1.

Occlusal reduction on a PFM full crown should be

a. 1 mm
b. b. 1.5 to 2 mm
c. as much reduction as possible for strength
d. none of the above

7. The buccal porcelain margin of a PFM preparation should be

a. one mm above the tissue
b. one mm below the tissue
c. at the tissue level after a 0 cord has been placed
d. 1 mm above the tissue after 1 0 cord is placed

8. In preparing the abutments for a posterior FPD

a. the anterior abutment should be prepared first
b. the posterior abutment should be prepared first
c. it makes no difference which abutment is prepared first
d. none of the above

9. The decision to do crown lengthening on a tooth

a. can be made from a X-Ray
b. can be made based on the probing depths
c. can be made based on the length of the clinical crown
d. all of the above

10. A cast post and core should be used on

a. only on anterior teeth
b. only on teeth with short roots
c. only on teeth with long roots
d. none of the above

1. The minimum length of a cast post should be:

2:1 crown-root ratio
8 mm
1:2 crown-root ratio
6 mm
1:1 crown-root ratio
3.

Axial grooves and boxes are placed to:

2
a. Increase retention
b. Increase surface area
c. Improve resistance to displacement
d. A & B
e. A & C
f. A, B & C

5. DNA ¾ crown preparation, an occlusal offset

a. Allows for improved esthe tics
b. Provides a staple effect
c. Is not necessary
d. A & B

6. In developing the optimal line of draw for a fixed partial denture,

consideration must be given
a. to the smaller abutment’s alignment
b. to the arch alignment, including the teeth adjacent to the fiexed PD
abutments
c. to the opposing arch
d. to the interproximal contacts of the tteth adjacent to the FPD
abutments
e. A, B & C
f. A, B & D
g. A, B, C & D

7. The purpose of a post is to

a. support and strengthen the remaining tooth structure
b. provide retention for a coping or build up
c. A & B

8. To maximize retention, the following is not true:

a. axial walls must be at least 2 mm long
b. grooves and boxes should be placed aligned with the line of draw
c. occlusal countersinks may be used
d. shorter teeth must be prepared more parallel than longer teeth

9. Isolation is required except for:

a. shade selection
b. PVS impressions
c. cementation and 2ndPO4 cement
3
d. axial reduction
e. A & D
f. A, B & D

10. A post and build up is required if there are:

a. 3 walls remaining
b. 2 walls remaining
c. 1 wall remaining
d. all the above
e. B & C

1. The retention of a dowel and core is determined by:

a. Length of the dowel.
b. Parallelism.
c. Placement of an antirotational feature.
d. A & C.
e. All of the Above.

2. While retracting tissue, yo u are experiencing difficulty with one of the

proximals. You can:
a. Change the diameter of the 2nd cord.
b. Pack the tissue with a piece of cotton impregnated with Hemodent.
c. Use the Electrosurgery unit.
d. Use a curettage diamond and then apply Viscostat.
e. Any of the above.

3. When getting ready to take an impression you must isolate the tissue well
in order to:
a. Obtain an uncontaminated impression.
b. To maximize the effect of Hemodent.
c. To find and make a correction of the preparation.
d. A & B
e. All of the above.

4. Your patient recently had a C1I composite placed on #30. She is now
sensitive to pressure and temperature at times. The cause may be:
a. Hyperocclusion.
b. Marginal leakage.
c. Due to the “C” factor.
d. A & B
e. All of the above.
4

5. You cemented a CVC and the patient cannot tolerate cold since that visit.
Your course of treatment is:
a. Check the occlusion.
b. Advise the patient that a RCT is probably going to have to be initiated.
c. Advise the patient that symptoms will most likely diminish and resolve
completely in approximately 4 to 6 weeks.
d. B & D

6. Patient presents with an existing MOD amalgam on #18. The restoration

was place approximately 6 months ago. It is acutely sensitive to pressure
and temperature, mostly cold. Radiographs are negative and you can
elicit pain with a bite stick, but not with any consistency. You will now:
a. Remove the existing restoration and place an IRM.
b. Remove the restoration and replace it with a composite.
c. Reduce the occlusion and advise the patient to call back if the symptoms
persist or increase in severity.
d. Initiate a CVC preparation and place a provisional. Advise the pateient
you will contact them then 2 to 3 days.

