hosts e.g. pork tape
worm having the pig

(vii) They have a high reproductive rate

(viii) Have short reproductive cycles
(ix) Have inhabit suitable strategic areas of the
host so that they obtain food easily
(x) Some are dorsoventrally flattened to avoid
dislodging of the digested food like the tape
worm.
(xi) Some live intracellular to protect themselves
from the immune system of the host.
8. (a) pollution is the addition of substances to the
environment at such levels that cause harm to life.
(b) deforestation causing destruction of forests
 Mining minerals
 poor methods of sewage disposal especially
polythene
 overgrazing which destroy vegetation cover
 application of fertilizers which end up into
nearby water bodies
 bush burning that cause high temperatures
 wars which produce a lot of sound and nuclear
materials
 Discharge of raw sewage into water bodies
 discharge of industrial effluent to water bodies
and other machines
 Road construction.
b) evaporation of water vapor from trees contribute to
rain formation
o trees act as wind breakers and control wind erosion

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o trees reduce the speed of running water thus control

soil erosion.
o they are also habitats for some organisms like birds
o they are a source of food to some organisms
o trees are a source of medicine
o Some are used for ornamental purposes.
o Trees hold soil particles together to avoid soil
erosion
o They provide shade to living organisms including
man.
(c) wild life refers to plants and animals in the wild.
9. (a) Ecological problems of water hyacinth
o It hinders navigation
o Harbors vectors such as snails that cause Bilharzia
o Causes reduction in the amount of fish in the water
bodies as some die due to suffocation
o When it dies and decomposes it causes siltation of
water bodies
o Due to high rates of evaporation , reduces on the
amount of water bodies
o It dirtens water thus increasing the cost of treatment
o It has led to drowning of man and other animals as
it forms a mat on top of the water
o It blocks water channels thus interferes with water
flow
o Causes loss of property due to flooding if channels
are blocked
(b) (1) physical or manual removal through hand
picking
(2) Use machine. The method is effective
but expensive

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(3) Use of herbicides (chemical) control).The

method is quick and effective but has the
following disadvantages
 contaminating drinking water
 destruction of aquatic life e.g. fish
 pollution of water body
 it is expensive
(4) Use of biological control. This involves use
of beetles. It is cheap and has less negative
effects
10. (a) Parasitic mode of nutrition is the type of nutrition
whereby two organisms of different species are in
association in which one (parasite) gets food while
the other is harmed.
(b) Lifecycle of a beef tapeworm
Proglolottids containing fertilized eggs become
detached from adult worm and pass out in feces.
These rapture releasing eggs (oncospheres). The
cows eat oncospheres, in the intestines, the eggshell
is dissolved by the host’s enzymes and the embryo
is released. They bore through the wall of the
intestine into blood vessels. The blood carries the
embryo to the muscles of the cow where it develops
into a bladder worm which infects mans. When
man eats poorly cooked eats meat with bladder
worm (cysticercus) he becomes infected. The
cysticercus after getting the alimentary canal, the
scolex becomes averted and attachés to the wall of
the intestine. The worm undergoes growth
forming several proglottis and the lifecycle is
repeated.
(c) It has hooks for attachment onto the host
 Has suckers for sucking digested foods
 Has no eyes and can live in conditions of no light.

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 Can respire an aerobically and thus can withstand

conditions of low oxygen tension.
 Is dorsoventrally flattened to fit in the intensive
avoid dislodging.
 Produce mucus that prevents it from the corrosive
action of the host’s digestive enzymes.
 Has a short reproductive cycle.
 Produce many eggs to ensure survival.
11. (a) A pathogen is a small / microscopic organism that
cause diseases.
(b) Factors for microbial growth
1. Suitable temperature
2. Moisture
3. Suitable food supply
4. Darkness
(c) – Cooking food to kill the microbes
- Refrigeration of food materials
- Pasteurization of food materials
- Sterilization (keeping materials in environment
without microbes).
Picking – This method involves preservation of in
vinegar, (vinegar is highly acidic & does not
allow survival of organisms.
-Covering materials with honey. Honey dehydrates
microbes like microbes due to its high osmotic
pressure.
12. (a) Life-cycle of taenia solium
The end segment containing fertilized eggs become
detached and the pass out within the faeces.The
eggs are eaten by the pigs while grazing. When
these eggs reach the alimentary canal of the pig, the
eggs shells are dissolved. From each egg, a six –
hooked embryo emerges. With the help of these
hooks, the embryo bore through the gut wall into

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the blood vessels. After passing through the heart,

they are carried to the tissues where they develop
into bladder worms. When each raw or
undercooked pork of such infected pigs, the
bladder worms of the tape worm enter our body.
The head of the tapeworm is released from the
encysted bladder. This head gets attached to the
wall of the intestine and develops into a tape worm.
(b) Effects of Taenia solium on the host
- The worms cause pain the abdomen, vomiting,
diarrhea
- The individual loses weight
(c) The spread of Taenia solium can be prevented in
the following ways
- Eat pork inspected by the health authorities
- Meat (pork) should be well cooked.
- Use latrines to prevent pigs from eating the
segments which are passed out with the feces.
13. (a)
(i) Parasitism is a feeding relationship involving two
organisms of different species in which one a
parasite feeds on and causes harm to another called
host.
(ii) Symbiosis is a very close relationship which
involves two different organisms that live together
and gain some benefit from each other.
(iii) Commensalism is a relationship in which one
organism called a commensal derives some benefit
but the other neither gains nor loses.
(b) Importance of symbiotic bacteria
o The bacteria that live in root nodules of leguminous
plants fix free nitrogen into the soil as nitrates
which are used by the plants for protein synthesis.

