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Computer Network Basics Questions & Answers -

Sanfoundry
“Basics – 1”.

1. The IETF standards documents are called

a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Request For Comments.

2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
View Answer

Answer: A
Explanation: Every layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous layer.

3. The structure or format of data is called

a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: A
Explanation: The structure and format of data are defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a particular pattern to
be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation.

4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission

a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Data flows in single direction.
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5. The first Network

a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: ARPANET – Advanced Research Projects Agency Networks was the first network to be implemented
which used the TCP/IP protocol.

6. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels

a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Message travel from sender to receiver via a medium using a protocol.

7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal Communications Commission. FCC is responsible for regulating all
interstate communications originating or terminating in USA.

8. Which of this is not a network edge device?

a) PC
b) Smartphone’s
c) Servers
d) Switch
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Network edge devices refer to host systems, which can host applications like web browser.

9. A set of rules that governs data communication

a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a set of rules and regulations that allow a network of nodes to
transmit and receive information.

10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection

a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established when three or many network nodes are connected to each
other.

“Basic - 2:”

1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called
a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) networking system
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Computer networks are defined as a collection of interconnected computers which uses a single
technology for connection.
A distributed system is also the same as computer network but the main difference is that the whole collection of
computers appears to its users as a single coherent system
Example: - World Wide Web

2. Two devices are in network if

a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A computer network, or data network, is a digital telecommunications network which allows nodes to
share resources. In computer networks, computing devices exchange data with each other using connections between
nodes.

3. Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another network?
a) Prior network
b) chief network
c) prime network
d) overlay network
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: An overlay network is a computer network that is built on top of another network.

4. In computer network nodes are

a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

5. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in

a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In a broadcast network, an information is sent to all station in a network whereas in a multicast network
the data or information is sent to a group of stations in the network. In unicast network, information is sent to only
one specific station.

6. Bluetooth is an example of
a) personal area network
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A personal area network (PAN) is the interconnection of information technology devices within the
range of an individual person, typically within a range of 10 meters.

7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included
in the packet.
a) Bridge
b) firewall
c) router
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A router[a] is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. Routers
perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet.

8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called

a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suite
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d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of protocols that are running concurrently that are employed for the
implementation of network protocol suite.

9. Network congestion occurs

a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A network congestion occurs when traffic in the network is more than the network could handle.

10. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?
a) local area network
b) virtual private network
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A virtual private network extends a private network across a public network, and enables users to send
and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private
network.

Access Networks
1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way telephone channel.

2. In DSL Telco provides these services

a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: The same company which provides phone connection is also its ISP in DSL.

3. The function of DSLAM is

a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The DSLAM located in Telco’s Central Office does this function.

4. The following term is not associated with DSL

a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cable modem termination system is used in cable internet access.

5. HFC contains
a) Fiber cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Both Fiber cable and Coaxial cable
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a telecommunications industry term for a broadband network that
combines optical fiber and coaxial cable.

6. Choose the statement which is not applicable for cable internet access
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In cable access analog signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS.

7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched Ethernet is

a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Active optical networks are essentially switched Ethernets.

8. StarBand provides
a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite broadband Internet service available in the U.S. from 2000–2015.

9. Home Access is provided by

a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Home Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, and Cable.

10. ONT is connected to splitter using

a) High speed fiber cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the Termination Point (TP) with an
optical fiber cable.

11. These factors affect transmission rate in DSL

a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interference
c) Shadow fading
d) Both The gauge of the twisted-pair line and Degree of electrical interference
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the Termination Point (TP) with an
optical fiber cable.

Reference Models 1.
1. The number of layers in Internet protocol stack
a) 5
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b) 7
c) 6
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are five layers in the Internet Protocol stack. The five layers in Internet Protocol stack is
Application, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer.

2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model

a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The seven layers in ISO OSI reference model is Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network,
Data link and Physical layer.

3. This layer is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Both Session and Presentation layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The only difference between OSI model and TCP/IP model is that in OSI model two layers namely
Presentation and Session layer have been added.

4. Application layer is implemented in

a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Not only application layer, but presentation layer, session layer and transport layer are also implemented
in the end system.

5. Transport layer is implemented in

a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Application, Presentation, Session and Transport layer are implemented in the end system.

6. The functionalities of presentation layer includes

a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Some functions of the presentation layer include character-code translation, data conversion, data
encryption and decryption, and data translation.

7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by

a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
View Answer

8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is Session layer. Session layer provides the mechanism for
opening, closing and managing a session between end-user application processes.

9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In TCP/IP model, the fifth layer is application layer. When data is sent from device A to device B, the
5th layer to receive data at B is application layer.

10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: In OSI reference model, when data packet moves from lower layers to higher layer, headers get
removed. Whereas when data packets move from higher layer to lower layers, headers are added.

11. Identify the statement which cannot be associated with OSI model
a) A structured way to discuss and easier update system components
b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: One layer may use the information from another layer Ex: timestamp value.

Reference Models – 2
1. OSI stands for

a) Open system interconnection

b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System Interconnection. OSI model provides a structured plan on how
applications communicate over a network, which also helps us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting.

2. The OSI model has _______ layers.

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation, Session, Transport,
Network, Data Link and Physical layer.

3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) Session layer
b) transport layer
c) application layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are two layers which are not present in TCP/IP model. They are
Presentation and Session layer.
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4. Which layer links the network support layers and user support layers
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
d) network layer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers and session, presentation and
application layers are user support layers.

5. Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?

a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned above addresses are used in TCP/IP protocol. The entire addressing scheme, that is
physical (MAC) and logical address, port address and specific address are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI
model.

6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.

a) Prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were developed at multiple research centers between 1978 and 1983,
whereas OSI reference model was developed in the year 1984.

7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery?

a) Network layer
b) transport layer
c) session layer
d) data link layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The role of Transport layer (Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end connection between two system
in a network. The protocols used in Transport layer is TCP and UDP.

8. Which address identifies a process on a host?

a) Physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
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d) specific address
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a specific process to which an Internet or other network message is to
be forwarded when it arrives at a server.

9. Which layer provides the services to user?

a) application layer
b) session layer
c) presentation layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly interacts with application layer to create and send information to other
computer or network.

10. Transmission data rate is decided by

a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device which deals with network cables or the standards in use like
connectors, pins, electric current used etc. Basically the transmission speed is determined by the cables and
connectors used. Hence it is physical layer that determines the transmission speed in network.

Physical Layer
1. The physical layer concerns with
a) bit-by-bit delivery
p) process to process delivery
c) application to application delivery
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery in networking. The data unit in the physical layer is bits.
Process to process delivery is delay in the transport layer.

2. Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?

a) Coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
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d) electrical cable
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Fiber optics is considered to have the highest transmission speed among the all mentioned above. The
fiber optics transmission runs at 1000Mb/s. It is called as 1000Base-Lx whereas IEEE standard for it is 802.3z.

3. Bits can be sending over guided and unguided media as analog signal by
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In analog modulation, digital low frequency baseband signal (digital bitstream) are transmitted over a
higher frequency. Whereas in digital modulation the only difference is that the base band signal is of discrete
amplitude level.

4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is called
a) physical signaling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the medium access control sublayer is Physical
Signaling Sublayer. The main function of this layer is character encoding, reception, decoding and performs optional
isolation functions.

5. physical layer provides

a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Anything dealing with a network cable or the standards in use – including pins, connectors and the
electric current used is dealt in the physical layer (Layer 1).

6. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides

a) start and stop signaling
b) flow control
c) both start & stop signaling and flow control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: In asynchronous serial communication, the communication is not synchronized by clock signal. Instead
of a start and stop signaling and flow control method is followed.

7. The physical layer is responsible for

a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for line coding, channel coding and modulation that is needed for the
transmission of the information.

8. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______ into hardware specific operations.
a) Data link layer
b) network layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Physical layer accepts data or information from the data link layer and converts it into hardware specific
operations so as to transfer the message through physical cables.

9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by

a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In communication and computer networks, the main goal is to share a scarce resource. This is done by
multiplexing, where multiple analog or digital signals are combined into one signal over a shared medium.

10. Wireless transmission can be done via

a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Wireless transmission is carried out by radio waves, microwaves and IR waves. These waves range
from 3 KHz to above 300 GHz and are more suitable for wireless transmission because they allow a wider band for
modulating signals, so you can obtain higher frequency transmission.
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Data Link Layer

1. The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames for transmission.
a) Network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from application layer is sent to transport layer and is converted to
segments. These segments are then transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are
then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames are then transferred to physical
layer where the frames are converted to bits.

2. Which one of the following task is not done by data link layer?
a) Framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Channel coding is the function of physical layer. Data link layer mainly deals with framing, error
control and flow control.

3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Media access control (MAC) deals with transmission of data packets to and from the network-interface
card, and also to and from another remotely shared channel.

4. Header of a frame generally contains

a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networks, the header is a part of the data that contains all the required information about the
transmission of the file. It contains information like synchronization bytes, addresses, frame identifier etc.
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5. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by

a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The logical link control is a sublayer of data link layer whose main function is to manage traffic, flow
and error control. This layer also acts as an interface between MAC layer and network layer.

6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When a single bit error occurs in a data, it is called single bit error. When more than a single bit of data
is corrupted or has error, it is called burst error.

7. CRC stands for

a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclic redundancy check is a code that is added to a data which helps us to identify any error that
occurred during the transmission of the data.

8. Which one of the following is a data link protocol?

a) Ethernet
b) point to point protocol
c) HDLC (high-level data link control)
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: There are many data link layer protocols. Some of them are SDLC (synchronous data link protocol),
HDLC (High level data link control), SLIP (serial line interface protocol), PPP (Point to point protocol) etc.

9. Which one of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: In CSMA/CD, it deals with detection of collision after collision has occurred. Whereas CSMA/CA deals
with preventing collision. CSMA/CD is abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision detection.
CSMA/CA is abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance.

10. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next
outgoing data frame is called
a) piggybacking
b) cyclic redundancy check
c) Fletcher’s checksum
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Piggybacking is a technique in which the acknowledgment is temporarily delayed so as to be hooked
with the next outgoing data frame.

Network Layer
1. The network layer concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from the application layer is sent to the transport layer and is converted
to segments. These segments are then transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are
then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames are then transferred to physical
layer where the frames are converted to bits.

2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) Routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is the third layer and it provides data routing paths for network
communications.

3. The 4 byte IP address consists of

a) network address
b) host address
c) both network address & host address
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d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long, that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a network and host
portion and it depends on address class.

4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains

a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A short VC number also called as VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of identifier which is used to
distinguish between several virtual circuits in a connection oriented circuit switched network.

5. Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The routing algorithm is what decides where a packet should go next. There are several routing
techniques like shortest path algorithm, static and dynamic routing, decentralized routing, distance vector routing,
link state routing, Hierarchical routing etc.

6. Multidestination routing?

a) Is same as broadcast routing

b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer?

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network protocol that creates a loop free logical topology for ethernet
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networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do
not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network.

8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. The network layer protocol of internet is

a) Ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are several protocols used in Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP, CLNP, ARP, IPX,
HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer protocol is for application layer and Ethernet protocol is for data link layer.

10. ICMP is primarily used for

a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control Message Protocol is used by networking devices to send error
messages and operational information indicating a host or router cannot be reached.

Transport Layer
1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model flows in following manner Application -> Presentation -> Session ->
Transport -> Network -> Data Link -> Physical.
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2. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in networking?

a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Both TCP and UDP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport layer protocol in networking. TCP is an abbreviation for Transmission
Control Protocol and UDP is an abbreviation for User Datagram Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas UDP
is connectionless.

3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because

a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it is used for those purposes where speed matters most whereas loss
of data is not a problem. UDP is connectionless whereas TCP is connection oriented.

4. Transmission control protocol is

a) connection oriented protocol
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) receives data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Major internet applications like www, email, file transfer etc rely on tcp. TCP is connection oriented
and it is optimized for accurate delivery rather than timely delivery.
It can incur long delays.

5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way communication link in the network. TCP layer can identify the
application that data is destined to be sent by using the port number that is bound to socket.

6. Socket-style API for windows is called

a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
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d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface which deals with input output requests for internet applications in
windows OS. It defines how windows network software should access network services.

7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?

a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a transport layer protocol which deals with reliable connection
setup, teardown, congestion control, explicit congestion notification, feature negotiation.

8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.

a) Port
b) pipe
c) node
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the computer, the network port identifies the application or service
running on the computer. A port number is 16 bits.

9. Transport layer protocols deals with

a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in TCP/IP model and OSI reference model. It deals with logical
communication between processes. It is responsible for delivering a message between network hosts.

10. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol?

a) Stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are many protocols in transport layer. The most prominent are TCP and UDP. Some of the other
protocols are RDP, RUDP, SCTP, DCCP etc.
22

Topology
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Topology”.

1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________

a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Topology in networks is the structure or pattern in which each and every node in the network is
connected. There are many topologies in networking like bus, tree, ring, star, mesh, and hybrid.

2. In which topology there is a central controller or hub?

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In star topology a main hub is present to which all other nodes of the network is connected. Every data
or information being transmitted or received in this topology has to pass through the hub. The hub directs the data to
its destination.

3. This topology requires multipoint connection

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In bus topology, there is a single cable to which all the network nodes are connected. So whenever a
node tries to send a message or data to other nodes, this data passes through all other nodes in the network.

4. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is ________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network extends over a large geographical area.
These are used to connect cities, states or even countries.
23

5. Data communication system within a building or campus is________

a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: LAN is an abbreviation for Local Area Network. This network interconnects computers in a small area
such as schools, offices, residence etc.

6. Expand WAN?
a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network extends over a large geographical area.
These are used to connect cities, states or even countries. They can be connected through leased lines or satellites.

7. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________

a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is the abbreviation for Time division multiplexing. It is technique for combining several low rate
channels to a single high rate channel. For a certain time slot, the several channels could use the maximum
bandwidth.

Multiplexing
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Multiplexing”.

