PART 1

Questions 1-10.
You will hear ten utterances. Match the utterances of each speaker (1-10) with the
statements below (A-L). Use each letter once only.
Note: There are TWO statements which you do not need to use.
# SPEAKERS STATEMENTS
Q1. Speaker 1 A) I lose my cool when I am delayed

Q2. Speaker 2 B) I scarified my social life to get my ideal job

Q3. Speaker 3 C) Going to work was more fun than stressful

Q4. Speaker 4 D) My mum inspired my choice of future career

Q5. Speaker 5 E) I use my skills to help others find employment

Q6. Speaker 6 F) I don’t care about making lots of money

Q7. Speaker 7 G) Having a job taught me valuable life lessons

Q8. Speaker 8 H) I put my image before my enjoyment.

Q9. Speaker 9 I) My parents give me career advice

J) I am very restless person.

Q10. Speaker 10
K) I am not trendy or outgoing enough.

L) I am far too gullible because of my background.

PART 2
Questions 11-16. Listen to the nurse who is reporting the patient's progress to the
doctor on call.
For questions 11-16, decide if the following statements agree with the information
from the conversation.
If the statement is True, mark A,
If the statement is False, mark B.
Q11. Andrew was at a basketball A) True B) False
competition
Q12. Hannah knows one of the contestants A) True B) False
Q13. Only Madeleine’s parents knew A) True B) False
about the show
Q14. The audience were not interested in A) True B) False
ballet
Q15. Hannah will meet Madeleine at the A) True B) False
horse-riding club
Q16. Andrew will watch the show on the A) True B) False
Internet

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 PART 3
Questions 17-22.

You will hear an interview.

For questions 17-22, choose the best answer, A, B, or C

Q17. Dr. Wood

A) works for a science organization
B) has been studying space since she was 15
C) has solved a mystery about space

Q18. Dr. Wood became interested in science because

A) her parents encouraged her
B) she dreamt about the moon at night
C) she learned about astrophysics at school
Q19. What does Dr. Wood say causes gravitational waves?
A) The movement of the Earth
B) The light from sun
C) Objects hitting each other
Q20. Why is Dr. Wood excited about the discovery?
A) They can be used safety instead of X-rays.
B) We can use them to see space in new ways.
C) She hadn’t guessed that they existed.

Q21. What will Dr. Wood do next?

A) Work on new technology to see gravitational waves.
B) Publish pictures of gravitational waves.
C) Find more examples of gravitational waves

Q22. Dr. Wood says her friends

A) are all scientists like her
B) enjoy talking to her about work
C) are bored of hearing about space.

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 PART 4

Questions 23-30. You will hear a dialogue.

For questions 23-30, choose the best answer, A, B, or C.

Q23. Along with history, which subject did Martina like best before going to university?
A) Art B)English C)Science

Q24. What is George finding the most difficult at university currently?

A) progressing math B) finishing assignments before deadlines C) going to seminars

Q25. The course George is studying is mainly …. .

A) practical B) modern C) theoretical

Q26. George wishes there would be fewer ….. .

A) lectures B) seminars C) subjects

Q27. Martina thinks the students at her university are ….. .

A) sociable B)intelligent C) energetic

Q28. George hopes that his tutor will help him …

A) lose his shyness B) settle into university C) get to know his subject better.

Q29. What does Martina know about her first assignment?

A) the topic B) the length C) the deadline

Q30. George would like to live

A) in a hall of residence
B) in a flat on his own
C) with host family

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 SUB-TEST2: READING

The Reading Sub-Test consists of FOUR parts:

Part 1:Questions 1-5
Part 2:Questions 6-12
Part 3:Questions 13-20
Part 4:Questions 21-30
Each question caries ONE mark.
Total time allowed: 1 hour 10minutes.
You may write on the question paper if you wish, but you must transfer your answers
to the Answer Sheet with in the time limit. No extra time is allowed to do so.

Part 1
You are going to read different short texts.
For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer (A,B or C) according to the text.

Q1. Which of following people can find the job in add the most suitable?

A) a person with two small children who wants a few hours a week of unskilled work in the early
morning
B) a person with no experience or qualifications who is looking for short term full-time job, Monday to
Friday
C) a lively student with no experience, who cannot work on weekdays
Q2. Which of following people can find the job in add the most suitable?

A) a person with more than 20 year’s experience in catering who would like to run a business
B) a catering college graduate who is now looking for his first fulltime job
C) a person with many years’ experience working in hotels who is now looking for well-paid part-time
employment in a hotel.
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Q3.What does the text on label mean?

Q4. Why is the YES button highlighted?

A) to prove that the SPORT POD is up to date

B) to prove that the Web site has many features
C) to encourage users to join the Web site
D) to remind users that they can find out about their favourite players

Q5. What is the main purpose of the Web page?

A) to persuade people to join the SPORT POD

B) to encourage users to write about sports

C) to teach users how to be better players

D) to pay tribute to great players and teams

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 Part 2
Read an article about an English city and answer the questions 6 to 12.
Norwich, the capital of the part of Britain known as East Anglia, has existed as a place to live for more
than two thousand years. It began as a small village beside the River Wensum. At the time of the
Norman invasion in 1066 it had grown to become one of the largest towns in England.
With two cathedrals and a mosque, Norwich has long been a popular center for various religions. The
first cathedral was built m 1095 and has recently celebrated its 900th anniversary, while Norwich itself
had a year of celebration in 1994 to mark the 800th anniversary of the city receiving a Royal Charter.
This allowed it to be called a city and to govern itself independently.
Today, in comparison with places like London or Manchester, Norwich is quite small, with a population
of around 150,000, but in the 16th century Norwich was the second city of England. It continued to
grow for the next 300 years and got richer and richer, becoming famous for having as many churches as
there are weeks in the year and as many pubs as there are days in the year.
Nowadays, there are far fewer churches and pubs, but in 1964 the University of East Anglia was built in
Norwich. With its fast- growing student population and its success as a modern commercial center
(Norwich is the biggest center for insurance services outside London),the city now has wide choice of
entertainment: theatres, cinemas, nightclubs, busy cafes, excellent restaurants, and a number of arts and
leisure centers. There is also a football team, whose colors are green and yellow. The team is known as
‘The Canaries’, though nobody can be sure why.
Now the city’s attractions include another important development, a modern shopping center called The
Castle Mall’. The people of Norwich lived with a very large hole in the middle of their city for over two
years, as builders dug up the main car park. Lorries moved nearly a million tons of earth so that the roof
of the Mall could become a city center park, with attractive water pools and hundreds of trees. But the
local people are really pleased that the old open market remains, right in the heart of the city and next to
the new development. Both areas continue to do good business, proving that Norwich has managed to
mix the best of the old and the new.

For questions 6-12, decide if the statement is TRUE, FALSE or NOT GIVEN.
If the statement is True, mark A;
If the statement is False, mark B;
If the statement is Not Given in the text, mark C on your answer sheet.

Q6. The River Wensum flows through East A) True B) False C) Not given
Anglia
Q7. People have lived by the River Wensum A) True B) False C) Not given
for at least 2000 years
Q8. In the 11th century, Norwich was a small A) True B) False C) Not given
village
Q9. Norwich has been a city since its first A) True B) False C) Not given
cathedral was built.
Q10. Norwich has always been one of the A) True B) False C) Not given
smallest English cities.
Q11. There are more than 50 churches in A) True B) False C) Not given
Norwich.
Q12. The Castle Mall’ took more than two A) True B) False C) Not given
years to build.

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 Part 3

Questions 13-20 are based on the following text.

