(eae (a) yeCXa TS civil section of the FE exam Discipline-Specific Review for the FE/EIT Exam Third EditionTable of Contents Preface ond Acknowledgments Enginoorng Registration in the United States ‘Common Questions About the DS Exam How to Use This Book ‘Nomenclature Practice Problems Surveying Metres Hydraulics and Hydrologic Systems Soil Mechanies and Foundations Environmental Engineering ‘Transportation Structural Analysis Structural Design . . Construction Management Materials Practice Exam 1 Problems Solutions Practice Exam 2 Problems Solutions 2 16 26 30 35 38Nomenclature EEE ‘SURVEYING a parabola constant - - e Tength of subchord fe m a angle of subchord dex rad D degree of curve, are definition deg rad E external distance (horizontal) ft m E tangent offset at PVI ft m a grade of back tangent f/f m/m 2 grade of forward tangent f/f m/m TA intersection angle (angle between two tangents) deg deg L length of curve (horizontal) ft m Lc length of long chord from PC to PT ft m M length of middle ordinate ft m r rate of change of grade -/ft =/m R radius ft m T tangent distance ft m 2 horizontal distance from PVC (or point of tangency) to point on curve ft m Em horizontal distance to min/max elevation on curve fe m HYDRAULICS AND HYDROLOGIC SYSTEMS 4 cross section of area of flow #2 m? 4 watershed area fac ha c runoff coefficient, - aL a depth fe m d diameter of capillary tube ft m D pipe diameter fe m Du hydraulic diameter ft m e roughness factor for pipe (specific roughness) ft m f friction factor - 7 9 acceleration of gravity ft/sec? m/s? G specific gravity - - h capillary rise ft m h head ft m hy head loss due to friction ft m iI rainfall intensity ft/br ma/h E Manning's equation constant - - K hydraulic conduetivity ft/sec m/s L length ft m m cotangent of side slope angle - - n Manning roughness coefficient - - D pressure Wey? Pa P precipitation fe m P ‘wetted perimeter fe m Q discharge rate FP sec m/s Q runoff ft m Q volumetric flow rate fi /sec m°/s SS a re |2 GuilDiscipine pectic Review forthe FE/E1T EXO RRw hydraulic radius ft Re Reynolds number - s ‘maximum basin retention ft m s slope of energy grade line ft/ft m/m t time see 5 v velocity ft/sec m/s w width i m w power felbf/sec w 2 elevation ft m a angle made by liquid with the wetted tube wall deg deg 4 specific weight we/et® N/m? ” efficiency ; o surface tension Ibf/ft N/m ° density Tbm/ft? kg/m? SOIL MECHANICS AND FOUNDATIONS A area £2 B ‘width of a footing fe © cohesion f/f? Pa Ce coefficient of curvature or gradation 7 Ce compression index - es uniformity coeficient - G coefficient of consolidation #2 for m?/h Dio grain diameter corresponding to 10% passing by weight or mass ft m Dso grain diameter corresponding to 30% passing by weight or mass ft m Deo grain diameter corresponding to 60% passing by weight ot mass ft m Da relative density % % Dy depth of footing below surface fe m D, relative density - - e void ratio z - & original void ratio : = FS factor of safety - - G specific gravity - - , Ge specific gravity of water - - layer thickness ft m height or thickness ft m hydraulic head ft m length of drainage path fe m settlement ft m i hydraulic gradient f/f m/m K coefficient of permeability (hydraulic conductivity) ft/sec m/s Ka coefficient of active earth pressure - - Ky coefficient of earth pressure at rest - - a coefficient of passive earth pressure - - L length of slip plane ft m LL liquid limit - - m mass Ibm kg n number of drainage layers - - n porosity - - Ne Ng Ny besring-capacity factors - - Na number of potential drops in a flow net - - Ny number of flow paths in a flow net - -——_ es Nomentire 3 asa S90 pressure force or point load active resultant force per unit width, plasticity index plastic limit unconfined compressive strength ultimate foundation bearing capacity flow rate (per unit width in a flow net) degree of saturation shear force settlement shrinkage index shrinkage limit time time factor for consolidation pore water pressure volumes of air, water, solids, and voids respectively water content ‘weights of water and solids and total weight, respectively angle of failure plane dry unit weight of soil unit dry weight of soil unit weight of solids unit weight of water normal stress total stress effective stress density shear stress or strength, angle of internal friction ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING A Aw surface area of unit surface area of media in fixed-film reactor cross-sectional area of channel biochemical oxygen demand BOD exertion reaction rate constant, base € microorganism endogenous decay rate solubility product constant linear length of weir ultimate BOD molar volume sludge production rate (dry basis) flow rate ceffinent flow rate influent flow rate sludge volumetric flow rate waste sludge flow rate recycle flow rate influent substrate concentration (typically BOD) time tank volume aeration basin volume suspended solids concentration mixed liquor suspended solids concentration (MLSS) bey? bt Ibf/fe Wt/#? We/f? £8 /see Ibf ft br Ibe/a? ra % Ibf deg Toff? t/t? bt /? bt /f? Tof/ft? t/t? f/f? Tbm/ft? Tot/f? mg/L #3/Ibmol Tbm/day 8 /s0c 8/see £8/sec 8/s0c 9/see 18 /sec mg/L days S fe mg/L mg/L Pa N N/m N/m? N/m’ N/m? Pa Pa g/ems Pa deg ct mg/L L/amol kg/d L/s, m/s Lis, m/s L/s, m/s Lis, m/s L/s, m3/s L/s, m*/s mg/L ng/L mg/L a a ame PF 9 ce lEar4 Gil istigline-Spedtic Review forthe F/T SS Xe effluent suspended solids concentration Xv ‘waste sludge suspended solids concentration ue the amount of BOD exerted at time t G solids residence time Ps wet sludge density TRANSPORTATION MEPFoQa|as smal Ok ORE weenS ZzEPON PL Pvc PVI PVT 444498 Huee w ‘acceleration algebraic difference in road grades vertical clearance for an overhead structure (underpass) total stopping distance degree of curve ‘efficiency of railroad diesel-electric drive system superelevation equilibrium elevation of outer railroad track rail coefficient of friction between tires and roadway side friction factor acceleration of gravity cffective railroad track gage (center-to-center of rails) grade of road grade from which the stationing starts grade toward which the stationing heads height of driver's eyes above the roadway surface height of object above the roadway surface rated horsepower of a diesel-lectric locomotive unit interior angle air resistance coefficient length of curve length of spiral middle ordinate of curve number of train axles point of curvature (where back tangent ends and curve begins) point of intersection of back and forward tangents point of vertical curvature point of vertical intersection point of vertical tangency level tangent resistance radius of curve (use minimum radius for superelevation calculations) braking/passing sight distance stopping sight distance slope of road (semi-) tangent distance from PVI to PC ot from PVI to PT driver reaction time tractive effort of a locomotive unit vehicle speed velocity design speed initial speed average load per train axle mg/L mg/L mg/L days Ibm/ft® decimal % f ft hp deg mi/hr mi/hr ton mg/L mg/L mg/L a kg/m? m/s? lgBgH8 lege s N km/h m/s km/h km/h PSOANALYSIS cross-sectional area distance ‘modulus of elasticity fixed-end moment ‘member force due to a unit load ‘member force due to external loads ‘moment of inertia span length bending moment due to unit load bending moment due to external loads number pressure point load or force radius of gyration reaction temperature shear force ‘uniformly distributed load weight coefficient of thermal expansion deflection shear stress DESIGN Concrete Design depth of rectangular compressive stress block area of concrete gross cross-sectional area area of tension reinforcement area of shear reinforcement within a distance, », along a member section width in compression effective flange width in compression web width distance from extreme compression fiber to neutral axis effective depth dead load modulus of elasticity of concrete compressive strength of concrete ‘modulus of rupture (tensile stress in bending) yield stress of reinforcement ‘T-beam flange thickness ‘moment of inertia of cracked transformed section effective moment of inertia gross moment of inertia effective length factor live load column moment ‘racking moment ‘maximum service moment ‘nominal moment factored moment £? ft Toe/R? felbi Ibe Ibe fe ft bet Ibeft Ioe/e? bf ft bt °F bt t/t Ibe IF ft Ibt/fe in The, Ibf/fe, IbF/A? Ibf/in? of/in? 1bf/in? Ibf/in? in ‘ " If, Ibf/ft, Ibf/t? felbf felbf felbf felbf felbi N/m N arc Pa PPL wn ppi2pas com—E—SS”—r—”——CT'?'"V {6 Gui Discipline Spctc Review forthe FE/EIT Exam a nominal axial load at given eccentricity Ibf - hominal P, for axially loaded column bf factoral axial load shear reinforcement spacing in - ominal shear strength provided by concrete Thf/in? nominal shear strength of reinforced section bf hominal shear strength provided by reinforcement 1bé/in?