1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _________
a) Fully duplexing
b) Multiplexing
c) Both Fully duplexing and Multiplexing
d) Duplexing
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Multiplexing is a method using which one can send multiples signals through a shared medium at the
same time. This helps in using less resources and thus saving the cost of sending messages.
24

2. Multiplexing is used in _______

a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Data switching
d) Packet & Circuit switching
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is a switching method by which one can obtain a physical path between end points.
Circuit switching method is also called a connection oriented network.

3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?

a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) FDM & WDM
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: TDM abbreviation for Time Division Multiplexing is a method used for digital signals. Whereas FDM
and WDM abbreviation for Frequency Division Multiplexing and Wavelength Division Multiplexing are used for
analog signals.

4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate than TDM link has _______ slots.
a) n
b) n/2
c) n*2
d) 2n
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When it comes to TDM, each and every slots are dedicated to the source.

5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of circuit this TDM is
_________
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number os bits in a slot.

6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called __________
a) Death period
b) Poison period
c) Silent period
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
25

Answer: c
Explanation: There are instances when connections between two endpoints have been established, but no
communication or transfers of messages occur. This period of time is called silent period.

7. Multiplexing can provide _________

a) Efficiency
b) Privacy
c) Anti jamming
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Multiplexing helps us to transfer our messages over a shared channel. This brings up the issue of
privacy and efficiency. Fortunately, Multiplexing has high efficiency and high privacy when implemented.

8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the
signal sources.
a) Greater than
b) lesser than
c) Equal to
d) Equal to or greater than
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In TDM the transmission rate provided by the path that is multiplexed will always be greater than the
sum of transmission rates of the single sources.

9. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________

a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In TDM time is divided into a frame. These same frames are then divided into slots

Delays and Loss

1. Which of the following delay is faced by the packet in travelling from one end system to another ?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
26

2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is (in milliseconds)
a) 3.2
b) 32
c) 0.32
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate = length / transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2milli seconds.

3. The time required to examine the packet’s header and determine where to direct the packet is part of
a) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L = number of bits in the packet a = average rate R = transmission rate
a) La/R
b) LR/a
c) R/La
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. In the transfer of file between server and client, if the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps, 20Mbps,
30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually
a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The throughput is generally the transmission rate of bottleneck link.

6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end = N (dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested network. The number of
routers between source and destination is
a) N/2
b) N
c) N-1
d) 2N
View Answer
27

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. The total nodal delay is given by

a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of the
following delays could be zero
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. Transmission delay does not depend on

a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
c) Transmission rate
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length / transmission rate

10. Propagation delay depends on

a) Packet length
b) Transmission rate
c) Distance between the routers
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Propagation delay is the time it takes a bit to propagate from one router to the next.

Network Attacks
1. The attackers a network of compromised devices known as
a) Internet
b) Botnet
28

c) Telnet
d) D-net
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack?

a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. The DoS attack is which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP connections at the
target host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Packet sniffers involve

a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Both Active receiver and Passive receiver
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: They don’t inject packets into the channel.

6. Sniffers can be deployed in

a) Wired environment
29

b) Wi-Fi
c) Ethernet LAN
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Firewalls are often configured to block

a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of the
following delays could be zero
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
d) Processing delay
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None

Physical Media
1. Which of this is not a guided media?
a) Fiber optical cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Wireless LAN
d) Copper wire
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.

2. UTP is commonly used in __________

a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
30

Answer: a
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) is commonly used in home access.

3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Coaxial cable has an inner conductor surrounded by a insulating layer, which is surrounded by a
conducting shield. Coaxial cable is used to carry high frequency signals with low losses.

4. Fiber optics posses following properties __________

a) Immune electromagnetic interference
b) Very less signal attenuation
c) Very hard to tap
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In fiber optics the transmission of information is in the form of light or photons. Due to all above
properties mentioned in options fiber optics can be submerged in water and are used at more risk environments.

5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, generally the link speed equals (in Mbps) __________
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
c) 2n*51.8
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The base unit of transmission rates in optical fiber is 51.8 Mbits/s. So an optical carrier represented as
OC-n has n*51.8 Mbits/s transmission speed. For eg. OC-3 has 3*51.8 Mbits/s speed.

6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classified into _____ groups.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The three types are those that operate over very short distance, those that operate in local areas, those
that operate in the wide area.

7. Radio channels are attractive medium because __________

a) Can penetrate walls
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
31

c) Can carry signals for long distance

d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Radio channels can penetrate walls, can be used to provide connectivity to mobile users and can also
carry signals for long distances.

8. Geostationary satellites ___________

a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km above Earth’s surface.

Packet Switching & Circuit Switching

1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Both Packet switched and Circuit switched
d) Line switched
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented switching technique. Whereas in the case of packet switching, it
is connectionless. Circuit switching is implemented in the Physical layer, whereas packet switching is implemented in
the Network layer.

2. Most packet switches use this principle ____________

a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward
d) Stop and forward
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit the first bit to outbound link until it receives the entire packet.

3. If there are N routers from source to destination, a total end to end delay in sending packet P(L-> number of bits in
the packet R-> transmission rate)
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R
View Answer
32

Answer: b
Explanation: The equation to find the end to end delay when no. of bits, transmission rate and no. of routers is given
by (N*L)/R.

4. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Both Packet switching and Circuit switching
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Packet switching and Circuit switching are two different types of switching methods used to connect the
multiple communicating devices with one another.

5. The resources needed for communication between end systems are reserved for the duration of the session between
end systems in ________
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Frequency switching
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In circuit switching, a physical path between the sender and receiver is established. This path is
maintained until the connection is needed.

6. As the resources are reserved between two communicating end systems in circuit switching, this is achieved
___________
a) authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate
c) reliability
d) store and forward
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented and is always implemented in the physical layer. Once a path is
set, all transmission occurs through the same path.

7. In _________ resources are allocated on demand.

a) Packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In packet switching, the bits are received in out of order and need to be assembled at the receiver end.
Whereas in the case of Circuit switching, all the bits are received in order.
33

8. Which of the following is an application layer service?

a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Network virtual terminal, mail service, file transfer, access and management are all services of an
application layer

Application Layer – 1
1. Which is not a application layer protocol?
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol.

2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________

a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For Application, Presentation and Session layers there is no data format for message. Message is
message as such in these three layers. But when it comes to Transport, Network, Data and Physical layer they have
data in format of segments, packets, frames and bits respectively.

3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigm?

a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.

4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
34

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Application layer provides the interface between applications and the network. So application developer
can decide what transport layer to use and what should be its maximum buffer size.

5. Application layer offers _______ service.

a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: End to End service is provided in the application layer. Whereas process to process service is provided
at the transport layer.

6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available throughput.

7. Pick the odd one out.

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: File transfer, File download and Email are services provided by the application layer and there are
message and data oriented.

8. Which of the following is an application layer service?

a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The services provided by the application layer are network virtual terminal, file transfer, access and
management, mail services, directory services, various file and data operations.
35

9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted.
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: IP address lets you know where the network is located. Whereas MAC address is a unique address for
every device. Port address identifies a process or service you want to carry on.

10. Which is a time-sensitive service?

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other applications are not.

11. Transport services available to applications in one or another form _________

a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The transport services that are provided to application are reliable data transfer, security and timing.
These are very important for proper end to end services.

12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?

a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Email uses various protocols like SMTP, IMAP and POP. The most prominent one used in application
layer is SMTP

Application Layer – 2
1. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a) Domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
36

d) internet relay chat

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Domain name system is the way the internet domain names are stored and translated to IP addresses.
The domain names systems matches the name of website to ip addresses of the website.

2. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site and then pass
keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) TCP
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is used for accessing remote computers. Using telnet a user can access computer remotely. With
Telnet, you can log on as a regular user with whatever privileges you may have been granted to the specific
application and data on the computer.

3. Application layer protocol defines ____________

a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Application layer deals with the user interface, what message is to be sent or the message format, syntax
and semantics. A user has access to application layer for sending and receiving messages.

4. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to receiver server?

a) Simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hyper text transfer protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP, abbreviation for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol. A client who
wishes to send a mail creates a TCP connection to the SMTP server and then sends the mail across the connection.

5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
View Answer
37

Answer: a
Explanation: Base64 is used commonly in a number of applications including email via MIME, and storing complex
data in XML. Problem with sending normal binary data to a network is that bits can be misinterpreted by underlying
protocols, produce incorrect data at receiving node and that is why we use this code.

6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP network?
a) Dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple network management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: SNMP is a set of protocols for network management and monitoring. This protocol is included in the
application layer. SNMP uses 7 protocol data units.

7. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?

a) Media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is used in transport layer. It is designed to reserve resources across a
network for quality of service using the integrated services model.

8. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia communication sessions?
a) Session initiation protocol
b) session modeling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) resource reservation protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: SIP is a signaling protocol in which its function includes initiating, maintaining and terminating real
time sessions. SIP is used for signaling and controlling multimedia sessions.

9. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a communication session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is an application layer protocol. Whereas TCP is a transport layer protocol.

10. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a) HTTP protocol
38

b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) TCP protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is abbreviation for hypertext transfer protocol. It is the foundation of data communication for
World Wide Web. This protocol decides how the message is formatted and transmitted etc.

HTTP
1. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is ________
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
d) 7
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.

2. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________

a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By default the http connection is issued with persistent connection. In persistent connection server
leaves connection open after sending response. As little as one RTT (Time for a small packet to travel from client to
server and back) is required for all referenced objects.

3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called __________
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) JTT
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.

4. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
View Answer
39

Answer: c
Explanation: In first step client sends a segment to establish a connection with the server. In the second the step the
client waits for the acknowledgement to be received from the server. After receiving the acknowledgement, the client
sends actual data in the third step.

5. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response takes __________ RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By default the http connection will be persistent connection. Hence it will take only 1 RTT to fetch a
webpage from a server.

6. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________

a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called header lines and status line is the initial part of response
message.

7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP request message.

8. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
a) POST
b) SEND
c) GET
d) PUT
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are two methods which help to request a response from a server. Those are GET and POST. In
GET method, the client requests data from server. In POST method the client submits data to be processed to the
server.
40

9. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when ____________ method is used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: HEAD method is much faster than GET method. In HEAD method much smaller amount of data is
transferred. The HEAD method asks only for information about a document and not for the document itself.

10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes

a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found.

11. Which of the following is not correct?

a) Web cache does not has its own disk space
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested objects
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Web cache or also known as HTTP cache is a temporary storage where HTML pages and images are
stored temporarily so that server lag could be reduced.

12. The conditional GET mechanism

a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
b) limits the number of response from a server
c) Helps to keep a cache up to date
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The HTTP protocol requests the server of the website Its trying to access so that it can store its files,
images etc. in cache memory. This request of asking the server for a document considering a specific parameter is
called conditional GET Request.

13. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
a) HTTP version number
b) URL
c) Method
41

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Status line is the start line of an HTTP response. It contains the information such as the protocol version,
a status text, and status code

HTTP & FTP

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “HTTP & FTP”.

1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in
a) persistent HTTP
b) nonpersistent HTTP
c) both persistent HTTP and nonpe-rsistent HTTP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer+

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. HTTP is ________ protocol.

a) Application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. In the network HTTP resources are located by

a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) broader gateway protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
42

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. In HTTP pipelining
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. FTP server listens for connection on port number

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) Transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) Active mode
b) passive mode
c) both active mode and passive mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. The file transfer protocol is built on

a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
43

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in

a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

FTP
1. Expansion of FTP is
a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. FTP is built on _____ architecture

a) Client-server
b) P2P
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Control connection and data connection.

4. Identify the incorrect statement

a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
44

d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band as it has separate control connection.

5. If 5 files are transferred from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP connection between A
and B is
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 1 control connection and other 5 for five file transfers.

6. FTP server
a) Maintains state
b) Is stateless
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the control connection in
________ bit ASCII format
a) 8
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched

a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all the is left to TCP

a) Stream mode
45

b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. The password is sent to the server using ________ command

a) PASSWD
b) PASS
c) PASSWORD
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None

SMTP – 1
1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Expansion of SMTP is
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
View Answer
46

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. In SMTP, the command to write receivers mail address is written with this command
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is

a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Choose the statement which is wrong in case of SMTP

a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail server hence it is push protocol.

7. Internet mail places each object in

a) Separate messages for each object
b) one message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is

a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
View Answer
47

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. A session may include

a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions can’t be determined
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Example of user agents for e-mail

a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Apple Mail
c) None of the above
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

SMTP – 2
1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport layer protocol for electronic mail
transfer.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) DCCP
d) SCTP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: none.

2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as

a) SMTPS
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.

3. SMTP uses the TCP port

a) 22
b) 23
48

c) 24
d) 25
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Which one of the following protocol is used to receive mail messages?

a) SMTP(simple mail transport protocol)
b) POP(post office protocol)
c)IMAP( internet message access protocol)
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

a) Protocol for SMTP security
b) an SMTP extension
c) protocol for web pages
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation:None.

6. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.
a) IP (address Internet protocol)
b) MAC address
c) URL (Universal resource locator)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. A SMTP session may include

a) zero SMTP transaction
b) one SMTP transaction
c) more than one SMTP transaction
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. SMTP defines
a) message transport
b) message encryption
49

c) message content
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that anyone on the internet can send e-
mail through it?
a) Open mail relay
b) wide mail reception
c) open mail reception
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation:None.

10. SMTP is used to deliver messages to

a) user’s terminal
b) user’s mailbox
c) both user’s terminal and mailbox
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation:None

DNS
1. The entire hostname has a maximum of ___________
a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
c) 63 characters
d) 31 characters
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An entire hostname can have a maximum of 255 characters. Although each label must be from 1 to 63
characters long. Host name is actually a label that is given to a device in a network.

2. A DNS client is called _________

a) DNS updater
b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
50

Answer: b
Explanation: DNS client also known as DNS resolver also known as DNS lookup helps to resolve DNS requests
using an external DNS server.

3. Servers handle requests for other domains _______

a) directly
b) by contacting remote DNS server
c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Whenever a request is received at server from other domains, it handles this situation by contacting
remote DNS server.

