Code - P1

NEET - 2019
ANSWER &
Date : 05/05/2019
SOLUTION
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum marks: 720
Important Instructions :
(i) The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4
marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total
scores. The maximum marks are 720.
(i) Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this
page/marking responses.
(ii) Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test
Booklet only.
(iii) On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.
(iv) The CODE for this Booklet is P1.
(v) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make
any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else
except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
(vi) Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
(vii) No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator,
would leave his/her seat.
(viii) Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
(ix) The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination
with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means
will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination.
(x) No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any
circumstances.
(xi) The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test
Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

1. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of lenght L, the length of the wire
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is:
(1) Mgl
(2) MgL

(3)  Mgl


(4)  MgL

Solution :


U =  (work done by gravity)


U =  Mgl


2. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to
break when:
(1) the mass is at the highest point
(2) the wire is horizontal
(3) the mass is at the lowest point
(4) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
Solution :

m u
T – mg = 
l
m u
T = mg + 
l
The tension is maximum at the lowest position of mass, so the chance of breaking is
maximum.

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

3. Ionized hydrogen atoms and α-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant
magnetic field, B. The ratio of their radii of their paths rH : rα will be :

(1) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4

Solution :
p
rH = 
eB
p
rα = 
eB
p
rH 
eB
 
r p

eB
rH 
 
r 

4. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2m, at rest.
The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by
the colliding body A is :

 
(1)  (3) 
 
 
(2)  (4) 
 

Solution :
Fractional loss of KE of ccolliding body
∆KE mm
  
KE m  m
mm
= 
m  m
m 
=   
m 

5. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of
the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the
angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water?
(μwater = 4/3)

(1) 0.266º (3) 0.05º

(2) 0.15º (4) 0.1º


Solution : In air angular fringe width θ0 = 
D
Angular fringe width in water

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

 
θw =   
D 

=   
 




6. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used?
(1) Induction furnace
(2) Magnetic braking in train
(3) Electromagnet
(4) Electric heater
Solution : Electric heater does not involve Eddy currents. It uses Joule's heating effect.

7. A soap bubble, having radius of 1mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point Z0 below the free
surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value of
Z0 is :

(1) 100 cm (3) 1 cm

(2) 10 cm (4) 0.5 cm

T
Solution : Excess pressure =  , Gauge pressure
R
= pgZ0
T
P0 +     gZ
R
T
Z0 = 
R ×g
 ×  ×  
Z0 =  m
 ×  ×
Z0 = 1cm

8. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

(1) Red (3) Green

(2) Blue (4) Violet

Solution : Red has the longest wavelength among the given options.

9. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed
of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?

(1) 3 J (3) 2 J
(2) 30 kJ (4) 1 J

Solution : Work required = change in kinetic energy

Final KE = 0

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

  
Initial KE =  mv      mv
  
 
=  ×  ×  ×    J

|∆KE| = 3J

10. The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by

y = A0 + Asin∞t + Bcos∞t
Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :
 
(1) A0 + A   B  (3) A  A  B

(2) A   B  (4) A + B

Solution :

y = A0 + Asinωt + Bsinωt
Equate SHM
y’ = y – A0 = Asinωt + Bcosωt
Resultant amplitude

R = A   B   AB cos  ∘

= A   B 

11. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with
each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1. When the space between the
two lenses is filled with glycerine (which has the same refractive index (μ = 1.5) as that of
glass then the equivalent focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be :

(1) 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 4

Solution :

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

   
Equivalent focal length in air       
F f f f
When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin lens behaves like a diverging lens of focal length
(–f)
   
   
F f f f

= 
f
F 
  
F 

12. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to :

(1) Increase in its mass
(2) Increase in its kinetic energy
(3) Decrease in its pressure
(4) Decrease in intermolecular distance
Solution :
Increase in temperature would lead to the increase in kinetic energy of gas (assuming far as to
F
be ideal) as U =  nRT


13. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. its de Broglie wavelength
is, (nearly): (me = 9 × 10–31 kg)

(1) 12.2 × 10–13 m (3) 12.2 × 10–14 m

(2) 12.2 × 10–12 m (4) 12.2 nm

Solution :
For an electron accelerated through a potential V
  ×  
λ =  Å     ×  m

V 

14. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have increase in length
independent increase in of temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :
(αcu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and αAl = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)

(1) 6.8 cm (3) 88 cm

(2) 113.9 cm (4) 68 cm

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

Solution :
αcuLcu = αAlLAl
1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × LAl
 × 
LAl =    cm


15. Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow.

(1) When the light rays undergo two internal reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow
is formed
(2) The order of colours is reversed in the secondary rainbow
(3) An observer can see a rainbow when his front is towards the sun
(4) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion refraction and reflection of sunlight
Solution :
Rainbow can't be observed when observer faces towards sun

16. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to
the centre of the earth ?

(1) 150 N (3) 200 N

(2) 250 N (4) 100 N

Solution :

Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from surface of earth

 

g’ =    ...(1)

Where g = acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface
Multiplying by mass 'm' on both sides of (1)
d R

mg’ = mg   
R  d

R
  
= 200       N
R 

17. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero
internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation
when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be :

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

(1) 4 : 9 (3) 1 : 2
(2) 9 : 4 (4) 2 : 1

Solution :
(a) All bulbs are glowing

R R R
Req =     
  

E E 
Power (P1) =    ...(i)
Req R

(b) Two from section A and one from section B are glowing

R R
Req =   R  
 

E
Power (Pf) =  ...(ii)
R
Pi 
E R
      
Pf R E

18. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(2) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(3) Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(4) Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
Solution :
In p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with trivalent impurities, that
creates deficiencies of valence electrons called holes which are
majority charge carriers.

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

19. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is :


A A
(1)  (3) 
 
(2) Aω (4) Zero

Solution :
In one complete vibration, displacement is zero. So, average velocity in one complete vibration
Displacement yf  y
=   
Time interval T

20. The unit of thermal conductivity is :

(1) J m K–1 (3) W m K–1

(2) J m–1 K–1 (4) W m–1 K–1

Solution :
The heat current related to difference of temperature across the length l of a conductor of area
A is
dH KA
   ∆T (K = coefficient of thermal conductivity)
dt 
dH
∴ K = 
A dt ∆T
Unit of K = Wm–1 K–1

21. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm.
The torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is
(1) 2 × 10–6 N m
(2) 2 × 10–3 N m
(3) 2 × 10–4 N m
(4) 2 × 106 N m
Solution :
Work energy theorem.

W =  |(f  i ) θ = 2π = revolution

= 2π × 2π = 4π2 rad

Wi = 3 ×  rad/s

 
⇒ τθ =  ×  mr   i 
 
 

⇒ – τ = 



× 


×  ×  ×
   
 


–6
⇒ τ = 2 × 10 Nm

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

22. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y- direction where F is in newton and y in

meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is
(1) 30 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 25 J
(4) 20 J
Solution :
Work done by variable force is
yf
W =  yi
Fdy

Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m

  y 
∴ W  
  ydy  y     J
  

23. Which of the following acts as a circuit protecting device?

(1) Conductor (3) Switch

(2) Inductor (4) Fuse

Solution :
use wire has less melting point so when excess current flows, due to heat produced in it, it
melts.

24. In the circuits shown below, the readings of voltmeters and the ammeters will be

(1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2

(2) V1 > V2 and i1 = i2
(3) V1 > V2 and i1 = i2
(4) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
Solution :
For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite and for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero.

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution


V1 = i1 × 10 =  ×    volt


V2 = i2 × 10 =  ×    volt

V1 = V2
V
i1 = i2 =  = 1A


25. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at
a distance r from the centre
(1) Increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
(2) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r increases for r > R
(3) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r increases for r > R
(4) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
Solution :

Charge Q will be distributed over the surface of hollow metal sphere.

(i) For r < R (inside)
qen
By Gauss law,  
E∈ 
dS    
 
⇒ For r> R (Outside)

q
 
E dS
  en

Here, qen = Q (∵qen = Q)
Q
∴ E04πr2 = 


∴ E0 α 


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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

26. At a point A on the earth’s surface angle of dip, δ = –25º. We can interpret that:
(1) A and B are both located in the northern hemisphere.
(2) A is located in the southern hemisphere and B is located in the northern hemisphere.
(3) A is located in the northern hemisphere and B is located in the southern hemisphere.
(4) A and B are both located in the southern hemisphere.
Solution :
Angle of dip is the angle between earth's resultant magnetic field from horizontal. Dip is zero
at equator and positive in northern hemisphere.

In southern hemisphere dip angle is considered as negative.

27. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential
energies are, respectively:
(1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
(2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
(3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
(4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
Solution :
U
\ K.E = |TE| = 

\ K.E. = 3.4 eV
U = –6.8 eV

28. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair
of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?
(1) 180°
(2) 0°
(3) Equal to angle of incidence
(4) 90°
Solution :

At i = ic, refracted ray grazes with the surface.

So angle of refraction is 90º

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

29. The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal
to the radius of the earth, is:
(1) mgR
(2) 2mgR

(3)  mgR


(4)  mgR

Solution :

Initial potential energy at earths surface is

 GMm
Ui = 
R
Final potential energy at height h = R
 GMm
Uf = 
R
As work done = Change in PE
∴ W = Uf – Ui
GMm gR m mgR
=      (∵GM = gR2)
R R 

30. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle
60°with horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. But when the inclination is
decreased to 30° and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance.
Then x1 : x2 will be:

(1) 1: 
 (3) 1: 

(2)  
  (4) 1:2 


Solution :

u
(Stopping distance) x1 = 
gsin∘

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

u
(Stopping distance) x2 = 
gsin∘
 sin∘ ×
⇒         
 sin ∘
 × 

31. α-particle consists of :

(1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
(2) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
(3) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
(4) 2 protons only
Solution :
α-particle is nucleus of Helium which has two protons and two neutrons.

32. The speed of a swimmer in still water is　20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is
flowing due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the
shortest path the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :

(1) 30º west (3) 60º west

(2) 0º (4) 45º west

Solution :
VSR = 20 m/s
VRG = 10 m/s

VSG  
VSR  VRG
VRG
|sinθ = 
VSR

sinθ = 


sinθ = 

θ = 30º west

33. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR.
The velocity of the particle will :

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain constant
(4) Change according to the smallest force
Solution :

As forces are forming closed loop in same order

So, 
Fnet  
dv
⇒ m  0
dt

⇒ v = constant

34. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA
and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio
of angular speed of A to that of B will be :

(1) rA : rB (3) rB : rA
(2) VA : VB (4) 1 : 1

Solution :

TA = TB = T

ωA = 
TA

ωB = 
TB

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

A TB T
   
B TA T

35. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its
axis, will be : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 
 rad/s (3) 10 rad/s
 (4) 10π rad/s
(2)  rad/s


Solution :

For equilibrium of the block limiting friction

fL ≥ mg
⇒ μN ≥ mg
⇒ μmrω2 ≥ mg

ω ≥  
g
r

ωmin =  
g
r

ωmin =  

 ×
rad/s

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

36. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities + λC/m and –λC/m are placed at
a distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid-way between the two line
charges?

(1) Zero 
(3)  NC
 R
(2)  NC
R 
(4)  NC
R

Solution :

Electric field due to line charge (1)

 
E   i NC
R
Electric field due to line charge (2)
 
E   i NC
R

E   E  E
net  
 
=  i   i
R R

=  i N/C
R

37. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and –Q respectively, are placed at certain
distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B,
then force between the charges becomes :

(1) F F
(3) 
F 
(2) 
 F
(4) 


Solution :

kQ 
F = 
r

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

If 25% of charge of A transferred to B then

    
qA = Q –    and qB = –Q +   
   

kqA qB
F1 = 
r
Q 
k 
F1 = 
 

r
 kQ
F1 =  
 r
F
F1 = 


38. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is present near the bottom of a fully filled open
tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate of flow of water through the open hole
would be nearly

(1) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s (3) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s

(2) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s (4) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s

Solution :

Rate of liquid
Q = au = a  gh
= 2 × 10 m × 
–6 2
 ×  ×  m/s
= 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s
= 12.56 × 10–6 m3/s
= 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

39.

The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is :

(1) AND (3) NAND

(2) OR (4) NOR

Solution :
From the given logic circuit LED will glow, when voltage across LED is high.

Truth Table

This is out put of NAND gate.

40. In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?

(1) Isothermal (3) Isobaric

(2) Adiabatic (4) Isochoric

Solution :
In adiabatic process, there is no exchange of heat.

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

41. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T.
When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf
induced in the coil will be:

(1) 2 V (3) 2 × 10–3 V

(2) 0.2 V (4) 0.02 V

Solution :
Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T.
Number of turns in coil N = 800
Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
Time taken to rotate ∆t = 0.1 s
Initial angle θ1 = 0°
Final angle θ2 = 90°
Change in magnetic flux∆ɸ
= NBA cos90º – BAcos0º
= – NBA
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05
= – 2 × 10–3 weber
∆    ×  wb
e = –      V
∆t  s

42. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are
indicated in the fig.

y - projection of the radius vector of rotating particle P is :

(1) y(t) = –3 cos2πt, where y in m

 

(2) y(t) = 4sin  where y in m


 

(3) y(t) = 3cos  , where in m


 

(4) y(t) = 3cos  , where y in m

Solution :
At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so equation will be cosine function.

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

T = 4 S
  
ω =      rad/s
T  
y = a cosωt

y = 3 cos  


43. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 μF is being charged by a voltage source whose
potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires,
and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively.

(1) Zero, 60 μA (3) 60 μA, zero

(2) 60 μA, 60 μA (4) Zero, zero

Solution :
Capacitance of capacitor C = 20 μF
= 20 × 10–6 F
dV
 
Rate of change of potential    vs
dt
q = CV
dq dV
  c
dt dt
ic = 20 × 10–6 × 3
= 60 × 10–6 A
= 60 μA
As we know that id = ic = 60μA

44. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A,
B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in
A B 
the measurement X, where x =   will be
C D 

 

(1)  

(3) –10%
(4) 10%
(2) 16%

Solution :
Given

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution


 

A B
x =  

C  D
∆x ∆A  ∆B  ∆C ∆D
% error,  ×     ×     ×     ×     ×
x A  B  C D
 
= 2 × 1% +  × 2% +  × 3% + 3 × 4%
 
= 2% + 1% + 1% + 12%
= 16%

45. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of
the magnetic field. B with the distance d from the centre of the conductor, is correctly
represented by the figure :

(1)
(3)

(2) (4)

Solution :

Inside (d < R)
Magnetic field inside conductor
 i
B =    d
 R
or B = Kd ...(i)
Straight line passing through origin
At surface (d = R)

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

 i
B =  ...(ii)
 R
Maximum at surface
Outside (d > R)
 i
 
d
or

B ∝  (Hyperbolic)
d

46. The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is

(1) 10σ bonds and 3π bonds
(1) 8σ bonds and 5π bonds
(2) 11σbonds and 2π bonds
(3) 13σ bonds and no π bonds
Solution :

Number of σ bonds = 10
and number of π bonds = 3

47. The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is

(3)

(1)

(4)

(2)

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

Solution :

48. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is

(3)
(1)

(2) (4)

Solution :
The correct structure is

49. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is
(1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
(2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
(3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
(4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
Solution :
(n + l) values for, 4d = 4 + 2 = 6
5p = 5 + 1 = 6
5f = 5 + 3 = 8
6p = 6 + 1 = 7
∴ Correct order of energy would be
5f > 6p > 5p > 4d

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

50. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction?

(1) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu0
(2) 3Mn O  + 4H+ → 2Mn O + MnO2 + 2H2O

(3)

(4)
Solution :

(1) Disproportionation

(2) Disproportionation

(3) ∴ Not a disproportionation

(4)

51. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant
external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is
(Given that 1 L bar = 100 J)

(1) –30J (3) 25 J

(2) 5 kJ (4) 30 J

Solution :
∴ Wirr = – Pext ∆V
= – 2 bar × (0.25 – 0.1) L
= – 2 × 0.15 L-bar
= – 0.30 L-bar
= – 0.30 × 100 J
= – 30 J

52. Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is
(1) Nitrous oxide
(2) Methane
(3) Ozone
(4) Sulphur dioxide
Solution :
Fact
SO2 (g) is not a greenhouse gas.

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

53. For the cell reaction 2Fe3+ (aq) + 2l– (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + l2 (aq)
E⊖cell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs energy (∆rG⊖) of the cell reaction is
[Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1]
(1) –46.32 kJ mol–1
(2) –23.16 kJ mol–1
(3) 46.32 kJ mol–1
(4) 23.16 kJ mol–1
Solution :
∆G⊝ = –nFE⊝cell
= – 2 × 96500 × 0.24 J mol–1
= – 46320 J mol–1
= – 46.32 kJ mol–1

54. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the
cofactor. M is :

(1) Be (3) Ca
(2) Mg (4) Sr

Solution :
All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require magnesium(Mg) as the co-factor.

55. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion is:

(1) Na/liquid NH3

(2) H2, Pd/C, quinoline
(3) Zn/HCl
(4) Hg2+/H+, H2O
Solution :

56. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
(1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
Solution :
On going down the group thermal stability order for H2E decreases because H–E bond
energy decreases

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

∴ Order of stability would be:-

H2Po < H2Te < H2S < H2O

57. Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) PbF4 is covalent in nature
(2) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
(3) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than GeX2
(4) SnF4 is ionic in nature
Solution :
PbF4 and SnF4 are ionic in nature.

58. Match the following :

(a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
(d) Deacon’s (iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide
Which of the following is the correct option?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

59. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to Molecular
Orbital Theory?
(1) O2
(2) N2
(3) C2
(4) Be2
Solution :
MO configuration C2 is:
σ1S2, σ*1S2, σ2S2, σ2S2, π2 px = π2 py

60. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
Solution :
‘Be’ and ‘N’ have comparatively more stable valence sub-shell than ‘B’ and ‘O’.
∴Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

61. The biodegradable polymer is:

(1) Nylon-6,6 (3) Nylon-6

(2) Nylon-2-Nylon 6 (4) Buna-s

Solution :
Nylon-2-Nylon 6

62. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is:
(1) 0.5 × 10–15
(2) 0.25 × 10–10
(3) 0.125 × 10–15
(4) 0.5 × 10–10
Solution :
Ca(OH)2 ⇌ Ca2+ + 2OH–
pH = 9 Hence pOH = 14 – 9 = 5
[OH–] = 10–5 M
 
Hence [Ca2+] = 

Thus Ksp = [Ca2+][OH–]2

  
=   



= 0.5 × 10–5

63. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of
99% of the reaction is given by:
(1) t = 0.693/k
(2) t = 6.909/k
(3) t = 4.606/k
(4) t = 2.303/k
Solution :
First order rate constant is given as,
 A 
k =  log 
t At
99% completed reaction,
 
k =  log 
t 

=  log 
t

k =  × log 
t
 
t = ×   
t k

t = 
k

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

64. The non-essential amino acid among the following is:

(1) Valine (3) Alanine

(2) Leucine (4) Lysine

Solution :
Alanine

65. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

66. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is:

(1) Water + Nitric acid
(2) Ethanol + Water
(3) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
(4) Heptane + Octane
Solution :
Solutions showing negative deviation from Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope Water
and Nitric acid → forms maximum boiling azeotrope

67. For the chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) The correct option is :
 dH   dNH 
(1) –      
 dt  dt
 dH  dNH 
(2)      
 dt dt
dN   dNH 
(3)     
dt  dt
dH  dNH 
(4) 3    
dt dt
Solution :
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3
Rate of reaction is given as
d  N   d  H   d  NH 
        
dt  dt  dt

68. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through
Haber's process is :

(1) 10 (3) 30
(2) 20 (4) 40

Solution :
Haber’s process
20 moles need to be produced
2 moles of NH3 → 3 moles of H2
 × 
Hence 20 moles of NH3 →    moles of H2


69. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

Solution :
Due to involvement of lone pair of electrons in resonance in phenol, it will have positive
charge (partial), hence incoming proton will not be able to attack easily.

70. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :

(1) ∆mix S = 0 at constant T and P
(2) ∆mix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P
(3) ∆mix H = at constant T and P
(4) ∆mix G = 0 at constant T and P
Solution :
∆mix H = 0
∆mix S > 0
∆mix G < 0
∆mix V = 0

71. Conjugate base for Br onsted acids H2O and HF are :

(1) OH– and H2F+, respectively
(2) O3H+ and F–, respectively
(3) OH– and F-, respectively
(4) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
Solution :

HF on loss of H⊕ ion becomes F⊖ is the conjugate base of HF

Example :

72. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the formation of negatively charged colloidal [Agl]l–
sol ?
(1) 50 mL of 1M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(2) 50 mL of 1M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI
(3) 50 mL of 2M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(4) 50 mL of 0.1M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
Solution :
Generally charge present on the colloid is due to adsorption of common ion from dispersion
medium. Millimole of KI is maximum in option (2) (50 × 2 = 100) so act as solvent and
anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid AgI formed

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

73. Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic is :

(1) Penicillin G (3) Amoxycillin

(2) Ampicillin (4) Chloramphenicol

Solution :
Penicillin G

74. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major product. The structure of product
"B" is:

(1) (3)

(2)

(4)

Solution :

75. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal
field theory?

(1) tg eg (3) et

(2) tg eg (4) et

Solution :
K4[Fe(CN)6]
Fe ground state: [Ar]3d64s2

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

F2+: 3d64S0

76. WIdentify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following:
(1) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 120° with each other
(2) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 180° with each other
(3) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P–Cl bonds
(4) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive
Solution :

(1) True

(2) True

(3) True
Axial bond : 240 pm
Equatorial bond : 202 pm
(4) False
Due to longer and hence weaker axial bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.

77. Which will make basic buffer?

(1) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
Solution :
(1) CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
Before 25 mL 50 mL 0
× 0.1 M × 0.1M
= 2.5 mmol = 5 mmol
After 0 2.5 mmol 2.5 mmol
This is basic solution due to NaOH.
This is not basic buffer.
(2) CH3 COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

Before 100 mL 100 mL

0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
= 10 mmol 10mmol
After 0 0 10 mmol
Hydrolysis of salt takes place.
This is not basic buffer.

(3) HCl + NH → OH NH4Cl + H2O

Before 100mL 100 mL 0
× 0.1M ×0.1M
= 100 mmol = 10 mmol
After 0 10 mmol 10 mmol
This is basic buffer

(4) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

Before 100mL 100mL 0
×0.1 M ×0.1M
= 10mmol = 10 mmol
After 0 0 10mmol
⇒ Neutral solution

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

78. The major product of the following reaction is:

(1) (3)

(4)
(2)

Solution :

79. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct
code:
Column-I Column-II
(a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
(b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
(d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Solution :

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

80. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to :

(1) The π-bonding involves overlap of ρ-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese
(2) There is no π-bonding
(3) The π-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese
(4) The π-bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese
Solution :

Manganate (MnO42–) :
⇒ π-bonds are of dπ–pπ type

Permanganate (MnO–4):
⇒ π-bonds are of dπ–pπ type

81. Which of the following species is not stable?

(1) [SiF6]2– (3) [Sn(OH)6]2–

(2) [GeCl6]2– (4) [SiCl6]2–

Solution :
Due to presence of d-orbital in Si, Ge and Sn they form species like SiF62–, [GeCl6]2–,
[Sn(OH)6]2–
SiCl62– does not exist because six large chloride ions cannot be accommodated around Si4+ due
to limitation of its size.

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82. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell
reaction is :

(1) 1.0 × 102

(2) 1.0 × 105
(3) 1.0 × 1010
(4) 1.0 × 1030
Solution :

Ecell = E○cell -  log Q (i)
n
(At equilibrium, Q = Keq and Ecell = 0)

0 = E○cell –  log Keq (from equation (i))

∘
Ecell 
log Keq =     
 
Keq = 1010 = 1 × 1010

83. Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide?

(1) Sr(OH)2 (3) Mg(OH)2

(2) Ca(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2

Solution :
Be(OH)2 amphoteric in nature, since it can react both with acid and base
Be(OH)2 + 2HCl → BeCl2 + 2H2O
Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH → Na2 [Be(OH)4]

84. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
under the same conditions. The correct option about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z)
is:
(1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(3) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
Solution :
Vreal
Compressibility factor (z) = 
Videal
∵ Vreal < Videal ; Hence Z < 1
If Z < 1, attractive forces are dominant among gaseous molecules and liquefaction of gas will
be easy.

85. A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed
(hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is:

(1) C2A3 (3) C3A4

(2) C3A2 (4) C4A3

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Solution :
Anions(A) are in hcp, so number of anions (A) = 6
Cations(C) are in 75% O.V., so number of cations (C)

= 6 × 


= 


= 

So formula of compound will be
C9A6 ⇒ C3A4

86. In which case change in entropy is negative?

(1) Evaporation of water
(2) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
(3) Sublimation of solid to gas
(4) 2H(g) → H2(g)
Solution :
H2O() ⇌ H2O (v), ∆S > 0
Expansion of gas at constant temperature, ∆S > 0
Sublimation of solid to gas, ∆S > 0
2H(g) → H2(g), ∆S < 0 (∵∆ng < 0)

87. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible
region?

(1) Lyman series (3) Paschen series

(2) Balmer series (4) Brackett series

Solution :
In H-spectrum, Balmer series transitions fall in visible region.

88. The method used to remove temporary hardness of water is :

(1) Calgon's method
(2) Clark's method
(3) Ion-exchange method
(4) Synthetic resins method
Solution :
Clark's method is used to remove temporary hardness of water, in which bicarbonates of
calcium and magnesium are reacted with slaked lime Ca(OH)2
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 ↓+ 2H2O
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 ↓+ Mg(OH)2↓

89. Which one is malachite from the following?

(1) CuFeS2 (3) Fe3O4

(2) Cu(OH)2 (4) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2

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Solution :
Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (Green colour)

90. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :
(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
Solution :
In aqueous solution electron donating inductive effect, solvation effect (H-bonding) and steric
hindrance all together affect basic strength of substituted amines
Basic character :
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

91. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called
(1) to reduce CO2 emissions and global warming
(2) for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits
(3) to assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species
(4) for immediate steps to discontinue use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
Solution :
Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called upon all nations to take appropriate measures for
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its benefits

92. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very
essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it contains
(1) Natural killer cells
(2) Monocytes
(3) Macrophages
(4) Immunoglobulin A
Solution :
Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the mother during initial days of lactation is very
essential to impart immunity to the new born infant because it contains Immunoglobulin A. It
will impart naturally acquired passive immunity to the newborn

93. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the
following
(1) Closure of stomata
(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
(4) Tyloses in vessels
Solution :
Bulliform cells become flaccid due to water loss. This will make the leaves to curl inward to
minimise water loss

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94. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as
(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively
(2) p-arm and q-arm respectively
(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(4) m-arm and n-arm respectively
Solution :
Sub metacentric chromosome is Heterobrachial.
Short arm designated as 'p' arm
(p = petite i.e. short)
Long arm designated as 'q' arm

95. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is

(1) 0.9 (3) 0.07

(2) 0.7 (4) 0.09

Solution :
Amountof Co r eleased
Respiratory Quotient = 
Amount of O consumed
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O
Tripalmitin +Energy
 CO
RQ =  = 0.7
 O 

96. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

(1) Cyclosporin A (3) Streptokinase

(2) Statin (4) Lipases

Solution :
Statin is obtained from a yeast (Fungi) called Monascus purpureus
It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.

97. Match the following structures with their respective location in organs
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas
(b) Glisson’s Capsule (ii) Duodenum
(c) islets of Langerhans (iii) small instetine
(d) Brunner’s Glands (iv) Liver
Select the correct option from the following
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Solution :
Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in small intestine. Glisson's capsule is present in liver. Islets

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of langerhans constitutes the endocrine portion of pancreas. Brunner's glands are found in
submucosa of duodenum.

98. Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to
extinction?
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Drought and floods
(3) Economic exploitation
(4) Alien species invasion
Solution :
Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction.
eg: Loss of tropical rainforest reducing the forest cover from 14 % to 6 %.

99. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Medulla oblongata
Solution :
Hypothalamus in the thermoregulatory centre of our brain. It is responsible for maintaining
constant body temperature.

100. Consider following features

(1) Organ system level of organisation
(2) Bilateral symmetry
(3) True coelomates with segmentation of body

Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
Solution :
True segmentation is present in Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata. They also have organ
system level of organisation, bilateral symmetry and are true coelomates

101. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth
(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
Solution :
The correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth is :
Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum

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102. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for green house effect?
(1) Ozone and Ammonia
(2) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(3) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
(4) Carbon dioxide and Methane
Solution :
Relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming is
Ÿ CO2 = 60%
Ÿ CH4 = 20%
Ÿ CFC = 14%
Ÿ N2O = 6%

103. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?

(1) Tetany (3) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Muscular dystrophy (4) Botulism

Solution :
Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder is muscular
dystrophy where as tetany is muscular spasm due to low calcium in body fluid. Myasthenia
gravis is an anto immume disorder leading to paralysis of skeletal muscles. Botulism is rare
and dangerous type of food poisoning caused by bacterium Clostridium Botulinum.

104. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in
(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles
(2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
(3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
(4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
Solution :
Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes are lined with ciliated epithelium to move particles or mucus
in a specific direction.

105. Match the Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II
(a) P-wave (i) Depolarisation of ventricles
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of ventricles
(c) T-wave (iii) Coronary ischemia
(d) Reduction in the
(iv) Depolarisation of atria
size of T-wave
(v) Repolarisation of atria
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

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Solution :
In ECG P-wave represents depolarisation of atria. QRS complex represents depolarisation of
ventricles. T-wave represents repolarisation of ventricle i.e. return from excited to normal state.
Reduction in the size of T-wave i.e. if the T-wave represents insufficient supply of oxygen i.e.
coronary ischaemia.

106. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?

(1) Biosphere Reserve (3) Botanical Garden

(2) Wildlife Sanctuary (4) Sacred Grove.

Solution :
Botanical garden - ex - situ conservation (off-site conservation) i.e. living plants (flora) are
conserved in human managed system.

107. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weight
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?
(1) Directional Selection
(2) Stabilizing Selection
(3) Disruptive Selection
(4) Cyclical Selection
Solution :
The given data shows stabilising selection as most of the newborn having average weight
between 3 to 3.3 kg survive and babies with less and more weight have low survival rate.

108. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is

(1) M → G1 → G2 → S
(2) G1 → G2 → S → M
(3) S → G1 → G2 → M
(4) G1 → S → G2 → M
Solution :
The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
G1 → S → G2 → M

109. How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?

(1) Changing the permeability of the cell membrane
(2) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex
(3) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane
(4) Using aquaporin channels as second messenger
Solution :
Steroid hormones directly enter into the cell and bind with intracellular receptors in nucleus to
form hormone receptor complex. Hormone receptor complex interacts with the genome

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110. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes
(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH
(3) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures
(4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum
Solution :
Lysosomes bud off from trans face of Golgi bodies. Precursor of lysosomal enzymes are
synthesised by RER and then send to Golgi bodies for further processing.

111. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering
plants is incorrect?
(1) Ovary develops into fruit
(2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Central cell develops into endosperm
(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac
Solution :
Following are the post-fertilisation changes.
Ÿ Ovule → Seed
Ÿ Ovary → Fruit
Ÿ Zygote → Embryo
Ÿ Central cell → Endosperm

112. Concanavalin A is

(1) an alkaloid (3) a lectin

(2) an essential oil (4) a pigment

Solution :
Concanavalin A is a secondary metabolite e.g is lectin, it has the property to agglutinates
RBCs.

113. Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large
scale, for industrial production of enzymes?
(1) BOD incubator
(2) Sludge digester
(3) Industrial oven
(4) Bioreactor
Solution :
To produce enzyme in large quantity equipment required are bioreactors. Large scale production
involves use of bioreactors.

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114. Consider the following statement :

(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(2) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is false but (B) is true.
Solution :
Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group. A
complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called holoenzyme.

115. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are

(1) Adenine and thymine
(2) Adenine and guanine
(3) Guanine and cytosine
(4) Cytosine and thymine
Solution :
Purines found both in DNA and RNA are Adenine and guanine

116. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal
canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus
Solution :
The correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system is Seminiferous
tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory
duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus

117. Match the hominids with their correct brain size:

Column-I Column-II
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Solution :
The correct match of hominids and their brain

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Size are :
Homo habilis — 650 – 800 cc
Homo neanderthalensis — 1400 cc
Homo erectus — 900 cc
Homo sapiens — 1350 cc

118. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries are

(1) random and directional
(2) random and directionless
(3) small and directional
(4) small and directionless
Solution :
According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are random and directionless.
Devries believed mutation caused speciation and hence called saltation
(single step large mutation).

119. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA?
(1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
Solution :
Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have DNA.

120. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering
from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to
(1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity
(2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls
(4) reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes.
Solution :
Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. It can be due to increasing air born allergens and pollutants. Asthma is an allergic
condition. Many people in urban areas are suffering from this respiratory disorder.

121. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Male fruit fly is heterogametic
(2) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome
(3) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg
(4) Human males have one of their sex-chromosome much shorter than the other
Solution :
In birds female heterogamety is found thus sex of progeny depends on the types of egg rather
than the type of sperm. e.g

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122. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with
(1) Isopropanol
(2) Chilled ethanol
(3) Methanol at room temperature
(4) Chilled chloroform
Solution :
During the isolation of desired gene, chilled ethanol is used for the precipitation of DNA.

123. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
(2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(4) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
Solution :
Fungs Trichoderma, Baculoviruses (NPV) and Bacillus thuringiensis are used as biocontrol
agents. Rhizobium, Nostoc, Azospirillum and Oscillatoria are used as biofertilisers, whereas
TMV is a pathogen and aphids are pests that harm crop plants.

124. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(2) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines in any animal.
(3) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity
(4) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of undesirable genes
Solution :
Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection. It also helps in
accumulation of superior genes and elimination of less desirable genes. Therefore this is
selection at each step, increase the productivity of inbred population. Close and continued
inbreeding usually reduces fertility and even productivity.

125. Match the following organisms with the products they produce
Column-I Column-II
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ii) Curd
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
(v) Acetic Acid
Select the correct option.

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(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
Solution :
Microbes are used in production of several household and industrial products –
Lactobacillus – Production of curd
Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread making
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid production
Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid

126. What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem?

(1) Non-multidirectional (3) Downward

(2) Upward (4) Bi-directional

Solution :
The direction of movement of sugar in phloem is bi-directional as it depends on source-sink
relationship which is variable in plants.

127. In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon
is known as

(1) Autogamy (3) Syngamy

(2) Parthenocarpy (4) Parthenogenesis

Solution :
The phenomenon in which female gamete develops into embryo without getting fused with
male gamete (fertilisation) is called parthenogenesis.

128. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as

(1) Chalaza (3) Hilum

(2) Perisperm (4) Tegmen

Solution :
Persistent Nucellus is called Perisperm e.g.: Black pepper, Beet

129. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?
(1) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 10% cross over.
(2) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 100% cross over.
(3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.
(4) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.
Solution :
1 map unit represent 1 % cross over. Map unit is used to measure genetic distance.
This genetic distance is based on average number of cross over frequency.

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130. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
(1) 50 beats per minute
(2) 75 beats per minute
(3) 100 beats per minute
(4) 125 beats per minute
Solution :
Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart rate
⇒ Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml
⇒ Blood volume in ventricles at the end of diastole = 100 ml
⇒ Blood volume in ventricles at the end of systole = 50 ml
Stroke volume = 100 – 50
= 50 ml.
So,
5000 ml = 50 ml × Heart rate
So, Heart rate = 100 beats per minute.

131. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in carrying out

(1) Nitrogen fixation
(2) Chemoautotrophic fixation
(3) Nitrification
(4) Denitrification
Solution :
Thiobacillus denitrificans cause denitrification i.e., conversion of oxides of nitrogen to free
N2.

132. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?
(1) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
(2) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
(3) Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex
(4) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration
Solution :
The proximity between loop of henle and vasa recta as well as counter current in them help
in maintaining an increasing osmolalrity towards the inner medullary interstitium. This
mechanism help to maintain a concentration gradient in medullary interstitium so human urine
is nearly four times concentrated than initial filtrate formed.

133. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?

(1) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
(2) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.
(3) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.
(4) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
Solution :
In mitochondria, enzymes for electron transport are present in the inner membrane.

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134. Xylem translocates.

(1) Water only
(2) Water and mineral salts only
(3) Water, mineral salts and some organic nitrogen only
(4) Water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones
Solution :
Xylem is associated with tanslocation of mainly water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and
hormones.

135. Cell in G0 phase :

(1) exit the cell cycle
(2) enter the cell cycle
(3) suspend the cell cycle
(4) terminate the cell cycle
Solution :
Cells in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle. These are at quiescent stage and do not
proliferate unless called upon to do so.

136. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?
(1) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year
(2) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue early and late wood
respectively.
(3) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.
(4) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.
Solution :
Growth rings are formed by the seasonal activity of cambium. In plants of temperate regions,
cambium is more active in spring and less active in autumn seasons. In temperate regions
climatic conditions are not uniform throughout the year. However in tropics climatic conditions
are uniform throughout the year.

137. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?

(1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
(4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
Solution :

TC = Large fishes
SC = Small fishes
PC = Zooplanktons
PP = Phytoplanktons

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138. Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is

(1) Basal (3) Parietal

(2) Axile (4) Free central

Solution :
In parietal placentation the ovules develop on the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral part. eg.
Mustard, Argemone etc.

139. Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into
the atmosphere?
(1) Montreal Protocol
(2) Kyoto Protocol
(3) Gothenburg Protocol
(4) Geneva Protocol
Solution :
To control the deleterious effect of the stratospheric ozone depletion an international treaty was
signed at Montreal, Canada in 1987. It is popularly known as Montreal protocol.

140. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?

(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency contraceptives.
(2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills.
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.
(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods.
Solution :
→ In lactational amenorrhoea, due to high prolactin level, gonadotropin level decreases.
→ Oral pills are either progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations used by the females.
→ Emergency contraceptives includes the administration of progestogens or
progestogen-estrogen combination or IUDs within 72 hour of coitus.
So, lactational amenorrhoea, oral pills and emergency contraceptives involve a role of hormone.

141. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL,
respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?

(1) 1500 mL (3) 2200 mL

(2) 1700 mL (4) 2700 mL

Solution :
Tidal Volume = 500 ml
Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV
= 500 + 1000
= 1500 ml

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142. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?
(1) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate (s) in the synergid.
(2) All fuse with the egg.
(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.
(4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei.
Solution :
In flowering plants, out of the two male gametes discharged in synergids, one fuses with the
egg and other fuses with the secondary or definitive nucleus present in central cell.
Egg (n) + 1st male gamete (n) → Zygote (2n)
Secondary nucleus + 2nd mole gamete (n) → pen (3n)
(2n)
(central cell nuclei)

143. What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?

(1) Lateral buds (3) Shoot apex

(2) Pulvinus (4) Leaves

Solution :
During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by leaves of plants.

144. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus
(1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica
(4) Mangifera Indica
Solution :
According to rules of binomial nomenclature, correctly written scientific name of mango is
Mangifera indica Linn.

145. Following describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the
incorrect statement.
(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Solution :
Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific
sequence. Each restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
Once it finds its specific recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA and cut each of the
two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbone.

146. From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young
embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in

(1) Liverworts (3) Pteridophytes

(2) Mosses (4) Gymnosperms

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Solution :
In Pteridophyte, megaspore is retained for some times in female gametophyte, however the
permanent retention is required for seed formation in Gymnosperms.
That's why Pteridophytes exhibit precursor to seed habit only.

147. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1
generation pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation
showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
(1) This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance.
(2) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.
  
(3) Ratio of F2 is  (Red) :　  　(Pink) :  (White)
  
(4) Law Segregation does not apply in this experiment
Solution :
Genes for flower colour in snapdragon shows incomplete dominance which is an exception of
Mendel's first principle i.e. Law of dominance. Whereas Law of segregation is universally
applicable.

148. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is

catalyzed by

(1) Aldolase (3) Enolase

(2) Hexokinase (4) Phosphofructokinase

Solution :
Hexokinase catalyse the conversion of Glucose to Glucose-6 phosphate. It is the first step of
activation phase of glycolysis.

149. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by

(1) methylation of morphine
(2) acetylation of morphine
(3) glycosylation of morphine
(4) nitration of morphine
Solution :
Heroin, commonly called smack and is chemically diacetylmorphine which is synthesized by
acetylation of morphine.

150. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

(1) Vaults, LNG-20
(1) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(2) Progestasert, LNG-20
(3) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
Solution :
Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs which make the uterus unsuitable for
implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.

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151. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what
will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive
individuals in the population?
(1) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
(2) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(3) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(4) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
Solution :
Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = 0.4
Frequency of recessive allele (say q)
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
∴ Frequency of homozygous dominant individuals (AA)
= = p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16
Frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa)
= 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48
Frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (aa)
= q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36

152. Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

(1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil
(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector
(4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice
Solution :
Golden rice is vitamin A enriched rice, with a gene from daffodil and is rich in carotene.

153. Pinus seed cannot germinate and established without fungal association. This is because :
(1) its embryo is immature.
(2) it has obligate association with mycorrhizae.
(3) it has very hard seed coat.
(4) its seeds contain inhibitors that present germination.
Solution :
Fungus associated with roots of Pinus increases minerals & water absorption for the plant by
increasing surface area and in turn fungus gets food from plant. Therefore, mycorrhizal
association is obligatory for Pinus seed germination

154. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin
by recombinant DNA technology?
(1) Genetic code is not ambiguous
(2) Genetic code is redundant
(3) Genetic code is nearly universal
(4) Genetic code is specific
Solution :
In recombinant DNA technology bacteria is able to produce human insulin because genetic
code is nearly universal.

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155. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?

(1) Gonorrhoea (3) Genital herpes

(2) Genital warts (4) Chlamydiasis

Solution :
Genital herpes is caused by type-II-herpes simplex virus. At present there is no cure for
type-II-herpes simplex virus and therefore the disease caused, genital herpes. Other non-curable
STIs are hepatitis-B and HIV.

156. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Viroids lack a protein coat.
(2) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat.
(4) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.
Solution :
Infective constituent in viruses is either DNA or RNA, not protein.

157. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics :

(a) Pila (i) Flame cells
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
(c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
Select the correct option from the following:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Solution:
(1)Pila is a Mollusc. The mouth contains a file - like rasping organ for feeding called radula.
(2)Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx excretion takes place through malpighan tubules.
(3)Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates,
which help in locomotion.
(4) Taenia is a platyhelminth specialised cells called flame cells helps in osmoregulation and
excretion

158. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :

(1) Genes expressed as RNA
(2) Polypeptide expression
(3) DNA polymorphism
(4) Novel DNA sequences
Solution :
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are DNA sequences (genes) that are expressed as mRNA for
protein synthesis. These are used in human Genome Project.

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159. Which is of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
(2) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.
(3) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.
(4) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae.
Solution :
Yeast is an unicellular sac fungus. It lacks filamentous structure or hyphae.

160. Match Column - I with Column – II

Column-I Column-II
(i) Symbiotic association of fungi
(a) Saprophyte
with plant roots
(ii) Decomposition of dead organic
(b) Parasite
materials
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living plants or animals
(iv) Symbiotic association of algae and
(d) Mycorrhiza
fungi
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Solution :
Saprophytes – Decomposition of dead organic materials
Parasites – Grow on/in living plants and animals
Lichens – Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
Mycorrhiza – Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots

161. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent?

(1) GLUT I (3) GLUT III

(2) GLUT II (4) GLUT IV

Solution :
GLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is responsible for majority of glucose transport into muscle
and adipose cells in anabolic conditions. Whereas GLUT-I is insulin independent and is widely
distributed in different tissues.

162. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(1) Auto-immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Inflammatory immune response
(4) Cell-mediated immune response
Solution :
The body is able to differentiate self and nonself and the cell-mediated response is responsible
for graft rejection.

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163. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :

(1) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(2) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(3) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(4) Reduced RBC production
Solution :
a and b statements are incorrect because dialysis eliminates urea and potassium from the body
whereas, c and d are correct. As phosphate ions are eliminated during dialysis, along with that
calcium ions are also eliminated. So, there will be reduced absorption of calcium ions from
gastrointestinal tract. RBC production will be reduced, due to reduced erythropoietin hormone.

164. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinacious covering of the eye-ball.
(2) Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
(3) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly vascularised.
(4) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portion the eye.
Solution :
Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and corneal epithelium. It is the most sensitive
part of eye.

165. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of
the distance between genes was explained by :

(1) T.H Morgan (3) Alfred Sturtevant

(2) Gregor J. Mendel (4) Sutton Boveri

Solution :
Alfred Sturtevant explained chromosomal mapping on the basis of recombination frequency
which is directly proportional to distance between two genes on same chromosome

166. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products :
(a) i gene (i) β-galactosidase
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Solution :
In lac operon
i gene — Repressor
z gene — β-galactosidase
y gene — Permease
a gene — Transacetylase

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167. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of
hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the
year to increase yield?
(1) Auxin and Ethylene
(2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
Solution :
Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in pineapple. Ethylene also helps in synchronization of
flowering and fruit set up in pineapple.

168. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various
enzymes.

(1) Chief cells (3) Oxyntic Cells

(2) Goblet Cells (4) Duodenal Cells

Solution :
Goblet cells secrete mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice which plays an
important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by the
highly concentrated HCl.

169. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?

(1) Trichoderma (3) Anabaena

(2) Chlorella (4) Lactobacillus

Solution :
Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control agent being developed for use in the treatment of
plant diseases.

170. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :

(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells
(2) Sieve tubes only
(3) Companion cells only
(4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells
Solution :
Phloem in Gymnosperms lacks both sieve tube and companion cells.

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171. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs :

(1) after entry of sperm but before fertilization
(2) after fertilization
(3) before entry of sperm into ovum
(4) simultaneously with first cleavage
Solution :
Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs after entry of sperm but before
fertilization. The entry of sperm into the ovum induces completion of the meiotic division of
the secondary oocyte.
Entry of sperm causes breakdown of metaphase promoting factor (MPF) and turns on anaphase
promoting complex (APC).

172. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of
following mRNA?
5’AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3’
(1) Insertion of G at 5th position
(2) Deletion of G from 5th position
(3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively
(4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
Solution :

No change in reading frame of m-RNA.

173. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula� regarding cell division was first proposed by

(1) Rudolf Virchow (3) Schleiden

(2) Theodor Schwann (4) Aristotle

Solution :
Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding cell division was proposed by Rudolph
Virchow.

174. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?
(1) Body temperature
(2) Moist surface of midgut
(3) Alkaline pH of gut
(4) Acidic pH of stomach
Solution :
Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular phase of their growth. These
crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein. These protein exist as inactive protoxins but once
an insect ingest the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to alkaline
pH of the gut which solubilize the crystals. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

epithelial cells and create pores that cause cell swelling and lysis and eventually cause death
of insect.

175. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory
test for typhoid.
(1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
Solution :
Salmonella typhi is the causative agent. Confirmatory test = Widal test, it’s based on antigen
antibody reaction.

176. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development
gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?
(1) Turner's syndrome
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Edward syndrome
(4) Down's syndrome
Solution :
Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have trisomy of sex chromosome as 44 + XXY (47).
They show overall masculine development, gynaecomastia and are sterile.

177. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for
(1) Making plastic sacks
(2) Use as a fertilize
(3) Construction of roads
(4) Making tubes and pipes
Solution :
Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic waste. The mixture is mixed with
bitumen that is used to lay roads

178. Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
(1) Shoot the waste into space
(2) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
(3) Dump the waste within rocks under deep ocean
(4) Bury the waste within rocks deep below the Earth's surface
Solution :
Storage of nuclear waste should be done in suitably shielded containers and buried within
rocks deep below the earth's surface (500 m deep)

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179. Match the following hormones with the respective disease

(a) Insulin (i) Addison’s disease
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Corticoid (iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
(v) Diabetes mellitus
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Solution :
Ÿ Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus
Ÿ Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of thyroxine can be associated with enlargement of thyroid
gland called goitre
Ÿ Deficiency of corticoids (Glucocorticoid + mineralocorticoid) leads to Addison's disease
Ÿ Growth hormone hypersecretion in adults leads to Acromegaly
180. Select the correct option.
(1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.
(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
(3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.
(4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of
vertebral ribs.
Solution :
Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and
ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage. First seven pairs of ribs
are called true ribs.
Ÿ 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the
seventh ribs with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are vertebrochondral or false ribs.
Ÿ Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore, called floating
ribs.
Ÿ Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally connected to the sternum.

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Answer
1 2 3 4 5
(3) (2) (1) (2) (2)
6 7 8 9 10
(4) (3) (1) (1) (2)
11 12 13 14 15
(2) (2) (2) (4) (3)
16 17 18 19 20
(4) (2) (2) (4) (4)
21 22 23 24 25
(1) (3) (4) (3) (2)
26 27 28 29 30
(3) (3) (4) (3) (3)
31 32 33 34 35
(1) (1) (3) (4) (3)
36 37 38 39 40
(3) (2) (1) (3) (2)
41 42 43 44 45
(4) (4) (2) (2) (3)
46 47 48 49 50
(1) (2) (1) (1) (1)
51 52 53 54 55
(1) (4) (1) (2) (5)
56 57 58 59 60
(3) (1) (4) (3) (2)
61 62 63 64 65
(2) (1) (3) (3) (2)
66 67 68 69 70
(1) (3) (3) (4) (3)
71 72 73 74 75
(3) (2) (1) (3) (2)
76 77 78 79 80
(4) (3) (2) (2) (1)
81 82 83 84 85
(4) (3) (4) (3) (3)
86 87 88 89 90
(4) (2) (2) (4) (1)

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 NEET-2019 Question & Solution

91 92 93 94 95
(2) (4) (4) (2) (2)
96 97 98 99 100
(2) (3) (1) (2) (1)
101 102 103 104 105
(1) (4) (2) (4) (1)
106 107 108 109 110
(3) (2) (4) (2) (4)
111 112 113 114 115
(4) (3) (4) (2) (2)
116 117 118 119 120
(2) (3) (2) (3) (2)
121 122 123 124 125
(3) (2) (2) (3) (2)
126 127 128 129 130
(4) (4) (2) (3) (3)
131 132 133 134 135
(4) (2) (2) (4) (1)
136 137 138 139 140
(4) (4) (3) (1) (1)
141 142 143 144 145
(1) (4) (4) (2) (2)
146 147 148 149 150
(3) (4) (2) (2) (3)
151 152 153 154 155
(3) (1) (2) (3) (3)
156 157 158 159 160
(3) (2) (1) (4) (4)
161 162 163 164 165
(4) (4) (3) (4) (3)
166 167 168 169 170
(3) (1) (2) (1) (4)
171 172 173 174 175
(1) (4) (1) (4) (4)
176 177 178 179 180
(2) (3) (4) (3) (4)

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