® - factored shear force Ibe factoreve density used for calculating modulus of elasticity f/f w uniform loading Tef/ft - ue “Tstance from neutral axis to extreme fiber of concrete section in tension in - A ratio of depth of rectangular stress block, a, to the depth to the neutral axis, ¢ . . compressive strain in concrete - 2 sot tensile strain in extreme reinforcing steel ‘at nominal strength 2 = p reinforcement ratio for tension steel - - po ‘einforcement ratio for balanced stress condition - - Po gross reinforcement ratio - - é capacity reduction factor - - Structural Steel Design Ae effective net area in? mm? a gross area in? mm? Ag gross area in tension in? mm Age gross area in shear in? mm? An net area in? mm? ‘Are net area in tension in? mm? Ane net area in shear in? mm? 6 ‘member width in mm Ge critical slenderness ratio - - ay bolt diameter . D dead load 1, tbf/ fe, ToE/ A Dr hole diameter in E modulus of elasticity of concrete f/in? Fe allowable axial compressive stress Ibf/in? Fee critical stress Wf/in? BR allowable tensile stress ffin? re Specified minimum ultimate strength 1f/in? Fe allowable shear stress 1bf/in? ry ‘specified minimum yield stress Ibf/in? 9 specifi’ iaistance between hole centers (gage spacing) 1 ‘moment of inertia int k fective length factor for compression member - L ‘unbraced member length f iD live load It, IbE/fe, To6/A Per critical Euler axial loading of Py nominal axial strength Wot Pa Teguired axial strength (sum of factored loads) Ibe c radius of gyration in ‘nominal block shear rupture strength Ibf Tongitudinal distance between hole centers (piteh spacing) in slenderness ratio - t member thickness in mm U reduction coefficient - PPL.» www.ppi2pass.com oe(mies Nemerdaure 7 z connection eccentricity - - Gmc: Jmin maximum and minimum stresses, respectively for beam columns Ibf/in? Pa ° resistance factor (strength reduction factor) - - ee resistance factor for tension - - CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT A ‘uniform annual amount 8 8 D activity duration days 4 EFT earliest finish time days 4 EST earliest start time days 4 F future value 8 8 i effective interest rate % % LFT latest finish time days a IsT latest start time days 4 n period or number of periods : : P present value 8 8 TF total float days a ‘MATERIALS A area in? m? E modulus of elesticity (of copper, steel) Ibf/in? Pa F force bt L length in m « strain - - es ‘thermal strain : = ° normal stress Ibf/in? Pa ne nen neces 6H Tbactice Problems IEYING Jplems 1 and 2 are based on the following informe- shwork quantities for a section of roadway indicate ‘ransition from fill to cut. The following areas are from the print cross sections. station cut area ‘ill area (m) (m?) (m?) 20+00 173.21 20+10.50 43.56 20-+21.50 14.32 9.63 20+28.45 64.73 - 20+40 187.42 - the region where there is a transition from fill to cut, fill area and cut area are both triangular in shape ‘the road cross section. 1 total volume of fill required for this section of road, ‘most nearly (A) 1430 m3 (B) 1450 m* (C) 1730 mé (D) 1780 m° lution fhwork volumes for fill areas and cut areas can be ated using the average end area formula. Since ‘the cut and fill areas are triangular in shape as given ‘in the problem statement, earthwork volumes in the “teansition region from fill to cut can be calculated from ‘the formula that gives the volume of a pyramid. For sta 20+00 to 20+10.50. L=1050m-0m 10.50 m fil volume = L (45+) 2 = (10.50 m) (= m? + 43.56 m’ nme ee = 1138.0 m* For sta 20+10.50 to 20+21.50, 21.50 m— 10.50 m =11.00m (This is the transition from fill to cut, so use the formula, for pyramid volume to calculate cut area.) il volume = Z (4 <=) 2 = (11.00 m) ( = 202.5 m* 43,56 m? + 9.63 =) 2 cut volume = h (=S=) 3 14.32 m? 3 For sta 20+21.50 to 20+28.45, = (11.00 m = 52.5 m? L= 28.45 m-21.50m 95 m (Thisis the transition from fill to cut, so use the formula for pyramid volume to calculate fill area.) fill volume = h (=3=) 3 6 9.63 m? = (685 m (282) = 223 m* (Ai + Aa ae 6.95 m (4 32 m* ae 73m cut volume = EEUU EEESSF eee 10 GoilDistipline-Spcic Review fo the FE/ET 0 For sta 20+28.45 to 20+40, L=40m- 2845 m = 11.55 m cut volume = L (=) z m? + 187.42 mi? sisi ( Smt ser = 1456.2 m> |A table that summarizes earthwork volumes is now made. cut fill cut all station area area volume —_volume (a) (m?) (m?) (m2) (m?) 20+00 - 173.21 - 1138.0 20+10.50 0 - 43.56 525 (292.5, 2042150 1432 9.63 2a 22.3 2042845 6473 - 1456.2 - 20440 187.42 as total 1783.4 1452.8 ‘Therefore, the total volume of fill required for this sec- tion of road is 1452.8 m® (1450 m°), ‘The answer is B. Problem 2 The total volume of cut required for this section of road is most nearly (A) 1430 m? (B) 1450 m* (C) 1730 m? (D) 1780 ms Solution From Sol. 1, the total volume of cut required for this, section of road is 1783.4 m? (1780 m°) ‘The answer is D. Problems 3-5 are based on the following informatio ‘and illustration, ‘The proposed vertical profile for a transport airpo! runway is shown, 5% cme — D Problem 3 The minimum required length of vertical curve at ¢ point of vertical intersection (PVI) A is most nearly (A) 300 (B) 390 ft (C) 1000 fe (D) 1300 ft Solution ‘At point A, the grade change is from ~0.5% to 0.8 Therefore, the absolute value of the total percent gre change at PVI A is Aa =|-0.5% - 0.8% 3 For transport airports, the minimum required length vertical curve at the point of vertical intersection is ta=( 1000 ft Ja 1% change. 1000 ft_) = (28) (139 (x cs) ( oe) = 1300 ft ‘The answer is D. Problem 4 The maximum allowed longitudinal grade (maxi allowed downward slope) to the right of PVI B is m nearly (A) -2.0% B) -15% (©) -12% (D) -0.7% Solution Two criteria must be checked for this problem. F the maximum allowed longitudinal grade change is 1 for transport airports. Second, the maximum long dinal grade is 1.5% for transport airports. eSdng the first criteria, the absolute value of the grade change at PVI B can be rearranged to give jum allowed longitudinal grade (maximum al- downward slope), z, as 1.5% 0.8% - = 0.8% - 1.5% 0.7% Araar, second criteria is that |z| not exceed 1.5%, which it not. Therefore, the maximum allowed longitudinal (maximum allowed downward slope), 2, is 0.7%. answer is D. 5 grade to the right of the point of vertical inter- B is ~0.4% (ie, > = -0.4%), the minimum distance between PVIs A and B is most nearly (A) 250 ft (B) 630% (C) 1000 ft (D) 2500 ft Sol. 3, the grade change at the point of vertical ion Ais Ax = 13%. For a —0.4% grade at As (0.8% — (—0.4%)) 2% fore, for transport airports, the minimum required ce between PVIs A and B is 1000 f Di (a sng) aie?) = (1000 ft (19% change, = 2500 fe ) (1.3% + 1.2%) answer is D. Practice Problems — 11 A 8 N= 1300m e N = 850m E ‘The north and east coordinates of point B for the situ- ation shown are most nearly (A) 250 m, 350 m (B) 350 m, 250 m (C) 1200 m, 1550 m (D) 1550 m, 1200 m Solution To solve this problem, begin by inversing between the known coordinates of A and C. (Crortuing ~ Anorthing)” i Ved cose (1800 m — 1300 m)? + (900 m — 850 m)? = 502.404 m Consting ~ Acasting ee 900 m — 850 m 1800 m= 1300 m = 5°42'38” = atan. Using law of cosines, angle A is Bre-a Be = (480.116 ma)? + (502.494 mm)? ~ (890.512 m)? ~~) (480.116 m) (502494 my cos ZA = 0.6593 4A = 48°45'06" PPL « wun ppi2pascomOEE CEES 12 Gull Distipine-Speciic Review for the FE/ET 0 ‘The direction from A to B is found using the direction of line AC and the calculated angle at A. 5°4y/'as” + 48°45'06" = 54°27'44" azimuthap = 54°27'44” Now use the known distance and direction of line AB to find the latitudes and departures for the line, latitudes = (480.116 m)(cos 54°27" 44”) = 250m departuregp = (430.116 m) (sin 54°27'44") = 350m Use the coordinates of point A and the latitude and departure for line AB to find the coordinates of point B. Brorehing = Anorthing + latitudeas = 1300 m + 250 m 550 m Beaming = Aeuting + departureas 50 m+ 350m = 1200 m ‘The answer is D. HYDRAULICS AND HYDROLOGIC SYSTEMS Problem 7 |A manometer is shown with heads of hp = 25 em and 3 cm, The pipe fuid is oil with a specific gravity of 08. Mercury has a specific gravity of 13.6. Assume an standard conditions, pipe fluid mercury The gage pressure at point A is most nearly (A) -90 kPa (B) -88 kPa (C) -86 kPa (D) -80 kPa PL we pips com Solution ‘The gage pressure at point B is 0 kPa. The mass density of water is pu» = 1000 kg/m? at standard conditions, mercury ‘Therefore, from equilibrium, kPa thy + 7Hghim + PA = Goapughy + GrgPughm + Pa This can be rearranged to solve for gage pressure at point A. Pa = —(Goupwohp + GiigPughm) (08) (1000 $$) (051 5 Bs kg ae (10m 38) (08.3 86014 Pa (—86 kPa) The answer is C. Problem 8 ‘The rational formula runoff coefficient of a 300 m long by 200 m wide property with a 3% slope is 0.35. The rainfall intensity is 116 mm/h. ‘The discharge from this property is most nearly (A) 2200 m8/h (B) 2400 m*/h (C) 3800 m°/h (D) 7000 m/h Solution ‘The discharge from this property is Q=Cia (0s) (116 2) (sya) 00m) 290-m) ‘= 2436 m*/n (2400 m¥/h) ‘The answer is B.9 fe sanitary sewer is 150 m long and has a pipe fer of 1.25 m. The inlet elevation is 50.0 m, and ‘outlet elevation is 49.0 m, The Manning roughness ‘ent, assumed to be constant with depth of flow, 012. During heavy rainfalls, the sewer pipe flows ‘with no surcharge. heavy rainfalls, the capacity of the sewer is most ly (A) 3.1 m3/s (B) 3.8 m/s (C) 4.7 m/s (D) 5.7 m/s ion slope is (g = Zinlet = Fourier _ 50.0 m ~ 49.0 m E 150m = 0.00667 the pipe flows full during heavy rainfalls, the wet- perimeter is the entire perimeter of the pipe, The uulic radius is (1.25 m)? R enon janet P~ 7(L25 m) = 0.3125 m the Manning equation, the velocity of flow is Lpisin my 1a (in) (0.3125 m)*/*(0.00667) = 3.18 m/e flow capacity is Q=v4e (sas 2) (Ea) 3.84 m3/s (3.8 m/s) answer is B. Practice Problems 13, Problems 10 and 11 are based on the following informa- tion, Water is pumped from a lake with a pipe inlet with a head of 200 m to a tank with a head of 205 m. The Pipeline from the lake to the tank is 300 m long and is cast iron, with a 30 cm inside pipe diameter. The Pump efficiency is 80%. Minor losses, entrances losses, and exit losses are negligible. The flow rate through the piping is 1.25 m/s. Assume steady, incompressible flow. The kinematic viscosity of water is 1x 10-® m?