ARMY’S ANGELS INTEGRATED SCHOOL, INC.

Blk 24 Lots 2, 3, 4, 5, Salazar St. Central Signal Village, Taguig City

FIRST MONTHLY TEST

SCIENCE 7
S/Y 2019- 2020

Name:_______________________ Score:
Grade & Section:_______________ Date:___________
Teacher: Sir Melmar R. Asis

TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Read the question carefully. Choose the correct answer and write
the letter on the space before each number.

____ 1. Which of the following shows a scientific activity that involves testing or experimenting?
a. Trying a new brand of toothpaste.
b. Watching a tennis player hit a ball with a backhand.
c. Telling your best friend about an effective dandruff shampoo.
d. Reading the weather report.
____ 2. What is the main purpose of science?
a. To arrange a series of experiments
b. To get proof of concept
c. To understand ourselves and the natural world
d. To uplift our self-esteem
____ 3. Scientific inquiry means the following, EXCEPT _________.
a. Many ways in which scientist explore the natural world
b. Used by people studying living and nonliving things
c. Can be anywhere since science is everywhere
d. Investigation based on superstitious beliefs
____ 4. Repeating the experiment using the same procedure and under the same conditions is a way of
a. Wasting time c. identifying problem
b. Verifying conclusions d. formulating a hypothesis
____ 5. Which of the following activities involves testing of a hypothesis?
a. Predicting c. testing or experimenting
b. Inferring d. comparing
____ 6. An engineer is tasked to build a bridge using new materials. What does he or she need to do to
find if the materials are suitable for building a bridge?
a. Predict c. experiment
b. Infer d. hypothesize
____ 7. Which of the following Filipino beliefs has a scientific basis?
a. When you bite your tongue, someone is thinking of you.
b. Say the “ Our Father “ prayer for 15 seconds while boiling an egg and this egg will be
soft-boiled.
c. You will grow taller when you jump on New Year’s Eve.
d. You will lose all your wealth when you sweep floor at night.
____ 8. Which of the following statements about science is not true?
a. Science is any of the branches of natural and physical science.
b. It is a systematized body of knowledge.
c. It only means experiments and laboratories.
d. It is a dynamic way of acquiring, doing, using, and refining large body of knowledge.
____ 9. Why is it advisable to conduct more than one trial even though the first one produced a good,
favorable result?
a. Because there might be an error in the first one
b. Because more experiments mean more conclusion
c. Because consistency of result is highly desired
d. Because there might be new results or outcomes
____ 10. Why is it helpful to write the scientific problem in question form?
a. The question serves as a guide to the researcher so that he or she will know the
objective of his or her experiment.
b. The question can be answered by a hypothesis that will eventually be the conclusion.
c. The question becomes the conclusion when started.
d. The question contains the flow of the experiment design.
____ 11. Which is the SI base unit for mass?
a. Kilogram c. milligram
b. Centigram d. gram
____ 12. How many significant figures are there in 34 009?
a. 5 significant figures c. 2 significant figures
b. 3 significant figures d. 4 significant figures
____ 13. Which is the correct way of writing 3 045 000 in scientific notation?
a. 3 045.000 x 103 c. 3.045 x 106
b. 304.5 x 104 d. 0.3045 x 107
____ 14. Which is an example of a quantitative description?
a. Light yellow c. slightly acidic
b. 25 cm long d. very rough
____ 15. What are the three type of variables used in scientific experiments?
a. Independent, dependent, observed
b. Controlled, dependent, independent
c. Identical, observe, quantitative
d. Independent, measurable, dependent

TEST II. MATCHING TYPE. Match column A with the column B. write the letter only.

