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1) Even in the absence of sperm, metabolic activity in an egg can

be artificially activated by _____.
A) abnormally high levels of carbonic acid in the cytosol
B) abnormally low levels of extracellular oxygen Answer: C
C) injection of calcium ions into the cytosol
D) depletion of its ATP supplies

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2) The formation of the fertilization envelope requires an increase

in the availability of _____. A) calcium ions
B) hydrogen ions
C) potassium ions Answer: A
D) sodium ions

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3) Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm

causes the egg to undergo a brief _____.
A) mitosis
B) membrane depolarization Answer: B
C) vitellogenesis
D) acrosomal reaction

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4) The plasma membrane of the sea urchin egg _____.

A) is outside of the fertilization membrane
B) releases calcium, which initiates the cortical reaction
C) has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal
proteins
Answer: C
D) is a mesh of proteins crossing through the cytosol of the egg

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5) Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like _____.

A) placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the
engine

B) resting during halftime of a basketball game

Answer: A
C) preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven
D) walking to the cafeteria and eating lunch

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6) A reproductive difference between sea urchins and humans is _____.
A) the sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis
in humans is completed after fertilization
B) sea urchin eggs and sperm are of equal size, but human eggs are much
bigger than human sperm
C) sea urchins, but not humans, have a need to block polyspermy, because Answer: A
only in sea urchins can there be more than one source of sperm to fertilize
the eggs
D) sea urchin zygotes get their mitochondria from the sperm, but human
zygotes get their mitochondria from the egg

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7) During fertilization, the acrosomal contents _____.

A) block polyspermy
B) help propel more sperm toward the egg
C) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg Answer: C
D) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm

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8) In a newly fertilized egg, the vitelline layer _____.

A) lifts away from the egg and hardens to form a fertilization
envelope

B) secretes hormones that enhance steroidogenesis by the ovary

Answer: A
C) reduces the loss of water from the egg and prevents desiccation
D) provides most of the nutrients used by the zygote

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9) In sea urchins, the "fast block" and the longer lasting "slow
block" to polyspermy, respectively, are _____.
A) the acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white
B) the cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein
Answer: D
C) the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane

D) membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction

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10) In an egg cell treated with a chemical that binds calcium and
magnesium ions, the _____. A) acrosomal reaction would be
blocked
B) fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked
C) fast block to polyspermy would not occur
Answer: D
D) fertilization envelope would not be formed

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11) In mammalian eggs, the receptors for sperm are found in the
_____.

A) fertilization membrane
B) egg plasma membrane Answer: B
C) cytosol of the egg

D) mitochondria of the egg

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12) A human blastomere is _____.

A) an embryonic cell that is smaller than the ovum
B) an embryonic structure that includes a fluid-filled cavity

C) that part of the acrosome that opens the egg's membrane

Answer: A
D) a cell that contains a (degenerating) second polar body

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13) At the moment of sperm penetration, human eggs _____.

A) have used flagellar propulsion to move from the ovary to the
oviduct

B) are still located within the ovary

C) have a paper-thin cell of calcium carbonate that prevents
Answer: D
desiccation

D) are still surrounded by follicular cells

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14) In a developing frog embryo, most of the yolk is _____.

A) located near the animal pole

B) located near the vegetal pole
C) found within the cleavage furrow
Answer: B
D) distributed equally throughout the embryo

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15) Among these choices, the largest cell involved in frog

reproduction is _____.

A) an egg
B) a blastomere in the vegetal pole Answer: A
C) a blastomere in the animal pole

D) one of the products of the first cleavage

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16) The pattern of embryonic development in which only the cells

lacking yolk subsequently undergo cleavage is called _____.
A) holoblastic development, which is typical of marsupial
mammals
B) meroblastic development, which is typical of humans Answer: D
C) holoblastic development, which is typical of amphibians

D) meroblastic development, which is typical of birds

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17) As cleavage continues during frog development, the size of the

blastomeres _____. A) increases as the number of the blastomeres
decreases
B) increases as the number of the blastomeres increases
C) decreases as the number of the blastomeres increases
Answer: C
D) decreases as the number of the blastomeres decreases

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18) The vegetal pole of a frog zygote differs from the animal pole
in that _____.

A) the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk

B) the blastomeres originate only in the vegetal pole Answer: A
C) the vegetal pole cells undergo mitosis, but not cytokinesis

D) the polar bodies bud from this region

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19) Meroblastic cleavage occurs in _____.

A) sea urchins, but not in humans or birds
B) humans, but not in sea urchins or birds
C) birds, but not in sea urchins or humans
Answer: C
D) both sea urchins and birds, but not in humans

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20) Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of

developmental milestones?