7. Upon removing an existing PFM on tooth #31 you find that the retention is
compromised due to occlusal over-reduction, a short distal wall and an
overtapered facial wall. The tooth is not amenable to crown lengthening
and the patient connot afford a RCT. You can attempt to gain additional
retention by:
a. Placing two grooves on the facial.
b. Place a groove on the mesial.
c. Placing two grooves on the lingual.
d. Placing a groove (or two) on the lingual and one on the mesial.

8. You remove an existing crown and an underlying MO amalgam. You

decide that a build up is not necessary. You continue the restoration and:
a. Refill the defect with spherical amalgam.
b. Place a GI base, being careful to dry the tooth well prior to placement.
c. Do nothing and you will fill the defect with the luting cement.

9. A patient presents with a luxated central incisor which was caused by an

accident 4 days ago while on vacation. Your restorative operations, in
order of preference, are:
a. 1 - An implant.
b. 4 - A stayplate.
5
c. 3 - Using the coronal portion of the tooth and bonding it to the adjacent
teeth with composite.
d. 2 - A Maryland bride.
e. 5 - A fixed partial denture.

10. Patient presents with a large disastema between #8 and 9 and has always
wanted something done about it. The best thing to do is:
a. Advise orthodontic.
b. Use a Hawley to diminish the space, then restore with compsite.
c. Present a diagnostic wax-up and then discuss options.
d. Close the space with veneers, either two or four.
e. Close the space with composite and incrementally remove some of the
restorations until the patient is pleased with the result.

6. When designing PFM preparations for a 3 unit bridge, it is necessary to

utilize the full length of the preps to the tissue whether or not “esthetics” is
an issue?
a. True
b. False

7. What are indications for a “soldalens joint?”

a. short teeth
b. long teeth
c. “angled” or “tripped” teeth
d. rotated teeth
e. none of the above

8. What is the purpose for “waxing” a design of anterior PFM preparations

mounted on an articulator?
a. to aid the laboratory in fabrication of the restorations
b. to have patient approval of shape and size and what can and cannot be
altered
c. to check occlusal scheme
d. to maintain your waxing skills!
e. All of the above

9. What is the importance of examining radiographs of root forms.

a. to assess length and diameter of roots and to help distribute occlusal
loads
b. to determine proximity of adjacent teeth
c. to assess root shapes
6
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

10. When presenting a complex restorative treatment plan with a patient,

which is the least important part of the presentation appointment?
a. mounted “before” models and radiographs and “waxed” up models of
proposed finished case
b. discussion with patient as to their financial ability to assume treatment
plan presented
c. showing patient photographs of completed cases you have treated
d. discussion with patient regarding various modalities of treatment and their
pros and cons
e. discussion with patient regarding time frame of treatment and their
responsibility for keeping appointments

1. Which factors are true when designing for preparation of a 3 unit fixed
bridge?
a. Determine which tooth to use as a “quck angle” for draw?
b. Where to place grooves if the teeth are short?
c. Build of tooth may determine preparation design.
d. All of the above

2. A “proximal ½ crown” is useful when the bicuspid (as the anterior

abutment for a fixed bridge) is “tripped” mesially?
a. True
b. False

3. “Outline” form for a Cl V amalgam preparation utilized the “extension for

prevention” rule.