Column A Column B
A. Traits of a Scientist

____ 1. Willingness to critique evidences presented a. perseverance

in support of a conclusion
____ 2. Report truthfully, acknowledges sources b. optimistic
of information
____ 3. Considers failures as learning lessons c. intellectually honest
____ 4. Willing to change ideas in the light of
new evidenciary support d. open-mindedness
____ 5. Never gives up when dealing with problems
and unexpected things e. critical-mindedness

B. Science Processes and Skills

___ 1. A process of grouping or ordering objects or a. inference

events into categories based on properties
___ 2. A process of drawing a conclusion about a b. measurement
specific event based on observations and data
___ 3. A process of forming an idea of an expected result c. observation
based on present knowledge, observations and inferences
___ 4. A process of using senses to determine properties d. classification
of an object or event
___ 5. A process of comparing the unknown quantity e. prediction
with the known quantity
TEST III. SIGNIFICANT FIGURES AND SCIENTIFIC NOTATION

SN SF

1. 253 876 ________________ _______

2. 350.35 ________________ _______

3. 0.0000451 ________________ _______

4. 0.0076 ________________ _______

5. 75 000 000 ________________ _______

6. 1.78 ________________ _______

7. 0.0000000065432 ________________ _______

8. 0.808 ________________ _______

9. 265 000 469 ________________ _______

10. 0.0450 ________________ _______

TEST IV. Laboratory Apparatus. Draw and Give its uses.

1. Test tube 4. Graduated Cylinder

____________________ __________________
____________________ __________________
____________________ __________________

2. Funnel 5. Alcohol lamp

___________________ _________________
____________________ _________________
____________________ _________________

3. Beaker

___________________
___________________

___________________

TEST V. Scientific Method. Make a Ladder or stairs of the different steps of scientific method.
 ARMY’S ANGELS INTEGRATED SCHOOL
Blk 24 Lots 2, 3, 4, 5, Salazar St. Central Signal Village, Taguig City

FIRST MONTHLY TEST

SCIENCE 8
S/Y 2019- 2020

Name:_______________________ Score:
Grade & Section:_______________ Date:___________
Teacher: Sir Melmar R. Asis

TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Read the question carefully. Choose the correct answer and write
the letter on the space before each number.

_____ 1. Which of the following illustrates the law of interaction?

a. A planet in an orbit
b. A carabao pulling a plow
c. A car approaching a stop light
d. A bus runs in a straight highway
_____2. Which of the following best describes the velocity of a moving object?
a. 60 kilometrs per hour
b. 60 kilometer per hour per second
c. 60 kilometers per hour going north
d. None of the above
_____ 3. You see the flag waving as it hangs on the pole. What force is acting on the flag?
a. Wind c. water
b. Gravity d. magnetism
_____ 4. Why can a bus travel faster in going down a mountain than going up?
a. Because of gravity
b. Because of air pressure
c. Because of friction
d. Because of the speed of the wind
_____ 5. Which would require the least force to stop?
a. A car travelling at 120 km/hr c. A car travelling at 60 km/hr
b. A car travelling at 80 km/hr d. A car travelling at 10 km/hr
_____ 6. Which of the following explains the law of inertia?
a. If no force acts on an object that is moving, the object will continue moving at the
same speed and direction.
b. An object acceleartes because of a force that acts on it.
c. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
d. D. none of the above
_____ 7. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Racers in the track and field event stop the moment they reach the finish line.
b. The inertia of their body keeps them running continuously.
c. Their effort to stop their motion causes them to decelerate.
d. Somebody has to stop the racer.
_____ 8. What is distance divided by time?
a. Velocity c. Inertia
b. Speed d. Motion
_____ 9. Which indicates the change in position?
a. Speed c. Velocity
b. Force d. Motion
_____ 10. A coin is placed on a cardboard on top of a glass. A sudden pull on the cardboard causes the
coin to fall inside the glass. The phenomenon shows
a. Inertia c. interaction
b. Acceleration d. gravity
_____ 11. What is a push or a pull?
a. Speed c. Velocity
b. Force d. Motion
_____ 12. Which of the following statement is true?
a. It is safer to drive on the wet roads because there is less friction.
b. It requires a greater force to move an object from rest than to keep it sliding.
c. To move a cabinet along a floor easier, place a wooden board under it.
d. Driving a car at a faster rate increases the friction between the road and the tire.
_____ 13. A body with a circular motion moves
a. With constant velocity and constant acceleration
b. With varying velocity and constant acceleration
c. With constant velocity and varying acceleration
d. With varying velocity and acceleration
_____ 14. When a centrifugal force exceeds the centripetal force, the object
a. Moves along the circular path.
b. Moves tangentially the circular path.
c. moves toward the center of curvatures
d. moves outside its paths
_____ 15. If a chair breaks when a stunt man sits on it, it means
a. the chair is made of light materials
b. the upward force exerted by the chair is less than the weight of the man.
c. The chair is not acted upon by gravity
d. The man did not sit properly.