/s. ‘The specific roughness for cast iron ise = 0.25 mm, Problem 10 Using the Darcy equation, the head loss in the piping is most nearly (A) 300 m. (B) 310m (C) 320m (D) 330m Solution The specific roughness for cast iron is ¢ = 0.25 mm. The relative roughness is e relative roughness = = 0.25 mm wan (io B=) (30 em) (10 =) = 0.000833 The area of flow is ae ( cm) 1.070 69 m? ‘The Reynolds number is Re ae 3 5.305 x 10° PPL « wppi2pas.com14 Gul Discipline Specific Review for the FE/EIT EXOT) From the Moody diagram for the calculated relative roughness and Reynolds number, the friction factor is, J 0.0188. Therefore, from the Darcy equation, the head loss in the piping is w=s(5) (5) =#(5) [Pas = (0.0188) oo (oo em (Ve 2 125 TOTO me x = 200.6 m (300 m) ‘The answer is A. Problem 11 ‘The power required by the pump to raise water from the lake to the tank at the flow rate indicated is most nearly (A) 3.0 MW (B) 38 MW (©) 47 Mw (D) 54MW Solution ‘The total head required to lift the fluid is h ake) + hy = (205 m — 200 m) + 300 m 305 m_ The input power required by the pump to provide the required head is Qiwh _ Qowgh ea v (125) (1000 $5) (921 3) ans m) 0.80 = 4.675 x 10° W (4.7 MW) ‘The answer is ©. Problem 12 A reservoir with a water surface level at an elevation cof 200 m drains through @ 1 m diameter pipe with the outlet at an elevation of 180 m. The pipe outlet dis- charges to atmospheric pressure. The total head losses in the pipe and fittings are 18 m, Assuine steady, i compressible flow. The flow rate out of the pipe outlet is most nearly (A) 49 m/s (B) 63 m/s (C) 31 m%/s (D) 39 m%/s Solution Using the pipe outlet as the datum, the variables in the energy equation are as follows KPa fa enmaene oat] 200 m vis Om/s [rate me neti ] velocity at reservoir surface, pipe outlet discharges ma=0kPa — [EPSinospheric pressare 22 = 180m ‘The energy equation can be rearranged to solve for the velocity at the pipe outlet DB i Bg t D+ hysota staat at hss —heysorat 2) ‘Om+200m+0m 2) -om-180m-18m = 6.26 m/s ‘The flow rate out of the pipe outlet is = (0202) (223 = 4.92 m3/s (4.9 m°/s) ‘The answer is A. Che S000 SeProblem 13 A pump discharges 1000 kPa water into a 90 m long, 0.1 m diameter steel pipe at 2 m/s. The maximum el- ‘evation the water could reach if friction is neglected is ‘most nearly (A) 50m (B) 79m (C) 100m (D) 120m Solution ‘This can be solved using the energy equation Mame den 7 29 If x, = 0, the potential energy is 0 J/kg at the pump’s Gischarge. The pressure energy and velocity energy are 2 PB xi a tats uno ue» (1000 2) won 5 = 1000 J/kg. ama The total energy at the pump’s discharge is Eua = Ey +E ana 100 2 +2 2 kg kg = 1002 J/kg Because the pipe is frictionless, the total energy is con- verted to potential energy at point 2. Fia= Baa 229 = 1002 J/kg i 1002 2 no fe 0 ig g 9a 5 = 102.1 m (100 m) Practice Problems 15 Information about conditions at the pump are not used, because point 1 comes after the pump. ‘The answer is C. Problem 14 The name for the flow in which quantity does not vary with time at any location along the channel is (A) steady flow (B) critical flow (C) uniform flow (D) nonuniform flow Solution Steady flow is the term most often used to describe a flow quantity that does not vary with time at any location along an open channel. If the flow cross section does not vary with location along the channel, itis said to be uniform fiow. Steady flow can also be nonuniform flow, as in the case of a river with a varying cross section or on a steep slope. The answer is A. Problem 15 A developer intends to build single-family dwellings on 3.02 kin? site that is currently pastureland. The site is to be broken into 50 lots of 0.06 km? with a 186 m? home on each lot. The remaining 0.02 km? will be devoted to roadways. Assume a runoff time of 10 min and a rainfall intensity of 10 em/h. land use runoff coefficient, C’ pasture or forest 0.06 single-family dwellings 04 lawns 02 asphalt roadways 09 ‘The storm sewer system should be designed to carry most nearly what flow? (A) 0.62 m?/s (B) 27 m°/s (©) 3.1 m/s (D) 17 m/s Solution Determine the areas of each classification. There are three: single-family dwellings, lawns, and asphalt road- ways. Each 0.06 kim? lot contains a 186 m? house, leaving 59814 m? of lawn per lot, SPSSO 16 GillDiscipne Speci Review forthe FE/ET EXO, ‘The total areas of each classification are Aagatne = (188 =) (60 lots) = 9300 m? Atawcs = (sos =) (60 lots) 2990700 m? 20000 m? Aawetings + Atawna + Arosaways 9300 m? + 2990700 m? + 20000 m? = 3020000 m? Find the average runoff coefficient for the entire site. (9300 m*)(0.4) + (2990700 m?)(0.2) Ca = EA 4120000 w?9109) ae = Aco 3020000 m= = 0.205 Use the rational equation to find the flow o-cia (0.208) (10 $2) 3020000 m*) (22 ih 700 em ) (3600s = 17.20 m/s (17 m*/s) ‘The answer is D. SOIL MECHANICS AND FOUNDATIONS Problem 16 A constant-head permeameter is shown. The soil is ho- mogeneous, isotropic, and saturated. arsin soil ample datum ‘The pressure head at point B in the soil sample nearly (A) 6.00 m (B) 6.33 m (C) 6.67 m (D) 6.75 m Solution The total head, he, is the sum total of the eleva pressure heads as given by he = he + ltp. Thi rearranged to give hp = hy — he ‘Tabulate the known heads with respect to the point hy (m) A 13 B ? ic 3 Since the soil sample is saturated, homogen isotropic, and since the steady-state contin tion requires constant flow velocity through the head gradient through the soil is linear perm y in| Let--4n, 2m iE 1am [At point B, the pressure head is = 6.33 m ‘The answer is B. Problems 17 and 18 are based on the follow tion and illustration. ‘A retaining wall extends from the top of the ground surface. A resisting force is loc opposite side of the wall. A frictionless hing prevents the base of the wall from sliding. homogeneous, isotropic, and cohesionlss. DE7 Tsing the Rankine theory, the total active resultant lat- feral earth force per unit length of retaining wall is most early (A) 15 kN/m (B) 22kN/m (C) 44kN/m (D) 82kN/m Solution From the Rankine theory, the coefficient of active lateral earth pressure for cohesionless soils is given by = tan? (45° 2 is ~10 (#2) = ton? (45° = aT The active lateral earth pressure distribution is linear. taining wall Eiseibation H=am resultant P, 15m A ‘The active lateral earth pressure at any depth, h, below ‘the ground surface ean be found by Katy = Kagh = Kapgh Practice Problems 17 The total force is the resultant, P,, as determined by finding the total area under the active earth pressure profile Py = Boy? = }K pg? = (20 (sa 38) (os = 21860 N/m (22 kN/m) The answer is B. Problem 18 Assuming that wall friction is negligible, the minimum required force per unit length of retaining wall to resist the overturning moment is most nearly (A) 15 KN/m (B) 22 kN/m (C) 44 kN/m (D) 82KN/m Solution The resultant, Pa, acts at a height above the bedrock of H_3m emma From Prob. 17, P, = 22 KN per meter of wall length, Summing moments about point A gives re (00 8)om ee oe =14.67kN/m (15 kN/m) Im F= ‘The answer is A. Problem 19 A soil sample has a total mass of 23.3 g, a volume of 12 cm®, an oven-dry mass of 21.2 g, and a specific grav- ity of 2.5 for the solids. The void ratio of this soil sample is most nearly (A) 0.42 (B) 0.53 (C) 0.62 (D) o71 PP « wun ppi2pss.com18 Gil Discipline Spdtc Review forthe FE/ET 2 Solution For this problem, soil is modeled as a three-phase sys- IML ||" iF Vo 11 | 100, 7 - 40} percent finer by weight 20} : LL NIL) Pinte In this model V; = total volume V, = volume of voids J, = volume of air volume of water volume of solids otal mass mass of water m, = mass of solids ‘The volume of soil solids is given by the following equa- tion, in which G is the specific gravity of the solids and Pw is the density of water. im 28 Gu (25)(1 5) = 8.48 em? ‘The volume of the voids is found by subtracting the volume of solids from the total volume, Ww=avi-Ve 2 em? — 8.48 cm? = 3.52 cm? The void ratio is Vy _ 3.52 em’ Vv, 848m? =0.415 (0.42) ‘The answer is A. Problems 20 and 21 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration. ‘A soil's grain-size distribution curve is as shown. 