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The plants in return supply carbohydrates and in

this way both plants and the bacteria gain.
o Bacteria present in rumen of the ruminant animals
and in the caecum and appendix of non ruminant
herbivores produce an enzyme cellulose which
digests cellulose. Some of the products of digestion
are absorbed by these bacteria.
Importance of mycorhiza fungi
Roots of many moorland and woodland have
mycorhiza. This fungus breaks down proteins of the
humus into soluble amino acids, some of which are
then absorbed and utilized by the host plant. Some
of the carbohydrates made by the plant are absorbed
by the fungus. In this way both the host and the
fungus benefit from each other.
14. (a) (i) How fungi are useful to man
a. Certain fungi cause decay to dead organic matter
and make available elements from dead organisms
for growth of other organisms and form humus.
b. Used in alcoholic fermentation e.g. yeast and thus
used in the production of beverages and of
industrial spirit.
c. Some are used for making cheese.
d. Used in production of antibiotics e.g. penecilium
notatum which produces penicillin
e. Some fungi are used as food e.g. mushrooms
f. Some fungi are used for baking bread e.g. yeast
g. Some are a source of vitamin B e.g. Yeast
h. Some cause diseases to plants e.g. potato blight,
maize rust etc.
i. Some other parasitic fungi cause diseases in animals
e.g. ringworm and athletics
(b) Saprophytic fungi can be cultured in the following
ways;

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(i) Add some baker’s year in warm dilute sugar

solution and wait for two hours. If you place a drop
of milky solution on a glass slide and examine
under microscope, you will see oval shaped
budding cells.
(ii) If you wish a culture of penecilium, cover a moist
citrus fruit with a beaker and keep it in a warm
damp place. Within a 4 to 5 days mould will grow
later penecilium will appear as blue or bluish green
patches on the substance.
(iii) Keep a slice of moist bread under a beaker moulds
(mucor and penecilium) will grow a few days in
moist and warm conditions. Mucor is a grey mould
and develops black pin heads whereas penecilium
is a blue-green mould.
15. a) Causes of water pollution.
o Fertilizer application which and up in water bodies
o Discharge of industrial affluent into water bodies
o Discharge of untreated sewage in water bodies
o Spraying of herbicide to kill weeds over a water
body
o Disposing garbage may interfere with smooth flow
of water which may result into flooding.
o Leaking of oil from machineries e.g. ship engines.
b)
o Water pollution from fertilizers results into growth
of weeds which can
o Hinders navigation.
o It dirtens water increasing the cost of treatment
o disposing garbage may interfere with smooth flow
of water which may

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o Results into flooding.

o Hot industrial effluents cause death of organisms at
the point of discharge.
o it leads to reduction in the number fish as some die
due to pollution from different sources.

c) Ways of controlling water pollution.

o Massive education of people about the dangers of pollution
o Carrying out an environmental impact assessment before an
activity is under taken.
o Carrying out proper methods of waste water and garbage
disposal
o Recycling some wastes so as to avoid water pollution
o Legislation of laws and policies to ensure proper
management of water bodies
o Using ship and boat engine that are in good mechanical
condition to avoid oil leakage into water bodies.

16. a) Importance of wildlife conservation.

1. it’s a source of income through attracting tourists.
2. Provides recreation e.g. water bodies
3. For aesthetic values e.g. forests.
4. Source of food for man and other animals for
example wild fruits.
5. It provides raw materials for example wood and
timber used in the construction industry.
6. It provides employment to people who manage wild
life
7. Wild life help in modification of environment for
example forests form rain fall.

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8. Wild flora is a source of medicine.

b.) 1. Poaching of wild animals by man.
2. Over harvesting in live plants and animals
3. Conversion of wild habitats by man to carry out
agriculture
4. Bush burning
5. Ignorance of man on sustainable utilization of
natural resources.
6. Lack of appropriate policies and laws and to safe
guard wild life
7. Pollution of environment
8. Introduction of alien species that can be predators to
the existing ones.

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SOIL
1. a) What are the components of a fertile soil?
b) Describe an experiment to show that loam soil drains faster
than clay soil.
c) State the difference between the properties of sand and clay.
Solution.
(a) Components of a fertile soil are;
- Humus (organic matter)
- Inorganic matter like the mineral salts
- Micro-organism e.g. bacteria
- Macro-organism e.g earthworms
- Air
- Water.

(b)An experiment to show that loam soil drains faster than slay
soil.
- Apparatus
- 2 filter funnels- cotton wool – water
- Soil sample of clay and loam
- Measuring cylinders – 2Beakers.

Procedure:
- Place cotton wool loosely into two funnels.
- Measure equal volumes of soil of loam and clay.
- Put each volume (clay and loam) separately on a funnel.
- Measure equal volume of water and pour on the each soil
sample in a funnel placed onto a beaker a shown in the set up
below
- Note the time it takes for the last drop of water to drop through
the soil samples.
Set up

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Observation:
The last drop of water from loam soil comes out faster than that in
clay soil.
Conclusion:
Loam soil drains faster than clay soil.
c) Sand soil Clay
soil
- Are well aerated. - Are poorly
aerated.
- Have low water holding capacity. - Have high water
holding capacity.
- Are light and easy to work . - Usually heavy
and difficult to work.
- Are usually deficient in nutrients. - Are usually
richer in nutrients.
- Have low capillanty due to wide - Have high
capillanty.
- Spaces between them.
- Drew faster - Take long to
drain.

Qn2. Give the importance to the plants of each of the components

of a fertile soil.
Solution:
A fertile soil is composed of water,air,organic matter (humus),
mineral salts, micro-organisms e.g bacteria and macro-organisms
e.g earth worms and rodents.
Importance of each to the plant.
a) Water.
- Useful in dissolving mineral salts for easy absorption by the
root hair cells.
- Cools the plants during transpiration.

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- Maintains cell turgidity thus maintaining support in non

woody plants.
- Dissolves food materials for easy transportation within the
phloem tubes.
- It maintains the protoplasm of a cell.
b) Air .
- Source of oxygen for respiration of plant roots and other soil
micro and macro organisms.
- The oxygen in the air is also important in respiration of the
embryo during seed germination.

The carbon dioxide in the soil air and that produced during
respiration of plant roots and soil organisms increases soil acidity
which is important in growth of some plants.
- Nitrogen in soil air is fixed by nitrogen fixing by Nitrogen
fixing bacteria into soil Nitrates.
c) Inorganic matter.