TEST II. Study the given quantities. Write speed, distance, velocity, acceleration, displacement,
or time.

________________ 1. 5 000 m _________________ 9. 35 m/sec west

________________ 2. 55 m downward _________________ 10. 20 km

________________ 3. 1.5 hour _________________ 11. 8 km/h2

________________ 4. 12 m/s2 _________________ 12. 15 m/sec

________________ 5. 25 km/hr _________________ 13. 21 meter sideward

________________ 6. 40 m/sec south _________________ 14. 55 sec

________________ 7. 5 000 miles _________________ 15. 10 minutes

________________ 8. 450 km/hr

TEST III. Write REST if the situation demonstrates inertia at rest and MOTION if inertia is in
motion.

_____________ 1. The cabinet door has been closed for almost a month.
_____________ 2. The ball is on the table.
_____________ 3. The yoyo keeps moving up and down.
_____________ 4. The pendulum is not swinging.
_____________ 5. The water inside the glass keeps on swirling even if you have stopped stirring.
_____________ 6. A runner continues to run although he has reached the finish line.
_____________ 7. A boy is sleeping soundly in bed.
_____________ 8. A book has been lying on the table for a week.
_____________ 9. A bicycle keeps on moving even if its not pedaled anymore.
_____________ 10. People inside the running bus move forward, then back to their former position as
the bus suddenly stops.

TEST IV. Problem solving. Show your solution.

A. SPEED
1. An automobile travels in 25 minutes from manila to a town of Cavite, a distance of 40 kilometers.
What is its speed?

B. VELOCITY
1. What is the velocity of an airplane that travels 900 kilometers in 12 hours, going to the west?

C. ACCELERATION
1. A car velocity on a straight highway increases uniformly from 35 km/hr to 80 km/hr in 30
minutes. Find its acceleration.

D. FORCE
1. What force will give a 250 g mass an acceleration of 6 m/sec2?

2. A 2-ton car is running at the rate of 90 km/hr around a rotunda whose radius of curvature is
approximately 20 m. find its centripetal force.
 ARMY’S ANGELS INTEGRATED SCHOOL
Blk 24 Lots 2, 3, 4, 5, Salazar St. Central Signal Village, Taguig City

FIRST MONTHLY TEST

SCIENCE 10
S/Y 2019- 2020

Name:_______________________ Score:
Grade & Section:_______________ Date:___________
Teacher: Sir Melmar R. Asis

TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Read the question carefully. Choose the correct answer and write
the letter on the space before each number.

_____ 1. Earth’s lithosphere includes which of the following?

a. The crust only
b. The mantle only
c. The crust and part of the mantle
d. The crust, the mantle, and the outer core
_____ 2. In which of the following plate boundary types does the San Andreas Fault belong?
a. Convergent c. transform
b. Divergent d. seismic
_____ 3. The earthquake that results from the movement of plates is called ______.
a. Crustal earthquake c. volcanic earthquake
b. Oceanic earthquake d. tectonic earthquake
_____ 4. Which of the following gives the magnitude of an earthquake?
a. Distance from the epicenter c. duration of shaking
b. Depths of focus d. amount of energy released
_____ 5. In pushing the continental drift theory, Alfred Wegener presented similarities between
which two continents?
a. Asia and Africa c. South America and Africa
b. Asia and Europe d. South America and North America
_____ 6. Volcanoes are formed as a result of _________.
a. The thrust faulting of tectonic plate
b. The upwarping of a continental plate
c. The divergence of two continental plates
d. The subduction of an oceanic plate underneath a continental plate

_____ 7. Which of the following is not a safe place to be during an earthquake?

a. On high ground c. under a sturdy table
b. Beside a glass window d. near concrete structures
_____ 8. The ___________ is the point within the earth where tectonic plate rocks start to break
and where seismic energy is released.
a. Dip c. fault plane
b. Epicenter d. focus
______ 9. Which theory considered the geographical features of the Earth’s surface as a result of the
contraction and wrinkling of the planet as it cools down?
a. Continental drift theory c. Seafloor spreading theory
b. Contraction theory d. tectonic plate theory
______ 10. An area in the mantle from which heat from deep within the Earth rises as a thermal plume
is known as _____.
a. Hot spot c. plate boundary
b. Magma d. trench
______ 11. Oceanic plates are made up of ______.
a. Basaltic rocks c. feldspar
b. Granitic plates d. quartz
______ 12. According to the theory of plate tectonics, which layers of the Earth is made up of plates?
a. Asthenosphere c. lithosphere
b. Atmosphere d. hydrosphere
______ 13.According to the theory of harry Hess, continents move because of ________.
a. Pull of gravity c. seafloor movement
b. Rotation of Earth d. wind
______ 14.The Alps and the Himalayas are formed as a result of the collision between ______.
a. Two oceanic plates c. any two tectonic plates
b. Two continental plates d. a continental plate and an oceanic plate
______ 15. Which of the following is true about P and S waves?
a. P- waves travel faster the S-waves
b. Only P-waves are detected in seismographic station.
c. S-waves reach the surface of the earth faster than P-waves do.
d. Either of p- or S-waves are required to triangulate the location of the epicenter.

TEST II. MATCHING TYPE. Match column A with column B.

Column A Column B
A. Layers of the earth

_____ 1. The earth’s outermost surface a. mantle

_____ 2. The largest layer of the earth b. outer core
_____ 3. Fluid layer that contains iron. When it flows c. crust
It generates the earth’s magnetic field d. inner core
_____ 4. Solid innermost layer of the earth e. Moho
_____ 5. Boundary between the core and the mantle f. Gutenberg Discontinuity

B. Earthquake

_____ 1. The point directly above the focus on the surface a. intensity
_____ 2. Is a break or fracture between two blocks of rocks b. magnitude
in response to stress c. focus
_____ 3. Travels through the interior of earth as they leave d. epicenter
the focus e. body wave
_____ 4. Travels parallel to the earth’s surface and these are f. surface wave
slowest and most damaging.
_____ 5. Measures total amount of energy released by
an earthquake

TEST III. CLASSIFICATION. Classify the following as Aeolian, Erosional, Mountainous, Glacial,
Fluvial or Coastal landforms.

________________ 1. Delta ___________________ 9. Mesas

________________ 2. Alpine ___________________ 10. Plateaus

________________ 3. Dunes ___________________ 11. Peninsula

________________ 4. Canyons ___________________ 12. Hills

________________ 5. Buttes ___________________ 13. Continental

________________ 6. Plains ___________________ 14. Loess

________________ 7. Valleys ___________________ 15. Sea cliffs

________________ 8. Mushroom rock

TEST IV. IDENTIFICATION. Identify the words being defined or described.

___________________ 1. It is the boundary between the crust and the mantle.

___________________ 2. The English term for tsunami.
___________________ 3. These are areas within the mantle where rocks melt to produce magma,
which sometimes makes way up the surface and is released through the fissure.
___________________ 4. Refers to the forces and events that lead to a large structural
deformation of Earth’s lithosphere.
___________________ 5. It is the visual record of the oscillation or vibration of the ground due to
passing wave.
___________________ 6. It is the precise point underground where the rupture propagates.
___________________ 7. These are formed when certain molten Earth materials have solidified.
___________________ 8. At Earth’s surface, lava is released through openings.
___________________ 9. A type of volcano usually form at hot spots, from non explosive eruptions
___________________ 10. It is the boundary between the outer core and the inner core.

TEST V. Draw and explain the movement of plates in the following boundaries.

Divergent boundary explanation

Convergent Boundary explanation

Transform boundary explanation

 ARMY’S ANGELS INTEGRATED SCHOOL, INC.
Blk 24 Lots 2, 3, 4, 5, Salazar St. Central Signal Village, Taguig City

FIRST PERIODIC TEST

SCIENCE 10
S/Y 2019-2020

Name:_______________________ Score:
Grade & Section:_______________ Date:___________
Teacher: Sir Melmar R. Asis

TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Read the question carefully. Choose the correct answer and write
the letter on the space before each number.

____ 1. What agency under NDRRMC is tasked to handle and supervise the organization of lower-level
disaster risk reduction management councils and disaster operation centers in all local government?
a. Secretary of National Defense c. Secretary of Public Works and Highways
b. Secretary of Trade and Industry d. Secretary of Interior and Local Government
____ 2. Which of the following is not a phase of civilization?
a. Globalization c. birth of agriculture
b. Management d. birth of trade
____ 3. Which of the following is not a basic concept related to natural resources management?
a. Water cycle c. soil health
b. Plant health d. soil management
____ 4. What does sustainable livelihood involve?
a. People making money in a very short time
b. Extracting the most resources for maximum profit
c. Reasonable extraction of resources for maximum profit
d. Activities that generate resources for human consumption
____ 5. What is the best description of watershed?
a. An area with a river running through it
b. A mountainside where water runs off when it rains
c. An area where all the rain that falls drains into the same body of water
d. A man-made structure holding huge amounts of water for agricultural and domestic
use
____ 6. Which of the following is not an example of renewable resource?
a. Ground water c. plants
b. Air d. animals
____ 7. Which of the following is not an example of nonrenewable resources?
a. Metal ores c. fossil fuels
b. Solar energy d. nuclear energy
____ 8. What framework is being described when a government aims to reduce vulnerability by
decreasing risk while coping with the hazards?
a. Response c. Rehabilitation
b. Mitigation d. Preparedness
____ 9. Which of the following is not an effect of global warming?
a. Desertification c. improvement of agricultural land
b. Sea-level rise d. migration
____ 10. Which of the following is the impact of tropical cyclone if it is under typhoon category?
a. Minimal damage to infrastructure.
b. Some trees may be tilted, or become uprooted.
c. Tress uprooted and massive agricultural damage.
d. Widespread evacuations as well as catastrophic damage to infrastructure and
agriculture.
TEST II. MATCHING TYPE. Match Column I with Column II. Write your answers in Column IV.
Then match Column II with Column III. Write the answers in Column V. Write the letter only.

IV V I II III
Description Agency Secretary
Ensures that funding requirements are met
A DILG A Mark Villar
for relief and rehabilitation
Ensures that health services are maintained
Bernadette
or reestablished as soon as possible during B DSWD B
Puyat
disasters.
Ensures that the increase of prices do not
Leonor
happen by setting price caps during C DOH C
Briones
emergencies.
Tasks to ensure infrastructure stability as Carlos
soon as possible. D DepEd D Dominguez
III
Handles and supervises the organization of
Rolando
lower-level disaster risk reduction E DTI E
Bautista
management councils in all local government
Facilitates relief initiatives and ensures
Chief of
social services to be available immediately to F F Eduardo Aňo
Staff, AFP
the survivors
Organizes disaster awareness in hotel and Francisco
G DENR G
other hospitality-related areas. Duque III
Provides initiatives for reforestation and
mitigating hazards from landslides, H DOF H Ramon Lopez
subsidence, and other geological hazards.
Tasks with spreading the word of disaster
I DPWH I Roy Cimatu
preparedness and mitigation
Ensures security of civilians and the Benjamin
J DOT J
personalities working in the disaster zone Madrigal Jr.

TEST III. Classify the following as Renewable resources and Nonrenewable resources.

__________________ 1. Water __________________ 6. Petroleum

__________________ 2. Wind __________________ 7. Coal

__________________ 3. Natural gas __________________ 8. Biomass

__________________ 4. Plants __________________ 9. Nuclear energy

__________________ 5. Metal ores __________________ 10. Solar

TEST V. IDENTIFICATION.

______________________ 1. It refers to the balance among the needs of people, economics and the
environment.
______________________ 2. It is the term used to describe a gradual increase in the average
temperature of Earth’s atmosphere and its oceans.
______________________ 3. It basically aims to restore normalcy in the affected regions by
restoring all infrastructure and basic utilities back to their normal operational states.
______________________ 4. It stands as the president’s advisory body in setting up preparedness
programs, disaster operations, and rehabilitation efforts.
______________________ 5. Defined as anything that can be used from the environment.
______________________ 6. It refers to the periodic departure and return of an organism in an
area.
______________________ 7. It is the type of farming, one crop is grown in one planting season, then
a different crop is planted in the next season.
______________________ 8. After a crop is harvested, a cover crop is grown. Afterwards, the
cover crop is plowed under the soil. The decaying plant material increases humus in the soil.
______________________ 9. It refers to the science of cultivating the land and producing crops.
______________________ 10. It is a process wherein vast quantities of rainwater have been stored
to be distributed by irrigating the land.
______________________ 11. It is a process where water penetrates the land and accumulates
between soil layers, forming a water table.
______________________ 12. It measures and initiates programs that aim to minimize the impacts
of natural and man-made hazards from the village to national level.

TEST VI. PRECAUTIONARY MEASURES.

A. EARTHQUAKE

BEFORE DURING AFTER

B. VOLCANIC ERUPTION

BEFORE DURING AFTER

C. TROPICAL CYCLONE

BEFORE DURING AFTER

TEST VII. Draw and label the processes of water cycle.

 ARMY’S ANGELS INTEGRATED SCHOOL, INC.
Blk 24 Lots 2, 3, 4, 5, Salazar St. Central Signal Village, Taguig City

FIRST PERIODIC TEST

SCIENCE 7
S/Y 2019-2020

Name:_______________________ Score:
Grade & Section:_______________ Date:___________
Teacher: Sir Melmar R. Asis

TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Read the question carefully. Choose the correct answer and write
the letter on the space before each number.

_____ 1. Aluminum, copper, and silver are good conductors of electricity. Graphite and diamond are
allotropes of carbon, a nonmetal. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity, while diamond does not
conduct electricity. What conclusion can you make based on these observations?
a. All metals are good conductor of electricity.
b. All nonmetals are poor conductor of electricity.
c. All nonmetals are good conductors of electricity.
d. All metals and some nonmetals are good conductors of electricity.
_____ 2. Which is the correct arrangement of the four states of matter based on increasing movement
of particles?
a. Plasma, solid, gas, liquid c. solid, liquid, gas, plasma
b. Gas, solid, plasma, liquid d. liquid, gas, plasma, solid
_____ 3. Which pH range describes a weak basic substance?
a. 1-4 c. 11-14
b. 5-6 d. 8 - 10
_____ 4. Which of the following is a wrong analogy?
a. Soil : mixture c. tap water : element
b. Hot coffee : solution d. aerosol : colloid
_____ 5. Lola Undang’s knife become rusty after using it for so many times. What causes the rusting?
a. Oxygen in the air reacting with iron.
b. Hydrogen in the air reacting with iron.
c. The accumulation of microbes in the knife.
d. Nitrogen in the air reacting with iron.
_____ 6. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. A solution has particles that are evenly distributed throughout a mixture.
b. A suspension has particles that remain settled at the bottom of a container.
c. A colloid exhibits a Tyndall effect.
d. Solutions, colloids and suspension are all heterogeneous mixture.
_____ 7. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
a. Butter c. salt
b. Sugar d. water
_____ 8. Substance A which is a yellowish in color has been heated. Upon heating, the substance
melted and upon cooling, it solidified into its original yellow color. What type of substance is it?
a. Element c. mixture
b. Compound d. either A or B
_____ 9. Which is the negatively charged particle of an atom?
a. Proton c. neutron
b. Electron d. nucleus
_____ 10. Which of the following does not form a solution?
a. Alcohol and water c. iron filings and water
b. Salt and water d. sugar and water
_____ 11. Which of the following properties is an extensive property?
a. Ductility c. melting point
b. Length d. solubility
_____ 12. Your assignment is to prepare a heterogeneous mixture. Which of the following preparations
will you choose?
a. Small amount of table salt c. pebbles in water
b. A rubbing alcohol d. coffee with creamer
_____ 13. Tyndall effect is observed in what kind of mixture?
a. Suspension c. solution
b. Colloid d. coarse mixture
_____ 14. What type of compound that turns red litmus paper to blue?
a. Base c. salt
b. Acid d. neutral
_____ 15. Some antibiotics are in powder form. When mixed with water what kind of mixture is
formed?
a. Suspension c. solution
b. Colloid d. coarse particles

TEST II. Classify the following compounds or substances as acid, base or neutral.

____________ 1. Black coffee _______________ 6. soap

____________ 2. Pure water _______________ 7. vinegar

____________ 3. Tears _______________ 8. Tomato juice

____________ 4. Baking soda _______________ 9. bleach

____________ 5. Chalk _______________ 10. Sodium sulfate

TEST III. Identify the physical and/or chemical properties in each situation.

________________ 1. Boiling water _______________ 6. Ripening of bananas

________________ 2. Lengthening hair _______________ 7. Washing clothes

________________ 3. Cooking food _______________ 8. Hammering a galvanized roof

________________ 4. Crumpling paper _______________ 9. Having bad breath

________________ 5. A rotten egg _______________ 10. Chopping a carrot into pieces

TEST IV. Classify the following mixtures as solution, suspension or colloids.

_________________ 1. Alcohol _________________ 6. Milk

_________________ 2. Mayonnaise _________________ 7. vinegar

_________________ 3. Whipped cream _________________ 8. pizza

_________________ 4. Calamansi juice _________________ 9. toothpaste

_________________ 5. Fish sauce _________________ 10. Cologne

TEST V. ELEMENTS. Classify the following elements as metal, nonmetal or metalloids.

_________________ 1. Copper _________________ 6. lead

_________________ 2. Chlorine _________________ 7. boron

_________________ 3. Silicon _________________ 8. nitrogen

_________________ 4. Astatine _________________ 9. sodium

_________________ 5. Oxygen _________________ 10. phosphorous

TEST VI. ELEMENTS
A. Write the symbol for each element. B. Write the name of the element represented by
each symbol.

1. Magnesium ________ 1. Si _____________

2. Iron ________ 2. F _____________
3. Aluminum ________ 3. He _____________
4. Gold ________ 4. Ag _____________
5. Copper ________ 5. B _____________

TEST VII. . Complete the table.

Element Atomic Mass Number Number of Number of Number of

Number Protons Electron Neutrons

247 97
Bk

73 108
Ta

40 50
Zr

127 74
I

21 45
Sc

TEST VIII. OPERATIONS in Scientific Notation And Significant Figures.

A. Perform the indicated operation and round off your answer to the correct number of significant
figures.

1. 8.2456 + 2.675 + 5.34 ______________

2. (3.85)( 2 ) + (4.23 )( 3.5) ______________

3. ( 7.80 x 105 ) + ( 5.55 x 105 ) ______________

4. (2.25 x 103) x ( 6.75 x 108) ______________

5. ( 9.21 x 108) ÷ ( 3.65 x 104) ______________

 ARMY’S ANGELS INTEGRATED SCHOOL, INC.
Blk 24 Lots 2, 3, 4, 5, Salazar St., Central Signal Village, Taguig City

FIRST PERIODIC TEST

SCIENCE 8
S/Y 2019- 2020

Name:_______________________ Score:
Grade & Section: Grade 8 – Newton,Thomson,Dalton Date:___________
Teacher: Sir Melmar R. Asis

TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Read the question carefully. Choose the correct answer and write
the letter on the space before each number.