The fur fashion industry is in poor health. The campaigns that started in the 1980s have had their effect
and in the US alone the number of fur farms fell by over 50% from 1987 to 1997. In a move that is
bound to be a waste of effort, the fur industry has tried to rebuild by using the slogan ‘fur is back'.
However, a loss of profits and an uncertain future mean that there are far fewer people working in the
fur industry today. The number of manufacturers in the US has fallen from 797 in 1972 to fewer than
200.This trend will continue. We still need to be careful, though. Many people who would never
consider buying fur are doing so without knowing it.
Clothes designers are aware of the bad image fur has with many people. Some of them have taken the
sensible decision not to work with fur. Those that still encourage this cruel trade are forced to find ways
to disguise fur. Coats are often trimmed to make the fur feel like other materials. It's dyed bright orange
or powder blue to hide its origins. Perhaps the most common trick is to use a small amount of fur around
the edges of coats, hoping that the customer won’t realize that animals have died to make their clothes.
As the fur farming industry faces problems, so docs the fur trapping industry. Governments have been
rather slow to introduce effective laws, but the situation Is not looking good for fur trappers. The most
popular trap is the leghold trap. Around ninety countries have banned these traps and over twenty
countries, mostly in Africa, have banned trapping altogether. The use of these shocking devices is
falling but there is more that we can do to persuade governments to act. Letter-writing campaigns can
still help. Demonstrations still take place around the world against this evil trade.
These actions do produce results. In Sweden, for example, the government agreed to pass a law saying
that foxes cannot be kept in cages and that all foxes kept for fur must be allowed to dig. The extra cost
will mean that most fur farms in Sweden will go bankrupt. In Switzerland, too. the law makes this old-
fashioned industry impossible. There, all animals must be given enough space to behave naturally. If
only more countries would follow this lead, a lot of suffering would be prevented.
The number of animals suffering around the world for the fur trade has fallen by about twenty-seven
million over the last decade. The people working against the industry can be proud of what they have
achieved. Employment in this area of the economy has fallen to only about 600 workers. Many of them
are looking for other jobs. Most of them realize that their industry has no future. Some of them have
taken the brave decision to leave because they recognize the cruelty around them.
The increase in sales of furs in the US does not mean that ‘fur is back’. At a time when the rest of the
economy is growing quickly, sales of fur grew by a tiny 1.6% last year. This figure, even if it is correct,
is a clear sign that people are moving away from fur. Thankfully, the industry is dying around the world.

Q13. The fur production factories in America halved in number because …… .

A) there was anti actions since 1980s.
B) 50% reduction in fur provision.
C) the lack of money
D) animals’ poor health
Q14. Some customers still purchase fur items although
A) designers tell them the clothes are made of fur.
B) it is too expensive.
C) they actually do not want to buy.
D) manufacturers warn them

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Q15. The writer thinks the fur industry is
A) never going to recover.
В) trying harder than ever.
С) becoming more trendy.
D) getting more careless.
Q16. The writer thinks that designers have to
A) make logical choices about their designs.
В) fool people if they want to sell fur.
С) use other materials that took like fur.
D) use little fur because it's expensive.
Q17. What is meant by 'these shocking devices’ in line 36?
A) laws against trapping
В) forms of protest
С) leghold traps
D) fur trappers
Q18. The industry will suffer in Sweden because companies will have to
A) have more space.
В) buy more cages.
С) increase prices.
D) keep more foxes.
Q19. The writer admires people who leave their job when they
A) can no longer survive in the industry.
В) see that profits are likely to fall.
С) are offered other employment.
D) realise the suffering they cause.
Q20. What is the writer’s attitude to the 1.6% growth in the fur industry?
A) it is a worrying statistics
B) it happened too slowly
C) it may be a lie.
D) it shows the need for action.

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 Part 4
You are going to read a newspaper article about an unpleasant experience. Choose the most
suitable heading from the list A-H for each part (21-28) of the article. There is an extra heading
that you do not need to use. There are also three multiple choice tests about the test at the end.
A) A trick – will it fail?
B) An unexpected narrow escape
C) Two approaches to public use of office
D) The best way to find shelter from the rain.
E) An Englishman’s home is his castle
F) A sudden obstacle
G) Possible short-cut?
H) One problem made worse by another.