4. DNS database contains _______

a) name server records
b) hostname-to-address records
c) hostname aliases
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Domain Name system not only deals with mapping IP addresses with the hostname but also deals with
exchange of information in the server.

5. If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then _______
a) server asks to the root server
b) server asks to its adjacent server
c) request is not processed
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Root name servers are actually very important and critical as they are the first step in translating human
readable hostnames into IP addresses for carrying out communication.

6. Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address change?
a) Dynamic DNS
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic DNS or in short DDNS or Dyn DNS helps in automatically updating a name server in the
DNS. This does not require manual editing.

7. Wildcard domain names start with label _______

a) @
51

b) *
c) &
d) #
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A wildcard DNS record matches requests to a non existent domain name. This wildcard DNS record is
specified by using asterisk “*” as the starting of a domain name.

8. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by _______
a) Internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet research task force
d) internet corporation for assigned names and numbers
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers) deals with IP address space
allocation, protocol identifier assignment, generic and country code Top Level domain name system management
(gTLD and ccTLD).

9. The domain name system is maintained by _______

a) distributed database system
b) a single server
c) a single computer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A domain name system is maintained by a distributed database system. It is a collection of multiple,
logically interrelated databases distributed over a computer network.

10. Which one of the following is not true?

a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It need not be that a single hostname will correspond to a ip address. For example facebook.com and
fb.com both correspond to same ip address. So there can be multiple hostnames for a single ip address

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – SSH

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SSH”.
52

1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for __________

a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line login
c) remote command execution
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: SSH provides high encryption and security features while communicating through a network. It is a
cryptographic network protocol.

2. SSH can be used in only _____________

a) Unix-like operating systems
b) Windows
c) both Unix-like and windows systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: SSH isn’t confined to a certain network or operating system. It can be implemented over different
networks and on different operating systems.

3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.

a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) both public-key & private-key
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Public encryption key is slower but more flexible. Every cryptographic security system requires a
private key for private access and a public key for location.

4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?

a) port 21
b) port 22
c) port 23
d) port 24
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Port 22 is used for contacting ssh servers, used for file transfers (scp, sftp) and also port forwarding.

5. Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH?
a) Telnet
b) rlogin
c) both telnet and rlogin
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
53

Answer: c
Explanation: SSH is more secured then telnet and rlogin.

6. Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?

a) SCP
b) SFTP
c) Rsync
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: SCP (Secure copy protocol), SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) and Rsync all are file transfer protocols
which are used by SSH.

7. SSH-2 does not contain ______________

a) transport layer
b) user authentication layer
c) physical layer
d) connection layer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: SSH2 is a more secure, portable and efficient version of SSH that includes SFTP, which is functionally
similar to FTP, but is SSH2 encrypted.

8. Which one of the following feature was present in SSH protocol, version 1?
a) password changing
b) periodic replacement of session keys
c) support for public-key certificates
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned features are provided by SSH-2 and that SSH-1 only provide strong authentication
and guarantee confidentiality.

9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over SSH.

a) RCP protocol
b) DHCP protocol
c) MGCP protocol
d) GCP protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: RCP is the abbreviation for Rate Control Protocol is a congestion control algorithm for fast user
response times.

10. Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?

a) public-key
b) host based
54

c) password
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: SSH used public key authentication, Password authentication, Host based authentication, keyboard
authentication and authentication of servers

DHCP
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) URL
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: We use DHCP to allow the hosts to acquire their ip addresses dynamically which is better than visiting
each and every host on the network and configure all of this information manually.

2. DHCP is used for ________

a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: DHCP is used for both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing. With DHCP you get to let the hosts know about the
change dynamically, and hosts update their info themselves.

3. The DHCP server _________

a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Whenever a DHCP server gets a request from a client it responds with a DHCP offer containing IP
address being offered, network mask offered, the amount of time that the client can use and keep it, the ip address of
the DHCP server making this offer.

4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is

a) for a limited period
b) for an unlimited period
c) not time dependent
55

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The IP address offered to a client is only for a limited period of time. There is actually a certain amount
of time that the client can use and keep this IP address.

5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 67 is the UDP port number that is used as the destination port of a server. Whereas UDP port number 68
is used by the client.

6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.

a) Dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When a host acquires multiple offers of IP addresses from different DHCP servers, the host will
broadcast a dhcp request identifying the server whose offer has been accepted.

7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________
a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast
c) TCP broadcast
d) TCP unicast
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP actually employs a connectionless service, which is provided by UDP, since TCP is connection
oriented. It is implemented with two UDP port numbers 67 and 68 for its operations.

8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use _________
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ARP abbreviation for address resolution protocol is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
that are present in the local network.
56

9. What is DHCP snooping?

a) Techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used in OS of a network in the layer 2. This technology
prevents unauthorized DHCP servers offering IP addresses to DHCP clients.

10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the network.
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Both MAC address and IP address
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The DHCP snooping is done to prevent unauthorized IP addresses being offered by unauthorized
servers. This feature allows only specific MAC addresses and IP addresses to access the network.

Insecurity
1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the
a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
c) Application layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Network layer is used for transferring the data from transport layer to another layers.

2. In tunnel mode IPSec protects the

a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is nothing but adding control bits to the packets.

3. Which component is included in IP security?

a) Authentication Header (AH)
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
57

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: AH, ESP, IKE.

4. WPA2 is used for security in

a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: WPA2 is best with Wi-Fi connection.

5. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called

a) Denial-of-service attack
b) Virus attack
c) Worms attack
d) Botnet process
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Denial of service attack.

6. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in

a) Wired personal area network
b) Wireless networks
c) Wired local area network
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Most data transfer is with wireless networks.

7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in

a) Browser security
b) Email security
c) FTP security
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: PGP is at email security.

8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called

a) International data encryption algorithm
b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
58

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called international data encryption algorithm.

9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that
information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: DNS spoofing is the phenomenon for the above mentioned transaction.

Virtual Private Networks

1. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public network such as the internet,
creating a secure private connection.
a) VNP
b) VPN
c) VSN
d) VSPN
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: VIRTUAL PRIVATE NETWORK.

2. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial world?

a) Early 80’s
b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
d) Late 90’s
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: LATE 90’S.

3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?

a) PPTP
b) IP sec
c) YMUM
d) L2TP
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: YNUM.
59

4. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?

a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: virtual packet network is not a backbone of the internet.

5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________

a) Invisible from public networks
b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IP sec
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Because it is secured with the IP address.

6. VPNs are financially speaking __________

a) always more expensive than leased lines
b) always cheaper than leased lines
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines
d) usually more expensive than leased lines
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is very cheap.

7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over a L2TP VPN?

a) IP
b) IPX
c) Neither IP or IPX
d) Both IP or IPX
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Data roaming layer.

8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following standards?

a) IPSec
b) PPTP
c) PPP
d) L2TP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is the security type of the IPsec.
60

9. L2F was developed by which company?

a) Microsoft
b) Cisco
c) Blizzard Entertainment
d) IETF
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cisco is the second best company to design and make the computer networks.

10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does PPTP work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Presentation layer

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – SMI

This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “SMI”.

1. Storage management comprises of

a) SAN Management
b) Data protection
c) Disk operation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: SAN, Data protection and Disk operation are the main things of storage management.

2. Identify the storage devices

a) Switch
b) RAID Arrays
c) Tape drives
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: switch, RAID arrays and tape drives are main storage devices.

3. Which protocols are used for Storage management?

a) SNMP
b) LDAP
c) POP3
61

d) MIB
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol is for storage management.

4. Identify the difficulties the SAN administrator incur while dealing with diverse vendors
a) Proprietary management interfaces
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the data center
c) No single view
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Proprietary management interfaces, multiple applications management and no single view are main
difficulties.

5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices:

a) By using Zoning
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d) By keeping devices when used
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: By using Zoning, Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices.

6. Effective Storage management includes

a) Securities
b) Backups
c) Reporting
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In storage management all necessities like security, backups and reporting facilities are included.

7. Identify the tasks involved in Storage Capacity management

a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full capacity
b) Monitoring trends for each resource
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total available
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Identifying, Monitoring and Tracking are main tasks involved in SCM.

8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s)

a) Standardization drives software interoperability and interchange ability
b) Breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary methods, trade secrets, and single providers
62

c) Builds a strong foundation on which others can quickly build and innovate
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Driver software, old style dependence and strong foundation.

9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is to

a) To promote interoperability among the management solution providers
b Acts as an interface between the various budding technologies and provide solution to manage various
environments
c) Only To promote interoperability among the management solution providers
d) Both To promote interoperability among the management solution providers and Acts as an interface between the
various budding technologies and provide solution to manage various environments
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Promote interoperability and interface between various buildings.

10. SMI-S Standard uses

a) Java RMI
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
c) CORBA
d) .NET
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: CIM-XML/HTTP is a SMI-S standard

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – SNMP

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SNMP”.

1. An application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called SNMP.

2. Full duplex mode increases capacity of each domain from

a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
63

d) 40 to 50 mbps
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 10 to 20 mbps capacity increased on each domain in full duplex mode.

3. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems those are

a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Both Reconfiguration and documentation and Management and configuration
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Reconfiguration and documentation are two subsystems of configuration management.

4. To use Simple Network Management System (SNMP), we need

a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: To use Simple Network Management System (SNMP), we need rules.

5. Main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is the

a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Enhanced security is the main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2.

6. In Network Management System, a term that responsible for controlling access to network based on predefined
policy is called
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A term that responsible for controlling access to network based on predefined policy is called security
management.

7. BER stands for

a) Basic Encoding Rules
64

b) Basic Encoding Resolver

c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Basic encoding rules.

8. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges are main responsibilities of
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network resources through charges are main responsibilities of accounting
management.

9. SNMP is a framework for managing devices in an internet using the

a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a framework for managing devices in an internet using the TCP/IP protocol.

10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is guideline of

a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: SMI is guidelines of SNMP

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Telnet – 1

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Telnet – 1”.

1. The protocol used by Telnet application is

a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
65

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In “character at a time” mode

a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote system
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer

a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The correct syntax to be written in the web browser to Telnet to www.sanfoundry.com is

a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. Telnet is a
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
66

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?

a) default mode
b) server mode
c) line mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
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8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server

a) escape character has to be used
b) control functions has to be disabled
c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Telnet – 2

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Telnet – 2”.

1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to

a) TCP port number 21
b) TCP port number 22
c) TCP port number 23
d) TCP port number 24
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. Which one of the following is not true?

a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT) standard
b) client programs interact with NVT
c) server translates NVT operations
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
67

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. All telnet operations are sent as

a) 4 bytes
b) 8 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 32 bytes
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for

a) windows
b) linux
c) mac
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The decimal code of interpret as command (IAC) character is

a) 252
b) 253
c) 254
d) 255
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. In character mode operation of telnet implementation

a) each character typed is sent by the client to the server
b) each character typed is discarded by the server
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word and then send to the server
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. In telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but does not send it until a whole line is completed in
a) default mode
c) character mode
c) server mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
68

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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8. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – TCP-1

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “TCP-1”.

1. Which of the following is true with respect to TCP

a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process
c) Transport layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol, process-to-process, and creates a virtual connection between two
TCP’s.

2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as

a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
d) Packets
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In TCP, data is sent and received in terms of Stream of bytes.

3. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________ for storage.
a) Packets
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: TCP needs buffers for storage to overcome this problem.
69

4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called

a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Stack
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Segment is a grouping of number of bytes together into a packet.

5. Communication offered by TCP is

a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Data flow in both the directions at the same time during TCP communication hence, Full-duplex.

6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.

7. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number field refers to

a) Byte number
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Sequence number and acknowledgement number field refers to byte number.

8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What is the
sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one segment.
a) 10000
b) 10001
c) 12001
d) 11001
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The sequence number of each segment is the number of first byte carried in that segment.
70

9. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers starts with a
a) Random number
b) Zero
c) One
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: These numbers starts with a random number.

10. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines

a) Number of previous bytes to receive
b) Total number of bytes to receive
c) Number of next bytes to receive
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Acknowledgement field in a segment defines the number of next bytes to receive

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – TCP-2

This set of Computer Networks Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “TCP – 2”.

1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender is referred as ___________
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed with data.

2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________

a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The header is 20 bytes if there are no options and upto 60 bytes if it contains options.

3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?

a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
71

d) Synchronisation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to connect between client and server.

4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready to accept a connection. This process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer

5. The process of, A client that wishes to connect to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be connected to that
particular server is ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is done by the client once it finds the
open server.

6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active open is ___________
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
d) Simultaneous close
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Here, both TCP’s transmit a SYNC+ACK segment to each other and one single connection is
established between them.

7. The situation when a malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending that each
of them is coming from a different client by faking the source IP address in the datagrams.
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This is the serious security problem during the connection establishment.

8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of security attack known as ___________

a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack
72

c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system collapses and denies service to every request.

9. Size of source and destination port address of TCP header respectively are ___________
a) 16-bits and 32-bits
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits
d) 32-bits and 32-bits
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Size of source and destination ports must be 32-bits.

10. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?
a) Sequence number
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: TCP header contains separate fields for sequence number and acknowledgment number. Its these values
that allow TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – UDP

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “UDP”.

1. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP

a) Connection-oriented
b) Unreliable
c) Transport layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol.

2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is

a) String of characters
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
View Answer
73

Answer: a
Explanation: Chargen with port number 19 returns string of characters.

3. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as

a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: UDP is a simple protocol which provides demultiplexing and error checking.

4. The main advantage of UDP is

a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Less overload
d) Fast
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol and uses minimum overload.

5. Port number used by Network Time Protocol(NTP) with UDP is

a) 161
b) 123
c) 162
d) 124
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Port number used by Network Time Protocol with UDP is 123.

6. what is the header size of UDP packet?

a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is 8 bytes.

7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is ……

a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client
View Answer
74

Answer: d
Explanation: If the source host is the client, the port number in most cases will be ephemeral port number.

8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of

a) Only UDP header
b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which contains the length of UDP header and the data.

9. Correct expression for UDP user datagram length is

a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP datagram the defines the
total length. There is another field in the IP datagram that defines the length of the header. So if we subtract the
length of a UDP datagram that is encapsulated in an IP datagram, we get the length of UDP user datagram.

10. The field used to detect errors over the entire user datagram is
a) UDP header
b) Checksum
c) Source port
d) Destination port
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – AH and

ESP Protocols
This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “AH and ESP Protocols”.

1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure security and confidentiality of data within the same LAN?
a) AH transport mode
b) ESP transport mode
c) ESP tunnel mode
d) AH tunnel mode
View Answer
75

Answer: b
Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data that is exchanged
within the same LAN.

2. Which two types of encryption protocols can be used to secure the authentication of computers using IPsec?
a) Kerberos V5
b) SHA
c) MD5
d) Both SHA and MD5
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. Kerberos V5 is an authentication protocol, not an encryption protocol;
therefore, answer A is incorrect. Certificates are a type of authentication that can be used with IPsec, not an
encryption protocol; therefore, answer B is incorrect.

3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure communications between two LANs?
a) AH tunnel mode
b) ESP tunnel mode
c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode
d) ESP transport mode
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A tunnel mode IPsec should be used. Option c is for data transfer purpose, option d is for integrity &
confidentiality purpose.

4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.

a) AH
b) ESP
c) PGP
d) SSL
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It provides integrity checking and anti-reply security.

5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and ________

a) AH; SSL
b) PGP; ESP
c) AH; ESP
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Authentication header and Encryption security payload.

6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI model?

a) Network
b) Transport
76

c) Application
d) Physical
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Network layer is mainly used for security purpose, so IPsec in mainly operates in network layer.

7. ESP provides
a) source authentication
b) data integrity
c) privacy
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Encrypted security payload provides source, data integrity and privacy.

8. In computer security… means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Authenticity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Integrity means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities.

9. In computer security… means that the information in a computer system only be accessible for reading by
authorized parities.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Authenticity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Confidentiality means that the information in a computer system only be accessible for reading by
authorized parities.

10. Which of the following organizations is primarily concerned with military encryption systems?
a) NSA
b) NIST
c) IEEE
d) ITU
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible for military encryption systems. The NSA designs, evaluates, and
implements encryption systems for the military and government agencies with high security needs
77

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Congestion Control
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Congestion Control”.

1. Two broad categories of congestion control are

a) Open-loop and Closed-loop
b) Open-control and Closed-control
c) Active control and Passive control
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: These are two types of congestion control.

2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to __________

a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Policies are applied to prevent congestion before it occurs.

3. Retransmission of packets must be done when

a) Packet is lost
b) Packet is corrupted
c) Packet is needed
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Retransmission should be done on account of any of the above cases.

4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets have to be resent even some may
have arrived safe. whereas in Selective Repeat window, tries to send ___________
a) Packet that have not lost
b) Packet that have lost or corrupted
c) Packet from starting
d) All the packets
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In selective repeat window, packet that have lost or corrupted must be sent.

5. Discarding policy is mainly done by

a) Sender
78

b) Receiver
c) Router
d) Switch
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This is done by the routers to prevent congestion.

6. Closed-Loop control mechanism try to

a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Policies are applied to remove congestion after it occurs.

7. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes is called
as
a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure
c) Forward signalling
d) Backward signalling
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This is a node-to-node congestion control that starts with a node and propagates in opposite direction of
data flow to the source.

8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to

a) Congestion networks
b) Closed circuit networks
c) Open circuit networks
d) Virtual circuit networks
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each node knows the upstream node from which a flow data is coming.

9. The packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion is called

a) Explicit
b) Discard
c) Choke
d) Backpressure
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion.
79

10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________ until it reaches a threshold.
a) Exponentially
b) Additively
c) Multiplicatively
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a
threshold.

11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases ____________ until
congestion is detected.
a) Exponentially
b) Additively
c) Multiplicatively
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases additively until
congestion is detected

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Virtual

Circuit
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Virtual Circuit”.

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Virtual Circuit Network?

a) There are setup and teardown phases in addition to the data transfer phase
b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase or on demand
c) All packets follow the same path established during the connection
d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in application layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Virtual circuit network is normally implemented in datalink layer.

2. The address that is unique in the scope of the network or internationally if the network is part of an international
network is called as
a) Global address
b) Network address
c) Physical address
d) IP address
View Answer
80

Answer: a
Explanation: This address is used to create a virtual circuit identifier.

3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in virtual circuit network is
a) Global address
b) Virtual circuit identifier
c) Network identifier
d) IP identifier
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier is used for data transfer and has switch scope.

4. Which of the following is not a phase of virtual circuit network?

a) Setup phase
b) Datatransfer phase
c) Termination phase
d) Teardown phase
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Virtual circuit network does not contain termination phase.

5. Steps required in setup process are

a) Setup request and acknowledgement
b) Setup request and setup response
c) Setup request and setup termination
d) Setup and termination steps
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Steps required in setup process are Setup request and acknowledgement.

6. During teardown phase, source after sending all the frames to destination sends……..to notify termination
a) Teardown response
b) Teardown request
c) Termination request
d) Termination response
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Source after sending all the frames to destination sends teardown request to which, destination sends
teardown response.

7. Delay if, resource allocated during setup phase during data transfer is
a) Constant
b) Increases for each packet
c) Same for each packet
d) Different for each packet
View Answer
81

Answer: c
Explanation: If resource allocated during setup phase, delay is same for each packet.

8. Delay if, resource allocated on demand during data transfer is

a) Constant
b) Increases for each packet
c) Same for each packet
d) Different for each packet
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: If resource allocated on demand, delay is different for each packet.

9. In virtual circuit network, delay times for setup and teardown respectively are
a) 1 and 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 1
d) 2 and 2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Delay time for setup and teardown is one each.

10. In data transfer phase, the table contains how many columns?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Table has 4 columns. Port and VCI for both incoming and outgoing data

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – ATM &

Frame Relay
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ATM & Frame Relay”.

1. ATM and frame relay are

a) virtual circuit networks
b) datagram networks
c) virtual private networks
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ATM stands for asynchronous transfer mode.
82

2. ATM uses the

a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. ATM standard defines _______ layers.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Three layers are physical layer, ATM layer and application adoption layer.

4. ATM can be used for

a) local area network
b) wide area network
c) any of local or wide area network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. An ATM cell has the payload field of

a) 32 bytes
b) 48 bytes
c) 64 bytes
d) 128 bytes
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. Frame relay has error detection at the

a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
83

7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called

a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Frame relay has

a) only physical layer
b) only data link layer
c) only network layer
d) both physical and data link layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used

a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers
b) for error detection
c) for encryption
d) for error recovery
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?

a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay assembler/disassembler

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Frame

Relay
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Frame Relay”.

1. Frame Relay is very cheap than other

a) LANs
84

b) WANs
c) MANs
d) Multipoint Networks
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Frame Relay is very cheap than other WANs.

2. Frame Relay networks offer an option called

a) Voice Over For Relay
b) Voice Over Fine Relay
c) Voice On Frame Relay
d) Voice Over Frame Relay
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relay networks offer an option calledVoice Over Frame Relay

3. There are ________ total features of Frame Relay.

a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
d) Ten
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are total features of Frame Relay are Nine.

4. Frame Relay does not provide flow or error control, they must be provided by the
a) Lower Level Protocol
b) High Level Protocol
c) Upper Level Protocol
d) Downward Level Protocol
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Frame Relay does not provide flow or error control, they must be provided by theUpper Level Protocol.

5. Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers such as

a) ADMs
b) UPSR
c) BLSR
d) SONET
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers such asSONET.

6. Frame relay has error detection at the

a) physical layer
85

b) data link layer

c) network layer
d) transport layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In data link layer error control header is the main thing for any packet transfer, so we use this layer
frame relay has error detection.

7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called

a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is calleddata link connection identifier.

8. Frame relay has only

a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) both physical layer and data link layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Frame relay has only physical and data link layer for error detection in data link layer and for
conversion in physical layer.

9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used

a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers
b) for error detection
c) both to increase the range of data link connection identifiers and for error detection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In frame relay networks, extended address is usedto increase the range of data link connection
identifiers.

10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?

a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay assembler/disassembler
86

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – World

Wide Web
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “World Wide Web”.

1. A piece of icon or image on a web page associated with another webpage is called
a) url
b) hyperlink
c) plugin
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Dynamic web page

a) is same every time whenever it displays
b) generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
c) both is same every time whenever it displays and generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. What is a web browser?

a) a program that can display a web page
b) a program used to view html documents
c) it enables user to access the resources of internet
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Common gateway interface is used to

a) generate executable files from web content by web server
b) generate web pages
c) stream videos
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
87

5. URL stands for

a) unique reference label
b) uniform reference label
c) uniform resource locator
d) unique resource locator
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. A web cookie is a small piece of data

a) sent from a website and stored in user’s web browser while a user is browsing a website
b) sent from user and stored in the server while a user is browsing a website
c) sent from root server to all servers
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Which one of the following is not used to generate dynamic web pages?
a) PHP
b) ASP.NET
c) JSP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. An alternative of javascript on windows platform is

a) VBScript
b) ASP.NET
c) JSP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. What is document object model (DOM)?

a) convention for representing and interacting with objects in html documents
b) application programming interface
c) hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
88

10. AJAX stands for

a) asynchronous javascript and xml
b) advanced JSP and xml
c) asynchronous JSP and xml
d) advanced javascript and xml
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPv4

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPv4”.

1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?

a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing conventions
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling conventions
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.

2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?

a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of packets.

3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time the datagram is processed by a router.

4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _____________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either of the mentioned
89

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.

5. The data field can carry which of the following?

a) TCP segemnt
b) UDP segment
c) ICMP messages
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Data field usually has tranaport layer segment, but it can also carry ICMP messages.

6. What should be the flag value to indicate the last fragment?

a) 0
b) 1
c) TTl value
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: flag=0 indicates that it is the last fragment.

7. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?

a) is connectionless
b) offer reliable service
c) offer unreliable service
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Ip offers unreliable service.

8. Fragmentation has following demerits

a) complicates routers
b) open to DOS attack
c) overlapping of fragments.
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation complex and also can create DOS attack.

9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) offset
b) flag
c) ttl
90

d) identifer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPv4

Addressing
This set of Computer Networks Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “IPv4
Addressing”.

1. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?

a) Connectionless
b) Offer reliable service
c) Offer unreliable service
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: IP offers unreliable service.

2. Fragmentation has following demerits

a) Complicates routers
b) Open to DOS attack
c) Overlapping of fragments
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation complex and also can create DOS attack.

3. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) Offset
b) Flag
c) TTL
d) Identifier
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram.

4. In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in
a) IPs
b) Blocks
c) Codes
91

d) Sizes
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in blocks.

5. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is replaced with

a) Classless Addressing
b) Classful Addressing
c) Classful Advertising
d) Classless Advertising
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Classful addressing is replaced with classless addressing.

6. First address in a block is used as network address that represents the

a) Class Network
b) Entity
c) Organization
d) Codes
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: First address in a block is used as network address that represents the organization.

7. In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are

a) Organized
b) Blocked
c) Wasted
d) Communicated
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are wasted.
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8. Network addresses are very important concepts of

a) Routing
b) Mask
c) IP Addressing
d) Classless Addressing
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Network addresses are very important concepts of IP addressing.

9. Which of this is not a class of IP address?

a) ClassE
b) ClassC
92

c) ClassD
d) ClassF
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Class F is not a class of IP addressing

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPv6

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPv6”.

1. The size of IP address in IPv6 is

a) 4bytes
b) 128bits
c) 8bytes
d) 100bits
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.

2. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results is faster processing of the datagram.

3. In the IPv6 header,the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast-switching
c) ToS field
d) Option field
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This field enables to have different types of IP datagram.

4. IPv6 doesnot use _________ type of address

a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
c) Anycast
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
93

Answer: a
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in IPv6.

5. These are the features present in IPv4 but not in IPv6.

a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the features are only present in IPv4 and not IPv6.

6. The _________ field determines the lifetime of IPv6 datagram

a) Hop limit
b) TTL
c) Next header
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented by one by a router when the datagram is forwaded by the router.
When the value becomes zero the datagram is discarded.

7. Dual-stack approach refers to

a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach used to support IPv6 in already existing systems.
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8. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each other by intervening
IPv4 routers. The best solution here is
a) Use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling
c) No solution
d) Replace the system
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tuunel.

9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
94

d) 64 to 79
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPv6

Addressing
This set of Computer Networks test focuses on “IPv6 Addressing”.

1. Dual-stack approach refers to

a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach used to support IPv6 in already existing systems.

2. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each other by intervening
IPv4 routers. The best solution here is
a) Use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling
c) No solution
d) Replace the system
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel.

3. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address.

4. A link local address of local addresses is used in an

a) Isolated router
b) Isolated mask
c) Isolated subnet
95

d) Isolated net
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Isolated subnet is very huge sharing network area in this link local address of local addresses is used.

5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself without going into network
is called
a) Unspecified address
b) Loopback address
c) Compatible address
d) Mapped address
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself without going
into network is called loop back address.

6. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6 address define its category is called
a) Prefix type
b) Postfix type
c) Reserved type
d) Local type
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Prefix means bits in the IP address are placed in leftmost position.

7. In IPv6 addresses, addresses start with eight 0s are called

a) Unicast addresses
b) Multicast addresses
c) Any cast addresses
d) Reserved addresses
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In IPv6 address format the starting bits are specified with eight 0s called reserved address.
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8. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?

a) Leading zeros are required
b) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros
c) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields
d) A single interface cannot have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In order to shorten the written length of an IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be replaced by
double colons. In trying to shorten the address further, leading zeros may also be removed. Just as with IPv4, a single
96

device’s interface can have more than one address; with IPv6 there are more types of addresses and the same rule
applies. There can be link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses all assigned to the same interface.

9. When IPV6 launched

a) June 2, 2012
b) June 4, 2012
c) June 5, 2012
d) June 6, 2012
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – P2P

Applications
This set of Computer Networks Problems focuses on “P2P Applications”.

1. Which layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery?

a) Physical layer
b) Network layer
c) Transport layer
d) Application layer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Transport layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery.

2. In process-to-process delivery, two processes communicate in which of the following methods?

a) Client/Server
b) Source/Destination
c) Message Transfer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The most common method used for this communication is Client/Server.

3. Multiple processes on destinations at transport layer are identified by:

a) Mac address
b) Port number
c) Host number
d) Host address
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Multiple processes on destinations are identified by transport layer address also called as port number.
97

4. Range of port numbers in Internet model is

a) 0 and 32,765(8-bit)
b) 0 and 32,765(16-bit)
c) 0 and 65,535(32-bit)
d) 0 and 65,535(16-bit)
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Port numbers are 16-bit integers between 0 and 65,535.

5. According to Internet Assigned Numbers Authority(IANA), which of the following range is not a part of port
number?
a) Well-known ports
b) Registered ports
c) Dynamic ports
d) Static ports
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: IANA divided port number range in to three i.e., Well-known, Registered and Dynamic ports.

6. The combination of an IP address and port number is called as?

a) Socket address
b) Port address
c) MAC address
d) Host address
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Socket address is the combination of an IP address and port number.

7. Which of the following is false with respect to Connectionless service of transport layer protocol?
a) Packets are not numbered
b) Packets are not delayed
c) No acknowledgement
d) Packet may arrive out of sequence
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Packets in this method may be delayed or lost.

8. Correct order in the process of Connection-Oriented services is

1. Data transfer
2. Connection release
3. Connection establishment
a) 1-2-3
b) 3-2-1
c) 2-1-3
d) 3-1-2
View Answer
98

Answer: d
Explanation: First connection should be established followed by data transfer and connection release.

9. In transport layer, Multiplexing is done at

a) Channel
b) Receiver site
c) Sender site
d) Packet
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Multiplexing is done before sending packets at sender site.

10. The process of error checking and dropping of the header, delivering messages to appropriate process based on
port number is called as
a) Delivery of packets
b) Error correction
c) Multiplexing
d) Demultiplexing
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Demultiplexing is the process of error checking and dropping of the header, delivering messages to
appropriate process based on port number

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – ICMP

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ICMP”.

1. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) has designed to compensate

a) Error-reporting
b) Error-correction
c) Host and management queries
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: ICMP has been designed to address these issues.

2. Header size of the ICMP message is

a) 8-bytes
b) 8-bits
c) 16-bytes
d) 16-bits
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ICMP message has 8-bytes header and variable size data section.
99

3. During error reporting, ICMP always reports error messages to

a) Destination
b) Source
c) Next router
d) Previous router
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ICMP sends error message to the source because the datagram knows information about source and
destination IP address.

4. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting messages

a) Destination unreachable
b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Router error is not a type of error-reporting messages in ICMP.

5. ICMP error message will not be generated for a datagram having a special address such as
a) 127.0.0.0
b) 12.1.2
c) 11.1
d) 127
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: No ICMP error message will be generated for a datagram having a special address such as 127.0.0.0 or
0.0.0.0.

6. When a router cannot route a datagram or host cannot deliver a datagram, the datagram is discarded and the router
or the host sends a ____________ message back to the source host that initiated the datagram.
a) Destination unreachable
b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Router sends destination unreachable message if the destination is not found.

7. The source-quench message in ICMP was designed to add a kind of ____________ to the IP.
a) Error control
b) Flow control
c) Router control
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
100

Answer: b
Explanation: Firstly, it informs the source that the datagram has been discarded. secondly, it warns the source that
there is congestion in the network.

8. In case of time exceeded error, when the datagram visits a router, the value of time to live field is
a) Remains constant
b) Decremented by 2
c) Incremented by 1
d) Decremented by 1
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: This field will be decremented by 1 at every router, and will be zero by the time it reaches source.

9. Two machines can use the timestamp request and timestamp replay messages to determine the ___________
needed for an IP datagram to travel between them.
a) Half-trip time
b) Round-trip time
c) Travel time for the next router
d) Time to reach the destination/source
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Router sends destination unreachable message if the destination is not found.

10. During debugging, we can use the ____________ program to find if a host is alive and responding
a) Traceroute
b) Shell
c) Ping
d) Java
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ping program is used to find if a host is alive and responding

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Transition

from IPV4 to IPV6
This set of Computer Networks Quiz focuses on “Transition from IPV4 to IPV6”.

1. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is

a) Huge number of systems on the internet
b) Very low number of system on the internet
c) Providing standard address
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
101

Answer: a
Explanation: Due to huge number of systems on the internet, transition from IPv4 to IPv6 happens.

2. Which of the following is not a transition strategies?

a) Dual stack
b) Tunnelling
c) Conversion
d) Header translation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Dual stack, tunnelling and header translation are the only three transition strategies.

3. To determine which version to use when sending a packet to a destination, the source host queries which of the
following?
a) Dual stack
b) Domain Name Server
c) Header information
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Source host queries DNS to determine which version to use when sending a packet to a destination.

4. The strategy used when two computers using IPv6 want to communicate with each other and the packet must pass
through a region that uses IPv4 is
a) Dual stack
b) Header translation
c) Conversion
d) Tunnelling
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Tunnelling is used when two computers using IPv6 want to communicate with each other and the packet
must pass through a region that uses IPv4.

5. The correct format of packet in tunnel that uses IPv4 region is

1. IPv6 header
2. Payload
3. IPv4 header
a) 3-1-2
b) 3-2-1
c) 1-2-3
d) 1-3-2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In tunnel with IPv4 region, IPv6 packet will be encapsulated with IPv4 header.
102

6. ___________ is necessary when the sender wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not understand IPv6.
a) Dual stack
b) Header translation
c) Conversion
d) Tunnelling
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Header translation is used when the sender wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not understand IPv6.

7. Header translation uses ___________ to translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.

a) IP address
b) Physical address
c) Mapped address
d) Any of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Mapped address is used to translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
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8. Which of the following is not the step in Header translation procedure?

a) The IPv6 mapped address is changed to an IPv4 address by extracting the rightmost 32bits
b) The value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded
c) The type of service field in IPv4 is set to zero
d) The IPv6 flow label is considered
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In header translation procedure, IPv6 flow label is ignored

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPV4 and

IPV6 Comparision
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPV4 and IPV6
Comparision”.

1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?

a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing conventions
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.
103

2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?

a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: TOS type of service identifies the type of packets.

3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time the datagram is processed by a router.

4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP and UDP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.

5. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) offset
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifier
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram.

6. The size of IP address in IPv6 is

a) 4bytes
b) 128bits
c) 8bytes
d) 100bits
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
104

7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results is faster processing of the datagram.

8. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast switching
c) TOS field
d) Option field
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This field enables to have different types of IP datagram.

9. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address

a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
c) Any cast
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in IPv6.

10. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not in IPv6?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the features are only present in IPv4 and not IPv6

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Analyzing

Subnet Masks
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Analyzing Subnet
Masks”.
105

1. Which of the following is the broadcast address for a Class B network ID using the default subnetmask?
a) 172.16.10.255
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 172.16.255.255
d) 172.255.255.255
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This address is used for broadcast the class B network purpose

2. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet
address, and broadcast address?
a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Class B is the address of IP code 172.16.13.5

3. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
a) 255.255.255.252
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If you have eight networks and each requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class C mask of
255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240 in binary is 11110000, which means you have four subnet bits and four host
bits. Using our math, we’d get the following:
24-2=14 subnets
24-2=14 hosts.

4. The combination of _________ and __________ is often termed the local address of the local portion of the IP
address.
a) Network number and host number
b) Network number and subnet number
c) Subnet number and host number
d) Host number
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Sub networking is implemented for remote sensing in transparent way from that a host contains the sub
network which called local operation.

5. _________ implies that all subnets obtained from the same subnet mask.
a) Static subnetting
b) Dynamic subnetting
106

c) Variable length subnetting

d) Both Dynamic subnetting and Variable length subnetting
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Static sub network.

6. State whether true or false.

i) A connection oriented protocol can only use unicast addresses.
ii) The any cast service is included in IPV6.
a) True, True
b) True, False
c) False, True
d) False, False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A connection oriented protocol can only use unicast addresses.
The any cast service is included in IPV6.

7. __________ is a high performance fiber optic token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over distances upto 1000
stations connected.
a) FDDI
b) FDDT
c) FDDR
d) FOTR
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: FIBER DISTRIBUTED DATA INTERFACE

8. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?

a) 1000 BASE-SX
b) 1000 BASE-LX
c) 1000 BASE-CX
d) all of the above
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networking, Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing various technologies for
transmitting Ethernet frames at a rate of a gigabit per second (1,000,000,000 bits per second), as defined by the IEEE
802.3-2008 standard. It came into use beginning in 1999, gradually supplanting Fast Ethernet in wired local
networks, as a result of being considerably faster.

9. _________ is a collective term for a number of Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of 1000
Mbit/s against the original Ethernet speed of 10 Mbit/s.
a) Ethernet
b) Fast Ethernet
c) Gigabit Ethernet
107

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Fast Ethernet

10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic network with an active star for switching.
a) S/NET
b) SW/NET
c) NET/SW
d) FS/NET
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A 50-MBd active star fiber optical Local area network (LAN) and its optical combiner and mixing rod
splitter are presented. The limited power budget and relatively large tapping losses of light wave technology, which
limit the use of fiber optics in tapped bus LAN topologies, are examined and proven tolerable in optical star
topologies

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Designing

Subnet Masks
This set of Computer Networks MCQs focuses on “Designing Subnet Masks”.

1.A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the
illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the
hosts?

1. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

2. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
3. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
4. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
5. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 5 only
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a crossover
cable. A straight-through cable won’t work. Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts them in different
subnets. The easy solution is just to set both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).
108

2. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid host
IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?
1. 172.16.1.100
2. 172.16.1.198
3. 172.16.2.255
4. 172.16.3.0
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes the
third octet a block size of 2. The router’s interface is in the 2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255 because the
next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1 through 3.254. The router is using the first valid host address in the
range.

3. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?

1. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
2. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
3. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
4. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9
host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6,
etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for
the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.

4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the
255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 30
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it
matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never
change.

5. You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Wohich classful subnet mask would
you use
109

a) 255.255.255.192
b) 255.255.255.224
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets with 14
hosts-this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. This is the best answer.

6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses available on each
subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide the correct subnet mask?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets, so let’s
add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits
(6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.

7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet
address of this host?
a) 172.16.112.0
b) 172.16.0.0
c) 172.16.96.0
d) 172.16.255.0
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used for
subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in
the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet,
which has a broadcast address of 127 since 128 is the next subnet

8. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how
many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 30
d) 32
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is the
maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.
110

9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?

a) 172.16.36.0
b) 172.16.48.0
c) 172.16.64.0
d) 172.16.0.0
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count by 8
until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64
subnet is 71.255.

10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it
provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IP

Routing
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IP Routing”.

1. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DEC net?
a) Ethernet 802.3
b) Ethernet 802.2
c) Ethernet II
d) Ethernet SNAP
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ethernet 802.3 is used with NetWare versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet 802.2 is used withNetWare 3.12
and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DEC net,and Ethernet SNAP is used with TCP/IP and
AppleTalk.

2. You are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are runningNetWare 4.11 and you cannot
communicate with your router. What is the likelyproblem?
a) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
b) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
c) Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11
d) NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
View Answer
111

Answer: a
Explanation: The default encapsulation on Cisco routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12and later defaults
to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3.

3. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number and a node number. Which statement is not true?
a) The network address is administratively assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits long
b) The node address is always administratively assigned
c) The node address is usually the MAC address
d) If the MAC address is used as the node address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The network address can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits in length. The node number is 12hexadecimal
digits. The node address is usually the MAC address. An example IPXaddress is 4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The network
part is 4a1d. The node part is0000.0c56.de33. The network number is assigned by the system administrator of
theNovell network.

4. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3–network layer—of the OSI model?
a) IPX
b) NCP
c) SPX
d) NetBIOS
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is a NetWare network layer 3 protocol used fortransferring
information on LANs.

5. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?

a) NLSP
b) RIP
c) SAP
d) NCP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement
Protocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare Core Protocol)provides client-to-server connections and
applications. RIP is a distance vector routingprotocol.

6. As a system administrator, you want to debug IGRP but are worried that the
“debug IP IGRP transaction” command will flood the console. What is the command
that you should use?
a) Debug IP IGRP event
b) Debug IP IGRP-events
c) Debug IP IGRP summary
d) Debug IP IGRP events
View Answer
112

Answer: d
Explanation: The “debug IP IGRP events” is used to only display a summary of IGRP routing information. You can
append an IP address onto either command to see only the IGRP
updates from a neighbor.

7. What does the following series of commands accomplish? RouterIGRP 71 network

10.0.0.0 router IGRP 109 network 172.68.7.0
a) It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0
b) It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71
c) It disables RIP
d) It disables all routing protocols
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 and associates autonomous systems 109 and71 with IGRP.
IGRP does not disable RIP, both can be used at the same time.

8. The “IPX delay number” command will allow an administrator to change the
default settings. What are the default settings?
a) For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks
b) For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick
c) For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks
d) For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The default is–for LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks

9. As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco
router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of
commands will accomplish this?
a) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX network 6c
b) Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
c) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX
encapsulation sap
d) Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The following commands setup the sub interfaces to allow for two types of encapsulation:interface
Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface Ethernet0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX
network 6c.

10. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2” command accomplish?

a) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths
b) It sets up routing to go to network 2
c) It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
113

d) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 pathand the
maximum is 512 paths.

11. You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one router interface.
How do you do this?
a) The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types with no extra configuration
b) Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type
c) Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation types
d) Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so you don’t have to configure anything
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: To assign multiple network numbers, you usually use sub interfaces. A sample configuration follows:
IPXEthernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx
network 6c

12. By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to remote networks.

a) False
b) True
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: GNS is Novell’s protocol to Get Nearest Server. If there is a server on the local network,that server will
respond. If there isn’t, the Cisco router has to be configured to forward theGNS SAP

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – RIP v1

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RIP v1”.

1. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) EIGRP
d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: RIP v1 has network diameter is more than 17 hopes.

2. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default?
a) Every 30 seconds
b) Every 60 seconds
c) Every 90 seconds
114

d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Every 30 seconds RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default.

3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?

a) Show IP route
b) Debug IP rip
c) Show protocols
d) Debug IP route
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The debug IP rip command is used to show the Internet Protocol (IP) Routing Information Protocol
(RIP) updates being sent and received on the router.

4. Two connected routers are configured with RIP routing. What will be the result when a router receives a routing
update that contains a higher-cost path to a network already in its routing table?
a) The updated information will be added to the existing routing table Debug IP rip
b) The update will be ignored and no further action will occur Debug IP route
c) The updated information will replace the existing routing table entry
d) The existing routing table entry will be deleted from the routing table and all routers will exchange routing updates
to reach convergence
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When a routing update is received by a router, the router first checks the administrative distance (AD)
and always chooses the route with the lowest AD. However, if two routes are received and they both have the same
AD, then the router will choose the one route with the lowest metrics, or in RIP’s case, hop count.

5. You type debug IP rip on your router console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you with a metric of
16. What does this mean?
a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip
b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds Debug IP route
c) The route is inaccessible
d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: You cannot have 16 hops on a RIP network by default. If you receive a route advertised with a metric of
16, this means it is inaccessible.

6. Default administrative distance of Static Route

a) 0
b) 90
c) 100
d) 1
View Answer
115

Answer: d
Explanation: 1 is the default administrative distance of Static Route.

7. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds?

a) IEGRP
b) RIP
c) both IEGRP and RIP
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: RIP gives a full route table update every 30 seconds.

8. Default administrative distance of RIP

a) 0
b) 90
c) 120
d) 130
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Default administrative distance of RIP is 120.

9. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocol?

a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
b) Use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) IGRP supports classes routing within the same autonomous system
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Use of variable length subnet masks is permittedis true regarding classless routing protocol.

10. Where we should use default routing

a) On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network
b) Which have more than one exit path out of the network
c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the networkuse default routing.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – RIP v2

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “RIP v2”.
116

1. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols?

a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
b) The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) RIPv2 supports classless routing
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Classful routing means that all hosts in the internetwork use the same mask. Classless routing means
that you can use Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) and can also support discontinuous networking.

2. What is route poisoning?

a) It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates. The use of
variable length subnet masks is permitted
b) It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2 supports classless
routing
c) It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up
d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When a network goes down, the distance-vector routing protocol initiates route poisoning by advertising
the network with a metric of 16, or unreachable.

3. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?

a) It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1
b) It converges faster than RIPv1
c) It has the same timers as RIPv1
d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: RIPv2 is pretty much just like RIPv1. It has the same administrative distance and timers and is
configured just like RIPv1.

4. Which of the situations might not require require multiple routing protocols in a network?
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the network
b) When you are migrating from one routing protocol to another
c) When you are using routers from multiple vendors
d) When there are host-based routers from multiple vendors
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: One routing protocol to another, routers from multiple vendors,host-based routers from multiple
vendors.

5. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router?
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP
117

d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: IP EIGRP, RIPv2. These can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router.

6. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between the same two routing domains?
a) Higher cost of two routers
b) Routing feedback
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility
d) Not possible to use two routers
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Routing feedback is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between the same
two routing domains.

7. What does administrative distance rank?

a) Metrics
b) Sources of routing information
c) Router reliability
d) Best paths
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Sources of routing information is the administrative distance rank.

8. Which protocol maintains neighbor adjacencies?

a) RIPv2 and EIGRP
b) IGRP and EIGRP
c) RIPv2
d) EIGRP
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: RIP V2 maintains neighbor adjacencies.

9. Which routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm?

a) IS-IS
b) IGRP
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: EIGRP routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm.

10. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
118

c) EIGRP
d) All of the above
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: RIPv2protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops

Computer Networks Questions & Answers –

Cryptography
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cryptography”.

1. In cryptography, what is cipher?

a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
b) encrypted message
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and decryption and encrypted message
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by

a) sender
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography?

a) rsa algorithm
b) diffie-hellman algorithm
c) electronic code book algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by

a) transpositional ciphers
b) substitution ciphers
c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution ciphers
119

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. What is data encryption standard (DES)?

a) block cipher
b) stream cipher
c) bit cipher
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Cryptanalysis is used
a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
b) to increase the speed
c) to encrypt the data
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
b) transport layer security (TSL)
c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)
d) resource reservation protocol
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone protocol is provided by

a) A5/2 cipher
b) b5/4 cipher
c) b5/6 cipher
d) b5/8 cipher
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None

9. ElGamal encryption system is

a) symmetric key encryption algorithm
b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm
c) not an encryption algorithm
120

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary block of data and returns
a) fixed size bit string
b) variable size bit string
c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit string
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Ports

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Ports”.

1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in
a) Persistent HTTP
b) Ponpersistent HTTP
c) Both Persistent HTTP and Ponpersistent HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: hypertext transfer protocol is used for sending multiple objects over TCP connection.

2. HTTP is ________ protocol.

a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Network layer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP works on application layer.

3. In the network HTTP resources are located by

a) Uniform resource identifier
b) Unique resource locator
c) Unique resource identifier
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
121

Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP resources are located by uniform resource identifier.

4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a) User datagram protocol
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Broader gateway protocol
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation:HTTP client requests by establishing TCP connection to a particular port on the server.

5. In HTTP pipelining
a) Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
b) Multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a single TCP connection
c) Multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding
responses in HTTP pipelining.

6. FTP server listens for connection on port number

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 21 is the port number of FTP.

7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using _________ as the transport protocol.
a) Transmission control protocol
b) User datagram protocol
c) Datagram congestion control protocol
d) Stream control transmission protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Client contacts server using TCP as the transport protocol.

8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) Active mode
b) Passive mode
c) Both Active mode and Passive mode
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
122

Answer: b
Explanation: In passive mode the client initiates both the control and data connections.

9. The file transfer protocol is built on

a) Data centric architecture
b) Service oriented architecture
c) Client server architecture
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is built on client server architecture.

10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in

a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Data transfer can be done in stream, block and compressed modes

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Socket

Programming
This set of Computer Networks Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Socket Programming”.

1. Which methods are commonly used in Server Socket class?

a) Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()
b) Public Socket accept ()
c) Public synchronized void close ()
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Public Socket accept () used in Server Socket class.

2. Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is used to create a datagram socket and binds it with the given Port
Number?
a) Datagram Socket(int port)
b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)
c) Datagram Socket()
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Datagram Socket (int port, Int Address address) is use data create a datagram socket.
123

3. The client in socket programming must know which information?

a) IP address of Server
b) Port number
c) Both IP address of Server & Port number
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The client in socket programming must know IP address of Server.

4. The URL Connection class can be used to read and write data to the specified resource referred by the URL
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The URL Connection class can be used to read and write data to the specified resource referred by the
URL.

5. Datagram is basically an information but there is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram is basically an information but there is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time.

6. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of?

a) Socket
b) IP Address
c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of Protocol.

7. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?

a) Socket
b) IP Address
c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The java.net.InetAddress class represent IP Address.

8. The flush () method of Print Stream class flushes any un cleared buffers in memory
a) True
124

b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The flush () method of Print Stream class flushes any un cleared buffers in memory.

9. Which classes are used for connection-less socket programming?

a) Datagram Socket
b) Datagram Packet
c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Datagram Socket, Datagram Packet are used for connection-less socket programming.

10. In Int Address class which method returns the host name of the IP Address?
a) Public String get Hostname()
b) Public String getHostAddress()
c) Public static IntAddress get Localhost()
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In Int Address class public String get Hostname() method returns the host name of the IP Address.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Cookies

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cookies”.

1. Cookies were originally designed for

a) Client side programming
b) Server side programming
c) Both Client side programming and Server side programming
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cookies were originally designed for server side programming, and at the lowest level, they are
implemented as an extension to the HTTP protocol.

2. The Cookie manipulation is done using which property?

a) cookie
b) cookies
c) manipulate
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
125

Answer: a
Explanation: There are no methods involved: cookies are queried, set, and deleted by reading and Writing the cookie
property of the Document object using specially formatted strings.

3. Which of the following explains Cookies nature?

a) Non Volatile
b) Volatile
c) Intransient
d) Transient
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cookies are transient by default; the values they store last for the duration of the web browser session
but are lost when the user exits the browser.

4. Which attribute is used to extend the lifetime of a cookie?

a) Higherage
b) Increaseage
c) Maxage
d) Lifetime
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If you want a cookie to last beyond a single browsing session, you must tell the browser how long (in
seconds) you would like it to retain the cookie by specifying a manage
attribute. If you specify a lifetime, the browser will store cookies in a file and delete them only once they expire.

5. Which of the following defines the Cookie visibility?

a) Document Path
b) LocalStorage
c) SessionStorage
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cookie visibility is scoped by document origin as local Storage and session Storage are, and also by
document path.

6. Which of the following can be used to configure the scope of the Cookie visibility?
a) Path
b) Domain
c) Both Path and Domain
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Cookie visibility scope is configurable through cookie attributes path and domain.

7. How can you set a Cookie visibility scope to local Storage?

a) /
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b) %
c) *
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Setting the path of a cookie to “/” gives scoping like that of localStorage and also specifies that the
browser must transmit the cookie name and value to the server whenever it requests any web page on the site.

8. Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?

a) Bool
b) Secure
c) Lookup
d) Domain
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The final cookie attribute is a boolean attribute named secure that specifies how cookie values are
transmitted over the network. By default, cookies are insecure, which means that they are transmitted over a normal,
insecure HTTP connection. If a cookie is marked secure, however, it is transmitted only when the browser and server
are connected via HTTPS or another secure protocol.

9. Which of the following function is used as a consequence of not including semicolons,

Commas or whitespace in the Cookie value?
a) EncodeURIComponent()
b) EncodeURI()
c) EncodeComponent()
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Cookie values cannot include semicolons, commas, or whitespace. For this reason, you may want to use
the core JavaScript global function encodeURIComponent() to encode the value before storing it in the cookie.

10. What is the constraint on the data per cookie?

a) 2 KB
b) 1 KB
c) 4 KB
d) 3 KB
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Each cookie can hold upto only 4 KB. In practice, browsers allow many more than 300 cookies total,
but the 4 KB size limit may still be enforced by some

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Web

Caching
127

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Web Caching”.

1. What REST stands for?

a) Represent State Transfer
b) Representational State Transfer
c) Represent State Transfer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: REST stands for Representational State Transfer.

2. Which of the following protocol is used by Restful web services as a medium of communication between client
and server?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Gopher
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Restful web services make use of HTTP protocol as a medium of communication between client and
server.

3. Which of the following is a best practice to create a standard URI for a web service?
a) Maintain Backward Compatibility
b) Use HTTP Verb
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: C
Explanation: Both of the above options are correct.

4. Which of the following HTTP method should be idempotent in nature?

a) OPTIONS
b) DELETE
c) POST
d) HEAD
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: DELETE operations should be idempotent, means their result will always same no matter how many
times these operations are invoked.

5. Which of the following directive of Cache Control Header of HTTP response indicates that resource is cachable by
only client and server?
a) Public
b) Private
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c) Nocache/nostore
d) Maxage
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Private directive indicates that resource is cachable by only client and server, no intermediary can cache
the resource.

6. Which of the following HTTP Status code means CREATED, when a resource is successful created using POST or
PUT request?
a) 200
b) 201
c) 204
d) 304
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP Status Code 201 means CREATED, when a resource is successful created using POST or PUT
request.

7. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API is used to annotate a method used to create resource?
a) @Path
b) @GET
c) @PUT
d) @POST
View Answer

Answer: C
Explanation: @PUT – HTTP Get request, used to create resource.

8. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API binds the parameter passed to method to a HTTP matrix
parameter in path?
a) @PathParam
b) @QueryParam
c) @MatrixParam
d) @HeaderParam
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: @MatrixParam – Binds the parameter passed to method to a HTTP matrix parameter in path.

9. In REST architecture, a REST Server simply provides access to resources and REST client accesses and presents
the resources.
a) False
b) True
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In REST architecture, a REST Server simply provides access to resources and REST client accesses and
presents the resources.
129

10. POST operations should be idempotent.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: POST operation can cause different result

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Packet

Forwarding and Routing
This set of Computer Networks online test focuses on “Packet Forwarding and Routing”.

1. Term is used to place packet in its route to its destination is called

a) Delayed
b) Urgent
c) Forwarding
d) Delivering
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is for transforming the message from source to destination with forward technique.

2. A second technique to reduce routing table and simplify searching process is called
a) Network-Specific Method
b) Network-Specific Motion
c) Network-Specific Maintaining
d) Network-Specific Membership
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is the before method of the packet switching.

3. Next-Hop Method is used to reduce contents of a

a) Revolving table
b) Rotating Table
c) Routing Table
d) Re-allocate table
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This method is for creating the shortest distances.

4. Several techniques can make size of routing table manageable and also handle issues such as
a) Maturity
b) Error reporting
c) Tunneling
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d) Security
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: To visible only accessing sub networks.

5. Host-specific routing is used for purposes such as checking route or providing

a) Network Measures
b) Security Measures
c) Routing Measures
d) Delivery Measures
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Security measures.

6. In Unicast routing, if instability is between three nodes, stability cannot be

a) Stable
b) Reversed
c) Guaranteed
d) Forward
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is only for unidirectional.

7. In Unicast Routing, Dijkstra algorithm creates a shortest path tree from a

a) Graph
b) Tree
c) Network
d) Link
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Graph technique is used for best node finding technic with shortest path algorithms.

8. In Multicast Routing Protocol, flooding is used to broadcast packets but it creates

a) Gaps
b) Loops
c) Holes
d) Links
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Loops is for multicast routing.

9. RPF stands for

a) Reverse Path Forwarding
b) Reverse Path Failure
c) Reverse Packet Forwarding
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d) Reverse Protocol Failure

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Reverse Path Forwarding.

10. LSP stands for

a) Link Stable Packet
b) Link State Packet
c) Link State Protocol
d) Link State Path
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Link State Packet

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Security

In The Internet
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Security In The
Internet”.

1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the

a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the

a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Network layer firewall works as a

a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) both frame filter and packet filter
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d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as

a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) frame firewall and packet firewall
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. WPA2 is used for security in

a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called

a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in

a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in

a) browser security
b) email security
c) FTP security
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d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called

a) international data encryption algorithm
b) private data encryption algorithm
c) intrenet data encryption algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that
information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – OSPF

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “OSPF”.

1. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called as _____________

a) Link state protocol
b) Error-correction protocol
c) Routing information protocol
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Each OSPF router monitors the cost of the link to each of its neighbours and then floods the link state
information to other routers in the network.

2. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is usually done by ____________

a) Bellman-ford algorithm
b) Routing information protocol
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
d) Distance vector routing
View Answer
134

Answer: c
Explanation: Shortest path in OSPF is usually computed by Dijkstra’s algorithm. It was proposed by Edsger W.
Dijkstra in the year 1956. This algorithm computes the shortest path between nodes.

3. Which of the following is false with respect to the features of OSPF?

a) Support for fixed-length sunbathing by including the subnet mask in the routing message
b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 to 65535
c) Use of designated router
d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that have equal cost to the destination
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Support for variable-length sunbathing by including the subnet mask in the routing message.

4. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover neighbour routers automatically?

a) Link state protocol
b) Error-correction protocol
c) Routing information protocol
d) Hello protocol
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover neighbour routers automatically. It makes sure that the
communication between neighbors are bidirectional.

5. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF packet?

a) Hello
b) Link-state request
c) Link-state response
d) Link-state ACK
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Five types of OSPF packets are: Hello, Database description, Link-state request, Link-state update,
Link-state ACK.

6. Correct order of the operations of OSPF.

1 – Hello packets
2 – Propagation of link-state information and building of routing tables
3 – Establishing adjacencies and synchronisation database
a) 1-2-3
b) 1-3-2
c) 3-2-1
d) 2-1-3
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: OSPF first implements a hello protocol. Then it later on tries to establish synchronisation with database.
Later on building of routing tables is done.
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7. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect errors in the packet?

a) Type
b) Area ID
c) Authentication type
d) Checksum
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors. It makes sure that the data portions that are being sent are all in
integrity. It can detect duplicated bits.

8. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if more database descriptor packet flows, ‘M’ field is set to ____________
a) 1
b) 0
c) more
d) none
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: M bit is set to 1.

9. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to indicate that the router is master?
a) M
b) MS
c) I
d) Options
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: M bit is set to 1. These packets are exchanged when an adjacency is being initialized. Master sends
these packets called polls to slave, and then slave sends back acknowledgments.

10. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to detect a missing packet?
a) LSA header
b) MS
c) Database descriptor sequence number
d) Options
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Sequence number field is used to detect a missing packet. LSA is abbreviation for link state
advertisement. LSA is the main communication means for OSPF

This set of Computer Networks online quiz focuses on “OSPF Configuration”.

1. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this
number matches the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has.
What does the receiving router do with the LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA
136

b) Adds it to the database

c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this number matches the
sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has Ignores the LSA.

2. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that
this number is higher than the sequence number it already has. Which two tasks does
the router perform with the LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA
b) Adds it to the database
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is
higher than the sequence number Adds it to the database, Floods the LSA to the other routers.

3. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that
this number is lower than the sequence number it already has. What does the router do
with the LSA?
a) ignores the LSA
b) adds it to the database
c) sends newer LSU update to source router
d) floods the LSA to the other routers
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is
lower than the sequence number sends newer LSU update to source router.

4. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update?
a) 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, 30 minutes does an LSA wait before requiring an update.

5. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
137

Answer: b
Explanation: Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as
OSPF, do not use this.

6. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the __________

a) Topology table
b) Routing table
c) Neighbor table
d) Adjacency table
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the Routing table.

7. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets?

a) 89
b) 86
c) 20
d) 76
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 89 is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets.

8. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?

a) LSU
b) LSR
c) DBD
d) Query
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Query packet is NOT an OSPF packet type.

9. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use?

a) 224.0.0.5
b) 224.0.0.6
c) 224.0.0.7
d) 224.0.0.8
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: 224.0.0.5 is the multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use.

10. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent
routers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
138

Answer: a
Explanation: The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between
adjacent routers.

11. DBD packets are involved during which two states?

a) Exstart
b) Loading
c) Exchange
d) Two-way
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: DBD packets are involved during which two states Exstart, Exchange.

12. At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?

a) 10 seconds
b) 30 seconds
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
advertisement

13. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet header?

a) Packet length
b) Router ID
c) Authentication type
d) Maxage time
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Maxage timeis NOT a field within an OSPF packet header.

14. Which two commands are required for basic OSPF configuration?
a) Network ip-address mask area area-id
b) Network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id
c) Router ospf process-id
d) both Network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id and Router ospf process-id
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id, Router ospf process-id are required for basic OSPF
configuration.

15. Which OSPF show command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies?

a) Show ipospf interface
b) Show ipospf
c) Show ip route
139

d) Show ipospf neighbor

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Show ipospf neighborOSPF show command describes a list of OSPF adjacencie

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Datagram

Networks
This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Datagram Networks”.

1. Datagram switching is done at which layer of OSI model?

a) Network layer
b) Physical layer
c) Application layer
d) Transport layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram switching is normally done at network layer.

2. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as

a) Switches
b) Segments
c) Datagrams
d) Data-packets
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: As the name suggests, in datagram switching packets are called as datagrams.

3. Datagram networks mainly refers to

a) Connection oriented networks
b) Connection less networks
c) Telephone networks
d) Internetwork
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The switch does not keep the information about the connection state, hence it is connection less.

4. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with the help of

a) Switch table
b) Segments table
c) Datagram table
d) Routing table
View Answer
140

Answer: c
Explanation: Routing table is used to route the packets to their destinations.

5. The main contents of the routing table in datagram networks are

a) Source and Destination address
b) Destination address and Output port
c) Source address and Output port
d) Input port and Output port
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Routing table contains destination address and output port to route the packets to their destinations.

6. Which of the following remains same in the header of the packet in a datagram network during the entire journey
of the packet?
a) Destination address
b) Source address
c) Checksum
d) Padding
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Destination address remains same in the header during the entire journey of the packet.

7. Which of the following is true with respect to the delay in datagram networks?
a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network
b) Each packet may experience a wait at a switch
c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a message
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are true with respect to the delay in datagram networks.

8. During datagram switching, the packets are placed in __________ to wait until the given transmission line
becomes available.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Hash
d) Routing table
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Packets are stored in queue during delay and are served as first in first out.

9. The probability of the error in a transmitted block _________ with the length of the block
a) Remains same
b) Decreases
c) Increases
141

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Probability of the error in a transmitted block increases with the length of the block.

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the datagram networks?
a) Number of flows of packets are not limited
b) Packets may not be in order at the destination
c) Path is not reserved
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All are the facts with respect to the datagram networks

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Firewalls

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Firewalls”.

1. Network layer firewall works as a

a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are available as hardware appliances, as software-only, or a combination of the
two. In every case, the purpose of a firewall is to isolate your trusted internal network (or your personal PC) from the
dangers of unknown resources on the Internet and other network connections that may be harmful. The firewall
prevents unauthorized access to your internal, trusted network from outside threats.

2. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as

a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can operate as stateful or stateless firewalls, creating two subcategories of
the standard network layer firewall. Stateful firewalls have the advantage of being able to track packets over a period
of time for greater analysis and accuracy — but they require more memory and operate more slowly. Stateless
firewalls do not analyze past traffic and can be useful for systems where speed is more important than security, or for
systems that have very specific and limited needs. For example, a computer that only needs to connect to a particular
backup server does not need the extra security of a stateful firewall.
142

3. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external network meet which is
also known as __________
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a router, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, or a combination of
these that determines which information or services can be accessed from the outside and who is permitted to use the
information and services from outside. Generally, a firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network
and untrusted external network meet, which is also known as a chokepoint.

4. Which of the following is / are the types of firewall?

a) Packet Filtering Firewall
b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
c) Screen Host Firewall
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, a router, or combination of
these. Depending on the requirements, a firewall can consist of one or more of the following functional components:
Packet-filtering router

5. A proxy firewall filters at?

a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer
d) Application layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The application firewall is typically built to control all network traffic on any layer up to the application
layer. It is able to control applications or services specifically, unlike a stateful network firewall, which is – without
additional software – unable to control network traffic regarding a specific application. There are two primary
categories of application firewalls, network-based application firewalls and host-based application firewalls.

6. A packet filter firewall filters at?

a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer or Transport layer
d) Application layer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In computing, a firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and
outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.[1] A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a
143

trusted, secure internal network and another outside network, such as the Internet, that is assumed not to be secure or
trusted.[2] Firewalls are often categorized as either network firewalls or host-based firewalls.

7. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?

a) You can control where traffic goes in three networks
b) You can do stateful packet filtering
c) You can do load balancing
d) Improved network performance
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In a topology with a single firewall serving both internal and external users (LAN and WAN), it acts as
a shared resource for these two zones.

8. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data stream that has been divided into packets?
a) The source routing future
b) The number in the header’s identification field
c) The destination IP address
d) The header checksum field in the packet header
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: source routing future.

9. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________ which is a list of active connections?

a) Routing table
b) Bridging table
c) State table
d) Connection table
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Routing table with best performance

10. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it can grow with the network it protects
a) Robust
b) Expansive
c) Fast
d) Scalable
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Expansive to block the fake subscribers

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Network

Management
144

This set of Computer Networks Question Bank focuses on “Network Management”.

1. Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of

a) Documents
b) Components
c) Servers
d) Entities
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of components.

2. Performance management, is closely related to

a) Proactive Fault Management
b) Fault management
c) Reactive Fault Management
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Fault management is called the performance management.

3. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems: reconfiguration and

a) Documentation
b) Information
c) Servers
d) Entity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Documentation is the other type of configuration management.

4. In Network Management System, a term that responsible for controlling access to network based on predefined
policy is called
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In Network Management System, a term that responsible for controlling access to network based on
predefined policy is called security management.

5. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges are main responsibilities of
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
View Answer
145

Answer: c
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network resources through charges are main responsibilities of accounting
management.

6. The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is
a) Transmission path
b) Virtual path
c) Virtual circuit
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation:bThe physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is transmission
path.

7. Which of the following networks supports pipelining effect?

a) Circuit-switched networks
b) Message-switched networks
c) Packet-switched networks
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Packet switched network is most preferred for pipelining process.

8. In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection to the
a) IP Server
b) Domain
c) Network
d) Data
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Network is main thing in connecting different entities in a place.

9. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can be managed by

a) SMTP
b) UDP
c) SNMP
d) TCP/IP
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Simple network management controls the group of objects in management interface base.

10. A network management system can be divided into

a) three categories
b) five broad categories
c) seven broad categories
146

d) ten broad categories

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Five broad categories are
• Fault Management
• Configuration Management
• Accounting (Administration)
• Performance Management
• Security Management.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Network

Utilities
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network Utilities”.

1. Ping can
a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. Ping sweep is a part of

a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A ping sweep is a method that can establish a range of IP addresses which map to live hosts and are
mostly used by network scanning tools like nmap.

3. ICMP is used in
a) Ping
b) Traceroute
c) Ifconfig
d) Both Ping & Traceroute
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
147

4. __________ command is used to manipulate TCP/IP routing table.

a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to be used is.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. Which of the following is related to ipconfig in Microsoft Windows ?

a) Display all current TCP/IP network configuration values
b) Modify DHCP settings
c) Modify DNS settings
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. This allows to check if a domain is available for registration.

a) Domain Check
b) Domain Dossier
c) Domain Lookup
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Choose the wrong statement

a) Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for DNS data
b) Ping is used to check connectivity
c) Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of route
d) Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network interface parameters
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of traceroute (tracert)
148

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Ethernet

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Ethernet”.

1. Ethernet frame consists of

a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both MAC address and IP address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet frame?

a) 10101010
b) 10101011
c) 00000000
d) 11111111
View Answer

3. MAC address is of
1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. What is autonegotiation?
a) a procedure by which two connected devices choose common transmission parameters
b) a security algorithm
c) a routing algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) can be used as

a) pure ethernet
b) ethernet over SDH
c) ethernet over MPLS
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
149

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a network protocol for

a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet frames
b) encapsulating ehternet framse inside PPP frames
c) for security of ethernet frames
d) for security of PPP frames
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. High speed ethernet works on

a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is

a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. What is interframe gap?

a) idle time between frames
b) idle time between frame bits
c) idle time between packets
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE 802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is called
a) short frame
b) run frame
c) mini frame
d) man frame
View Answer
150

Answer: b
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Wireless

LAN
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Wireless LAN”.

1. What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN?

a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices itself
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In wireless ad-hoc network

a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. In wireless distribution system

a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.
151

5. A wireless network interface controller can work in

a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In infrastructure mode WNIC needs access point but in ad-hoc mode access point is not required.

6. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of

a) connected basic service sets
b) all stations
c) all access points
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.

a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN.

a) collision detection
b) acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) ?

a) security algorithm for ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.
152

10. What is WPA?

a) wi-fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
d) wi-fi process access
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Internet

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Internet”.

1. What is internet?
a) a single network
b) a vast collection of different networks
c) interconnection of local area networks
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a

a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet service provider
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is provided by
a) leased line
b) digital subscriber line
c) digital signal line
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their networks by

a) internet exchange point
b) subscriber end point
c) isp end point
153

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Which one of the following protocol is not used in internet?

a) HTTP
b) DHCP
c) DNS
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. IPv6 addressed have a size of

a) 32 bits
b) 64 bits
c) 128 bits
d) 265 bits
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Internet works on
a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) both packet switching and circuit switching
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
a) remote procedure call
b) internet relay chat
c) resource reservation protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?

a) DHCP
b) IP
c) RPC
154

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
a) ethernet
b) digital subscriber line
c) fiber distributed data interface
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Bluetooth

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Bluetooth”.

1. An interconnected collection of piconet is called

a) scatternet
b) micronet
c) mininet
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of bluetooth system having a master node and upto seven active slave nodes.