These may be solid or mineral part of the soil and has the
following importances
- Forms the frame work of the soil.
- Provides a firm anchorage to the plant roots.
- Provides mineral salts to the plant e.g potassium,
magnesium etc
- The spaces in between the solid particles in the soil are
occupied by air and water.
d) Organic matter.
- Allows water to percolate easy in the soil.
- Improves soil crumb structure which allows free aeration in
the soil.
- Improves water holding capacity of the soil.
- Insulates the soil against extremes of heat and cold.
- It’s a source of nutrients when it decomposes e.g
ammonium salts, sulphates, phosphates etc

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e) Micro-organisms.
- They bring about decay and decomposition of plant and animal
remains which releases mineral salts to plants e.g
nitrates.
- Some fix nitrogen into the soil e.g the Nitrogen fixing bacteria.
- When they themselves die and decay, they add nutrients to the
soil.
f) Macro- organisms e.g earthworms, rodents.
- Improve soil aeration when they burrow in the soil.
- They mix soil components during their movements.
- Start the process of decomposition of plant and animal remains
e.g rodents and termites.
- When they die, they decompose and form organic matter and
release nutrients to the soil.

Qn3 a) What is soil erosion?

b) State the various types of soil erosion.
c) Explain how man’s activities may lead to soil erosion.
Solution:
a) Soil erosion is the carrying or washing away of top soil by water
and or wind.
b) The type of soil erosion are:
- Wind erosion - sheet erosion
- Rill erosion - Gully erosion
- Glacial erosion

c) Man’s activities may lead to soil erosion in the following ways;

- Organizing leaves the soil bare exposing it to agents of
erosion.
- Deforestation removes the trees that cover the ground
and exposes the soil to wind and water.

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- Cultivating up and down the slopes exposes the soil to

running water down the slopes making it easy for the
soil to be washed away.
- Mining creates channels which makes soil to be easily
washed away by rain water.
- Road construction also exposes the top soil to agents of
erosion (ie water and wind).
- Burning of vegetation leaves the soil bare and exposed
to wind and running water.
- Continuous cultivation destroys the soil structure
making the soil loose and hence easily carried away by
wind and running water.

Qn4 a) Give the effects of four air pollutants on living things

b) Describe how human activities interfere with soil
environment in Uganda.
Solution.
The air pollutants include;
Carbon monoxide (CO), Carbon dioxide (CO 2),Dust, Fumes from
care and industries, their effects include the following:-
- Dust interferes with vision.
- Its an agent through which respiration diseases can be
transmitted e.g flue, TB etc.
- Too much dust coats on plant leaves blocking the
stomata thus interfering with gaseous exchange.
- Carbon monoxide interferes with normal oxygen
carriage in blood because it also combines with
haemoglobin and may lead to death of an individual if
inhaled in large amounts.
- Carbon dioxide causes global warming and may lead to
unpredictable climate change like floods and excessive
droughts.

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- Fumes from diesel and petro released from

motovehicles and industries contain poisonous metals
like lead; Sulphur dioxide which may lead to poisoning.
Sulphur dioxide combines with rain water to form
sulphuric acid. Such acidic rain may kill organisms
and equally affect plants.

b) Human activities interfere with the soil environment in the

following ways;
- Overgrazing removes the soil cover exposing the soil to
agents of erosion leading to soil erosion.
- Bush burning removes the soil cover exposing it to wind
and running water hence leading to soil erosion .
- The heat produced from bush burning kills soil
organisms that are found near the soil surface.
- Fertilizer application like sulphates can combine with
water to firm sulphuric acid which can kill soil organisms
thus reducing on soil fertility.
- Excessive use of pesticides and herbicides can lead to
their accumulation in the soil and become toxic to soil
organism thus reducing on soil fertility.
- Deforestation leaves the ground bare and exposes to
direct sun and agents of erosion. In this way the soil
loses water easily through evaporation and becomes
susceptible to erosion.
- Dumping of nondurable wastes like polythen bags into
the soil reduces on soil aeration and drainage.
- Over cultivation and monoculture leads to loss of
nutrients from the soil.
- Dumping of industrial wastes and petroleum products
may directly kill the soil organism thus reducing soil
fertility.

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- Mining destroys soil structure making it loose increasing

its susceptibility to soil erosion.
Qn5 a) Explain the value of earth worth in maintaining the soil
in a condition suitable for plant growth.
(b) How does clay affect the fertility of the soil.
Solution
a)
- Earth worms burrow in the soil creating small funnels
the improve soil aeration. The air is important in root
respiration as well as respiration of the embryo during
seed germination.
- The tunnels created make the soil loose making it easy
for root penetration.
- When they die, they decompose their tissues
decomposed and add humus to the soil.
- They start the decomposition of plant and animal
materials to humus through the digestion of this organic
material.
- They mix the soil components together by taking soil
from slightly deeper layers to the surface.

b) Soil fertility refers to the availability of mineral salts and

other plant requirements like air, water and humus in the soil.
When clay is added to the soil, it affects its fertility in the
following ways ;
- The soil will become poorly aerated due to the small pores in
clay soil.
- The soil will become poorly drained with almost no percolation.
- It adds nutrients like iron, and phosphates in the soil.
- The soil will have high water retention capacity due to its fine
particles.
- The soil becomes wet and very difficult to work in the season
and becomes hard to break during the wet season.

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- Due to high capillanty of clay soil, water raises faster in it and

thus the soil may become water logged.

Qn6 a) What are the constituents of a fertile soil?

b) In what ways may human activities
(i) Improve soil?
(ii) degrade soil?
Solution.
a) The constituents of a fertile soil are;
Water, air, inorganic matter, organic matter (humus), micro-
organisms and macro-organisms.
b) (i) Ways in which human activities improves soil.
- Mulching preserves soil moisture preventing the soil
from drying easily.
- The mulches also decompose to form humus on the soil.
- Adding manure to soil directing improves the nutrient
capacity of the soil and also improves soil drainage.
- Tree planting /Afforastation on slopes prevent both
wind and water erosion.
- Crop rotation improves soil fertility especially if crops
like legumes are included due to their ability to fix
nitrogen into the soil.
- Mixed cropping that includes planting of tall and short
plants. The short plants act as soil cover preventing soil
erosion and the tall plants act as wind breaks.
- Adding artificial fertilizers adds nutrients to the soil.
- (ii) Human activities may degrade the soil in the
following ways;
- Overgrazing removes soil cover exposing the soil to
agents of erosion like water and wind.
- It also loosens the soil particles making them easily
carried away by wind.
- Over cropping leads to soil exhaustion.

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- Bush burning removes soil cover exposing to agents of

erosion. It also kills soil organisms.
- Cultivating up and down the hill exposes the soil to
running water thus easily washed away.
- Adding non biodegradable materials into the soil e.g.
polyethen bags interfere with soil aeration and
drainage.
- Deforestation leaves the soil bare exposing it to agents
of erosion.

Qn7 a) Explain how the small size of the soil particles in a soil
type affects the soil’s suitability for plant growth.
b) Describe an experiment to compare the rate of drainage of two
soil samples.
Solution
a) The small size of particles in soil type affects the soil’s
suitability for plant growth in the following ways;
- The soils are poorly aerated due to the small air
space, so the plants do not get enough oxygen for
respiration which leads to poor plant growth.
- Such soils have very high water holding capacity
which is not favorable for proper plant growth.
- These soils are also poorly drained and thus water
logged especially after rains, thus there is very little
air for plant growth.
- The soils are usually wet and difficult to work on in
the wet season and bake hard, often cracking during
the dry season; such extreme conditions do not
favor plant growth.
- These soils are rich in nutrients like phosphates and
therefore favor plant growth.

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- They have a high capillarity which makes water to

rise quickly to surface where it easily be absorbed
by plant roots.
b) An experiment to compare the rate of Drainage in two soil
samples.
Apparatus/materials
Water, measuring cylinder, 2funnels, cotton wool, beaker,
retort stand.
Procedure:
- Place loose cotton wool in each of the two funnels.
- Measure equal volumes of two soil samples (say A
and B) and pour each of them into a funnel fitted
with cotton wool.
- Measure equal volumes of water and pour to each
soil sample in the funnel at the same time.
- Immediately start timing and note the time it takes
for water stop draining in each soil sample.
- The apparatus is arranged a shown below.
Set up.

The soil sample in which water stops draining first has a

higher drainage rate.

Qn8.Respiration and gaseous exchange

A student carried out an experiment using the apparatus set
up below. In set R, Bean seeds sprinkled with a preservative
were used. In set T, boiled bean seeds without the
preservative were used.
diagram

The temperature in each set was recorded for a week, the

results obtained were recorded in the graph below.

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a) State the aim of the experiment.

b) Using the information provided, explain the changes in
temperature in set R and T.
i) From day 0 to day 5
ii) After day 5
c) Explain why there was no signification change in
temperature in S for the whole week.
d) Suggest one way the above set up could be improved
for better results, Give reason for the suggested
improvement.
e) What other changes would occur in the composition of
air in set up R and T during the experiment.
Solution
a) To show that heat is produced during seed
germination.
b) (i) From day 0 to 5
In set R, there was gradual rise in temperature. This
is because the seeds were germinating, the
germinating seeds respire hence producing heat.
In set T, temperature was almost a constant (no
temperature rise). This is because the embryo was
killed by boiling and even the enzymes were
denatured. For that reason, there was no
germination hence no respiration and no heat was
produced.
(ii) After day 5.
In set R, temperature reduced sharply. This is due to
increased respiration of the micro-organisms which
were decomposing the boiled seeds. The increased
respiration produced much heat, hence
temperature rise.

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c) In set S, as seeds were dead, there was no

germination, hence no respiration, so no heat
generated. Also the preservative killed the micro
organisms (bacteria and fungi) hence no respiration
and no heat was generated.
d) Place the seeds in thermos flask instead of a conical
flask. This is because the thermos flask minimizes
heat loss to the atmosphere and absorption from
the atmosphere.
e) In set R, carbon dioxide concentration in air increase
while that of oxygen decrease, later on oxygen
concentration increases when the seeds carry out
photosynthesis.
In set T, the concentration of carbon dioxide,
water vapor and ammonia would increase while
that of oxygen would decrease
Qn2. GENETICS
In a breeding experiment, when plants with red
flowers were crossed, a total of 898 plants were
produced out of which 325 had white flowers.
(a) What was the recessive character? Give two
reasons.
(b) What was the genotype of the parent?
c) Using suitable symbols, show the expected
phenotypic ratios in the experiment.
(d) Were the observed results in agreement with
thee laws of monohybrid? show your working.
Solution:
a) It is white flowers. This is because white flowers
did not appear in parents phenotypes.
- It only showed up in the parent phenotype.
b) They were heterozygous.

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NB. For any allele chosen in this case, one allele

is dominant and represented by a capital letter
e.g. R and the other one recessive and should
be represented by small letter e.g. r thus R r in
this case would be the genotype.
c) Let R represent the allele (gene) for red flowers
r represent the allele for white flowers.
Parents- phenotype Red flowered plants x
Red flowered plants

RR rr-
white flowers
Rr

Phenotypic ratio Red : white

3 : 1
(c) Total number of offspring =898
White flowers =325, Red flowers 898-325=573
Ratio is 573 Red flowers : 325 red flowers
573: 325
325 325
1.76 : 1
Approximately 2: 1
Therefore this does not agree with the laws of monohybrid
inheritance where the expected phenotypic ratio is 3: 1.
Qn3 [Ecology]
The following organisms live in a national park in Uganda.
Bush rats, Guinea fowls, Hawks, Grass hopper, Uganda kobs and
grass.
a) Show the feeding relationship that exists between these
organisms.
b) What name is given to the feeding relationship in (a) above.
c) Which organisms in the relationship are;

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(i) Primary producers

(ii) Primary consumers
(iii) Secondary consumers
d) Suggest what would happen in the relationship if Uganda
kobs were removed from the park.
Solution
c) It is a food web.
d) (i) Primary producers are the grass.
(ii) Primary consumers are the grass hopper, Guinea fowl,
Uganda kob and Bush rat.
(iv) Secondary consumers are the hawks and the Guinea
fowl.
e) The population of grass would increase, this will lead to an
increase in food available for the bush rat, grass hoppers
and guinea fowl whose population will also increase. The
Hawks will also have enough food leading to an increase in
their population.
However the population increase is not indefinite. This is
because grass will eventually reduce leading to a reduction
in the number of its consumers.

Qn 4. [Nutrition C]
(a) What is a balanced diet?
(b) In what way is the ileum adapted to its functions.
(c) Outline the fate of food after absorption.
Solution
a) A balanced diet is a diet containing all the food
substances in the right proportions. These are proteins,
carbohydrates, fats, vitamins and minerals.
b) The ileum is adapted to its functions in the following
ways:-

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- It has a folded inner surface which increases

the surface area for absorption of digested
food.
- It has villi which cover its walls. These villi
have hair like extensions known as micro
villi. These provide an increased surface
area for absorption.
- The lining of the ileum have a thin
epithelium. This provides a short distance
for digested food to diffuse through.
- The ileum has a rich supply of blood
capillaries and lacteals for easy transport of
absorbed food surfaces.
- It is long and this provides a large surface
area for absorption of digested food.
- It has mucus secreting glands which secrete
mucous to protect its living from digestive
enzymes.
- It has glands which produce intestinal juice
which contains enzymes that complete food
digestion.

c) The absorbed food is glucose, amino acids, fatly

acids and glycerol. Glucose and amino acids pass
into the blood capillaries of the villi which are
continuous with the hepatic portal vein through
which they are transported to the liver. In the liver,
excess glucose is converted to glycogen and stored.
The rest of the glucose is transported by blood to
the body tissues where its used during tissue
respiration to produce energy.

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Amino acids are used to synthesize proteins

while excess amino acids are deaminated in the
liver to give an amino group which is later converted
to urea and excreted through the kidneys. The
remaining group after deamination is converted to
glycogen and stored.
Fatty acids and glycerol are carried in the lymph
vessels and enter blood through the subclavian
veins. The fatty acids and glycerol are used to build
fats. The fats are used to produce energy in the
body, then the excess fats are stored in the body
e.g. in the adipose tissue (below the skin) around
the kidneys, heart, buttocks, abdomen.
Vitamins and mineral salts are stored in the liver
while others are used to make tissue components
e.g. Iron is used to make hemoglobin of the Red
blood cells.

Qn5. [SOIL C]
(a) In what ways is Nitrogen added and removed
from the soil?
(b) Give the importance of organic matter to the
soil.
Solution

(a) Nitrogen is added to soil through the

following ways:-
- By adding nitrogen fertilizers to the soil.
- By the action of free living bacteria in the soil
known as Nitrogen fixing bacteria e.g. azotobacter,
clostridium which convert free atmospheric nitrogen to
nitrates in the soil.

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- By the action of symbiotic bacteria living in root

nodules of leguminous plants. These are the Rhizobium
species which fix free atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates
- Through thunderstorms where lighting combine
nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen oxides which
combine with water to form nitric and nitrous acids
which ionize to give nitrates in the soil.
- Through decomposition of dead plants and
animals by saprophytic bacteria. They convert their
proteins into ammonia, ammonium compounds, carbon
dioxide and water in the soil.
- Through, Excreta of animals when added to the
soil, have got nitrogenous compounds e.g. urea that is
later converted into nitrates.
Nitrogen is removed from the soil in the following
ways:
- By the action of denitrifying bacteria e.g.
thiobacillus denitrificans which convert nitrates to
nitrites then to free nitrogen in the atmosphere.
- Through the leaching of nitrates from the soil.
Here they are made unavailable to the plants. Leaching
is where minerals like nitrates dissolves in soil water and
drain to deeper layers of the soil which leads to loss of
nitrogen.
- Through volcanic activity. Here ammonium
compounds vaporize, losing ammonia gas through vapor
where it escapes from the soil.
- Through absorption by the plant roots and also
when it is fixed by clay soil particles where its not
available by plant use.

(a) Importance of organic matter in the soil.

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- Allows water to percolate (drain) easily since its

spongy. This prevents water logging in the soil.
- It improves the crumb structure of the soil
which in turn allows free aeration in the soil.
- It improves the water holding capacity of the
soil. In that way, it acts as a store for water hence
preventing leaching.
- It insulates the soil against extremes of heat and
cold.
- When its decomposed further, it provides
nitrates, phosphates and salts of the ammonia.
- It improves the soil structure.

Qn 6 [Transport in plants C]
(a) Describe how light, humidity and air movement
affect the rate of transpiration in plants.
(b) Describe an experiment to show that more
transpiration occur in the lower epidermis than the
upper epidermis of a plant leaf.

Solution
(a) Light- Presence of light increases the rate of
transpiration. This is because light causes the opening of
the stomata and provides energy in form of heat for the
evaporation of water. Absence of light causes the
closure of the stomata hence reducing the rate of
transpiration.
(b) Humidity- Transpiration rate is fastest when
humidity is low and is low when humidity is high. Low
humidity provides a high concentration gradient of
water vapor between the surrounding and inside of the
leaf hence leading to increased transpiration while a

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high humidity lowers the concentration gradient hence

low transpiration rates.
Air movements- Transportation rate increases when air
movements are very high. Moving air blows away the
water vapor from the leaf surface very fast increasing
the diffusion gradients
When air movements are low, transpiration rates are
low. This is because most of the transpiration water
accumulates around the leaf surface hence
manufacturing a low diffusion concentration gradient.

An experiment to show that more transpiration occurs

in the lower epidermis than in the upper epidermis of
the leaf
Apparatus /material
Cobalt chloride paper, potted plant with leaves.
Glass slides.
Procedure
Fix pieces of cobalt chloride paper on the upper and
lower surface of a leaf that is still attached to the plant
using two slides.
Then note the time taken for the cobalt chloride paper
to turn pink on each leaf surface.

Observation
The cobalt chloride paper on the lower side of the leaf
turns pink faster than that on the upper surface.
Conclusion
This shows that more transpiration occurs on the lower
side.