Q21__
I was caught out the other day in a Manchester downpour (a much rarer event than is generally
supposed, as the Met Office figures will readily confirm). Troubles never coming singly, the street down
which I was hurrying to my appointment turned out to be blocked by some vast sewer reconstruction
scheme. It looked as though I had no alternative but to retrace my steps and make a long detour. And I
was getting wetter by the minute.
Q22__
But suddenly salvation seemed at hand in the shape of a large office building that loomed up on my
right hand side. Glancing through what was clearly a rear entrance, I could see across a wide lobby and
the front entrance to the street on the far side - the very street I was trying to get to. There was
something to be said for these new “prestige” office developments after all.
Q23__
But not much. Completely blocking my path as I stepped through the swing doors into the lobby was a
wide desk and behind it a middle-aged woman with a steely expression. “Can I help you, sir?” she said
in a voice which suggested that that was the very last thing on her mind and that she knew very well
what I was up to because I was the fiftieth person to use her lobby as a rat run that morning.
Q24__
Now I may have been completely wrong in crediting her with such prescience but what followed
suggests otherwise. “I have an appointment with Mr Henderson”, I lied. “I think he’s on the first floor.”
I waved my hand in the direction of the staircase and started off towards it. “Just a minute. I don’t think
we have a Mr Henderson.” Without removing her eyes from my face for a second she picked up a house
phone. “I’ll ask Personnel,” she said.
Q25__
I was saved by the bell - the one on the phone on an adjoining desk. Putting down her own, she leaned
over to answer it. Her eagle eye was off me and I was off towards the stairs and then to the door beyond
and out into the street and the Manchester rain.

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Q26__
Let me be the first to say that that was a pretty silly way for a grown-up man to behave and it reflects no
credit on me at all. But neither does it reflect any credit on those who administer ordinary commercial
office buildings as though they housed both MI5 and 6 with the crown jewels lodged temporarily in the
basement. In America such places are generally regarded as being in the public domain, with newspaper
stands and snack bars. It may be hard on the flooring but most owners consider this easily outweighed
by the good that accrues to the corporate image.
Q27__
Here in Britain, I suppose, it’s just the “Get off my land” attitude transferred from a rural to an urban
setting. But it’s sad to see this atavistic approach surviving even against its practitioner’s own interests.

Q28. The woman at the lobby ____________

A) was happy to see author
B) did not believe in author’s words
C) wanted Personnel help her to meet with Mr. Henderson
D) called Mr. Henderson form first floor

Q29. What stopped the conversation between the author and woman
A) Personnel
B) Mr. Henderson
C) rain
D) telephone

Q30. America is mentioned here to__

A) show difference in attitude to using public place.
B) give an example how it conditions are bad in public places
C) prove snacks to be more popular.
D) show company image is higher than that of Britain

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 SUB TEST 3: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR COMPETENCE

The Lexical and Grammar Competence test consists of THREE parts:

Part 1:Questions 1-10;
Part 2:Questions 11-20;
Part 3:Questions 21-30;
Each question carries ONE mark.
Total time allowed: 30 minutes.
You may write on the question paper if you wish, but you must transfer your
answers to the Answer Sheet within the time limit. No extra time is allowed to do so.

PART 1
Question 1-10
Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question,
mark the correct letter А, В, С or D on your answer sheet

Melissa dropped into a chair in front of her manager’s desk. “I don’t know how people
with kids can do this job”, the 25-year-old radio advertising sales rep said. Her boss,
Laurie Thompson, Q1. … such self-doubt before. Her six salespeople often propped
into her office to give vent to their Q2. … about a tough day of cold-catching.
Laurie nodded. She didn’t have children, Q3. … herself instead to a sales career, cycling,
sailing and spending time with her husband.
“I don’t think I’ll never have kids, Q4. … that would really disappoint my parents,”
Melissa said. “Why? Because you are the only child?” Laurie asked. Melissa explained
her parents would be disappointed because they Q5. … for grandkids. Then she added,
almost as an afterthought, “I was adopted.”
From the time she was tiny, Melissa knew that she was adopted. Her new parents were
always open with their daughter about Q6. … she came from. Along the way, Melissa
grew Q7. … to questions from people who had learnt she was adopted. So she wasn’t at
all Q8. … about answering her boss that afternoon.
“Have you ever had a desire to meet your real parents?” Laurie asked.
“Not really,” Melissa said. “It’s not that I don’t want to. It’s just that I haven’t got around
to it. And I don’t feel like I’m missing anything. My parents are wonderful.”
Melissa laughed and was about Q9. … when Laurie asked her another question.
“When were you born?”
“April 14, 1981.” Then, feeling she’d taken Q10. … enough of her boss’s time, Melissa
said goodbye and headed home