A) blastula → gastrula → cleavage

B) cleavage → gastrula → blastula Answer: C
C) cleavage → blastula → gastrula

D) gastrula → blastula → cleavage

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21) The first cavity formed during frog
development is the _____.

A) blastopore
B) mouth Answer: C
C) blastocoel

D) anus

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22) In some rare salamander species, all individuals are females.
Reproduction relies on those females having access to sperm from
males of another species. However, the resulting embryos receive
no genetic contribution from the males. In this case, the sperm
appear to be used only for _____.
Answer: B
A) morphogenesis
B) egg activation
C) cell differentiation
D) the creation of a diploid cell

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23) The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in

_____.

A) the formation of a fertilization envelope

B) the production of a fast block to polyspermy Answer: A
C) the release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm

D) the generation of an electrical impulse by the egg

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24) The structure of the Drosophila gene, called Tinman, is similar

to a gene in humans that also _____.
A) promotes ear development
B) specifies the location of the heart Answer: B
C) determines structures in the eyes
D) specifies limb elongation points

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25) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development
proceeds in which of the following sequences?
A) first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal
reaction → cortical reaction

B) cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal

reaction → first cell division Answer: D
C) cortical reaction → acrosomal reaction → first cell division →
synthesis of embryo's DNA begins

D) acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA

begins → first cell division

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26) An embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extraembryonic

membranes, and a primitive streak must be that of _____.
A) an insect
B) an amphibian Answer: C
C) a bird
D) a sea urchin

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27) Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three

germ-tissue layers during _____.
A) determination
B) cleavage Answer: D
C) induction
D) gastrulation

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28) The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-

gastrulation vertebrate embryo is _____.
A) endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm
B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm Answer: C
C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm
D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm

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29) If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then

_____.

A) cleavage would not occur in the zygote

B) embryonic germ layers would not form
C) the blastula would not be formed
Answer: B
D) the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal
pole

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30) The archenteron of the developing sea urchin eventually

develops into the _____.

A) blastocoel
B) heart and lungs Answer: C
C) digestive tract

D) brain and spinal cord

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31) In a frog embryo, gastrulation _____.

A) produces a blastocoel displaced into the animal hemisphere
B) occurs along the primitive streak in the animal hemisphere
C) proceeds by involution as cells roll over the lip of the blastopore Answer: C
D) occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large
amount of yolk

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32) Which of the following is a correct description of the fate of

the germ layers?

A) The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.

B) The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles. Answer: A
C) The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.

D) The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.

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33) The primitive streak in a bird is the functional equivalent of

_____.

A) the lip of the blastopore in the frog

B) the archenteron in a frog Answer: A
C) the notochord in a mammal

D) neural crest cells in a mammal

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34) In all vertebrate animals, development requires _____.

A) a large supply of yolk

B) an aqueous environment
C) extraembryonic membranes
Answer: B
D) a primitive streak

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35) The least amount of yolk would be found in
the egg of a _____.

A) bird
B) frog Answer: C
C) eutherian mammal

D) reptile

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36) At the time of implantation, the human
embryo is called a _____.

A) blastocyst
B) gastrula Answer: A
C) fetus

D) zygote

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37) Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the

endometrium is initiated by the _____.
A) inner cell mass
B) endoderm Answer: D
C) mesoderm
D) trophoblast

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38) Thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative in pregnancy,
was used in the early 1960s by many women in their first trimester
of pregnancy. Some of these women gave birth to children with
arm and leg deformities, suggesting that the drug most likely
influenced _____.
A) early cleavage divisions Answer: C
B) differentiation of bone tissue

C) morphogenesis
D) organogenesis

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39) The migratory neural crest cells _____.

A) form most of the central nervous system
B) form the spinal cord in the frog
C) form a variety of neural and non-neural structures Answer: C
D) form the lining of the lungs and of the digestive tract

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40) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early

development proceeds in which of the following sequences?
A) gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage
B) cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis Answer: B
C) gastrulation → blastulation → neurulation
D) preformation → morphogenesis → neurulation

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41) Changes in cell position occur extensively during _____.

A) organogenesis, but not during gastrulation or cleavage

B) cleavage, but not during gastrulation or organogenesis
C) gastrulation and cleavage
Answer: D
D) gastrulation

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42) Changes in the shape of a cell usually involve a reorganization

of the _____.

A) nucleus
B) cytoskeleton Answer: B
C) extracellular matrix

D) transport proteins

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43) When we compare animal development to plant development,
we find that _____.

A) plant cells, but not animal cells, migrate during morphogenesis

B) animal cells, but not plant cells, migrate during morphogenesis
C) plant cells and animal cells migrate extensively during Answer: B
morphogenesis

D) neither plant cells nor animal cells migrate during

morphogenesis

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44) Select the choice that correctly associates the organ with its
embryonic sources.

A) anterior pituitary gland — mesoderm and endoderm

B) thyroid gland — mesoderm and ectoderm Answer: C
C) adrenal gland — ectoderm and mesoderm

D) skin — endoderm and mesoderm

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45) The embryonic precursor to the human
spinal cord is the _____.

A) notochord
B) neural tube Answer: B
C) mesoderm

D) archenteron

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46) During metamorphosis, a tadpoles tail is reduced in size by the

process of _____.

A) regeneration
B) apoptosis Answer: B
C) oxidative phosphorylation

D) re-differentiation

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47) The term applied to a morphogenetic process whereby cells

extend themselves, making the mass of the cells narrower and
wider, is _____.
A) convergent extension
B) induction Answer: A
C) elongational streaming
D) bi-axial elongation

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48) Which of the following is common to the development of birds

and mammals?

A) the formation of an embryonic epiblast and hypoblast

B) the formation of an embryonic trophoblast Answer: A
C) the formation of an embryonic yolk plug

D) the formation of an embryonic gray crescent

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49) The archenteron of a frog develops into the _____.

A) blastocoel
B) endoderm
C) placenta
Answer: D
D) lumen of the digestive tract

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50) What structural adaptation in chickens allows them to lay their

eggs in arid environments rather than in water?
A) amnion
B) yolk Answer: A
C) gastrulation
D) development of the brain from ectoderm

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51) If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage
plane fails to divide the gray crescent, then _____.
A) the daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die
B) both daughter cells will develop normally, because amphibians
are totipotent at this stage
Answer: C
C) only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop
normally

D) both daughter cells will develop abnormally

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52) Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the

organizer in amphibian embryos while studying the _____.
A) medial cells between the optic cups
B) anterior terminus of the notochord Answer: D
C) lateral margins of the neural tube
D) dorsal lip of the blastopore

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53) Which of the following is an adult organism that has fewer

than 1,000 cells?

A) chickens, Gallus domesticus

B) African clawed frogs, Xenopus laevis Answer: D
C) fruit flies, Drosophila melanogaster

D) nematodes, Caenorhabditis elegans

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54) The developmental precursors to the gonadal tissues of

Caenorhabditis elegans uniquely contain _____.
A) proteins of maternal origin
B) high concentrations of potassium ions
Answer: D
C) T tubules for the propagation of action potentials

D) P granules of mRNA and protein

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55) Two primary factors in shaping the polarity of the body axes in
chick embryos are _____.

A) light and temperature

B) salt gradients and membrane potentials Answer: C
C) gravity and pH

D) moisture and mucus

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56) The arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic

places in 3-D space defines _____.
A) pattern formation
B) differentiation Answer: A
C) determination
D) organogenesis

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57) If the apical ectodermal ridge is surgically removed from an

embryo, it will lose _____.

A) positional information for limb-bud pattern formation

B) guidance signals needed for correct gastrulation Answer: A
C) unequal cytokinesis of blastomeres

D) the developmental substrate for the kidneys

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58) The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans _____.

A) is composed of about 1000 cells, in which the developmental
origin of each cell has been mapped
B) has only a single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced
C) has about 1000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced
Answer: A
D) uniquely, among animals, utilizes programmed cell death during
normal development

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59) In humans, identical twins are possible because _____.

A) cytoplasmic determinants are distributed unevenly in
unfertilized eggs

B) extraembryonic cells interact with the zygote nucleus

Answer: C
C) early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if isolated
D) the gray crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new cells

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60) Cells transplanted from the neural tube of a frog embryo to the
ventral part of another embryo develop into nervous system tissues.
This result indicates that the transplanted cells were _____.
A) totipotent
B) determined
Answer: B
C) differentiated
D) mesenchymal

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61) Embryonic induction, the influence of one group of cells on another
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group of cells, plays a critical role in embryonic development. In 1924,
Hans Spemann and Hilde Mangold transplanted a piece of tissue that
influences the formation of the notochord and neural tube, from the dorsal
lip of an amphibian embryo to the ventral side of another amphibian
embryo. If embryonic induction occurred, which of the following
observations justifies the claim of embryonic induction?
A) The transplanted tissue induced multiple limbs to develop on the
Answer: D
ventral side of the recipient embryo.
B) The transplanted tissue inhibited normal cell division on the dorsal side
of the recipient embryo that lead to its death.
C) The transplanted tissue had no effect on either the ventral or dorsal side
of the recipient embryo so it continued to develop normally.
D) Th t l t d ti i d d th f ti f d t h d

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