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Explanation
Water turns cobalt chloride paper pink. The lower side
of the leaf releases more water vapor is lost through the
lower surface which makes cobalt chloride paper turn
pink faster

Qn 7 [Homoistasim]
(a) Describe how the human body controls
temperature.
(b) What is the importance of having a constant
body temperature?
Solution
The human body controls temperature in the following
ways;
(i) Response to coldness. The changes are detected
by the hypothalamus in the brain and brings about the
following responses,

 Causes the skin to produce less or no sweat a

tall. This minimizes heat loss by evaporation.
 Constriction of superficial blood capillaries
(vasoconstriction). This reduces the amount of blood
flowing in them thus minimizing heat loss.
 Contraction of the erector Pilli muscles which
leads to raising of the hair on the skin. This traps the air
between the hairs which acts as an insulator against
heat loss.
 There is shivering which leads to generation of
more heat to raise body temperature.
 There also increased metabolic rate which
results into production of more heat in the body.

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 There is also general reduction in the volume of

blood in the general circulation by string in the body’s
reservoir e.g. the spleen. This also reduces heat loss.

In response to high temperature;

- There is relaxation of superficial blood
capillaries (vasodilation). This allows more blood to flow
to the sum surface and thus more heat is lost to the
atmosphere.
- Increase in sweating. This results in evaporation
of water whish absorbs with it large quantities of heat
leading to cooling of the body.
- There is relaxation of the erector pilli muscles
results into lowering of the hair on the skin so that they
lie flat on the skin. In this way, no air is trapped between
the hairs leading to reduced insulation hence
encouraging heat loss through convection and radiation.
- There is also lowering of metabolic rate thereby
reducing heat production in the body.
Other behavioral mechanisms include;
- Taking cold drinks
- Moving to the shade
- Bathing cold water
The importance of having constant body
temperature.
 Allows animals to live in a wide range of
environments irrespectively of the prevailing
temperatures
 Allows enzyme controlled reactions to proceed
efficiently at an optimum body temperature.

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 The process allows these animals to have a high

metabolic rate. This enables them to have enough
energy which is used to respond stimuli faster and move
faster to increase their chances of survival.

[Nutrition C]
Qn1 Figure 4(a), (b) and (c) shows the venation of the
rate of photosynthesis under different conditions. Study
the figure and answer the Question that follow

Fig. 4
(a) (i) Describe the shape of curve 1 in figure 4.
(ii)Giving a reason, State why the rate of
photosynthesis in curve 4 (a) remains constant at
some stage.
(b) Giving a reason, state two factors which might be
the cause of constant rate of photosynthesis in fig
4(b).
(c) Describe the shape of the curve in figure 4( C).
(d) (i) From figure (a), (b) and (c ) state factors that
affect the rate of photosynthesis.
(ii)Explain how each of the factors stated in d(i)
affect the rate of photosynthesis.
Solution
31(a)i) The rate of photosynthesis increases rapidly
at first with increase in light intensity, it then
increases slowly and finally becomes a constant.

This is because temperature was how and any

further increase in light intensity would not change
the rate at that temperature and further increase in
temperature increases the rate of photosynthesis.

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The factors are light intensity and

temperature.
(a) The two are limiting factors which are kept a
constant. Even if CO2 concentration is increased the
rate of photosynthesis remains a constant.
(b) The rate of photosynthesis increases with
increase in temperature up to 400C, beyond this
rate of photosynthesis decrease sharply/ rapidly.
(c) i) Light intensity, Carbon dioxide concentration,
Temperature.
(d) ii) Carbon dioxide is a raw material in the
process of photosynthesis, therefore increasing
CO2 concentration increases the rate of photosynthesis.

Temperature. This affects the rate of enzyme

action during photosynthesis. At very low
temperatures, enzymes are inactivated and the
rate is low; the rate increase with increase in
temperature up to 400 C, At temperatures
beyond 400C (optimum) the enzymes are
denatured and the rate of photosynthesis
sharply decreases.
Light- This provides the energy required to split
the water molecules into H+ and -OH ions in the
light stage of photosynthesis. It also affects the
opening of stomata. Therefore the rate of
photosynthesis increases with increase in light
intensity.
Q.2 [Transport]
The table below shows the composition of
blood of three adult individuals. One lives at a

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high altitude; another in anemic and the other

has an infection. It also shows the average
number of each blood component in an adult
human. Study the information in the table and
answer the questions that follow.

Compone Person Person Person Average

nts of A B C no in
blood adult
human
Red blood 7,500,0 5,000,0 2,000,0 5,000,0
cells per 00 00 00 00
mm3
White 6,000 8,000 12,000 5000-
blood 10,000
cells per
mm3
Blood 250,00 255,00 100,00 250,000
platelets 0 0 0
per mm3

(a) Giving a reason, suggest the person,

i) Who lives at high altitudes
ii) Who is anaemic
iii) Who has an infection
(b) Suggest the likely effect of the observed number
of blood platelets in person C.
Solution:
a) i) A; because has more red blood cells than
the average. At high altitude, there is low
partial pressure of oxygen (or oxygen
concentration) which requires more red

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blood cells to carry sufficient oxygen in the

body.
ii) C; because the number of Red blood cells in less
than average.
iii) C; because has more white blood cells than
average. The white blood cells fight the disease
causing organisms in the body. Therefore
infections stimulate the body to produce more
white blood cells.
b) Poor blood clotting because the blood
platelets are fewer than normal.
Qn3. Explain how each of the following
features in mammals affects body
temperature.
a) Size of the animal
b) Hair/fur on the skin
c) Fat under the skin
d) Why is it important to maintain
constant body temperature?
Solution:
(a) An animal with a big size has a small surface
area to volume ratio and thus loses heat slowly
to the environment. An animal with a small size
has a big surface to volume ratio and therefore
loses heat very fast to the surrounding.
(b) Hair/fur on the skin traps air over the skin which
acts as an insulator and thus reduces heat loss
from the body. More hair means more
insulation and less hair means less insulation
and faster heat loss.
(c) Fat is a poor conductor of heat and therefore
insulates the body against heat loss. More fat

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means more insulation and slow heat loss and

less fat means less insulation and thus faster
heat loss.

[Reproduction]
Qn4. Using examples, describe how new plants are formed
by a sexual reproduction.
Solution
Ways by which new plants are formed by a sexual
reproduction are;
o By rhizomes. These produce buds that develop into new
plants e.g Ginger
o By suckers e.g. in banana, pineapple and sisal
o Through spores produced from sporangium e.g. in
Moses and ferns
o Sisal and wild yams have structures known as bulbils
that develop into new plants
o The runners produce terminal buds that develop into
new plants e.g star grass
o Irish potatoes and yams have stem tubers that produce
buds that develop into new plants.
o Bulbs produce buds that develop into new plants e.g.
onions
o Corns produce buds that develop into new plants e.g.
coco yams.
o Some stems e.g in Boungainvillea have buds that
develop into new plants.
o Some leaves have buds that later develop into new
plants e.g. bryophylum
o Mangoes have stems that are grafted to develop into
new plants.

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o By use of stem cuttings e.g. in sugarcane and cassava.

These develop buds that later develop into new plant.
o Sweet potato roots and leaves develop into new plant.

Qn5. Soil.
Describe an experiment to determine the percentage of air
in a soil sample.
Solution
An experiment to determine the percentage of air in a soil
sample
Apparatus
Soil sample – Beaker, water, measuring cylinder, glass rod
Procedure
Measure a given volume of soil sample and record it eg
acm3.
Measure a certain volume of water eg bcm 3 and record it.
Add the soil to the water in a measuring cylinder or beaker.
Stir the mixture using a glass rod until no more air bubbles
are seen.
Read of the volume of the soil in the measuring cylinder eg
C cm3.
The volume of air would be determined by the following
calculation.
+ Volume of soil + Volume of water before mixing =
(a+b)cm3
+ Volume of the mixture after string Ccm3.

+ Volume of air = (a+b)- c x100%

A

[Respiration C]
Qn6 (a) describe inhalation and exhalation in a
body fish.

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(c) How is the respiratory surface in fish adapted

for its function?
Solution
a) During inhalation.
The floor of the mouth is lowered; volume
of the mouth cavity increases; pressure in
the mouth cavity decreases; the operculum
closes; mouth opens and water enters
through the mouth into the mouth cavity.
During Exhalation
The mouth closes; the floor of the mouth is
raised then the volume of the mouth cavity
is decreased, its pressure increases forcing
water over the gills, the operculum opens
and finally water flows out.
b) This is by having the following;
Numerous gill filaments to increase the
surface area over which gaseous exchange
occurs

Each filament is supplied with a dense network of

blood capillaries for efficient transport of gases
(maintains a steep diffusion gradient)
Thin walls to reduce the distance across
which the gases diffuse
The filaments are subdivided into lamellae
to increase surface area for gaseous exchange.

[Homeostasis]
Qn 7.(a) Describe how the amount of water
in the body is regulated.

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a) How does the human body restore

a low level of glucose in the blood to normal levels
Solution
(a) When there little water in blood
(low water potential) the hypothalamus stimulates
the pituitary gland to produce more ADH/
Vasopressin, which cause more water to be absorbed
into blood by the kidney nephron leading to
production of little concentrated urine and thus
restores water levels to normal.
When there is much water in blood, less
ADH is secreted which causes less water to be
reabsorbed in the kidney nephron leading to
production of large Quantities of dilute urine. This
restores the water levels to normal.
(b) Glucagon is secreted by the
pancreases. Glucagon causes the
conversion of glycogen in the liver
to glucose. Also it stimulates the
conversion of fate and amino acids
into glucose. Both of these actions
increase the level of glucose in
blood.

[Temperature Regulation/Homeostasis]
Qn 8. Figure 5 shows four flasks A, B, C, and D each filled with hot
water at 700c and left to cool. Flask A is insulated with dry cotton
wool, flask B with wet cotton wool, flask D is not insulated. The
flasks represent mammalian bodies.
Fig 5
The table below shows the temperature in each flask in figure5
recorded at 10 minutes interval for 30 minutes.

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Flask Temperature (oc) at 10 minutes

intervals
A 70 66 62 60
B 70 50 38 30
C 70 60 53 48
D 70 53 40 38

Study the information and answer the question that follow

(a) For each flask, draw a graph to show the changes in
temperature with time. Use the same X and Y axes for all the
graphs.
(b) Calculate the average rate of cooling in each flask.
(c) Explain the rate of cooling in
i) Flask A
ii) Flask B
iii) Flask C
iv) Flask D
(d) From the information, state two factors that affect the rate of
cooling from a body.
Solution
8.(a) Graph paper.

(b) A = 70-60 = 10 0.330c per minute

30 30

B = 70-30 = 40 =1.330 per minute

30 30

C = 70-48 = 22 = 0.730c per minute

30 30

D = 70-38 = 32 =1.660c per minute

30 30

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(c ) i) Flask A
Cools very slowly (cools slowest) because it is insulated with dry
cotton wool which minimizes heat loss. Cotton wool is a poor
conductor of heat
iii) Flask B
Cools faster because water in the cotton wool absorbs heat in
order to evaporate and therefore heat is lost in such a way.

iv) Flask C
Cools faster than flask A because it is not
insulated at all therefore heat loss is easier.
v) Flask D
Cools faster because it has a big surface area to
volume ratio which encourages faster heat loss
(e) The factors that affect the rate of cooling are
Insulation on the body
Size of the body (surface area to volume ratio)

Qn 9 Figure6 is experimental set up to investigate the process in

plants

Diagram
(a) Name the process being investigated.
(b) Explain why?
i) The bell jar was covered with black polythene paper.
ii) Part of the plant was covered with polythene paper.
iii) Soda lime was used in the experiment.
(c ) State what would be observed in flask A and B at
the end of the investigation.
i) Flask A
ii) Flask B
iii) Explain the results stated in C (i) and C (ii)
(c) i) State what would be observed in flask A and B if the set
up was placed in a dark room.

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ii) Explain your answer in d(i)

Solution
(a) Respiration in plants.
(b) (i) To exclude sunlight such that photosynthesis is
prevented from taking place.
ii) To prevent carbon dioxide produced by the soil micro organisms from
interfering with the experiment.
iv) To absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere that would
interfere with the experiment.
(c )i) Lime water remains clear (remains colorless)
ii) Lime water turns milky
iv) In flask A, the soda lime removed all the carbon dioxide from
the incoming air.

In flask B, the plant respired and produced CO2 which reacted with
lime water forming a white precipitate.
c) i) Flask A- Lime water remains clear
Flask B- Lime water turns milky.
ii)In flask A, removed all carbon dioxide from the incoming air.

In flask B, the plant respired and produced CO2 which reacted with
lime water forming a white precipitate.
Qn10
(a) State the organ in the human body that secretes insulin
hormone.
(b) Explain why a person suffering from diabetes.
i) has to be given regular doses of insulin.
ii) has to eat more frequently
(c ) Glucose and not sucrose is recommended to be given to an
athlete after a race, explain this observation.
Solution
(a) Pancreas

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(b) i) Insulin – promotes the conversion of excess glucose into

glycogen.
It also facilitates the oxidation of glucose by muscles/ increases
the uptake of glucose by muscles.
It also enables the lowering of glucose in the body.
10(b) ii) A person suffering from diabetes does not store
glycogen and lose glucose in urine. So more frequent eating
ensures continued supply of carbohydrates (e.g. Glucose) for
energy production.
(c ) Glucose is a simple sugar (monosaccharide) which is readily
absorbed and oxidized to release the required energy while
sucrose is complex sugar (disaccharide) which must be digested
before being absorbed, then oxidized to release energy.

[Reproduction C]
11.(a) With the help of the diagrams, describe sexual
reproduction in Rhizopus.
(b)Outline different ways in which fungi are important.
Solution
(a) A sexual reproduction in Rhizopus
Hyphase of the different streins adjacent to each other grow
(or bend) towards each other.
The tips swell and touch each other.
The cross walls form at the base of the swellings enclosing
several nuclei in the swollen tips.
The walls touching each other dissolves and allow nuclei of
the positive and negative strains to fuse in pairs forming a
zygole.
Then thick outer walls from around the zygole to form a
zygospore which germinates

(b) Importance of fungi is :-

A source of food e.g. mushrooms

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Provides medicine
- It decomposes (improve) soil fertility
- It is causative agent to diseases e.g. ring worms
- It is used to raise dough in bread making
- It is used in scientific research
- It spoils food, clothes and leather
- It forms mycorhizzas which improve soil fertility
- It is used in fermentation to form alcohol
locomotion
Qn.(a) Describe the structure of the different types of
skeletons in animals giving an example in each case.
(b)Explain how the vertebral column in mammals is adapted
to its functions.

Solution
(a) The different types of skeletons in animals are;
- Hydrostatic skeleton.
- Endo skeleton.
- Exoskeleton.
- Hydrostatic skeleton has a fluid filled cavity
surrounded by muscles that are attached to the
skin. E.g. in the earth worms.
Endoskeleton is a frame work of bone and cartilages
jointed by ligaments and surrounded by muscles. Bones
are joined to muscles by tendons e.g. in vertebrates.
Exoskeleton- is made up of cuticle composed of chitin.
The muscles are attached onto the inside of tendons
e.g. in arthropods.
(b) The vertebral column is adapted in the following ways:-
Having a neural arch, which protects the spinal cord
from mechanical injury?
Having a strong centrum. This provides support for the
upper body.

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Having neural spines and transverse processes that

provide for muscle attachment
Its jointed which enables flexibility during movement
Have intervertebraterial discs that act as shock
absorbers.
Have bone marrow that produce red blood cells
Presence of neural canal for passage of the spinal cord
Presence of facets for articulation with the ribs

[Respiration for Gaseous exchange]

13(a) Explain how the action of muscles causes carbon
dioxide to pass from the lungs into the atmosphere.
(b)How does oxygen move from the air in the alveoli
into the body tissue?
(c )How are respiratory surfaces adapted to their
functions?
Solution
(a) External intercostals muscles relax, internal
intercostals muscles contrast, the ribcage moves
downward and inward and the diaphragm muscles
relax. The diaphragm becomes dome shaped, the
volume of the lungs decrease/lung shrink. Air
pressure inside increase and air rich in carbon
dioxide is forced out of the lungs into the trachea,
pharynx, and the nostrils and finally out into the
atmosphere.
(b) Oxygen is at a higher concentration in the alveolar
air than in the capillaries, it dissolves and diffuses
into the capillaries due to the concentration
gradient, and then it diffuses into the red blood cells
and combines with the haemoglobin to form
oxyhaemoglobin. Oxyhaemoglobin is transported in

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the blood from the lungs capillaries through the

pulmonary vein to the left atrium, left ventricles,
the aorta and capillaries of the body tissues where
oxygen is at a lower concentration. This causes the
breakdown of oxyhaemoglobin into oxygen and
haemoglobin.
Oxygen diffuses out of the red blood cells and
enters the body cells by diffusion.

(c ) Are highly folded (branched). This provides a

wide or large surface area which ensures maximum contact with
air (or water).
Have thin membranes. This reduces the diffusion distance.
Have moist livings. These allow dissolution of gases hence
allowing gases to diffuse in solution form.
Have a dense capillary network for transportation of respiratory
gases.
Are well ventilated which maintains steep diffusion gradient.
Are permeable which allows efficient diffusion.
Qn 14 [Transport ]
(a)Describe two ways in which the white blood cells defend the
body.
(b) Explain how red blood cells are adapted to their functions.
(c )Describe the changes that occur in an individual’s blood if the
person moves from a lowland and goes to live on a highland,
explain your answer.
Solution
By engulfing (phagocytosis) the invading bacteria or feeding on
the invading bacteria.
Producing antibodies which attack and destroy the pathogens
(b)They contain haemoglobin which combines with oxygen. This is
possible because haemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen.

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They lack nucleus. This leaves room for carrying more oxygen.
They have a biconcave shape. This increases their surface are for
absorbing oxygen.
They have a thin cell membrane this allows for faster diffusion of
gases.
They have the enzyme carbonic anhydrase which enables them to
transport carbon dioxide.
They are numerous. This increase the amount of oxygen and
carbon dioxide carried by them
They are flexible. This means they can squeeze through tinny
capillaries.
(c )There will be an increase in the red blood cell count. This is
because there is a lower oxygen partial pressure at a higher
altitude than at a lower altitude. In order to meet the respiratory
needs the body produces more red blood cells so as to absorb as
much oxygen as possible.

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