Q1. A) hear B) has heard C) heard D) had heard

Q2. A) happiness B) joy C) frustration D) tears
Q3. A) preparing B) concentrating C) involving D) devoting
Q4. A) therefore B) despite C) however D) although
Q5. A) wanted B) needed C) desired D) longed
Q6. A) which B) who C) where D) whom
Q7. A) accustomed B) annoyed C) anxious D) ashamed
Q8. A) conscious B) embarrassed C) interested D) reluctant
Q9. A) leave B) leaving C) to live D) left
Q10 A) over B) on C) up D) in

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 PART 2

Questions 11-20
In the following text, each line (11-20) has three underlined words or phrases
marked A, B, or C. Find the word or the phrase which has a mistake and must be
changed in order for the sentence to be correct. If there is no mistake in the line,
choose D (no mistake).

E.g: It can be really(A) struggle trying(B) to learn a(C)new D - no mistake

B language.
Q11. It has often been(A) said that the secret(B) of good D - no mistake
comedy is timing(C).

Q12. As(A) a comedian myself(B), I know that is not true. D - no mistake

The(C)secret

Q13. of good comedy is to(A) be funny! I was told (B) that a D - no mistake
joke the other(C)

Q14. day about a man whose his (A) dog has no (B)nose. When D - no mistake
asked (C)how

Q15. it smells(A), the man replies (B)‘Terrible!’. The problem D - no mistake

here (C)is

Q16. that, despite of(A) the joke having(B) a fairly(C) clever D - no mistake
punch line,

Q17. no one (A)finds it a (B)funny. However(C) good your D - no mistake

timing is, you

Q18. can’t make out (A) people laugh at that(B) joke. I get my D - no mistake
friends to(C)

Q19. tell to (A) me jokes all the time. If I’ve(B) never heard D - no mistake
them(B) before,

Q20. and if(A)they make me laugh it(B) out loud, I might(C) D - no mistake
consider using them in my comedy act.

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 PART 3

For Questions 21-30, read the text below and choose which answer A, B, C or D best
fits each space.

SAMUEL PEPYS

The most famous diary in English was written by Samuel Pepys. It gives a detailed and
interesting Q21. … of everyday life in England Q22. … 1660 and 1690. Pepys writes
about important news stories of the time, like disease, an enemy navy Q23. … up the
River Thames and the Great Fire of London.
He also writes about himself, even about his Q24. … he often slept during church or
Q25. … at the pretty girls. He describes his home life – a Q26. … with his wife and how
they became friends again, his worry about her illness. As well as books, he liked music,
the theatre, card Q27. … and parties with good food and Q28. … of fun. Pepys was a
busy man who had many important Q29. … he was a Member of Parliament and
President of the Royal Society. He is also Q30. … for his work for the British Navy

Q21. A) description B) letter C) notice D) story

Q22. A) between B) from C) through D) to

Q23. A) driving B) flying C) running D) sailing

Q24. A) accidents B) plans C) dreams D) faults

Q25. A) looked B) prayed C) talked D) thought

Q26. A) conversation B) discussion C) quarrel D) talk

Q27. A) battles B) games C) matches D) plays

Q28. A) amount B) plenty C) much D) some

Q29. A) acts B) hobbies C) jobs D) studies

Q30 A) reviewed B) remembered C) reminded D) reported

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 PAPER 4: WRITING

The Writing Sub test consists of TWO tasks:

Task 1 carries TEN marks.
Task 2 carries TWENTY marks.
Total time allowed: 45 minutes.
Write your answers on the separate Answers Sheets provided.
You may use the question booklet for your drafts.

TASK 1

Next week your class will be taken to swimming competition but you don’t still
know how to swim. But you are too embarrassed to tell the classmates that you can’t
swim. Write to your English speaking friend asking:

 What he advices you to do

 If it is difficult to learn how to swim

 How many lessons you need

Write 60-80 words on your answer sheet.

You can use this page for any rough work

TASK 2

My autobiography. My life

Topic: Analyze your life and the most important of its moments.

Questions:

 Discuss the most important episodes of your life.

 What choices were the most important in your life?

 What does an autobiography help to understand about your life?

Write a narrative essay in about 120-140 words on your answer sheet.

You can use this page for any rough work.

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CREATED BY YUSUF MIRJONOV

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