______ 1. Which of the following reflects the scientific meaning of work?

a. Supporting a wall about to fall
b. Using a crowbar to lift a stone
c. Typing a term paper
d. Hanging a picture on a wall
______ 2. If a sports trainer would like to choose the best among his trainees for a relay, he
should find the amount of
a. Work c. force
b. Time d. power
______ 3. In which instance will sound travel slowest?
a. On a sunny day c. during a rain shower
b. On a cloudy d. during a typhoon
______ 4. Which explains why sound travels fastest in solids?
a. It has a density greater than those of liquids and gases
b. Its elasticity is greater than those of liquids and gases
c. Both its density and elasticity are greater than those of liquids and gases
d. Both its density and elasticity are lower than those of liquids and gases
______ 5. Which is a measure of heat?
a. Quantity of molecules
b. Rate of motion of the molecules of a body
c. Number of degrees
d. Internal energy of the molecules of a body
______ 6. When a stone is allowed to drop from the top of a building
a. Its potential energy remains the same.
b. Its potential energy increases as its kinetic energy decreases.
c. Its potential energy decreases as its kinetic energy increases.
d. Both potential and kinetic energy increase.
______ 7. In which situation is work done?
a. A weightlifter holding a barbell
b. A gardener pushing a lawn mower
c. A vendor carrying a basket of goods
d. A security guard standing in front of a building
______ 8. The following are units of energy except
a. Dyne c. joule
b. Erg d. newton-meter
______ 9. An echo is a ____________.
a. Diffracted of sound c. refracted sound
b. Reflected sound d. superposition of beats
______ 10. A boy shouts inside a big church. He hears his own voice. Which wave property is
shown?
a. Diffraction c. reflection
b. Interference d. refraction
______ 11. Which of the following is a unit of power?
a. Joule c. newton
b. Joule per second d. newton-meter
______ 12. In which situation does an object possess kinetic energy?
a. A moving car c. a stretched rubber band
b. Digested food d. a book lifted from the table
______ 13. If the amount of work remains constant and time is increased, then
a. Power in decreased c. power remains the same
b. Power is increased d. power changes
For items 14-15, consider the following scenario. Student A lifts a book weighing 20 N
onto a shelf in 5 sec. If student B lifts the book to the same height in 10 sec, which of
the following is true?
______ 14.
a. Students A and B did not do any work.
b. Student A did less work than student B
c. Students A and B did the same amount of work.
d. Student A did a greater amount of work than student B.
______ 15.
a. Students A and B have zero power.
b. Students A and B have the same power
c. Student A has less power than student B
d. Student A has greater power than student B.

TEST II. Matching Type. Match column A with the column B

Column A Column B

A. Part of a Wave
______ 1. highest point of a wave a. amplitude
______ 2. longest distance of a particle from b. crest
its position of rest c. frequency
______ 3. distance from one wave to another wave d. wavelength
______ 4. lowest point of a wave e. trough
______ 5. number of waves passing through a given f. period
point in a medium

A. Characteristics of Sound
____ 1. Physiological sensation from a sound a. pitch
that varies from one person to another b. loudness
____ 2. Refers to the highness or lowness of a tone c. audible range
____ 3. Distinct characteristics of sound that d. intensity
enables you to identify the source of the sound e. quality
____ 4. Measures in term of the amount of energy
per second, the power delivered per unit area of a surface
____ 5. Refers to the sound frequencies ranging from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz

TEST V. Problem Solving. Show your solution.

A. Heat and Temperature. Convert the following temperature.

ºC ºF ºF ºC ºK ºC
25 130 532
546 523 -678
321 -34 43
-250 -150 -10
15.5 87 730
B. Work
1. How much work is done in lifting 1500 kg cabinet from first floor to the second floor 2 m
high?

2. How much work is done when 50 N force pushes a cart 12?

C. Energy
1. A 5.5 kg toy car moves at 6.2 m/s forward. What is its kinetic energy?

2. A box on top of a cabinet 2.5 m high has a potential energy of 150 J. how much mass
does the box has?

D. Power
1. What is the power of a swimmer who uses 1 500 KJ in an hour?

2. A construction worker used a 3.5 hp motor to raise steel beams. What is the maximum
height to which a 1.5 ton of beam can be raised in 30 minutes?