4. When designing a ¾ crown, which factors determine placement of

grooves?
a. bulk tooth
b. length of tooth
c. anticipated load
d. angulation of tooth
e. all of the above

1. It is usually easiest to start retraction cord at the area of the transitional

angle or the interproximal area because:
a. The sulcus is usually wider in these areas
b. The tissue is usually bulkier in these areas
7
c. Initial bleeding occurs in these areas
d. It is more difficult to obtain good impression in these areas

3. The interproximal contacts for a provisional should meet all the criteria
below except:
a. Be properly contoured to prevent food impaction.
b. Be in visual contact with the adjacent teeth
c. Slide the thickness of one mylar
d. Allow for flossing by the patient

4. Tooth #19 has been prepared for a DO cast inlay. The pulpal axial wall of
the preparation has been built up with a glass ionomer base. Upon
removal of the acrylic temporary at the cementation appointment, the base
has been loosened. You should:
a. Try in the casting to see if the retention has been compromised
b. Try to bond the base back into place and then seat the casting to see if
the fit has been compromised
c. Place a new base and take new impressions because the casting has
been compromised
d. Place a new base and then try in the casting to see if the retention has
been compromised

5. All of the following are reasons to extend a crown preparation subginivally

except:
a. Increase retention
b. Inclusion of defects
c. Margin placement for esthetics
d. Decrease preparation taper
e. All of the above

6. You are about to cement a porcelain crown on #19. Prior to removing the
temporary, you notice that the occlusal of the temporary is thin. Which of
the following might you consider:
a. The prep is underreduced
b. The patient is a heavy bruxer
c. The opposing cusps are sharp
d. You have to remake the crown
e. All of the above

7. Tooth #9 has had root canal therapy and you have used the patient’s
existing crown as a temporary after you added a temporary post. You just
cemented a new cast post and took final impressions. What is your first
option for the temporary?
a. Make an indirect provisional
b. Use the existing crown after the temporary post has been removed
c. Make a direct provisional
d. Use a pre-fabricated anterior acrylic shell and reline it.

9. Tooth #14 is sensitive. Which of the following is not indicative of root canal
pain?
a. Sensitivity to heat
b. Sensitivity to cold
c. Sensitivity to biting
d. Pain in the ear
e. All of the above

10. Tooth #30 is sensitive to chewing forces. Which of the following can
possibly be radiographically diagnosed as a cause of the pain?
a. Endodontic lesion
b. Crack tooth syndrome
c. Bruxism
d. A and B
e. All of the above

1. In diagnosing dental caries, the estimated mean time for progression

through the tooth enamel is:
A. 3-6 months
B. 6 months-1 year
C. 2-3 years
D. 3-4 years
E. 4-5 years

2. Pit and fissure sealants should be placed if the patient is at risk for caries
based on an evaluation of:
A. pit and fissure morphology
B. eruption status
C. caries pattern
D. patient’s perception/desire for sealant
E. all of the above

3. The cavity preparation in operative dentistry is determined by the

___________ properties of the ___________ material.
9
A. chemical, dental
B. physical, dental
C. chemical, restorative
D. physical, restorative
E. ratio, restorative

4. In Dr. G.V. Black’s classification of cavity preparations, a pit or fissure

cavity on the lingual surface of tooth number 7 is classified as a Class IV.
F

5. Caries in occlusal surfaces and on proximal surfaces display an identical

pattern.
F

6. Class V cavity preparations involve the cusp tips of posterior teeth or

along the biting edges of the incisors. F

7. The junction of the pulpal and occlusal walls in a Class I amalgam

preparation is referred to as the occluso-pulpal line angle. T

8. Permanent molars are at the greatest risk for pit and fissure caries and
therefore are the most logical recipient of preventive sealants. T

9. Three walls of a cavity preparation meet to form a:

A. line axis
B. point axis
C. margin
D. point angle
E. line angle

10. Class V cavities on teeth involve:

A. only the occlusal surface
B. the occlusal surface and at least one proximal surface
C. the proximal surface of anterior teeth
D. the incisal edge of anterior teeth
E. the gingival third of all teeth

11. Class IV cavities are always found:

A. in the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth
B. in the proximal surfaces of posterior teeth
C. in the cusp tips of posterior teeth
D. in the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth that also involve the incisal angle
E. in the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth
10

12. Cavities on the incisal edges or the cusp tips of teeth are:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class VI