10 1 o. aor 000 ‘aan size (mm) Problem 20 ‘The uniformity coefficient is most nearly (a) 16 (B) 21 (C) 26 (D) 32 Solution ‘As read from the distribution curve, Deo = 0.49 0 and Dio = 0.19 mm. ‘The uniformity coefficient is Deg _ 0.49 mm Dio 0.19 mm =258 (2.6) ‘The answer is C. Cu Problem 21 ‘The coefficient of gradation is most nearly (a) 0.17 (B) 0.44 (©) 16 (D) 30 Solution ‘As read from the distribution curve, Dsy = 0.39) ‘The values of Dgo and Dio are from Prob. 20. ‘The coefficient of gradation is Do DeoDio ___ (0.39 mm)? = (0.49 mm) (0.19 mm) =1.63 (1.6) ‘The answer is C. cpl gy oni On ££,2 The specific gravity of a saturated soil sample is 2.70 ‘with @ total unit mass of 2400 kg/m? The dry unit ‘mass is most nearly (A) 470 kg/m? (B) 1500 ke/m® (C) 2200 ke/m? (D) 2500 kg/m? Solution ‘Assume the total volume to be 1 m®, pu = 1000 kg/m? Vi=VorVe= 1m? mig = my +m, = 2400 ke m= Vibe Mu = Vebe (000 8) Ve +(27) (1000 8) % = 2400 kg (2000 =) (am? =v) +(2.7) (2000 8) v, 400 keg Vz = 0.824 m® Vy = 1m? - 0.824 m? = 0.176 m* GVehw = 279010125 (0m 38) = 2225 kg/m (2200 kg/m*) The answer is C. Practice Problems 19 Problem 23, An undisturbed sample of clay has a wet mass of 30 kg, a dry mass of 23 kg, and a total volume of 0.014 m* with a specific gravity of 2.65. The void ratio is (A) 0.31 ®) 050 (©) 0.61 (D) 1.00 Solution [a= 70 | 080 3 kg Use the relationship between the mass of water and the mass density of water to find the volume of water Solve for the volume of solids using the relationship be- ‘tween the specific gravity of the sample, the solids mass, and the mass density of water. v= me Spe 23 ke 26 (:0w ) = 0.0087 m? Find the volume of voids. Ww=Vi-Ve = 0.014 m® — 0.0087 m? = 0.0053 m? ‘The void ratio can now be found. 0.0053 m* = ¥, = 0.0087 ms =0.609 (0.61) ‘The answer is C. ace ne amaccmesnaenamnaes “PT20 Gwil Discipline-Specific Review forthe FE/EIT Exar Problem 24 ground surface Given the factors shown in the illustration, the settle- ment of the fill due to the compression of both clay layers normally loaded is most nearly (A) 2m (B) dm (C) 6m (D) 8m Solution To solve this problem, begin by finding the stress in each clay layer. clay 1 Areger (Psat ~ PH30) 9 kg kg =S - 1000 =) 9 j6759 Pa 01 = 09 + Houpwerd = corsg Pa + (6 m) (2002 = 166859 Pa Now the settlement equation is solved for this layer. -(G =112m Similarly, the stress and settlement in the clay IT layer are found. PPI» wn pipsscom cay tt c= (05m (1s #8 ~s00 48) + 1m (ana 4S 100 $6) kg kg (00m (as Mf — 100 #8) 182109 Pa a; = 482109 Pa+ (5 m) (zoe 8) 9 Combining the two settlements gives the total settle ‘ment of the soil due to the fil Sprat = 112 m+2.93 m 405m (4m) The answer is B. ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING Problem 25 The chloride (CI) concentration in a lake is found to, be 10-? M. The HgCla(ag) concentration is found to be: 10-7 M. The following chemical equations and equilib- rium constants apply. Hg? + Clr 2 HgCl* 1 = 5.6 x 10° HgCI* + CI” # Hel, Kz = 3.0 x 10° The concentration of Hg’ is most nearly (A) 59x 10-7 M (B) 33x10-? M (©) 30x 10° M (D) 56x 10°M Solution “= LHe, Ky Tec [er] 3.0 x 10° [given] [Hect*] Box 100-7) = 3.33 x 107? M— ect") Be Ter] — Bsc] Be" l= Ker] 333x107? (5.6 x 10°)(10-7) =5.9x1077 M ris A. =5.6x 10° (given! %6 4s removed by hydroxide precipitation from water ‘a pH of 9. The atomic weight of nickel is 58.70. ical equation and solubility-product constant reaction are 4+20H~ — Ni(OH)2(s) Kap = 5.54 x 107° ‘solubility of N+ in this water is most nearly (A) 0.0060 mg/L {B) 0.33 mg/L (C) 0.55 mg/L (D) 059 mg/L given pHT of 9 can be used to find the OH™ concen- [OH-] =1 x 10- mol/L the chemical equation and solubility-produet con- = 5.54 x 10-6 mol/L solubility of nickel is Nit] x MW sani ml £) (000 2 = (5.54 x 10-6 —— = 2 = (s51xa0-* 2) (5020 5) (1000 ) = 0.325 mg/L (0.33 mg/L) answer is B. Problem 27, ‘The 10,000 gal aeration basin shown maintains a con- stant 1500 mg/L mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS) concentration and treats 25,000 gal of liquid waste per day. The suspended solids are separated in a clarifier ‘with recycle of separated sludge. The reeyele flow rate 4s 5000 gal per day. Bach day, 500 gal of recyele are ‘wasted. The effluent from the clarifier contains a con- stant 30 mg/L MLSS. Assume steady-state flow condi- tions. gration asin 10,000 gal cocycle Ae ‘The solids residence time is most nearly (A) 2 days (B) 3 days (C) 4 days {D) 5 days Solution The variables for flow rates, Q, and MLSS concentra- tions, X, can be shown on the illustration to help orga- nize the solution to this problem. indie (y+ (0,-0,))-0, = Q,- Ow effluent PL wre pips com22 Gui Discipline-Specifc Review f00 the FE/ ED Va = 10,000 gal X4 = 1500 mg/L Xe Qin Qu Q, = 5000 gal/day Xy=X- [unknown] To determine X,, a solids balance must be taken at the clarifier. Since the total solids entering the clarifier mst be equal to the total solids leaving the clarifier for steady-state flow conditions, (Qin + (Qr — Qu))Xa = QeXe + QeXr = (Qin — Qu) Xe + Q-Xr (Qin + (Qr = Qu))Xa = (Qin = Qu) Xe Qe sow © 5 (an ano #1) fun (2500 24 «(ow $s £2)) (sm 88) ae $8) 2) sooo = 8703 mg/L Since Xy = X;, the solids residence time is VaXa VaXa eke + Qk. QuXr + (Qin = Qu) Xe (10,00 gat (1500 (soo 2) (eros 38) + (25,000 S24 — soo 88!) (30 BE (25.000 $2 500 2) = 2.95 days (3 days) ‘The answer is B. Problem 28 A water sample from a stream with an average flow of 95000 L/d contains 225 mg/L of cyanide waste in the form of sodium eyanide (NaC). Chlorine can be added to the stream to destroy this NaCN waste accor the reaction 2NaON + SC + 12NaOH — Nz + NazCOs + 10NaCl + 6420 Atomic weights are found from a periodic table of the chemical elements to be Na = 22.9897, C = 12.011 N= 14,0067, Cl_= 35.453, O = 15.9994, and H = 1.0079. PL» wir gpi2pas.com ‘The theoretical minimum amount of chlorine required to destroy the NaCN waste is most nearly (A) 80 kg/d (B) 160 ka/a (©) 170 kg/d (D) 200 kg/d Solution ‘The 225 mg/L concentration of cyanide can be ex pressed as 225 parts per million (ppm) = 225 parts/ 10° parts. ‘The total mass of NaCN flowing past a given point each day is tn = Vp(concentration) (s3000 ) (100 3 3) (35,) A 1000 = 1.4 kg/d Relevant molecular weights are MWyacx = 22.9897 & + 12.011 = nol mol 1.0067 = 49,007 g/mol MWay = (2) (35.453 5 = 70.906 g/mol ‘The number of moles of NaCN flowing past a given, point each day is ki a nee eee (s9.007 £°) (HS) = 436.7 mol/d NaCN n From the given chemical equation, the destruction 2 mol of NaCN requires 5 mol of chlorine (Cla). There= fore, the amount of Clz required to destroy the giver amount of NaCN each day is ( 5 mol Cle )(ess mol NaC! mol NaCN, a x (70.906 A(R) 114 tg Chy/d (80 kg/d) ‘The answer is A.es Prectice Problems 23 Problem 29 A proposed landfill is to be 400 m x 200 m in plan area and 25 m deep. The average daily filling pattern is, expected to be 15 m x 10 m x 3m deep, and the daily cover to be used is 0.2 m thick. Assume that the landfill will be operational every week from Monday through Friday. The projected life of the landiill is most nearly (A) 16 yr (B) I7yr (©) 209 (D) 23 yr Solution The total volume of the proposed landéill is Viotal = (400 m)(200 m)(25 m) x 10° mé The rate of trash into the landfill is = (05 m)(10 m)(3 oS el dees The rate of fill from use of the daily cover is (15 m)(10 m)(0.2 m) 1d Vee =30 m/d Since the landfill is to be operational for 5 days each ‘week and there are 52 weeks in the year, the projected life of the landfill is anda = 2x 10° we aw] (sr) 5) ep 8 a bd 52 wk, EE = 16.03 yr (16 yr) ‘The answer is A. Problem 30 The solids loading rate for a 30.5 m diameter clarifier ‘with a flow rate equal to.5 MGD and an infiuent BODS equal to 150 mg/L is most nearly (A) 1 kg/d-m? (B) 2.2 kg/d-m? (C) 3.9 ke/d-m? (D) 4.2 kg/d-m? Solution ‘The solid loading rate is determined using the solid flux. rate and the area of the clarifier. The solid loading rate is sold loading rote = 200BOD ‘The solid flux equation is solid flux = (5 MGD) (150 =) (0 7854 = 2889 kg/d Combining the two equations gives (280 #) w (30.5 my = 3.9 kg/d-m? solid loading rate ‘The answer is C. TRANSPORTATION: Problems 31 and 32 are based on the following informa- tion. The connection matrix shown represents a road trans- portation network between six locations. node 12 3 4 5 6 1po 1 0 0 1 1 2/1 0 1 0 01 de 3/2 1 0 1 1 0 node 4fo 0 1 0 1 0 5/1 0-1 1 0 1 eli 1 0 0 1 0. Problem 31 The total number of links in the network (a) 7 Bs (9 (D) 10 Solution Connecting the nodes in accordance with the connection matrix produces a graphical representation of the road ‘transportation network. rr nN EEE24 Gil Discpline-Spectc Review forthe FE/EIT EXC) 2 A link is defined by the nodes that exist at both its ends and does not specify direction. Therefore, there are nine links in this network. ‘The answer is C. Problem 32 ‘The total number of ares in the network is (a) 0 (B) 1 (c) 2 (D) 3 Solution An are is a link with a specific direction assigned to it. In the connection matrix, a negative number indicates that the direction of travel from one node to another ‘goes against the direction assigned to that arc. From. the graphical representation of the network shown in Sol. 31, there is one arc. The answer is B. Problems 33 and 34 are based on the following informa- A traffic flow relationship is given by q = kv, where q is the traffic volume in veh/hr, k is the traffic density in veh/mi, and v is the mean speed in mi/hr. The mean speed on a road in mi/hr is given by the relationship mi mi? oF (esha) * Problem 33 If the mean speed on a road during the rush hour is 45 mi/hr, the maximum capacity of traffic density for this road during rush hour is most nearly (A). 15 veh/mi (B) 45 veh/mi (C) 75 veh/mi (D) 230 veh/mi Solution ‘The mean velocity relationship is rearranged to g = 75 veh/mi ‘The answer is C. Problem 34 ‘The maximum capacity of overall traffic volume fi road is most nearly (A) 3400 veh/hr (B) 4300 veh/hr (©) 4500 veh/hr (D) 5000 veh/hr Solution ‘The mean speed relationship can be substitute the traffic flow relationship resulting in a quadra lationship (1e., a parabolic curve). =(w)e-( hv so, covecity i” 3 200d 2009 $1000} 3 Thy Tsao 289300 density, k(vehimi ‘To determine the traffic volume capacity, it is ne to find the maximum point on the parabolic curv the location where the slope of the curve equals. dg an? OE a a Avebchr = 150 veh/mi 150 veh/mi into the traffic flow rela- = 4500 veh/hr answer is C. 35 sag vertical curve has an elevation of 443.15 ft at 7+65 and an elevation of 441.16 ft at the point of cal intersection (PVI). For an overpass crossing the ical curve's roadway at sta 7+65, the required clear- is 15 ft 4 in, What is most nearly the minimum tion of the overpass? (A) 427.8 ft (B) 428.0% () 456.5 & (D) 459.0% lution 15 + (im) (FE 15.33 # overpass can be no lower than 443.15 ft + 15.33 & 458.48 ft. Option D is the only option thet is greater or equal to this value. fact that the curve is a sag curve does not change solution procedure. The elevation at the PVI is not Practice Problems 25 Problems 36 and 37 are based on the following illustra- tion of a vertical sag curve, L=eeta pve Eve 20% A Pu PVI elevation = 743m Problem 36 The low point station for the vertical curve shown is located at (A) sta 78455 (B) sta 87+00 (C) sta s7+44 (D) sta 91400 Solution a 8sta PVC = PVI— 5 = sta 874-00 - 55% = sta 83400 Use the low point formula to solve for the distance from the PVC to the low point. L_ _ (~2%)(8 sta) GG, 2% 16% Add sta PVC +2m = sta 83400 + 4.44 sta sta 87244 ‘The answer is C. Problem 37 sing the values in the illustration, the elevation of the Jow point on the vertical curve is most nearly (A) 743m (B) 747m (C) 755 m . (D) 758 m Solution Determine the low point gradient elevation along the originating tangent. Working from the PVI at sta 87+00 for 44 m, leVgradien: = 743.00 m ~ (0.02)(44 m) = 742.12 m PPI» wn pypasscomS_ | 26 Ch isle Spec Reviow forth FEET Exam —— ee From the PVC, the low point is located st = 44m Determine the tangent offset, vs at the Tow Point _(G- Gy? y= eleviow point = The answer is B. Solution Divide the beam into two shapes as shown 0,08 m)(0.15 m) 0.012 m? (0.05 m)(0.15 m) = 0.0075 m* STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS “The distance from the top of section 2 to the centroid is Problem 38 A Fae ound fam ep) fempeme EA, ses Tent for the T-shaped beam is (com (“$2)) (0.05 m 0,05 m 0.05 m iu t \ 7 + ((o0nrs n*) 015% 5 008 m)) (A) 0.08 m (B) 0.16 m (C) 030m (D) 0.38 m Doz m+ 0.0075 = 0.08 ‘The answer is A- Problem 39 “The force in member HE from the truss shown 'S most nearly 224 \ 720m (A) 1110 N compression {B) 1110 N tension (©) 2490 N compression (D) 2490 N tension ——Solution ‘Sum moments about A to find the vertical reaction at E. Ma=0 Rey dea (2224 N)(6 m) or =1112N Few ‘The free-body diagram about point E is oF Rew Summing forces in the horizontal direction gives the horizontal reaction at E as 0 N. The sum of forces in the vertical direction is Feuy — Rey = OIE 1112 N compression The horizontal component of the force in member EH is Fenn = (2)(1112 N) =DUN The resultant force in member EH is ana Fea = (Fons)? + (Fenn) ee = y(t N)? + (2224 Ny? = 2487 N compression (2490 N compression) The answer is C. Problems 40-42 are based on the following information, and illustration, ‘A plane truss is loaded as shown, 4m Practice Problems 27 Problem 40 ‘The magnitude of the vertical reaction force at sup- port A is most nearly (A) 3.3 kN (B) 6.7kN (C) 10kN (D) 16kN Solution Since support D is a roller support, the horizontal re- action force, Raz, is 0 KN. To find the vertical reaction at support A, Ray, @ free-body diagram is drawn of the entire truss and moments are summed about support D. Ray(15 m) ~ (20 KN)(5 m) = 0 KN 20 kN)(5 m) 15m =667KN (6.7 KN) Ray ‘The answer is B. Problem 41 ‘The magnitude of the compressive force in member AB. is most nearly (A) 42k (B) 674N (C) 85kN (D) kN Solution From Sol. 40, the reaction at support A is 6.67 KN. Next, a free-body diagram is drawn for support A with member forces and their force components. Using the Pythagorean theorem, the relative magnitudes of each force and each force’s horizontal and vertical compo- nents can be found. (In this case, 6.403, 5, and 4 are the relative magnitudes of the member AB force and the forces's horizontal and vertical components, respec tively.) en Fas 4 he Fate I, = 667 kN PPL « wun ppi2passcom28 —Gwil Discipine-Specifc Review forthe FE/EIT EXOT) SS For equilibrium, all forces on a free body must sum to OKN. Summation of vertical forces gives Fany + Ray = 0 KN This can be rearranged to give Fany Ray = ~6.67 kN Recall that joints in trusses are frictionless, so no bend- ing moments exist ‘The force and its components are proportional to the geometric lengths of the triangle sides ran= (882) Fa (6403 m' ~The 10.68 KN (~11 KN) ) (007 es) The answer is negative. This means that the calculated foree isin the opposite direction to the assumed force d- rection on the free-body diagram. Since the member AB force was assumed to apply tension on the free-body agram, the negative answer means that member AB is in compression ‘The answer is D. Problem 42 ‘The magnitude of the force in member EF is most nearly (A) 42k (B) 53KN (C) 6.7 kN (D) 83kN Solution From Sol. 41, Fany is ~6.67 kN. The horizontal com- ponent of the member AB force is Free = ($2) Fave 5m) sor = (2) (6.667 kx) = 8.33 kN For equilibrium at support A, the sum of the horizontal forces must be equal to 0 KN. The force in member AE is rae = Fars —Fape (-8.33 KN) = 8.33 KN ‘The positive sign in the calculated member AE force means that the assumed direction of the force on the free-body diagram, which indicates tension, is in the same direction as the calculated force. A froe-body diagram of joint E will show that the ver- tical member BE is unable to sustain any horizontal force. Therefore, the force in member EF is the same as the force in member AE. Fer = Far 33 KN (8.3 KN) The answer is D. Problem 43 If the truss members are made of steel and the cross- sectional area of each member is 1000 mm?, the magni- tude of the vertical deflection at joint E is most nearly (A) 0.70 mm (B) 1.1mm (C) 23 mm (D) 28 mm Solution Use the principle of virtual work. ‘The actual forces in each member can be determined by applying the equations of equilibrium to each truss joint and are shown as follows. (Some round-off error exists in these calculated numbers.) ‘Truss member lengths in meters are as follows.Application of a vertical unit load at joint E results fn the virtual member forces in kilonewtons as follows. (Some round off error exists in these calculated num- ‘| 067 fl 033 It is recommended that a table be used to keep all vari- ables organized. Fo Fp LFF. member (KN) (KN) (mm) _(kN?-m) AB 1067-10764 73.1 BC 1667 0425.0 35.0 CD Usk 0.536 724 AE 833 083 5.0 346 EF 833 083 5.0 346 FD 1667-042 «5.0 35.0 BE 0.00 100 4.0 0.0 cr 667 033 © 40 88 BF 106705364 36.2 D= 207 The modulus of elasticity of steel is B = 2.1 x 10" Pa. Since the area and modulus of elasticity are the same for all truss members, their product, AE, is common to all members and can be taken outside of the summation for simplification. Therefore, the vertical deflection at point E can be found by Fok de= Foil = Vote 1 = (gg) Perot 230.7 KN? (1000 mm?) (was i (2a 104 Pa) ( x (1000 ™) = Ltn (11 mm) Since the unit load in the virtual force system was down- ward and the answer is positive in sign, the actual de- lection is also downward. ‘The answer is B. Practice Problems 29 Problems 44 and 45 are based on the following illustra- tion, Problem 44 ‘The magnitude of the vertical reaction force at sup- port A is most nearly (A) 13 kN (B) 5.0kN () 134N (D) 20kN Solution Since support C is a roller support, there is no horizo tal reaction force at that point. The vertical reaction force at support A, Ray, can be found by converting the uniformly distributed load, w, into a resultant point load. aN weor= (em = 25kN This resultant load is located at the centroid of the uni- formly distributed load. resultant W = 25 kN The support A vertical reaction can then be found by summing moments about support C. This results in a vertical reaction at support A of Rgy(10 m) — (15 KN)(5 mm) + (25 KN)(25 m) =0kNm (25 KN)(5 m) ~ (25 KN)(2.5 m) —— 10m = 1.25 kN (1.3 KN) FP 9 L085 1h30 Civil Discipline-Spectic Review forthe FE/EIT EXO) Since the answer is positive in sign, the direction of the calculated reaction is the same as that of the assumed reaction; that is, the direction of the reaction is upward. The answer is A. Problem 45 The magnitude of the maximum vertical shear in the beam is most nearly (A) 13 kN (B) 14 kN (C) 25 N (D) 39 kN Solution. One way to determine the answer to this problem is to construct a shear diagram. The change in shear is the area under the applied loading. Although a moment diagram is not required for this problem, it follows that, the change in moment is the area under the shear dia- ‘gram, so a moment diagram is usually included. oye tm a saoen = w=sum een a 5 lag, < 125KN | ey = 28.75 wN i veew "3 a : oss — wy “ee As can be seen, the maximum value of vertical shear is 25 KN at support C. The answer is C. ‘STRUCTURAL DESIGN Problems 46 and 47 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration. ‘The cross section of a reinforced concrete beam with tension reinforcement is shown. Assume that the beam inderreinforced. ff, = 3000 Ibf/in® fy = 40,000 Ibf/in? A, =3 in? [three no. 9 bars 2in 20in 23in Problem 46 In accordance with American Concrete Institute (ACT) strength design, the allowable moment capacity of the beam is most nearly (A) 160 ft-kips (B) 180 ft-kips (C) 200 ft-kips (D) 210 ft-kips Solution 3 in? 2 in) (20 pate = 0.0125 In an actual design and analysis situation, a check should always be made to see that the actual reinfore- ing steel ratio falls between the allowable maximum and allowable minimum stee! ratios, even though this check: is not required to solve this specific problem. Fo 9 0 appar rpneenencenstt SS SEEes Proctic Problems 31 ‘The minimum allowable steel ratio is the larger of the following two equations. lof sigd/Fe_ (802 in)(20in)/ 8000 =a ‘oon : = 0.986 in? 200byd _ (200)(12 in)(20 in) sooo = 1.2 in? (controls) 4; is 0.85 because the concrete stress is Jess than 4000 Tbf/in?. With a single layer of no. 9 bars (diameter = 1.125 in), the distance to the extreme stee] tension face, dj, is 20 in + (1.128 in/2) = 20.56 in. The maximum allowable steel in a singly reinforced beam is sap) (0.85) (sooo Asus = Ibe ) (0.85)(12 in) 0.986 in? < 3 in? < 5.73 in? Therefore, the actual reinforcing steel ratio falls within allowable limits and conforms to ACI specifications. ‘The depth of the concrete compressive stress block is given by Achy °* O85 fb (3:n*) (o,000 Bai 5 (om =3.92 in For flexure in tension-controlled sections, = 0.90, The allowable moment capacity is Mattowsbie = Mn =6(085/l0b(a-$)) (0.85) (2200 9) (3.92 in) int = (0.90) x (12 in) (» in- (AMD) (fe Too wor ) (2 in, = 162.3 fi-kips (160 ft-kips) 3.92 in’ 2 ‘The answer is A. Problem 47 If the dead load shear force in the beam is 5 kips and the live load shear force in the beam is 15 kips, then the minimum amount of shear reinforcement needed for a center-to-center stirrup spacing of 12 in based on ACT strength design is most nearly (A) 0.0010 in? (B) 0.0012 in? (©) 0.135 in? (D) 0.18 in? Solution For shear, 6 ).75 as specified by ACT. The ultimate shear force in the beam is Vu | 2Vaeas + 1-6Vive = (1.2)(5 kips) + (1.6)(15 kips) 0 ips The nominal concrete shear strength is Ve = 2V Fit 000 Pe = elke =27 = 2 in) 20 i) (sor) = 26.29 kips (0.85)(26.29 kips) —? = 11.2 kips oe 2 Since Vi, > V_/2, shear reinforcement is required.32 Gwil Disdplin-Specifc Review for the FE/EIT Exar The ACI minimum required shear reinforcement for a stirrup spacing, s, of 12 in is The nominal shear strength provided by reinforcement is given by V, = Avfyil/s. The amount of shear rein- forcement, As, required by this equation can be found by using (Ve +V,) > V, and rearranging Ve 30 kips ~ (0.85)(26.29 kips) 5 Tor) (_1 kip) (207m (oss) (soo00 7) (saat) (FE) = 0.135 in? ‘The larger value for shear reinforcement controls. There- fore, Ay = 0.18 in? Note: Although not required for this problem, in an actual design and analysis situation, a check should be rade to ensure that V, does not exceed the ACI-allowed maximum shear reinforcement given by Vemax = 8d ‘The answer is D. Problem 48 A square column is supported by a square reinforced concrete footing with depth to reinforcement of d = 33 in as shown. The column supports a dead load of 200 kips and a live load of 100 kips. The ACT code requires that the loaded area of footing for beam shear starts at distance d away from the column face and that the loaded area of footing for punching shear starts at distance d/2 away from the column face. an I colin oud = 200 j 23 | [e-wn ben reinforcing ntroid In accordance with ACI strength design, the controlling. (maximum) factored shear stress is most nearly (A) 25 tbt/in? (B) 30 Ibi/in? (©) 35 tbf/in? (D) 43 1bi/in? Solution The ultimate applied load is P,=12D+16L 1.2)(200 kips) + (1.6)(100 kips) 00 kips The net ultimate soil pressure is Py _ 400 kips “A” BER = 6.25 kips/ft? Check beam shear. Pees Practice Problems 33 loaded ares for beam shear (shaded) ah 8in. ‘The factored shear stress for beam shear is ‘The punching shear stress is larger than the beam shear stress, Therefore, punching shear controls. The answer is D. Problems 49-51 are based on the following information and illustration. A floor system consists of 20 reinforced concrete beams and a continuous 3 in deck slab, (A typical section is shown for the deck and two of the beams.) Assume the beams are underreinforced, t * 4 | Sm (ow &) “ft (sf) (2 2) (a3 in) R = 7.89 Ibf/in? Check punching shear, loded ae for punching sear anced leet en guy flem Le! ‘The factored shear stress for punching shear is apes cee “a+ dd (8 ft)(8 ft) 6.95 MBS (51 in)(51 in) Ibe ft? a = kip, @Usns 3B = 42.6 Ibf/in? (43 Ibf/in’) ff = 3000 Ibf/in? 60,000 bf in? 30 ft simple span length) fy Problem 49 For each beam in the floor system, the ACI-specified effective top flange width is most nearly (A) 36 in (B) 48in (C) 60in (D) 90in Solution ‘The effective flange width is (7) cam span) = (jo (2 2) = 90 in be = min 4 5,, + (16)(slab depth) = 12 in + (16)(3 in) = 60 in beam centerline _ 4g in spacing ‘Therefore, the effective ange width is 48 in. ‘The answer is B. i 21+ 10 2705.0034 Gill Disdpline-Specfc Review f0F the FE/ET SS Problem 50 "Assume the effective flange width for this beam is 48 in, If the area of reinforcing steel per beam is 7.25 in?, the nominal moment capacity of each beam based on ACT strength design is most nearly (A) 680 ft-kips (B) 770 ft-kips (C) 800 f-kips (D) 880 ft-kips Solution This problem asks for the nominal moment capacity, Mr, not the allowable moment capacity, ¢My. There- fore, the reduction factor, 6, is not needed. ‘The depth of the concrete compressive stress block must be checked to see whether or not it exceeds the 3 in deck thickness, If the depth of this compressive stress block exceeds the deck thickness, then each beam is a T-beam and T-beam formulas apply for determination of the nominal moment capacity. If, however, the depth of the concrete compressive stress block does not exceed the deck thickness, then each beam is a rectangular beam and rectangular beamn formulas apply for determination of the nominal moment capacity. 4ain bye in First, assume that each beam is rectangular with @ width of b = be = 48 in. The depth of the concrete compressive stress block is i (7.25 nt (00000) OS (035) (son Fs) osm 5 in Since a > slab depth of 3 in, the beam is a T-beam. Since a = 3.55 in was found by assuming that the beam ‘was a rectangular beam with width b = 48 in, this depth only indicates whether or not the beam is a T-beam and is not the correct depth for determining the nominal moment capacity, The correct depth is now found by applying the concepts of static equilibrium to the beam. ‘To find the correct depth a, sum horizontal forces in the ‘T-beam to show that the upper (above the neutral axis) compressive concrete stress block force is equal to the lower (below the neutral axis) maximum tensile force sustained by the reinforcing bars. By dividing the en- tire concrete compressive stress block section into three parts (a rectangular part and two overhanging flanges), depth a can be found. Ay is the area of overhanging flanges. Ac is the total ‘area of concrete compressive stress block. A, is the area of concrete compressive stress block in the rectangular part of the T-beam between the overhanging flanges. Ag = (be — bu)hy = (48 in — 12 in)(3 in) = 108 in? From equilibrium of horizontal forces, 0.85fuAc = Aafy a Ibe (725 in?) (60,000 =; A O85 f, (0.85) (zn00 Z 170.59 in? wa = Ae — Ay ge Ae=Ay _ 170.50 in? ~ 108 int be iin =5.22 in Alternatively, a redefined stress block depth could be used. (725 in?) (an000 = gan (ooo) pe en) (A tn (0.85) (200 ®) (12 in) a2 =5.22in wn ESnes Practice Probens 55 The nominal moment capacity of the T-beam is ous (be~ bu) (a) fiabe (d-5) 103 (so) M, x (48 in - 12 in) (2 in— 32) + (085) (s000 # x (12 in) (= in- (Bit) (Ae iin) (sooo br = 765 ft-kips (770 ft-kips) Even though the problem statement assumes that the beam is underreinforced, the actual reinforcing steel ra- tio and its limits should always be checked in real de- sign/analysis problems. The answer is B. Problem 51 Assume the effective flange width for this beam is 43 in, If the area of reinforcing ste! per beam is 6.00 in®, the nominal moment capacity of each beam based on ACT strength design is most nearly (A) 150 fips (B) 160 f-kips (C) 590 ft-kips (D) 650 f-kips Solution ‘This problem asks for the nominal moment capacity, Mr, not the allowable moment capacity, ¢M,. There- fore, the reduction factor, 4, is not needed. First, assume that each beam is rectangular with a width b = he = 48 in. The depth of the concrete com- pressive stress block is Asfy 08575 (6.00 in?) ( 000 B) i a Ibe co (20 Yas Since a < slab depth of 3 in, the nominal moment capacity of the beam is the same as for a rectangular singly reinforced concrete beam. Using b= be = 43 in, itis My = 0.85,f0b (d= 3) (0.85) (000 ) (2.94 in) 2.94 in’ sn 2048) x (48 in) ( x (2H) (ee, Tein) \ i000 WF, = 646 ft-kips (650 ft-kips) ‘This can also be calculated by using the following equa- tion in accordance with rectangular singly reinforced concrete beam theory. My = Asfy (4 §) Even though the problem statement assumes that the beam is underreinforced, the actual reinforcing steel ra- tio and its limits should always be checked in real de- sign/analysis problems. ‘The answer is D. CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT Problem 52 ‘What is the following type of chart called? loperatio wee your? peration [Ti TAug|Sep] Oct | Nov] Dec | Jan] Feb] Mar] Apr] a, formwork ie u | I yf legend: scheduled work] actual work 7] (A) critical path chart (B) rectangular-bar progress schedule (C) PERT chart (D) triangular-bar progress schedule FF) 5 HPSS.36 Gill Disdpline-Specifc Review forthe FE/EIT Exam Solution ‘The chart shown is a triangular-bar progress schedule. The answer is D. Problem 53 What is the following type of model called? (A) a bubble (activity-on-node) network (B) an arrow (activity-on-arrow) network (©) a PERT chart (D) «bar (Gantt) chart Solution This is called an arrow (activity-on-arrow) network. The answer is B. Problom 54 ‘What is the following type of model called? (A) a bubble (activity-on-node) network (B) an arrow (activity-on-arrow) network (©) a PERT chart (D) a dar (Gantt) chart Solution This is called a bubble (activity-on-node) network, ‘The answer is A. Problem 35 A construction project is composed of activities A through H with the durations, in days, given for each activity in the diagram shown. This project is on a strict schedule that must be maintained and is scheduled to start at the beginning of January 1. Work can only be performed during the day and must be done on every day of the week (Sunday through Saturday) (a) (B) (c) (D) start-B-E-H-end Solution Problem 55 can be solved with critical path method (CPM) calculations. Since the project is to start on Jan- uuary 1, itis easy to define the actual start time as the end of the previous day, December 31, and designate it as day 0, with January 1 designated as day 1 Determine the earliest start time (EST) and earliest finish time (EFT) for an activity by making a forward ppass through the diagram. The duration, D, of each activity is known, The EST of an activity is calculated as the maximum of the EFTs of the activities preceding it. For example, activity A has no activities preceding it, so it has an EST of day 0. The EFT of this activity is EFT =EST+D=day0+8d = day 8 Similarly, activity B has an EST of day 0 and an EFT of day 5 Activity D is preceded only by activity B, so its EST is the EFT of activity B. That is, the EST of activity D is day 5 and the EFT is day 14 Activity F is preceded by two activities, A and D, so, the EST of activity F is the maximum EFT of the two. That is, the EST of activity F is day 14 and its EFT is, day 17. Similar calculations show that the minimum project du ration is 17 days (L.e., the EFT for activity F is day 17). Determination of the latest start time (LST) and latest finish time (LFT) for an activity is done by a backward pass through the diagram using the maximum project duration as the starting point. That is, day 17 is the starting point for these calculations. Oa eee Spe‘The LFT of an activity is the minimum LST of the activities following it. For example, the LFTs of the activities preceding the project finish are all day 17 since no activities follow them. Accordingly, the LFTs of activities F and G are each day 17. The LST of activity. Fis LSF = LFT - D = day 17-34 lay 14 Similarly, the LST of activity G is LST = LFT- D=day 17-54 lay 12 Activity D is preceded only by activity F, so its LFT is the LST of activity F. That is, the LFT of activity D is day 14 and the LST of activity D is day 6. Activity B is preceded by two activities, D and G, so its LFT is the minimum LST of the two. That is, the LFT of activity B is day 5, The total float time (TF) of an activity is determined by either subtracting the EFT from the LFT or sub- tracting the EST from the LST. For example, the TF of activity G is TR = LPT - EFT = day 17 — day 10 =74 Making a summary table helps to organize these results. duration EST EFT LsT LPT TF activity (8) (day no.) (day no.) (day no.) (aay no.) (4) A 8 ° 8 6 “us Boos o 3 ° Hee ec oT ° 7 9 6 8 BOO 5 u 5 fi) BE 3 5 5 8 w 8 Foo3 0 ita M4 imac e 3 5 10 2 per HOO 5 9 16 ae! ‘The critical path is the path that passes through the activities that result in a TF of 0 d. From the summary table, this passes through nodes B-D-F. critical path — ‘The answer is C. Practice Problems 37, Use the following diagram for Probs. 56 and 57. Problem 56 A construction project has activities A through G. Bach activity’s duration is given in days. The float time for activity G is (A) od (B) id (C) 64 (D) 25 Solution Solve this problem using the critical path method (CPM). The critical path for this project is start-A-C- D-G-end. Because activity G is along the critical path, the float time for this activity is 0 d. ‘The answer is A. Problem 57 ‘The EFT for activity F is (A) 34 (B) 134 (©) 164 (D) 194 Solution A summary table is used to organize the characteristics of each activity, including the EFT and EST. duration EST EFT activity (d)__(day no.) _ (day no.) a 1 0 1 B 4 0 4 c 7 1 8 D 5 8 B E 8 1 3 F 3 13 16 G 6 1B 19 PI « wu. ppi2pass.com38 Gui Discpline-Specfc Review forthe FE/E OSS Determine the EST by making a forward pass through the diagram, The EST is calculated as a maximum of, the EFTs of the activities preceding it. For activity A, no activities precede it so it has an EST equal to day 0. ‘The EFT is found using the equation EFT = EST + duration. For activity A’ EFT, =day 0414 lay 1 Activity C is preceded by two activities. start and ac- tivity A, so the EST of C is the maximum EFT of the two. The EST of activity C is day 1 and its EFT is day 8, ‘The minimum project duration is 19 d. y F is preceded only by activity D. The EFT of activity D is day 13, so the EST of activity F is day 13. The EFT of activity F is EFTr = day 13+3d = day 16 Note: A backward pass is not necessary because the LST and LFT will not affect the EFT for activity F. ‘The answer is C. Problem 58 The maximum time that an activity can be delayed without causing the project to fall behind schedule is, (A) critical path (B) float time (C) earliest start time (D) latest start time Solution The critical path connects all of a project's activities that have a minimum of zero slack time. It is the longest direct path through the network, ‘The slack time, also called float time, is the maximum, amount of time an activity can be delayed without caus- ing a delay in the schedule. ‘The earliest time at which an activity may begin in the schedule of a project is its EST. The LST is the latest time an activity may begin without causing a delay The answer is B. MATERIALS: Problem 59 A. stee! rail was installed when its temperature was 5°C. (= 20.0 m, A = 60x 10$ m2). The rail was ine stalled without allowance for expansion and the ends were constrained by adjacent rails. The coefficient for linear expansion is 11.7 x 10-8 1/°C, What is the com- pressive force in the rail at 25°C? (A) 281 kN (B) 285 EN (C) 291 kN (D) 295 &N Solution ‘The thermal strain is found as =o(T,-Th) = (uz x10-* =) (25°C -5°C) 234 x 10~¢ m/m ‘The modulus of elasticity of steel is 20 x 10" Pa and the compressive stress is given by Hooke’s Law as om = Bem = (20 1029 Pa) (2.84 x 10-* = = 4.68 x 10" Pa ‘The compressive force is F ow = (4.87 107 Pa) (60 x 10-* m*) = 280800 N (281 KN) ‘The answer is A. Problem 60 The engineering stress in a solid tension member is 324056 kPa at failure. The reduction in area is 80%. ‘The true stress at failure is (A) 16 kPa (B) 160 kPa (C) 16 MPa (D) 1.6 GPa Solution True stress i TRA" 1089 620278 kPa (1.6 GPa) ‘The answer is D. ° OTee pc nc Fafa ore Problem 61 The engineering stress in a solid tension member is 324 MPa at failure. The reduction of area is 80%. The tue strain at failure is most nearly (A) 40% (B) 60% (C) 140% (D) 160% Solution ‘The true strain is (aa) 1.61 x 100% 161% (160%) ‘The answer is D. 39Practice Exam 1 PROBLEMS: 1. The value of ¢ is most nearly y (10,11) (43) (A) 13°09'07" (B) 23°27'53" (C) 36°52'12" (D) 53°07'48" 2. A 6° curve has forward and back tangents that in- tersect at sta 1487.33. The station of the point of beginning curvature (BC) is most nearly Plat ste 14+87.33 a= 192135" (A) sta +324 (B) sta 9+92.6 (©) sta 1427.9 (D) sta 134924 8, A boundary and traverse line bordering an irregular area are shown. Using Simpson's a rule, the total area between the boundary and traverse line is most nearly (A) 141m? (B) 143 m? (C) 148 m? (D) 151 m? Problems 4 and 5 are based on the following informa- tion. A back tangent with a 7% grade meets a forward tan- gent with a —5% grade on a vertical alignment. A 350m (10 sta) horizontal length of vertical curve is placed such that the point of vertical curvature (PVC) is at sta, 104-35 at an elevation of 60.0 m. 4, The vertical curve elevation at sta 11+35 is most nearly (A) 65 m (B) 67m (C) 69m (D) 1m42 Gull Discipline Specific Review forthe FE/ ED) EC 5. The tangent elevation at the point of vertical inter- section (PVI) is most nearly (A) 66m (B) 68 m (C) 70m ©) 2m Problems 6 and 7 are based on the following information and illustration, A horizontal curve is laid out with the point of curve (PC) station and the length of long chord (LC) as shown. 6. The radius of the curve is most nearly (A) 158m (B) 160m (C) 316 m (D) 320m 7. The point of tangent (PT) is most nearly at (A) sta 1342711 (B) sta 134285, (C) sta 134344 (D) sta 13+39.2 8 Given the cross section of a triangular channel as shown, the wetted perimeter is most nearly S| (A) 24m (B) 30m (C) 43m (D) 67m PL « ww ppi2poscom 9. A reservoir with a water surface at an elevation of 200 m drains through a I m inside diameter pipe with, the outlet at an elevation of 180 m. The pipe outlet empties to atmospheric pressure. The total head losses in the pipe and fittings are 18 m. Assume a steady, incompressible flow of 4.92 m/s. ‘A turbine is installed at the pipe outlet. The chosen ‘turbine has an efficiency of 85% and does not add any head loss to the system. The expected power output of the turbine is most nearly (A) 82 kW. (B) 96 kW (C) 100 kW (D) 120 kW Problems 10 and 11 are based on the following informa- tion, A circular sewer with a 1.5 m inside diameter is designed for a flow rate of 15 m?/s when flowing full. Assume ‘that the Manning roughness coefficient and Darcy fric- tion factor are constant with depth of flow. 10. The flow rate when the depth of flow is 0.50 m is ‘most nearly (A) 17 m3/s (B) 34 m/s (©) 5.0 m/s (D) 75 m/s 11, The velocity of flow when the depth of flow is 0.50 m is most nearly (A) 28 m/s (B) 42 m/s (©) 48 m/s (D) 66 m/s 12, A property consists of 7500 m? of lawn area with a runoff coefficient of 0.20, 2000 m? of gravel roadway with a runoff coefficient of 0.15, and 500 m? of roof, surfaces with a runoff coefficient of 0.80. ‘The overall runoff coefficient for the entire property is, ‘most nearly (A) 0.15 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.38 (D) 0.80| en a SEES Pitti bso) IE Problems 13 and 14 are based on the following informa- tion. A housing development has a population of 20000 peo- ple. The average sewage flow for the development is 8000 mi/d. 13. The estimated minimum sewage flow for this hous- ing development is most nearly (A) 2000 m°/a (B) 2600 m3/d (C) 4000 m3/d (D) 6000 m*/a 14. The estimated peak sewage flow for this housing development is most nearly (A) 8000 m?/a (B) 20000 m/a (C) 27000 m9/a (D) 32000 m3/d 15. A river has a continuous water flow of 10 m?/s be- tween two bridges that are 1000 m apart. At bridge A, upstream, the river has a cross-sectional area of 150 m?, while at bridge B, downstream, the river has @ cross- sectional area of 100 m?. The increase in water velocity between the two (A) 0.088 m/s (B) 0.067 m/s (C) 0.075 m/s (D) 0.180 m/s 16. The shrinkage of a soil that has a density of 5200 kg/m? naturally and 7500 kg/m? when compacted is, ‘most nearly (A) 0% (B) 30% (C) 70% (D) 90% Problems 17 and 18 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration, A flow net is drawn for seepage through homogeneous, isotropic soil beneath an impermeable concrete dam as shown, Beneath the soil lies impermeable bedrock. The upstream water level, H;, is 3 m above the top of the soil, and the downstream water level, Ho, is 1 m above the top of the soil. The soi’s coefficient of permeability, k, is 3 x 107? cm/s. impermeable dam upstream dowgstream impermeable LT. The rate of flow per lineal meter of dam width is most nearly (A) 3x 10-4 m/s (B) 5x 10-3 m/s (©) 2x 10-? m/s (D) 2x 10-8 m*/s 18. If the dam is 10 m wide, the total flow rate of water passing underneath the entire dam is most nearly (A) 3x 109 m9/s (B) 5x 10? m/s (©) 2x 107? m/s (D) 2 m/s Problems 19-21 are based on the following information, and illustration. A 10 m thick clay layer lies between, ‘two soil layers as shown. The coefficient of consolidation, is 0.004 m?/d. It is predicted that the total consolida- tion settlement of the clay layer will be 8 em, surface The following table relates the average one-dimensional consolidation of a uniform clay layer to its correspond- ing time factor. ren ES | I44 Gill Discipline-Specfc Review forthe FE/ EI) 0 SS ave (%) T 0 0.000 10 0.008 20 0.031 30 o.o7t 40 0.126 50 0.197 19, Assuming that the clay layer lies between two sand layers, the amount of time required for 20% of the total, settlement to occur is most nearly (A) 394 (B) 78d (C) 190d (D) 7304 20, Assuming that the clay laver lies between two sand layers, the total amount of settlement after 1 yr is most nearly (A) 1.0 em (B) 21cm (©) 32cm (D) 43 em 21, Assuming that the clay layer is bounded by a sand layer above and impervious bedrock below, the total amount of settlement after 1 yr is most nearly (A) 10cm (B) 21cm (C) 32cm (D) 43 cm 22. The base of a 2 m wide continuous footing is 1 m below the ground surface, The cohesionless soil under the footing has the following properties. 835 kg/m* N, =12 If a factor of safety of three is required, the allowable bearing capacity of the soil under the footing is most nearly (A) 17 kPa (B) 23kPa (C) 49 kPa (D) 70 kPa 23. station cut (m®) fill (m?) 10+00 150 2 20400 0 7 30+00 100 25 ‘The table represents the areas of cut and fill at each, roadway station along a rural road project. The amount of borrow or waste between the stations is most nearly (A) 925 m* borrow (B) 925 m* waste (C) 25000 m* borrow (D) 25000 m? waste 24, A saturated sample of undisturbed clay has a wet ‘mass of 318 kg. The total volume is 0.193 m°. The soil, hhas a dry mass of 204 kg. What is the specific gravity, of the soil? (A) 2.35 (B) 2.58 (C) 2.65 (D) 2.90 25, A concrete basement wall extends below the water table as shown in the following illustration. The total lateral pressure against the wall at a point 2.4 m below the surface is most neatly surface p= 1922 kgim? ae & Ly water table Se] p= 961 kgim® K,=04 (A) 2.6 kPa (B) 14 kPa (C) 25 kPa (D) 4 kPa 26. A 0.2 m layer of soil-bentonite is to be placed be neath the secondary geomembrane liner of a proposed, landfill, The layer is to be constructed in two 0.1 m, lifts. The bentonite content is to be 5% (dry weight basis). The compacted dry density of the soil/bentonite mixture is 1630 kg/m’. eler an a UE ETT ‘The amount of dry bentonite that has to be mixed into each lift is most nearly (A) 82 kg/m? (B) 86 kg/m? (C) 150 kg/m? (D) 160 kg/m? 27. The number of covalent bonds formed by a carbon. atom under normal conditions is (a) ®) (c) @) 28. Most frequently, water hardness is caused by ions of calcium and (A) iron (B) magnesium, (©) manganese (D) sodium Problems 29 and 30 are based on the following informa- tion, A sample of wastewater is incubated for 7 d at a temper- ature of 20°C. After this incubation period, the BOD is found to be 211 mg/L. Assume that the reaction rate constant is 0.14 d=? (base e) 29. The ultimate BOD of this sample is most nearly (A) 225 mg/L (B) 310 mg/L (©) 340 mg/L (D) 560 mg/L 30. The five-day BOD of this sample is most nearly (A) 110 mg/L (B) 170 mg/L (©) 180 mg/L (D) 200 mg/L 31. A freshwater sample has a dissolved oxygen con- centration of 5.7 mg/L when the temperature is 23.3°C and the atmospheric pressure is 730 mm Hg. A partial listing of the solubility of dissolved oxygen in freshvwa- ter at equilibrium with dry air containing 20.9% oxygen and at an atmospheric pressure of 760 mm He is as fol- lows. ‘temperature oxygen solubility (ec) (mg/L) a 9.0 2 88 23 aT 24 85 2 84 ‘The percent saturation of dissolved oxygen in the water sample is most nearly (A) 03% (B) 66% (©) 94% () 96% 82, A rectangular channel is 1.5 m wide, 3 m deep, and 25 m long. The design fiow rate of the wastewater in the channel is 0.5 m°/s. The approach velocity in the channel is most nearly (A) 0.1 m/s (B) 0.2 m/s (C) 03 m/s (D) 05 m/s 83. A driver with a reaction time of 0.5 s is driving @ car down a 5% grade at 89 km/h when a deer runs into the road 0.04 km in front of the car. The road is dry with a coefficient of friction of f = 0.7. The distance the car travels from the moment the deer appears until the ear comes to a stop is no less than (A) 0.01 km (B) 0.03 km (C) 0.04 km (D) 0.06 km 34, A freeway route has a horizontal curve with a PI at sta 11+01.86, an intersection angle, A, of 12°24'00" right, and a radius of 537 m. The PC station is lo- cated at (A) sta 10444 (B) sta 11+60 (C) sta 12484 (D) sta 14+08 85. A one-lane rural road includes a 10° curve extend- ing for 700 ft. The road is 15 ft wide with 9 ft wide shoulders. The design speed for this road is 45 mi/hr.46 Gil Discipline Specific Review forthe FE/E 0 The minimum required length of spiral transition be- tween the curve and road is most nearly (A) 28 fe (B) 36 (0) 48 (D) 50 ft 86. The design requirements for a section of highway with a 1.5% grade are as follows. design speed = 80 km/ coefficient of friction = 0.35 driver reaction time = 2.0 s driver eye height = 1.2 m object (to be avoided) height = 0.2 m The downhill design braking distance for this highway is most nearly (A) 45 m (B) 75m (C) 100m (D) 120 m 87. A crest on a section of highway consists of a vertical curve with a 1500 m radius and a positive 1% grade fol- lowed by a negative 3% grade, The design requirements are as follows. design speed = 80 km/h driver eye height = 1.2 m object (to be avoided) height = 0.2 m ‘stopping sight distance = 300 m ‘The minimum required length of vertical curve needed to satisfy the design stopping sight distance is most nearly (A) 680m (B) 700m (C) 760 m (D) 840m 88. A superpave design mixture for a highway with ESALs < 10” has a nominal maximum aggregate size of 19 mm. The mixture has been tested and has the following characteristics: air voids vMA VFA Gust-to-asphalt ratio at NV = 8 gyrations, