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XPERTZ - Evaluation & Refresher

This document contains a geotechnical engineering refresher module with 10 situations involving soil properties, soil classification, consolidation settlement, shear strength, lateral earth pressure, retaining walls, and groundwater flow. The situations require calculations of moisture content, void ratio, degree of saturation, group soil symbols, AASHTO soil classification, consolidation settlement, shear strength parameters, lateral earth pressures, retaining wall forces, and groundwater flow rate. Multiple choice questions with 4 answer options are provided after each situation to test understanding of the concepts covered.
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50% found this document useful (2 votes)
566 views

XPERTZ - Evaluation & Refresher

This document contains a geotechnical engineering refresher module with 10 situations involving soil properties, soil classification, consolidation settlement, shear strength, lateral earth pressure, retaining walls, and groundwater flow. The situations require calculations of moisture content, void ratio, degree of saturation, group soil symbols, AASHTO soil classification, consolidation settlement, shear strength parameters, lateral earth pressures, retaining wall forces, and groundwater flow rate. Multiple choice questions with 4 answer options are provided after each situation to test understanding of the concepts covered.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 23

EVALUATION & REFRESHER

XPERTZ CE REVIEW a. GW
Geotechnical Engineering Refresher Module 1 b. GP
c. GC
Situation 1. In its natural state, a moist soil has a volume of d. GM
9350 cc and weighs 18 kg. The oven-dried weight of the soil
is 15.54 kg. Use G = 2.67. Situation 3. A soil profile is consisting of 9 m sand layer
over an 8 m clay layer. The groundwater table is 3 m below
1) Determine the moisture content in percent. the sand surface. The sand over the groundwater table has
a. 12.33 𝛾dry = 16 kN/m3 while below has 𝛾sat = 18 kN/m3. The clay
b. 15.83 has the following properties: 𝛾sat = 19 kN/m3, e = 0.95, and
c. 16.67 LL = 50%. A uniformly distributed load of 50 kPa is applied
d. 16.85 at ground surface. Cs = 0.2Cc

2) Determine the void ratio in percent. 7) What is the settlement when clay is normally
a. 56.67 consolidated?
b. 63.33 a. 150 mm
c. 60.66 b. 170 mm
d. 67.53 c. 185 mm
d. 200 mm
3) Determine the degree of saturation in percent.
a. 64.3 8) What is the settlement when the preconsolidation
b. 69.7 pressure is 210?
c. 71.2 a. 40 mm
d. 73.4 b. 47 mm
c. 53 mm
Situation 2. From the given data below: d. 59 mm

Sieve No. SOIL A SOIL B SOIL C 9) What is the settlement when the preconsolidation
4 70 100 44 pressure is 145?
200 30 75 16 a. 170.19 mm
b. 163.8 mm
LL 33 37 28 c. 183.3 mm
d. 152.8 mm
PI 12 23 3

Situation 4. From the given data, shows a sieve analysis of


Using USCS method:
soil samples A, B, and C.
4) Determine the group symbol for Soil A.
a. SC
b. SM Diameter Soil Sample
Sieve no.
c. SP (mm) A B C
d. SW 4 4.76 100 100 100
8 2.38 97 90 100
5) Determine the group symbol for Soil B. 10 2 92 77 78
a. CH 20 0.84 87 59 92
b. CL 40 0.42 53 51 84
c. MH 60 0.25 42 42 79
d. ML
100 .149 26 35 70
200 0.074 17 33 63
6) Determine the group symbol for Soil C.
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

Characteristics of -40 Fraction Situation 6. A cohesive soil specimen has a maximum


LL 35 46 47 shearing stress of 61 kPa, angle of friction of 28 ° and
PL 20 29 24 cohesion of 32 kPa.

10) Classify Soil A using AASHTO method. 16) Calculate the lateral pressure in the cell for the failure
a. A – 2 – 6 (0) to occur.
b. A – 2 – 6 (13) a. 68.93 kPa
c. A – 2 – 5 (0) b. 8.75 kPa
d. A – 2 – 5 (13) c. 3.21 kPa
d. 75.6 kPa
11) Classify Soil B using AASHTO method.
a. A – 2 – 7 (2) 17) Calculate the maximum principal stress of the soil to
b. A – 2 – 6 (2) cause failure.
c. A – 2 – 7 (1) a. 190.93 kPa
d. A – 2 – 6 (1) b. 130.75 kPa
c. 125.21 kPa
12) Classify Soil C using AASHTO method. d. 197.6 kPa
a. A – 7 – 5 (13)
b. A – 7 – 5 (20) 18) Calculate the normal stress at the point of maximum
c. A – 7 – 6 (13) shear.
d. A – 7 – 6 (2) a. 136.6 kPa
b. 64.21 kPa
Situation 5. The braced cut shown in the figure is c. 69.75 kPa
composed of two clay layers. Clay A has a thickness of 3 m d. 129.93 kPa
from the ground surface and clay B has a thickness of 5 m
below clay A. The struts are spaced 2.5 m center to center. Situation 7. A consolidated-drained triaxial test was
For this problem, a = d = 1 m and b = c = 3m. conducted on a normally consolidated clay. The results
were as follows: 𝛾3 = 250 kN/m2 and 𝛾d = 275 kPa.
13) What is the load in strut A?
a. 156.33 kN 19) Calculate the angle of friction.
b. 62.53 kN a. 19
c. 108.88 kN b. 18
d. 43.55 kN c. 21
d. 24
14) What is the load in strut C?
a. 107.2 kN 20) Calculate the angle that the failure plane makes with the
b. 268 kN horizontal axis.
c. 43.55 kN a. 55
d. 62.53 kN b. 54
c. 56
15) What is the load in strut B? d. 57
a. 58.07 kN
b. 145.17 kN 21) Calculate the normal stress on the failure plane.
c. 111.67 kN a. 339 kPa
d. 279.17 kN b. 259 kPa
c. 343 kPa
d. 345 kPa
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

Situation 8. A retaining wall has a height of 4 m. It is a. 620 kN


supporting a horizontal backfill having a unit weight of 16.5 b. 823 kN
kN/m3. Angle of internal friction is 30°, angle of wall friction c. 598 kN
is 15° and an earthquake causes a horizontal acceleration d. 613 kN
of 1.962 m/s2.
Situation 10. A confined aquifer has a source of recharge
22) Calculate the force on the wall for static condition if it is as shown in the figure. The hydraulic conductivity of the
frictionless. aquifer is 40 m/day and its porosity is 0.25. The piezometric
a. 54.91 kN/m head in the two wells, 1000 m apart, is 65 m and 60 m,
b. 79.2 kN/m respectively, from a common datum. The average thickness
c. 44 kN/m of aquifer is 25 m and average width is 4 km.
d. 66.22 kN/m
28) Compute the rate flow through the aquifer in m 3/day.
23) Calculate the Coulomb’s active coefficient in a. 18000
earthquake conditions. b. 16000
a. 0.416 c. 20000
b. 0.600 d. 15000
c. 0.3014
d. 0.500 29) Compute the seepage velocity in m/day.
a. 0.2
24) Calculate the force on the wall in earthquake conditions. b. 0.8
a. 54.91 kN/m c. 0.6
b. 79.2 kN/m d. 0.4
c. 44 kN/m
d. 66.22 kN/m 30) Compute the time to travel from the head of the aquifer
to a point 3 km in days.
Situation 9. A square footing has a dimension of 1.3 m by a. 15000
1.3 m with its bottom 0.9 m below the ground surface. The b. 3750
groundwater table is located at a depth of 1.2 m below the c. 5000
ground surface. Assume General Shear Failure. Nc = 37.16, d. 7500
Nq = 22.46, Ny = 19.13, 𝛾 = 17.16 kN/m3, C = 12.2 kPa, 𝛾
= 30°, 𝛾sat = 19.7 kN/m3. Situation 11. A flow net for flow around a single row of
sheet piles in a permeable soil layer is shown. For this
25) Compute the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil problem, use k = 5 x 10-5 m/s, H1 = 4.6 m, and H2 = 1.6 m.
beneath the column.
a. 1102 kPa 31) Determine the head loss each drop.
b. 1461 kPa a. 0.80 m
c. 1061 kPa b. 0.40 m
d. 1088 kPa c. 0.50 m
d. 1.0 m
26) Compute the allowable bearing capacity using FS = 3.0.
a. 367 kPa 32) How high above the ground surface the water will rise if
b. 487 kPa the piezometer is placed at point A.
c. 354 kPa a. 4.10 m
d. 363 kPa b. 3.60 m
c. 3.20 m
27) Compute the allowable load that the footing can carry d. 3.10 m
based on soil bearing capacity.
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

33) Compute the total rate of seepage perpendicular to the 38) If the average value of Cv for the pressure range is
section shown in m3/s. 0.003 cm2/s, how long will it take for 50% consolidation
a. 7.5 x 105 (Tv = 0.196) to occur?
b. 5.5 x 10-5 a. 130 days
c. 2.5 x 10-5 b. 128 days
d. 6.5 x 10-5 c. 161 days
d. 175 days
Situation 12. A layer of soil has the following properties:
39) If the 4.6 m clay layer is drained on both sides, how long
Void ratio = 0.45 will it take for 50% consolidation to occur?
Effective diameter = a. 40 days
15𝛾m b. 36 days
Capillary rise constant c. 54 days
c= 0.20 cm2 d. 80 days

Groundwater table is 7 m below the ground surface. Situation 15. A tank 12 m high filled with oil having a unit
Assume a unit weight of solid = 26.3 kN/m3 and the soil
weight of 9.4 kN/m3 is to be on a site. The existing soil profile
above the capillary action rise and the ground is
partially saturated at 40%. consists of a 3.6 m sand layer underlain by a 16 m clay
layer. The water table is on the ground surface. Neglect the
34) Find the height of capillary rise in silt. weight of the tank.
a. 1.84 m
b. 4.51 m 40) Calculate the compression index of the clay.
c. 2.96 m a. 0.639
d. 3.06 m b. 0.369
c. 0.396
35) Determine the effective stress at a depth of 5.60 m. d. 0.693
a. 143.56 kPa
b. 314.25 kPa 41) Determine the settlement of the clay layer at the center
c. 149.1 kPa of the tank.
d. 124.94 kPa a. 899.5 mm
b. 985.1 mm
36) Determine the effective stress at a depth of 9 m. c. 775.3 mm
a. 163.6 kPa d. 567.1 mm
b. 149.1 kPa
c. 119.3 kPa
d. 291.4 kPa

Situation 14. A clay layer in the field is 4.6 m thick and is


drained at the top only. Under a given surcharge, the
estimated maximum consolidation settlement is 310 mm.

37) What is the average degree of consolidation for the clay


layer when the settlement is 76 mm?
a. 29.65%
b. 35.38%
c. 18.73%
d. 24.50%
EVALUATION (1)
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

1) A besieged fortress is held by 5,700 men who have a. c


provisions for 66 days. If the garrison lost 20 men each b. b
day, how many days can the provision hold out? c. a
a. 60 d. None in the list.
b. 72
c. 82 7) Lino left ½ of his estate to his wife, ⅙ to his daughter,
d. 76 and the remainder, an amount of ₱1.5 M, to his son.
How large was the entire state?
2) One number is 5 less than the other. If their sum is 135, a. ₱6 M
what is the product of the numbers? b. ₱4.5 M
a. 4550 c. ₱3 M
b. 2140 d. ₱.5 M
c. 4135
d. 7150 8) If sin x = y, what is cos(2x) in terms of y?
a. 2y
3) 2000 kg of steel containing 8% nickel is to be made by b. 3y
mixing a steel containing 14% nickel with another c. 1 – 2y2
containing 6% nickel. How much 14% nickel is needed? d. None of these.
a. 1000
b. 500 9) In 5 years, Mae would be twice the age of Rea. Five
c. 1500 years ago, Mae was 4 times as old as Rea. Find the
d. 700 sum of their present ages.
a. 35
4) Let A represents a number line such that -1 < A ≤ 5. Let b. 45
B represents a number line such that 6 < B ≤ 10. If A c. 55
were shifted by 5 units in the positive direction and B d. 50
were shifted by 2 in the positive direction, how many
common integers would the new A and B share? 10) Find the product of all possible values of x that will
a. 3 satisfy |x2 – 2x – 16| = 8.
b. 2 a. -24
c. 1 b. -96
d. 4 c. 192
d. 48
5) Given the following information:
● The average of A and B is 50. 11) Which of the following could be xy if x < 0 and y ≥ 0?
● The average of B and C is 80. a. Positive
b. Negative
Calculate the value of C – A. c. Undefined
a. 30 d. Imaginary
b. 90
c. 60 12) A frustum of a sphere of radius 20 cm is made by cutting
d. 120 horizontal planes 12 cm above the center and 10 cm
below the center. Which of the following gives the
6) Given that c2 – c = a and a2 – b = c2, simplify the volume?
a. 8721.06 cc
following: √𝑎 + √𝑏 ⋅ √𝑐 + √𝑐 + √𝑏 ⋅ b. 24789.26 cc
c. 23122.87 cc
√𝑐 + √𝑎 + √𝑐 + √𝑏 ⋅ √𝑐 − √𝑎 + √𝑐 + √𝑏 d. 9022.19 cc
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

13) All the students in a geometry class took a 100-point slippery). After how many jumps will the frog reach the
test. Six students scored 100, each student scored at top?
least 50 and the mean was 70. What is the smallest a. 15
possible number of students in the class? b. 16
a. 9 c. 19
b. 12 d. 20
c. 15
d. Cannot be determined. 20) A 16-team bowling league has 8000 Php to be awarded
as prize money. If the last place team is awarded 275
14) If the letters of the word MATHEMATICS are repeatedly Php in prize money, and the award increases by the
and consecutively written, what is the 2014th letter? same amount for each successive finishing place, how
a. M much will the 1st runner up receive?
b. A a. 725
c. T b. 695
d. S c. 665
d. 635
15) If sec xA = 1/sin yA), where x + y = 15°, determine the
acute angle A in degrees. 21) In an experiment involving mice, a zoologist needs a
a. 4 food mix that contains, among other things, 23 grams of
b. 6 protein, 6.2 grams of fat, and 16 grams of moisture. She
c. 8 has on hand mixes of the following compositions: Mix A
d. 3 contains 20% protein, 2% fat and 15% moisture; Mix B
contains 10% protein, 6% fat, and 10% moisture; and
16) Given that the remainder of m/n is 2 and the remainder Mix C contains 15% protein, 5% fat and 5% moisture.
of p/n is 0, then what is the remainder of mp/n? How many grams of Mix B should be combined with
a. 2 proper amounts of Mix A and C?
b. 0 a. 40
c. 3 b. 50
d. 1 c. 60
d. 70
17) Consider the equations: 1/x + 1/y = ¼ and 1/(x + y) = ⅓.
Which of the following is the value of xy? 22) Two candles of the same length are lighted at the same
a. 12 time and burning until the first candle is twice as long as
b. 7 the other. If the first candle is expected to fully burn in 8
c. 1/12 hrs while the other in 4 hrs, how long will they be
d. None in the list. lighted?
a. 3.5 hrs
18) One canned juice drink is 15% lemon juice; another is b. 2.67 hrs
5% lemon juice. How many liters of the less c. 3.33 hrs
concentrated lemon should be mixed with the other in d. None in the list.
order to get 10 L that is 12% lemon juice?
a. 5L 23) A meeting of members and officials of a party list is held
b. 3 L in order to decide whether or not they should support
c. 7 L Harf Miranda for president. The regulator instructs that
d. 2 L those in favor should remain standing and those against
should sit down. The regulator announced that the
19) A frog is at the bottom of a 20 m well. If the frog jumps motion carried by a majority equal to a quarter of
5 m, it slips 4 m back down (because the walls are opposition. One member protested, telling that some of
them cannot sit down because of scarcity of chairs. So
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

it was decided that those who wanted to sit down but sneaks onto the train and falls asleep. At the same time,
couldn’t, will raise their right hand. He counted a dozen Chokie leaves Hartsville on her bicycle, traveling along
and then announced the motion was lost by a majority a straight road in a northeasterly direction (but not due
of 1. How many were in the meeting excluding the northeast) at 10 miles per hour. At 1:12 pm, Marcial rolls
regulator? over in his sleep and falls from the train onto the side of
a. 207 the tracks. He wakes up and immediately begins
b. 215 walking at 3.5 miles per hour directly towards the road
c. 210 on which Chokie is riding. Marcial reaches the road at
d. 219 2:12 pm, just as Chokie is riding by. What is the speed
of the train in miles per hour?
24) A 50-meter tape is used to measure a horizontal a. 60 mph
distance. The reading at the other end is 7.25 m. If the b. 61.5 mph
plumb bob was 0.65 m lower than the horizontal, what c. 62 mph
is the correct distance? d. 62.5 mph
a. 7.22
b. 7.28 30) Jomar who is five and a half feet tall wants to measure
c. 6.60 the length of his shadow at a certain time of the day, but
d. 7.90 he can’t seem to figure out how. He saw that a 12 foot
three casts a shadow and he measured it to be 5 ft. How
25) If sin2A = cos12B, find tan(A + 6B). long is his shadow at that time?
a. 0.5 a. 13.2
b. 1 b. 2.29
c. 0.866 c. 5.47
d. 0.532 d. 4.22

26) If (x2 + 9x + 14) / (x2 – 49) is divided by (3x + 6) / (x2 + x 31) Almar bikes x km east at 20 kph to his friend’s house.
– 56) the quotient is: He then turns South and bikes x km at 20 kph to the
a. x+8 store. Then, Almar turns East again and goes to his
b. x + 3 grandmother’s house at 14 kph. On this last leg, he has
c. (x + 8)/3 to carry flour he bought for her at the store. Her house
d. (x + 3)/8 is 2 km more from the store than Almar’s friend’s house
is from the store. Almar spends a total of 1 hour on the
27) What is the product of all solutions of the equation x9 – bike to get his grandmother’s house. If Almar then rides
3x7 + 2x6 – 12x5 – x4 + 2x2 – 3x2 – x + 4 = 0 straight home in his grandmother’s helicopter at 78 kph,
a. 0 how many minutes does it take Almar to get home from
b. 1 his grandmother’s house?
c. 2 a. 10
d. 4 b. 13
c. 12
28) You are given 8 numbers which add up to 168. One of d. 15
the numbers is 28. Calculate the average of the other 7
numbers. 32) Praxy has a set of numbers whose sum is 70. When
a. 40 each number in the set is replaced by the number less
b. 30 than 1, the sum of the new numbers is 40. What is the
c. 20 sum when each number in the set is replaced by 1 more
d. 10 than the number?
a. 110
29) A freight train leaves the town of Hartsville at 1:00 pm b. 150
traveling dues East at constant speed. Marcial, a hobo, c. 160
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

d. 180 39) If f(x) = (3x – a) / (5x – b), for any real numbers a and b.
If f(0) = 0 and f(1) is undefined, what is f(⅗)?
33) Some students are taking a math contest, in which each a. ⅗
student takes one of four tests. One-third of the b. -⅗
students take one test, one-fourth take another test, c. 9/10
one-fifth take the next test,and twenty-six take the last d. -9/10
test. How many students are taking the contest in total?
a. 100 40) If a, b, and c are the sides of a triangle where √𝑎 +
b. 120 √𝑏 = √𝑐, which of the following is true about the
c. 140 triangle?
d. 160 a. It does not exist.
b. It is a right triangle.
34) Solve for the values of x: log(x + 2) + log(x + 3) = log(x c. It is a scalene triangle.
+ 3). d. It is an equilateral triangle.
a. -1
b. -3 41) If x = 1/a, b = 8a, c = 1/b, d = 8c, where a, b, c, and d
c. -1, -3 are distinct none-zero real numbers, then x must be
d. None in the list. equal to:
a. a
35) How many seconds longer is 3% of an hour than is 20% b. b
of a minute? c. c
a. 80 d. d
b. 108
c. 96 42) Experts Basketball belongs to a six-team basketball
d. 88 league in which each team plays four games with each
of the other teams. The five other teams finished this
36) If a, b, and c are different numbers and a3 + 3a + 14 = season with the following winning percentages: 10%,
0, b3 + 3b + 14 = 0, and c3 + 3c + 14 = 0, what is the 35%, 40%, 50% and 75%. What was the winning
value of 1/a + 1/b + 1/c? percentage of Experts Basketball this season?
a. -11/14 a. 10%
b. -3/14 b. 50%
c. 11/14 c. 60%
d. None in the list. d. 90%

37) What is the remainder when x2014 + 2014 is divided by 43) Reversing the digits of Anna’s age gives her mother’s
x – 1? age with a difference of eighteen years. If the sum of
a. 2012 the digits of each age is 6, how old is Anna?
b. 2013 a. 15
c. 2014 b. 24
d. 2015 c. 33
d. 42
38) What is the maximum perimeter of a triangle with sides
24 and 26 if the other side is limited to an integer? 44) Solve for x: ln x – 1 = ln(2x + 1).
a. 100 a. e/( 1 – 2e)
b. 99 b. (1 – 2e)/e
c. 53 c. e/(1 + 2e)
d. 52 d. None in the list.
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

45) A tower 27.5 m tall makes an angle of 126 degrees with 50) Boat A is heading due East of a port traveling at a
the inclined road on which it is located. Determine the constant speed of 80 kph. After 45 minutes, boat B left
angle subtended by the tower at a point 35 m down the the port with constant speed of 100 kph. If after 2.75
road. hours when boat A left the port, the two are 112.5 km
a. 23° apart, what was the direction of boat B?
b. 23° 5’ a. S 30.6° E
c. 23° 13’ b. S 59.4° E
d. 23° 30’ c. S 23.4° E
d. S 66.6° E
46) The sum of three numbers in geometric progression is
52. If 8 is added to the middle term and the other two 51) It took a train 20 seconds to completely pass a 500 m,
are left unchanged, the progression becomes iron bridge. When the train was passing through a 1200
arithmetic. What is the largest original number? m tunnel, it was invisible from the outside of the tunnel
a. 12 for 30 seconds. If the speed train was constant, what
b. 20 was the length of the train?
c. 36 a. 180 m
d. 16 b. 160 m
c. 140 m
47) A flagpole, which is 34 ft high, stands on top of the tower d. 120 m
which is 30 ft high. From a certain point in the same
horizontal plane with the base of the tower, the angle 52) A salesman gets ₱1,000 commission on a small scale,
subtended by the pole is equal to the angle of elevation one of the many that he accomplished in a period of
of the top of the tower. Find the distance from this point time. This ₱1,000 commission raised his average
to the base of the tower. commission by ₱150. If the salesman’s new average
a. 100 ft commission is now ₱400, how many sales did he
b. 120 ft make?
c. 130 ft a. 10
d. 150 ft b. 5
c. 3
48) A special type of clock is a 24-hour clock. The minute d. None in the list.
hand of the clock moves the same as the regular 12-
hour clock. The hour hand moves differently because 53) A circle of radius 2 units is externally tangent to two
there are 24 numbers on the face of the clock. What is perpendicular lines. If another circle is drawn such that
the angle in degrees between the hour and minute hand it is externally tangent to the circle and the lines, find the
of a 24-hour clock when the time is 3:40 pm? area of this circle.
a. 12.5 a. 0.343
b. 10 b. 0.370
c. 5 c. 0.332
d. 7 d. 0.391

49) In the expansion of (3 + √𝑥 ) 11


, what is the 54) How soon after five o’clock will the hour and minute
coefficient of the term that has x4? hands of a clock form a right angle?
a. 4455 a. 10:91
b. 27 b. 10:55
c. 165 c. 11:91
d. 55 d. 12:91
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

55) Allan can do a job in 30 days. Working together with c. x – 3


Joe, they can do it in 12 days. How many days can Joe d. All in the list.
do the job alone?
a. 10 62) A man on the top of a light tower 13.856 m above the
b. 15 ground has spotted 2 boats. One boat has an angle of
c. 20 depression of 45° while the other has an angle of
d. 25 depression equal to 60°. Find the distance between the
two boats.
56) Let 0 < x < 1, which of the following has the largest a. 8
value? b. 2.93
a. x3 c. 5.86
b. x2 + x d. 3.45
c. x2 + x3
d. x4 63) A fruit grower can use two types of fertilizer in an orange
grove, brand A and brand B. Each bag of brand A
57) A triangular piece of land has vertices A, B, and C and contains 8 lbs of nitrogen and 9 lbs of phosphoric acid.
is surveyed producing the following data: A = 30°, C = Each bag of brand B contains 4 lbs of nitrogen and 7
50°, and AC = 13 m. What should be the length of side lbs of phosphoric acid. Tests indicate that the grove
AB? needs 860 lbs of nitrogen and 1080 lbs of phosphoric
a. 7.89 m acid. How many bags of brand A to be combined with
b. 8.23 m brand B is used to provide the required amounts of
c. 9.54 m nitrogen and phosphoric acid?
d. 10.11 m a. 1445
b. 950
58) A certain radio wave takes the form of a sine curve and c. 1940
is expressed by the equation y = (5)sin(2x). What is the d. None in the list.
frequency of this wave?
a. 3.14 64) A boat has a speed of 25 kph in still water and is
b. 2.01 heading N 45° E. It encounters a water current moving
c. 0.32 South. If the final direction of the boat is N 54.9° E, what
d. 1.87 is the speed of the current?
a. 6.35
59) Which of the following could be a product of an even b. 4.75
prime number and odd prime number? c. 3.25
a. 6 d. 5.25
b. 10
c. 14 65) My flight was delayed and I conducted an experiment
d. All of the above. with the moving walkway at the airport and my
stopwatch. I started walking on the moving walkway at
60) If P is an odd number and Q is an even number, which a constant speed, and discovered that it took me exactly
of the following expressions must be even? 162 seconds to go from one end to the other. Next I
a. P+Q started to walk against the moving walkway (the wrong
b. P – Q way) at the same constant speed and found that it took
c. PQ me five times as long to go from one end to the other. If
d. None in the list. I just walked at the same constant speed, without using
the moving walkway, how many seconds would take me
61) Which of the following is a factor of x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6? to cover the same distance?
a. x–1 a. 160
b. x – 2
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

b. 250 a. -641
c. 270 b. 641
d. 300 c. 4096
d. -4096
Situation 1. Convert the following polar equations into
8
rectangular form. 73) Expand the complex number: (1 − √ 3𝑖)
a. 128 + 221.71
66) cos(t) = r – sin(t)
b. -128 + 221.71
a. x2 + y2 – y + x = 0
c. -128 – 221.7
b. x2 + y2 – y – x = 0
d. 128 – 221.71
c. x2 + y2 – y = 0
d. x2 + y2 + x = 0 2
√3 𝑖
74) Expand the complex number: [7 ( + 𝑖)]
2 2
67) r3 = 2r2 (sin(t)) + r a. 24.5 – 42.4
a. x2 + y2 – 2y = 0 b. -24.5 – 42.41
b. x2 + y2 – 2y – 1 = 0 c. -24.5 + 42.41
c. x2 + y2 – 2y + 1 = 0 d. 24.5 + 42.41
d. x2 + y2 + 2y – 1 = 0
Situation 4. Solve the following trigonometry problems.
68) 2sin(t) cos(t) = 1
a. 2x2 = y2 75) If sinA = 21/29 and A is in the second quadrant, what is
b. x2 + y2 – 2xy = 0 the value of cos2A?
c. x2 + y2 + 2xy + 2 = 0 a. 41/841
d. x2 + y2 – 2 = 0 b. -41/841
c. -20/29
Situation 2. Determine the quadrant for which the angle d. 20/29
being described terminates.
76) If sec(x) = 5/3 and x is in the fourth quadrant, what is
69) cot𝛾 > 0 and csc𝛾 > 0 the value of csc(x)?
a. I a. -5/3
b. II b. 5/4
c. III c. -5/4
d. IV d. 5/3

70) sec𝛾 < 0 and tan𝛾 > 0 77) If cos𝛾 = -15/17 and 𝛾 is in the third quadrant, what is
a. I the value of (289)sin𝛾cos𝛾?
b. II a. 120
c. III b. -120
d. IV c. 60
d. -60
71) csc𝛾 > 0 and cos𝛾 < 0
a. I Situation 5. Convert the following equations into polar form.
b. II
c. III 78) x + y = 0
d. IV a. cos(t) + sin(t) = 0
b. cos(t) – sin(t) = 0
Situation 3. Solve the following complex number problems. c. cos(t) + sin(t) = R
6
72) Expand the complex number: (2√ 3 + 2𝑖) d. cos(t) – sin(t) = R
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

a. 1
79) 2x2 + 2y2 – x + y = 0 b. 0
a. 2R + cos(t) + sin(t) = 0 c. 2
b. R = cos(t) + sin(t) d. Insufficient data
c. R = (½) (cos(t) + sin(t))
d. R = (½) (cos(t) – sin(t)) Situation 8. Given that the perimeter of a triangle is 180 in.
If the angles are in the ratio 5:6:7,
80) x2 + y2 – 4y = 0
a. R = (4)sin(t) = 0 86) determine the longest side of the triangle.
b. R = (2)sin(t) a. 60.61
c. R = (4)cos(t) b. 67.32
d. R = (2)cos(t) c. 66.27
d. 65.77
Situation 6. x, y and z are positive real numbers which
satisfy the following equations: 87) what is the area of the triangle?
a. 1527
(x + y) (x + y + z) = 384 b. 1726
(y + z) (x + y + z) = 288 c. 1873
and d. 1663
(x + z) (x + y + z) = 480
88) what i the length of the angle bisector of the smallest
81) What is the value of x + y? angle?
a. 8 a. 57.17
b. 12 b. 50.58
c. 16 c. 62.03
d. 20 d. None in the list.

82) What is the value of x – z? Situation 9. Find the value of the following trigonometric
a. 2 functions.
b. 4
c. 8 89) If sinA = ¾ and A terminates at first quadrant, what is
d. 12 tan(A)?
a. 0.98
83) What is the value of y2? b. 1.13
a. 4 c. 1.33
b. 8 d. 1.41
c. 16
d. 32 90) If tan𝛾 = ½, what is cos𝛾?
a. 0.89
Situation 7. Determine the number of triangles formed b. 0.83
given the following data of triangle ABC. d. 0.98

84) a = 5.1, b = 10, and A = 32° 91) If cos𝛾 = 4, what is the value of sec𝛾?
a. 1 a. 0.25
b. 0 b. 0.5
c. 2 c. 0.75
d. Insufficient data d. 1.0

85) a = 23, b = 19, and A = 50° Situation 10. Given the function y = (2)sin(2x + 𝛾).
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

Situation 12. The population of bacteria in a fluid triples


92) What is the amplitude? every minute. Initially, the population was 200 bacteria.
a. 1
b. ½ 98) What is the population of the bacteria after 3 minutes?
c. 2 a. 600 m
d. None in the list. b. 1800 m
c. 5400 m
93) What is the period? d. 16200 m
a. 𝛾
b. 2𝛾 99) What is the population of the bacteria after 1 hour?
c. 𝛾/2 a. 8.48 x 1030
d. None in the list. b. 8.37 x 1030
c. 8.25 x 1030
94) What is the phase shift? d. 8.88 x 1030
a. 𝛾
b. 2𝛾 100) After how many seconds will the population double?
c. 𝛾/2 a. 35.44
d. None in the list. b. 36.45
c. 37.02
Situation 11. Two trains are running in the same direction d. 37.86
on two parallel tracks. The trains are 85 m and 65 m,
respectively, and running at 120 kph and 240 kph. If the trail
end of the first train is 210 m ahead of the front end of the
second train,
EVALUATION (November 2013)
95) determine the time required for the front end of the Hydraulics & Geotechnical Engineering
second train to reach the tail end of the first train.
a. 4.6 s Situation 1. The field weight of the soil sample is 1960
b. 5.7 s kg/m3, and the unit weight of the soil particle is 2700 kg/m 3.
c. 6.3 s If the emax = 0.69 and emin = 0.44.
d. 7.8 s
1) Compute the dry unit weight, in kN/m 3, if the water
96) determine the total distance traveled by the second train content is 11%.
from the initial position when it has completely a. 17.32 kN/m3
overtaken the first train. b. 19.47 kN/m3
a. 720 m c. 13.61 kN/m3
b. 756 m d. 15.18 kN/m3
c. 845 m
d. 810 m 2) Compute the void ratio of the soil sample.
a. 0.36
97) determine the distance traveled by the first train from b. 0.95
the initial position until both ends of the two trains c. 0.53
abreast each other. d. 0.74
a. 276 m
b. 280 m 3) Compute the relative density of the soil sample.
c. 295 m a. 40%
d. 305 m b. 64%
c. 7.7%
d. 1.32%
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

c. 23.32°
Situation 2. Two footings rest in a layer of sand 2.7 m thick d. 30.14°
shown in Figure GEO–001. The bottoms of the footings are
0.90 m below the ground surface. Beneath the sand layer is 9) What would be the deviator stress at failure if a
a 1.8 m clay layer. Beneath the clay layer is hard pan. The drained test was conducted with the same chamber
water table is at a depth of 1.8 m below the ground surface. all around pressure of 414 kPa?
a. 1267
4) Compute the stress increase at the center of clay layer. b. 1997.55
Assume that the pressure beneath the footing is spread c. 1118.95
at an angle of 2 vertical to 1 horizontal. d. 1567.88
a. 53.01 kPa
b. 25.51 kPa Situation 4. 50 ft thick sand is underlain by 25 ft clay.
c. 20.38 kPa
The groundwater table, initially at the ground surface,
d. 19.67 kPa
was lowered to a depth of 25 ft below the ground. After
such lowering, the degree of saturation of the sand above
5) Determine the size of Footing B so that the settlement
water table was lowered to 20%. Saturated and dry unit
in the clay layer is the same beneath Footings A and B.
Footing A is 1.5 m2.
weight of sand are 135 pcf and 116 pcf respectively. The
a. 3.35 m saturated unit weight of the clay is 120 pcf.
b. 1.45 m
c. 2.30 m 10) What is the vertical effective pressure at the mid-
d. 3.24 m height of the clay layer before lowering of the water
table, in psf?
6) Determine the settlement beneath Footing A. a. 5070
a. 34.12 mm b. 4350
b. 43 mm c. 4550
c. 46.65 mm d. 4025
d. 38 mm
11) What is the vertical effective pressure at the mid-
Situation 3. A specimen of saturated sand was height of the clay layer after lowering of the water
consolidated under on all around confining pressure of 414 table, in psf?
kPa. The axial stress was then increased and drainage of a. 5725
pore water was prevented. The soil specimen failed with the b. 5524
deviator stress reached 346 kPa. The pore water pressure c. 5539
at failure was measured from a pore water supply line d. 5375
connected at the base of the soil specimen was found to be
286 kPa. 12) What is the vertical effective pressure at the mid-
height of the clay layer when there is no water in the
7) Compute the consolidated undrained angle of shearing sand layer, in psf?
resistance (ϕ). a. 6300
a. 17.14° b. 6540
b. 15.11° c. 6630
c. 11.19° d. 6710
d. 16.21°
Situation 5. A 7m deep braced cut in sand is shown in
8) Compute the drained friction angle (ϕ’). Figure GEO–002. In the plan the struts are placed at a
a. 33.27° spacing of 2 m center to center. Using Peck’s empirical
b. 35.03° pressure diagram.
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

c. 84.32 kPa
13) Compute the strut load at Level A. d. 90.07 kPa
a. 29.30 kN/m2
b. 24.27 kN/m2 20) Compute the effective stress of C.
c. 31 kN/m2 a. 113.875 kPa
d. 23.15 kN/m2 b. 122.785 kPa
c. 166.99 kPa
14) Compute the strut load at Level C. d. 134.99 kPa
a. 194.16 kN
b. 219 kN 21) Compute the effective stress of D.
c. 153.20 kN a. 125 kPa
d. 109.02 kN b. 144.15 kPa
c. 134 kPa
15) Compute the strut load at Level B. d. 142.18 kPa
a. 431.12
b. 218.11 Situation 8. A 300 mm-diameter test well penetrates 27
c. 322.10 m below the static water table. After 24 hours of pumping
d. 339.78 at 69 liters/sec, the water level in an observation well at
a distance of 95 m from the test well is lowered 0.5 m and
Situation 6. A group of friction piles in deep clay is the other observation well at a distance of 35 m from the
shown on the figure. The total load on the piles reduced test well, the drawdown is 1.1 m.
by the weight of soil displayed by the foundation is 1800
kN. The thickness of silt is 2m and that of clay is 16 m. 22) What is the rate of flow in m3/day.
a. 4317.9 m3/day
16) Compute the effective overburden pressure b. 6521 m3/day
(effective weight of the soil above mid-height of the c. 5961.6 m3/day
consolidation layer). d. 5331.5 m3/day
a. 143.44 kPa
b. 132.89 kPa 23) Compute the coefficient of permeability of the aquifer
c. 112.66 kPa in m/day.
d. 142.59 kPa a. 51.8 m/day
b. 65.09 m/day
17) Compute the compression index of the clay layer. c. 57.56 m/day
a. 1.122 d. 60.27 m/day
b. 0.965
c. 0.288 24) Compute the transmissibility of the aquifer in m2/day.
d. 0.312 a. 1579 m2/day
b. 1778.4 m2/day
18) Compute the approximate total settlement of the pile c. 1449 m2/day
foundation. d. 1288 m2/day
a. 145 mm
b. 154 mm Situation 9. An infinite slope has shear strength
c. 105 mm parameters at the interface of soil and rock are given: 𝛾
d. 120 mm = 18.64 kN/m3, C = 18 kPa, ϕ = 25°, 𝛾 = 30°.

19) Compute the effective stress right below B. 25) Determine the factor of safety against sliding on the
a. 85.33 kPa rock surface.
b. 78.90 kPa
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

a. 1.866 Constant head


b. 1.086 difference = 30 cm
c. 0.861
d. 0.661 Determine the hydraulic conductivity in cm/sec.
a. 1.667 x 10-3
26) If there were seepage through the soil, what would b. 3.174 x 10-3
be the factor of safety against sliding? Use 𝛾sat = c. 9.431 x 10-3
18.64 kN/m3. d. 1.587 x 10-3
a. 0.616
b. 1.066 Situation 10. A soil sample has a liquidity index of 0.23, a
c. 1.669 plastic limit of 12.2% and a plasticity index of 16.3%.
d. 0.661 Specific gravity and void ratio is equal to 2.7 and 0.60
respectively.
27) Compute the critical height of the infinite slope
neglecting the effect of seepage. 30) Compute the water content.
a. 11.6 m a. 17.85%
b. 3.33 m b. 16.76%
c. 9.76 m c. 15.49%
d. 13.2 m d. 18.38%

28) The result of a constant head permeability test for a fine 31) Compute the degree of saturation.
sand and sample are as follows: a. 75.44%
b. 73%
Diameter of sample = 80 c. 57.90%
d. 66.1%
mm
Length of sample = 60
mm 32) Determine the dry unit weight at zero air void.
Constant head a. 19.76 kN/cu.m
difference = 40 cm b. 17.32 kN/cu.m
Time of collection of c. 16.18 kN/cu.m
water = 10 mins d. 18.24 kN/cu.m
Weight of water
collected = 430 g Situation 11. The following data were tabulated for a direct
shear test of a normally consolidated soil sample.
Find the hydraulic conductivity.
a. 57.03 cm3/min
Applied normal stress =
b. 22.81 cm3/min
70 kPa
c. 304.63 cm3/min
Angle of internal friction
d. 128.32 cm3/min
= 28°
29) A constant head permeability test was carried out on a 33) Compute the shearing stress, in kPa.
cylindrical sample of sand of 10 cm-diameter and 15 cm a. 24.87
in height. b. 37.22
c. 16.54
Weight of water d. 41.07
collected = 200 g
Time of collection of 34) Find the maximum shearing stress, in kPa.
water = 2.25 mins a. 54.22
b. 52.06
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

c. 42.15
d. 77.4 39) If the factor of safety is 3, what is the required diameter
of the circular footing under General Shear Failure?
35) Determine the maximum principal stress, in kPa. a. 1.5 m
a. 120.45 b. 1.7 m
b. 208.21 c. 2 m
c. 166.09 d. 1.9 m
d. 131.93
40) Find the ultimate bearing capacity.
Situation 12. Following are the details for the backfill a. 1919.6 kPa
material used in a vibroflotation project. b. 1191.6 kPa
c. 1999.6 kPa
D10 = 0.40 mm d. 1919.9 kPa
D20 = 0.62 mm
D25 = 0.71 mm 41) Compute the net allowable bearing capacity.
D50 = 0.95 mm a. 639.9 kPa
D75 = 1.24 mm b. 639.6 kPa
c. 613.72 kPa
36) Compute the suitability number.
d. 631.72 kPa
a. 5.93
b. 12.86 Situation 14. A saturated clay layer has a thickness of 10
c. 23.43
m and a water content of 51% and a specific gravity of 2.72.
d. 31.94
42) Determine the saturated unit weight of clay in kN/m 3.
37) Determine the rating.
a. 15.59
a. Fair
b. 16.87
b. Good
c. 15.99
c. Poor
d. 17.20
d. Excellent
43) Determine the total stress at the bottom, in kPa.
38) Find the scoring coefficient.
a. 155.9
a. 1.23
b. 168.7
b. 1.50
c. 159.9
c. 1.32
d. 172.0
d. 1.06
44) Determine the effective stress at bottom, in kPa.
Situation 13. One footing of the building that support an
a. 70.6
actual load of 1131 kN is placed 1.22 m below the ground
b. 58.8
surface. The soil condition was observed to have the
c. 90.78
following parameters.
d. 60

Unit weight of soil, 𝛾 = Situation 15. The laboratory compaction test of a certain
20.12 kN/m3 type of soil gives a maximum dry density of 1.486 mg/m 3
Undrained shear with an optimum moisture content of 12.5%. The following
strength, C = 48 kPa
are the results of a field unit weight determination test using
Angle of internal friction,
Sand Cone Method.
ϕ = 25°
Nc = 241., Nq = 13.1, Ny
= 9.1 Volume of soil excavated from the hole = 0.001337 m3
Weight of soil from the hole when wet = 2220 g
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

Weight of dry soil = 1729 g a. 9.09 kPa


b. 3.09 kPa
45) Determine the field unit weight of soil in kN/m 3. c. 6.91 kPa
a. 13.63 d. 8.08 kPa
b. 23.54
c. 19.63 52) Calculate the total effective pressure at a depth of 6 m
d. 16.29 below the ground surface.
a. 88.8 kPa
46) Determine the water content. b. 92.32 kPa
a. 22.1% c. 78.98 kPa
b. 28.4% d. 97 kPa
c. 23.5%
d. 13.6% 53) Calculate the total effective pressure at a depth of 3 m
below the ground surface.
47) Determine the relative compaction. a. 63.75 kPa
a. 87% b. 43.23 kPa
b. 91% c. 85.8 kPa
c. 84% d. 27.3 kPa
d. 80%
Situation 18. A dry soil is mixed with 17% by mass with
Situation 16. Given the liquid limit of soil equal to 70% and water and compacted. Volume of wet soil is 0.001 m 3 and
its plastic limit is 38%. has a mass of 1.6 kg. If the specific gravity of soil is 2.70.

48) What do these percentages represent? 54) Compute the dry unit weight of soil, in kN/m 3.
a. Degree of saturation a. 15.70
b. Void ratio b. 18.84
c. Water content c. 13.42
d. Porosity d. 12.11

49) Determine the plasticity index. 55) Compute the void ratio.
a. 32% a. 0.09
b. 54% b. 0.66
c. 37% c. 6.94
d. 27% d. 0.97

50) What is the liquidity index is if w = 14%? 56) Compute the degree of saturation.
a. +0.75 a. 112%
b. +0.43 b. 47.3%
c. -0.75 c. 38.6%
d. -0.43 d. 66.5%

Situation 17. At a particular site lies a layer of fine sand 8 57) A saturated specimen of cohesion less sand was tested
m thick below the ground surface and having a void ratio of under drained conditions in a triaxial compression test
0.7. The groundwater is at a depth of 4 m below the ground apparatus and the sample failed at a deviator stress of
surface. The average degree of saturation of the capillary 482 kN/m2 and the plane of failure made an angle of 60°
fringe is 50%. The soil is saturated due to capillary action to with the horizontal. What would be the magnitude of the
a height of 2.0 above the GWT level. major principal stress at failure for another identical
specimen of sand if it is tested under a cell pressure of
51) Assuming Gs = 2.65, calculate the capillary pressure. 200 kN/m2?
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

a. 300 kPa c. 16.28 m


b. 330 kPa d. 43.14 m
c. 298 kPa
d. 433 kPa 64) A circular area of diameter d is vertical and submerged
in a liquid. Its upper edge is coincident with the liquid
58) The specific gravity of ethyl alcohol is 0.79. Calculate its surface. Derive an expression for the depth to its center
mass density, in slugs per cubic foot. of pressure.
a. 7.75 a. 5d/8
b. 25.43 b. 4r/3𝛾
c. 1.53 c. 2d/3
d. 49.30 d. 5d/4

59) The volume of a rock is found to be 0.00015 m 3. If the 65) Determine y in the figure so that the flashboard will
rock’s specific gravity is 2.60, what is the weight in N? tumble only when the water reaches the top.
a. 1.73 a. 1.333 m
b. 3.83 b. 2.667 m
c. 3.90 c. 2 m
d. 5.77 d. 1.75 m

60) Find the height of the free surface if 0.8 ft 3 of water is 66) A concrete cube 0.5 m on each side is to be held in
poured into a conical tank 20 in high with a base radius equilibrium under water by attaching a light foam buoy
of 10 in. to it. What minimum volume of foam is required? The
a. 6.05” specific weights of concrete and foam are 23.58 kN/m 3
b. 6.67” and 0.79 kN/m3.
c. 7.34” a. 0.418 m3
d. 8.12” b. 0.373 m3
c. 0.238 m3
61) A pressure gage 7 m above the bottom of a tank d. 0.191 m3
containing a liquid reads 64.94 kPa. Another gage at
height 4 m reads 87.53 kPa. Compute the specific 67) Benzene (s.g. = 0.88) flows through a 100 mm-diameter
weight of the liquid in kN/m3. pipe at a mean velocity of 3.0 m/s. Find the mass flow
a. 7.86” rate in kg/s.
b. 7.53” a. 12.25
c. 8.26” b. 14.16
d. 8.75” c. 23.56
d. 20.70
62) A closed tank is given in the figure below. If the pressure
at point A is 98 kPa abs, what is the absolute pressure 68) The curved surface AB shown in the figure is a quarter
at point B in kPa abs? of a circle of radius 5 ft. Determine, for an 8 ft length
a. 117.62 perpendicular to the paper, the total resultant force
b. 78.38 acting on surface AB.
c. 22.92 a. 6,790 lb
d. 19.62 b. 9,802 lb
c. 6,240 lb
63) A vessel containing oil under pressure is shown in the d. 8,918 lb
figure below. Find the elevation of the oil surface in the
attached piezometer. 69) A vertical cylindrical tank is 6 ft in diameter and 10 ft
a. 5.22 m high. Its sides are held in position by means of two steel
b. 6.29 m hoops, one at the top and one at the bottom. The tank
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

is filled with water up to 9 ft high. Determine the tensile c. 0.945 m


force in the bottom hoop. d. 0.888 m
a. 10,614 lb
b. 15,163 lb 75) What diameter of semicircular channel will provide the
c. 5,307 lb same capacity as a rectangular channel of width 6 m
d. 7,581 lb and depth 3 m? Assume S and n are the same for both
channels.
70) The water tank in the figure is being filled through a. 3.38 m
section 1 at v1 = 5 m/s and through section 3 at Q3 = b. 3.82 m
0.012 m3/s. If the water level h is constant, determine c. 5.25 m
the exit velocity, v2. d. 6.57 m
a. 6.47 m/s
b. 6.35 m/s 76) A rectangular tank 5.9 m wide, 4.6 m long and 3.1 m
c. 5.42 m/s high is full of water. If a cube 700 mm on an edge and
d. 4.24 m/s weighing 530 N is lowered slowly into the water until it
floats, how much water spills out?
71) A 120 mm-diameter pipe enlarges to a 180 mm- a. 0.343 cu.m
diameter pipe. At section 1 of the smaller pipe, the b. 0.054 cu.m
density of a gas in steady flow is 200 kg/m 3 and the c. 0.084 cu.m
velocity is 20 m/s. section 2 of the larger pipe, the d. 0.125 cu.m
velocity is 14 m/s. Find the density of the gas at section
2. HYD 1. A circular orifice 20 mm-diameter is located at the
a. 142 kg/m3 bottom of a tank 0.4 m2 in plan area. At a given instant, the
b. 127 kg/m3 head above the orifice is 1.2 m. 307 seconds later, the head
c. 112 kg/m3 is reduced to 0.6 m.
d. 98 kg/m3
77) Calculate the coefficient of discharge.
72) Gasoline flows at the rate of 2 L/s through a pipe with a. 0.58
an inside diameter of 60 mm. Find the Reynold’s b. 0.60
number. Specific gravity of gasoline is 0.719 and c. 0.62
dynamic viscosity is 2.92 x 10-4 Pa⋅ s. d. 0.64
a. 145 347
b. 116 278 78) Using the calculated Cd, determine the time for the head
c. 104 452 to fall from 1.2 m to 0.8 m.
d. 87 208 a. 168 s
b. 174 s
73) Determine the best hydraulic trapezoidal section to c. 185 s
convey 86 m 3/s with a bed slope of 0.002. The lining is d. 193 s
finished concrete (n = 0.012)
a. 3.628 m 79) Determine the head above the orifice from 1.2 m after
b. 3.212 m 240 seconds.
c. 2.975 m a. 0.714 m
d. 2.434 m b. 0.732 m
c. 0.740 m
74) What depth is required for 4 cu.m/s flow in a rectangular d. 0.725 m
planed-wood (n = 0.012) channel, 2 m wide with a
bottom slope of 0.002? HYD 2. The three-reservoir system of the following figure
a. 1.275 m contains water. The pipes connecting the reservoirs have
b. 1.111 m
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

the following properties: (The required flow of the water to d. 450


reservoir C is 5.149 m3/s.)
HYD 4. The gate shown below is 6 m long. The water
L1 = 2000 m, L2 = 2300 surface is 2.1 m from point C.
m, L3 = 2500 m
D1 = 1 m, D2 = 0.60 m, 86) Calculate the horizontal reaction at C, in kN.
D3 = 1.20 m a. 130
f1 = 0.013, f2 = 0.02, f3 = b. 135
0.023 c. 145
d. 140
80) Calculate the head loss in Line 1.
a. 41.39 m 87) Calculate the vertical reaction at C, in kN.
b. 50.60 m a. 260
c. 35.96 m b. 280
d. 28.15 m c. 270
d. 290
81) Calculate the flow in Line 1, in cu.m/s.
a. 3.63 88) Calculate the total hydrostatic force on the gate, in kN.
b. 6.12 a. 290
c. 2.19 b. 300
d. 4.39 c. 325
d. 315
82) Calculate the elevation of water surface in reservoir B
for the flow condition to occur. HYD 5. A 16 cm-diameter open cylinder 27 cm high is full of
a. 92 m water. The cylinder is rotated in rigid body motion about its
b. 79 m central axis at a constant angular speed. Determine the
c. 107 m constant angular speed, rad/s:
d. 115 m
89) for which one-third of the water will spill out.
HYD 3. In the figure, a circular duct is 50 m long. The fluid a. 10.17
has 𝛾 = 917 kg/m3 and 𝛾 = 0.29 Pa⋅ s. b. 14.39
c. 20.34
83) Compute the required diameter to maintain a flow rate d. 23.49
of 25 m3/hr.
a. 0.0806 m 90) for which the bottom will be barely exposed.
b. 0.0694 m a. 28.77
c. 0.0555 m b. 18.25
d. 0.0436 m c. 25.12
d. 16.32
84) Compute the velocity of the flow.
a. 1.84 m/s 91) For which 6 cm of the bottom surface is exposed.
b. 1.36 m/s a. 22.14
c. 2.87 m/s b. 25.48
d. 4.65 m/s c. 31.03
d. 35.61
85) Compute Reynold’s Number.
a. 378 HYD 6. Three pipes are connected in series between
b. 347 junctions A and E. Head loss between points A and E is 24
c. 413
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

m. The properties of each pipe are given in the following c. 4.713


table. Assume roughness coefficient for all pipes is 0.011. d. 4.192

Pipe No. Diameter (mm) Length (m) HYD 8. A 2 m square square vertical plate is immersed in
1 300 3000 water such that the center of pressure is 20 cm below its
2 200 1300 center of gravity.
3 250 2600
98) What should be the depth of immersion of the top of
92) What is the flow rate in Pipe No. 1, in cu.m/s? the plate?
a. 0.047 a. 0.67 m
b. 0.0513 b. 1.07 m
c. 0.0123 c. 0.87 m
d. 0.0385 d. 0.97 m

93) What is the head loss in Pipe No. 2, in m? 99) What is the resulting depth of center of pressure?
a. 7.80 a. 1.67 m
b. 5.30 b. 1.87 m
c. 3.40 c. 2.07 m
d. 12.80 d. 2.17 m

94) What is the head loss in Pipe No. 3, in m? 100) Calculate the hydrostatic force on one force of the
a. 7.80 plate.
b. 5.30 a. 81.23 kN
c. 3.40 b. 73.38 kN
d. 12.80 c. 65.53 kN
d. 57.68 kN
HYD 7. Water flows uniformly at a steady rate of 14 m 3/s in
a very long triangular flume which has side slopes of 1:1. HYD 9. A 2 m wide rectangular water tank is divided by a
The flume has a roughness coefficient of n = 0.012. partition into two chambers. Chamber A is 3.0 m long and
Chamber B is 7.5 m long. In the bottom of the partition is a
95) Which of the following gives the value of the critical round, sharp-edged orifice with a diameter of 150 mm. The
depth, in m? coefficient of discharge for the orifice is 0.62. At a certain
a. 3.46 instant, the water level in Chamber B is 2.5 m higher than it
b. 1.78 is in Chamber A.
c. 2.09
d. 2.65 101) Calculate the flow rate in cu.m at that given instant.
a. 0.077
96) Which of the following gives the value of the critical b. 0.084
velocity, in m/s? c. 0.124
a. 1.17 d. 0.136
b. 2.01
c. 4.41 102) How long will it take for the water surfaces in the two
d. 3.21 chambers to be at the same level?
a. 173 s
97) Which of the following gives the value of the critical b. 279 s
slope, in m/km? d. 450 s
a. 2.221
b. 2.951 103) Determine the time for the water surfaces to be 1 m
apart.
EVALUATION & REFRESHER

a. 103 s
b. 93 s
c. 163 s
d. 63 s

HYD 10. For the water shooting out of the pipe and nozzle
shown in the figure, find the following assuming negligible
head loss.

104) Determine the depth of the block that is submerged in


mercury.
a. 40.7 mm
b. 21.7 mm
c. 43.4 mm
d. 20.4 mm

105) The velocity of water at point A.


a. 4.645 m/s
b. 2.622 m/s
c. 2.431 m/s
d. 2.351 m/s

106) The velocity of the jet at it exits the nozzle.


a. 9.403 m/s
b. 9.724 m/s
c. 10.48 m/s
d. 18.58 m/s

107) The maximum elevation of the jet, h.


a. 4.506 m
b. 4.82 m
c. 5.598 m
d. 3.622 m

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