13. At the dentino-enamel junction in Class I caries, the caries:

A. is more widespread in dentin than enamel
B. is less widespread in dentin than enamel
C. is the same extent in dentin and enamel
D. does not usually spread from enamel into dentin
E. is only found in dentin

14. The contacting surface of a maxillary anterior tooth in a typical Class I

occlusion is the ___________ surface.
A. mesial
B. distal
C. facial
D. lingual
E. occlusal

1. The outline form of a class III composite is influenced by all of the

following except:
a. decay
b. decalcification
c. existing restoration
d. proper seperation from the adjacent tooth

2. List the following in the proper sequence in restoring a classIII composite

resoration:
a. rubber dam isolation
b. tooth prepration
c. shade selection
d. bonding and finishing of the restoration
1. a ,b, c,d
2. c, b,a.d
3. b,c,a,d
4. c,a,b,d

3. All of the following are indications for splinting teeth except:

11
1. minimizing mobility
2. increasing support for FPDs
3. increasing retention of short teeth
4. all of the above

5. All the following are indications for placing subgingival margins for a PFM
restorations except:
1. increase retention
2. enhance esthetics
3. restore cervical lesions
4. minimize gingival irritation from the restoration

6. The only indication for placing a post in an endodontically treated molar

is:
1. to increase retention
2. to provide a more permanent seal of the root canal procedure
3. to strengthen the remaining tooth
4. to retain the dowl and /or build up material

7. The ideal minimal occlusal reduction for a maxillary molar that is being
prepared for a PFM restoration with a lingual metal collar and porclain
occlusion is:
1. 1.5mm across
2. 1.5 mm buccal cusps and 2mm lingual cusps
3. 2mm buccal cusps and 1.5 mm lingual cusps
4. 2mm across

8. List the following in the proper order as it apllies to the retention of a cast
restoration:
a. cementing medium
b. taper
c. lenghth
d. grooves and box forms
e. adjacent contacts
1. e,d,b,a,c
2. c,b,d,a,e
4. d,b,c,a,e
5. b,c,d,a,e

9. In augmenting retention for an indirect cast restoration the grooves should

be placed at:
1. 90 degrees to the longest axial wall
2. opposite the shortest axial wall
12
3. In the shortest axial wall
4. 90 degrees to the shortest axial wall

10. In a posterior tooth needing a cast gold restoration all the following are
indications for cuspal protection except:
1. The istmus of a restoration is greater than one half of the occlusal table
2. The tooth is endodontically treated
3. The tooth has cuspal fractures
4. The patient has a severe bruxism habit

1. Which of the following preparations would have the least

retention/resistance, assuming the length of the walls are the same
for all preparations?
A. MOD onlay
B. 3/4 crown
C. 7/8 crown
D. CVC
E. All are equal.

2. Clinically gingival extensions for a cast restoration may be determined by:

a. Desired contours of the final restoration.
b. .65 mm. from the base of the gingival sulcus.
c. Root sensitivity.
d. The crest of the gingival tissue.
e. Periodontal considerations.
A) a,b,c B) a,c,e C) a,c,d D) a,c,d,e E) a,b,c,e

3. It is recommended to use ______ to measure the optimal axial reduction

for a CVC preparation at the gingival shoulder.
A. #10 instrument
B. #15 instrument
C. diameter of the end of the 702.8 diamond
D. periodontal probe
E. 6 1/2- 2 1/2-9 hoe

4. A maxillary second bicuspid requires a 3/4 crown preparation. The

tooth is in crossbite (the buccal cusp occludes in the central pit of the
lower first molar). How many planes of lingual reduction are required?
13
A. Three planes
B. Two planes
C. One plane
D. No reduction is needed.

5. Over tapered preparations can result in:

a. Increased retention and resistance form.
b. Pulpal Inflammation.
c. Decreased retention and resistance form.
d. Preparations with greater surface area.
e. Thermal hypersensitivity.
A) a,b,e B) b,c,e C) c,d,e D) b,c E) c

6. The path of insertion for a posterior full or partial veneer crown is usually
___________ to the long axis of the tooth
A. Mesial
B. Lingual
C. Distal
D. Parallel
E. Buccal

7. Resistance is the ability of the preparation to prevent dislodgment of the

restoration by forces directed in a(an) _________ direction.
a. Apical
b. Parallel
c. Oblique
d. Horizontal
e. Occlusal
A) a,b,e B) a,c,d C) e D) a,c,e E) All of the above

8. Which of the following are possible reasons for preparing subgingival

margins?
a. To be 2.0 mm from the base of the sulcus
b. Caries
c. Retention
d. Esthetics
e. Improved marginal fit
A) a,b,c B) b,c,d C) a,b,d D) b,c,e E) all of the above

1. Which of the following preparations would have the most

retention/resistance, assuming the length of the walls are the same
for all preparations?
A. MOD onlay
B. 3/4 crown
C. 7/8 crown
D. CVC
E. All are equal.

2. Clinically, gingival extensions for a cast restoration may be determined by:

a. Desired contours of the final restoration.
b. .65 mm from the crest of the gingival tissue
c. Root sensitivity.
d. Caries
e. Maintenance of pulpal health
A) all of the above B) a,c,e C) a,c,d D) a,c,d,e E) a,b,c,d

3. The optimal axial reduction for a gold CVC preparation when measured at
the gingival shoulder is?
A. Dependent on the axial depth of caries at the gingival extension.
B. The width of a 6 1/2- 2 1/2-9 hoe
C. Dependent on the width of the gingival bevel
D. The width of a 10-4-8 hoe
E. The diameter of the 701 diamond

4. Which of the following statements describes a properly placed

mesial buccal flare for a MOD onlay casting preparation?
a. The flare should be the same width from the gingival to the
occlusal.
b. The flare terminates at a right angle to the surface of the tooth.
c. The flare is directed approximately toward the midpoint of the
lingual axial surface of the tooth.
d. The flare should be flat and smooth.
e. The flare increases in width from the gingival to the occlusal.
A) a,c,d B) a,b,d C) b,c,e D) b,d,e E) c,d,e

5. The definition of the term retention as it applies to the casting preparation

is?
A. The force necessary to pull off a cemented restoration along its
path of insertion.
B. The force necessary to pull off a non-cemented restoration along its
path of insertion.
C. The ability to prevent dislodgment of a cemented restoration by
forces directed in an apical, oblique, or horizontal direction.
D. The ability to prevent dislodgment of a non-cemented restoration by
forces directed in an apical, oblique, or horizontal direction.
E. None of the above.

6. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding

retention/resistance of a cast restoration?
a. Degree of taper is more important than grooves.
b. First plane length is more important than surface roughness.
c. A wide preparation has greater retention than a narrower one of
equal height.
d. A long, narrow preparation can have a greater taper than a short
and wide preparation without jeopardizing resistance.
A. a,b B. a C. a,b,c D. b,c,d E. all of the above

7. A patient needs a 3/4 crown on a maxillary first bicuspid. The tooth has
extruded 2 mm. The treatment plan is to restore the tooth into
proper alignment with the adjacent teeth. How much reduction of
the buccal cusp needs to be done prior to the placement of the buccal
occlusal bevel?
A. No reduction
B. .5 mm
C. 1 mm
D. 2.5 mm
E. none of the above

8. A patient presents with a tooth requiring a CVC restoration. The tooth has
a large DO amalgam restoration which terminates 1 mm occlusal to
the crest of the alveolar bone. Which of the following statements are
true concerning this situation?
a. The tooth should have crown lengthening to reestablish the proper
"Biologic Width".
b. The margin of the preparation should terminate slightly apical to the
amalgam restoration
16
c. The margin of the preparation should terminate in the amalgam at
least 2 mm occlusal to the crest of the alveolar bone so as not to
interfere with the "Biologic Width".
d. A chamfer finish line configuration should be used in this situation.
A. a B. c C. a,b D. a,b,d E. c,d

10. You are doing a minimal DO amalgam restoration for a patient. Upon
completion of the pulpal wall and the buccal and lingual proximal
extension at the level of the pulpal wall you find that the caries has
been eliminated. The preparation is still in contact with the adjacent
tooth. How much farther gingivally should you extend the axial wall of
the preparation?
A. none
B. Until you have .25 mm of separation from the adjacent tooth.
C. 1 mm
D. 2 mm
E. It depends on the height of the gingival tissue.
11. The following are steps from the handout "Cast Restorations - Adjusting,
Polishing & Finishing Techniques". What is the correct sequence
for finishing the gold restoration?
a. Evaluate the margins on the patients tooth.
b. Adjust the occlusion on the articulator.
c. Finish the margins on the die.
d. Adjust the proximal contact areas in the patients mouth.
e. Adjust the occlusion in the patients mouth.
f. Polish of the occlusal and axial surfaces.
A) c,f,b,d,a,e B) c,b,f,d,a,e C) c,f,b,a,d,e D) f,b,c,a,d,e E)
f,c,b,b,d,e,a

12. Which of the following statements are true concerning the finishing of gold
margins?
a. A dull instrument should be used to burnish the margins.
b. Polish margins with a Burlew wheel with light pressure.
c. Use fine cuttle discs to smooth and finish margins.
d. The red line will be removed when finishing the margins with the
disc.
e. The margin should not be polished with the Robinson brush as it
may remove to much gold making the casting submarginal.
17
A) a,b,c,e B) a,c,e C) a,c D) c,d,e E) c,e

14. A provisional restoration may be made by the direct or indirect method.

The advantages of a provisional restoration made by the indirect
method include:
A. better marginal fit.
B. increased strength.
C. better biocompatibility.
D. A & B
E. A, B & C

16. The indications for a subgingival margin include which of the following:
a. Caries which extends subgingivally.
b. Esthetics
c. Need to increase the axial length of the preparation for retention.
d. Cemental hypersensitivity
e. Better chance for good periodontal response.
A) a,b,c B) a,c C) b,c,d,e D) a,b,c,d E) all of the above

17. A CVC casting is made for a maxillary second molar. When tried in the
patients mouth it does not seat onto the tooth completely, appears
to rock, and all the margins are open. Which of the following could
cause this problem.
a. Poor internal adaptation.
b. Failure to use tray adhesive.
c. An internal nodule.
d. Excessive thickness of die spacer
e. Tight interproximal contacts.
A) c,e B) a,b,c,e C) b,c,e D) b,c,d,e E) all of the above

18. The following are steps in the preparation of an MOD onlay. What is the
proper preparation sequence?
a. Extend occlusal to the proximal
b. Debridement
c. Gingival bevel placement
d. Proximal box form extension
e. Removal of caries which extends pulpal or axial deeper than
minimal
f. occlusal reduction
g. Proximal flare placement
18
A) a,d,f,c,g,e,b B) d,a,f,g,c,e,b C) a,d,f,g,c,b,e D) a,d,e,f,c,g,b E)
a,f,d,c,g,e,b

MCQ:
• Copal varnish is contraindicated under:
a. amalgam restoration b. resin composite restoration
c. cast gold inlay cemented with zinc phosphate cement
d. all of the above

• During manipulation of zinc phosphate cement, the following should be done to dissipate the heat from its exothermic
setting reaction:
a. use a wet glass slab b. use wide area of spatulation
c. use proper powder/liquid ratio d. all of the above

• The zinc phosphate cement is mixed over a cool glass slab in order to:
a. Decrease its setting expansion b. decrease the setting time
c. increase the working time d. all of the above

• The base which is contraindicated under composite resin restorations is

a. calcium hydroxide b. zinc oxide and eugenol
c. glass ionomer d. none of the above

Complete

• The ……………………………….cement has an anticariogenic property through releasing ………………………..