2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the net.

a) 63
b) 127
c) 255
d) 511
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for

a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) both local area network and personal area network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
155

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Bluetooth uses
a) frequency hoping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?

a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video
c) a bluetooth profile for security
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. In the piconet of bluetooth one master device

a) can not be slave
b) can be slave in another piconet
c) can be slave in the same piconet
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.

a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM
View Answer
156

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. The bluetooth supports

a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. A scatternet can have maximum

a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – WiMAX

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “WiMAX”.

1. WiMAX stands for

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. WiMAX provides
a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
157

3. WiMAX uses the

a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Which one of the following modulation scheme is supported by WiMAX?

a) binary phase shift keying modulation
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
c) quadrature amplitude modulation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface between

a) higher transport layers and physical layer
b) application layer and network layer
c) data link layer and network layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. For encryption, WiMAX supports

a) advanced encryption standard
b) triple data encryption standard
c) both advanced encryption standard and triple data encryption standard
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. WiMAX provides
a) VoIP services
b) IPTV services
c) Both VoIP services and IPTV services
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
158

8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as

a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
c) gateway
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. WiMAX is mostly used for

a) local area network
b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. Which one of the following frequency is not used in WiMAX for communication?
a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.5 GHz
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – SONET

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SONET”.

1. SONET stands for

a) synchronous optical network
b) synchronous operational network
c) stream optical network
d) shell operational network
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In SONET, STS-1 level of electrical signalling has the data rate of

a) 51.84 Mbps
b) 155.52 Mbps
c) 466.56 Mbps
159

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. The path layer of SONET is responsible for the movement of a signal

a) from its optical source to its optical destination
b) across a physical line
c) across a physical section
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The photonic layer of the SONET is similar to the __________ of OSI model.
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) physical layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. In SONET, each synchronous transfer signal STS-n is composed of

a) 2000 frames
b) 4000 frames
c) 8000 frames
d) 16000 frames
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. Which one of the following is not true about SONET?

a) frames of lower rate can be synchronously time-division multiplexed into a higher-rate frame
b) multiplexing is synchronous TDM
c) all clocks in the network are locked to a master clock
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. A linear SONET network can be

a) point-to-point
b) multi-point
c) both point-to-point and multi-point
160

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. Automatic protection switching in linear network is defined at the

a) line layer
b) section layer
c) photonic layer
d) path layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. A unidirectional path switching ring is a network with

a) one ring
b) two rings
c) three rings
d) four rings
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: One ring is used as the working ring and other as the protection ring.

10. What is SDH?

a) sdh is similar standard to SONET developed by ITU-T
b) synchronous digital hierarchy
c) both sdh is similar standard to SONET developed by ITU-T and synchronous digital hierarchy
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – RTP

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RTP”.

1. Real-time transport protocol (RTP) is mostly used in

a) streaming media
b) video teleconference
c) television services
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
161

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. RTP is used to
a) carry the media stream
b) monitor transmission statistics of streams
c) monitor quality of service of streams
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. RTP provides the facility of jitter ____________

a) media stream
b) expansion
c) both media stream and expansion
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Which protocol provides the synchronization between media streams?

a) RTP
b) RTCP
c) RPC
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. An RTP session is established for

a) each media stream
b) all media streams
c) some predefined number of media streams
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. RTP can use

a) unprevileleged UDP ports
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
162

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Which one of the following multimedia formats can not be supported by RTP?
a) MPEG-4
b) MJPEG
c) MPEG
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. An RTP header has a minimum size of

a) 12 bytes
b) 16 bytes
c) 24 bytes
d) 32 bytes
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers to all session participants
b) RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all participants
c) RTCP itself does not provide any flow encryption or authentication methods
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. Which protocol defines a profile of RTP that provides cryptographic services for the transfer of payload data?
a) SRTP
b) RTCP
c) RCP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – RPC

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RPC”.
163

1. An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by the

a) server
b) client
c) both server and client
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. In RPC, while a server is processing the call, the client is blocked

a) unless the client sends an asynchronous request to the server
b) unless the call processing is complete
c) for the complete duration of the connection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Remote procedure calls is

a) inter-process communication
b) a single process
c) a single thread
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. RPC allows a computer program to cause a subroutine to execute in

a) its own address space
b) another address space
c) both its own address space and another address space
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. RPC works between two processes. These processes must be

a) on the same computer
b) on different computers connected with a network
c) both on the same computer and on different computers connected with a network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
164

6. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by

a) program number
b) version number
c) procedure number
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. An RPC application requires

a) specific protocol for client server communication
b) a client program
c) a server program
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. RPC is used to
a) establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries
b) retrieve information by calling a query
c) both establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries and retrieve information by calling a query
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. RPC is a
a) synchronous operation
b) asynchronous operation
c) time independent operation
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. The local operating system on the server machine passes the incoming packets to the
a) server stub
b) client stub
c) client operating system
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None
165

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Intrusion

Detection Systems
This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Intrusion Detection
Systems”.

1. Which of the following is an advantage of anomaly detection?

a) Rules are easy to define
b) Custom protocols can be easily analyzed
c) The engine can scale as the rule set grows
d) Malicious activity that falls within normal usage patterns is detected
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Once a protocol has been built and a behavior defined, the engine can scale more quickly and easily
than the signature-based model because a new signature does not have to be created for every attack and potential
variant.

2. A false positive can be defined as…

a) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent legitimate
network traffic or behavior
b) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that is not running on the network
c) The lack of an alert for nefarious activity
d) Both An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent
legitimate network traffic or behavior and An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that is not running on
the network
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A false positive is any alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection,
turns out to represent legitimate network traffic or behavior.

3. One of the most obvious places to put an IDS sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in relation to the firewall is
the most productive placement?
a) Inside the firewall
b) Outside the firewall
c) Both inside and outside the firewall
d) Neither inside the firewall nor outside the firewall.
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are legitimate political, budgetary and research reasons to want to see all the “attacks” against
your connection, but given the care and feeding any IDS requires, do yourself a favor and keep your NIDS sensors on
the inside of the firewall.
166

4. What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot?

a) To flag attacks against known vulnerabilities
b) To help reduce false positives in a signature-based IDS
c) To randomly check suspicious traffic identified by an anomaly detection system
d) To enhance the accuracy of a traditional honeypot
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: “Shadow honeypots,” as researchers call them, share all the same characteristics of protected
applications running on both the server and client side of a network and operate in conjunction with an ADS.

5. At which two traffic layers do most commercial IDSes generate signatures?

a) Application layer
b) Network layer
c) Transport layer
d) both Transport layer and Network layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Most commercial IDSes generate signatures at the network and transport layers.

6. An IDS follows a two-step process consisting of a passive component and an active component. Which of the
following is part of the active component?
a) Inspection of password files to detect inadvisable passwords
b) Mechanisms put in place to reenact known methods of attack and record system responses
c) Inspection of system to detect policy violations
d) Inspection of configuration files to detect inadvisable settings
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Second component of mechanisms are set in place to reenact known methods of attack and to record
system responses.

7. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature?

a) An electronic signature used to authenticate the identity of a user on the network
b) Attack-definition file
c) It refers to “normal,” baseline network behavior
d) None of the above
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: IDSes work in a manner similar to modern antivirus technology. They are constantly updated with
attack-definition files (signatures) that describe each type of known malicious activity.

8. “Semantics-aware” signatures automatically generated by Nemean are based on traffic at which two layers?
a) Application layer
b) Network layer
c) Session layer
d) both Application layer and Session layer
View Answer
167

Answer: d
Explanation: Nemean automatically generates “semantics-aware” signatures based on traffic at the session and
application layers.

9. Which of the following is used to provide a baseline measure for comparison of IDSes?
a) Crossover error rate
b) False negative rate
c) False positive rate
d) Bit error rate
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As the sensitivity of systems may cause the false positive/negative rates to vary, it’s critical to have
some common measure that may be applied across the board.

10. Which of the following is true of signature-based IDSes?

a) They alert administrators to deviations from “normal” traffic behavior
b) They identify previously unknown attacks
c) The technology is mature and reliable enough to use on production networks
d) They scan network traffic or packets to identify matches with attack-definition files
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: They are constantly updated with attack-definition files (signatures) that describe each type of known
malicious activity. They then scan network traffic for packets that match the signatures, and then raise alerts to
security administrators

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – PPP

This set of Basic Computer Networks Questions and Answers focuses on “PPP”.

1. Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link layer protocols.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link layer protocol.

2. Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network?
a) LCP
b) NCP
c) Both LCP and NCP
d) TCP
View Answer
168

Answer: c
Explanation: LCP and NCP are the PPP protocol provides for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the
network.

3. The PPP protocol

a) Is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers
b) Is one of the protocols for making an Internet connection over a phone line
c) Both Is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers & Is one of the protocols for making
an Internet connection over a phone line
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The PPP protocol is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers and one of the
protocols for making an Internet connection over a phone line.

4. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP suite.

a) Link
b) Network
c) Transport
d) Application
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: PPP provides the link layer in the TCP/IP suite.

5. PPP consists of ________components

a) Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name system)
b) Three ( encapsulating, a link control protocol, NCP )
c) Two ( a link control protocol, Simple Network Control protocol)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: PPP consists of three (encapsulating, a link control protocol, NCP)
Components.

6. The PPP encapsulation

a) Provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols
b) requires framing to indicate the beginning and end of the encapsulation
c) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The PPP encapsulation provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols.

7. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for

a) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
b) Establishing and configuring different network-layer protocols
169

c) Testing the different network-layer protocols

d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for establishing, configuring and testing the data-link
connection.

8. A family of network control protocols (NCPs)

a) Are a series of independently defined protocols that provide a dynamic
b) Are a series of independently-defined protocols that encapsulate
c) Are a series of independently defined protocols that provide transparent
d) The same as NFS
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A family of network control protocols (NCPs)are a series of independently-defined protocols that
encapsulate.

9. Choose one from the following

a) PPP can terminate the link at any time
b) PPP can terminate the link only during the link establishment phase
c) PPP can terminate the link during the authentication phase
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: PPP can terminate the link at any time because it works on the data link layer protocol.

10. The link necessarily begins and ends with this phase. During this phase, the LCP automata will be in INITIAL or
STARTING states
a) Link-termination phase
b) Link establishment phase
c) Authentication phase
d) Link dead phase
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The link necessarily begins and ends with this phase. During this phase, the LCP automata will be in
INITIAL or STARTING states link dead phase

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – EIGRP

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “EIGRP”.

1. EIGRP is a routing Protocol design by Cisco. (Yes/No)?

a) Yes
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b) No
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: EIGRP is a routing Protocol design by Cisco.

2. EIGRP metric is ________

a) K-values
b) Bandwidth only
c) Hop Count
d) Delay only
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: EIGRP metric is K-values.

3. EIGRP can support ____________

a) VLSM/subnetting
b) Auto summary
c) Unequal cast load balancing
d) All od the above
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: VLSM/ subnetting, Auto summary, Unequal cast load balancing.

4. EIGRP send the hello message after every ___________ seconds

a) 5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN)
b) 5 seconds (LAN), 5 seconds (WAN)
c) 15s
d) 180s
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: EIGRP send the hello message after every5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN).

5. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is ______

a) 90
b) 170
c) 110
d) 91
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is 90.

6. The EIGRP metric values include:

a) Delay
b) Bandwidth
c) MTU
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d) All of the above

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The EIGRP metric values are Delay, Bandwidth, and MTU.

7. For default gateway you will use which of following command on Cisco router?
a) IP default network
b) IP default gateway
c) IP default route
d) Default network
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: IP default network command used in default gateway in Cisco router.

8. Administrative distance for external EIGRP route is _______

a) 90
b) 170
c) 110
d) 100
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Administrative distance for external EIGRP route is 170.

9. EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for finding shortest path.

a) SPF
b) DUAL
c) Linkstat
d) Dikstraalgo
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm for finding shortest path.

10. In EIGRP best path is known as the successor, where as backup path is known as __________
a) Feasible successor
b) Back-up route
c) Default route
d) There is no backup route in EIGRP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Feasible successor is the backup pat

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – STP

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This set of Computer Networks Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “STP”.

1. _____________ allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.

a) Communication server
b) Print server
c) File server
d) Network
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: File server allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.

2. STP stands for

a) Shielded twisted pair cable
b) Spanning tree protocol
c) Static transport protocol
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: STP stands for Shielded twisted pair cable.

3. A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls such as file and
record locking is an example of ___________
a) LAN intrinsic software
b) LAN aware software
c) Groupware
d) LAN ignorant software
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls such
as file and record locking is an example of LAN intrinsic software.

4. The __________ portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities and audit data etc.
a) Configuration management
b) Security management
c) Performance management
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Security management portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities
and audit data etc.

5. What is the max cable length of STP?

a) 100 ft
b) 200 ft
c) 100 m
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d) 200 m
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: 200m is the max cable length of STP.

6. What is the max data capacity of STP?

a) 10 mbps
b) 100 mbps
c) 1000 mbps
d) 10000 mbps
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 100 mbps is the max data capacity of STP.

7. Which connector STP uses?

a) BNC
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-45
d) RJ-69
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: RJ-45 is used for STP cable.

8. What is the central device in star topology?

a) STP server
b) Hub/switch
c) PDC
d) Router
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hub/switch is the central device in star topology.

9. What is max data capacity for optical fiber cable?

a) 10 mbps
b) 100 mbps
c) 1000 mbps
d) 10000 mbps
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 1000 mbps is max data capacity for optical fiber cable.

10. Which of the following architecture uses CSMA/CD access method?

a) ARC net
b) Ethernet
c) Router
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d) STP server
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA/CD access method

Ping: It stands for Packet InterNet Gopher. (Gopher = Status). For more help on PING open a command
windows in your computer and type in PING/? And check the options.

Tracert: It is a command used to display the number of routers on the path to the destination host. You can get
more on the Tracert command by typing tracert/? In a command window in your computer.

IPConfig: It shows you the IP address configuration of your computer on a network. (It also shows you your
computer’s IP address on a network.)