• The use of varnish under amalgam restoration aims at:
…………………………………………………………………………………and…………………………………………………………………………

• Zinc phosphate cement is used as a base to protect the pulp against ………………………. and ……………………… irritation.

• To promote adhesion of glass ionomer cement base, the cavity preparation should first be
……………………………………………………

• The types of base materials that could be placed under an amalgam restoration:
a)………………………………………..
d)…………………………….

b)………………………………………………
e)…………………………..

• Requirements of an ideal base material:

a)…………………………………..
d)………………………………………….

b)…………………………………

c)………………………………….
e)…………………………………………..

f) ………………………………………….

• State true or false and justify your answer:

• Zinc oxide and eugenol cement could be used as a temporary filling and as a base. ()
• Varnishes are thin coatings applied to protect against thermal stimuli()
• Glass ionomer cement can be used as a cavity liner and as a base. ( )
• Cavity varnishes can be applied under glass ionomer restoration to retard ion migration into the dentin ()
• The zinc oxide and eugenol base is indicated under composite resin restorations.( )
• A cavity Varnish is contra-indicated under amalgam restorations. ( )

Chapter 8:
Complete:

• ……………………are used for trituration of amalgam capsules, while …………………... are used for accurate ……………of the
alloy and for trituration.
• ----------------------occurs in zinc containing amalgam restoration due to the formation of H2 bubbles as a result of moisture
contamination.
• Overtrituration will lead to -------------------------------------------------------------------While undertrituration will lead to --------
-------------------------------------------------------
• From the objectives of Condensation of amalgam are:
1. …………………………..............................................................................................
2. ………………………………………………………………………………………..
• Dental amalgam is …………………………………………………………….
While amalgam alloy is ………………………………………………………………
• Advantages of dental amalgam:
a)…………………………………….. e)…………………………………….
b)……………………………………………… f)…………………………………..
c)………………………………………………
• Disadvantages of dental amalgam:
a)……………………………………………….. d)………………………………….
b)……………………………………………… e)…………………………………
c)……………………………………………… f)…………………………………
• Indications of dental amalgam:
a)……………………………………………….. b)…………………………………
c) ……………………………………………………………………………
• The objectives of finishing and polishing of dental amalgam are:
a)……………………………………… c)……………………………………
b)…………………………………… d) ………………………………………
• The objectives of carving of dental amalgam:
a)………………………………… c)…………………………………………
b)……………………………… d)………………………………………………..
Choose the correct answers:
• post-carving burnishing is done to
a. improve the marginal seal b. reduce surface micoporosities
c. smoothen the surface and reduce polishing time d. all of the above

• ………….is the process of forcible packing of the fresh amalgam mix into the details of cavity preparations
a. Condensation
b. mulling
c. squeezing
d. burnishing
• -------------- is the process of mixing together of Hg and alloy particles to produce a coherent plastic and homogenous
mass of amalgam
a. Condensation b. mulling c. squeezing
b. Burnishing e. trituration
• The advantage of gallium amalgam is
a. improved corrosion resistance b. better marginal integrity
c. elimination of mercury d. all of the above
• Finishing and polishing of amalgam
1. Increase its corrosion resistance.
2. Minimize gingival irritation.
3. Eliminate surface discontinuities.
4. All of the above
• Moisture contamination of zinc containing amalgam will lead to:
a. post operative pain b. delayed expansion
c. blistering d. all of the above
• Amalgam can be carved in any direction except:
a. from the restoration to the tooth structure
b. from tooth structure to the restoration
c. Resting on both tooth structure and restoration
d. None of the above
• For restoring pulp capped teeth it is recommended to use:
a. Lathe cut alloys b. Spherical alloys c. Zinc free alloys
d. High copper alloys e. All of the above
• Under triturated amalgam will be
a. high setting expansion b. weak c. with rough and corrodible surface
d. all of the above e. only b and c are correct
• The main disadvantage of amalgam is
a. brittleness
b. high expansion
c. increased leakage with time
d. low compressive strength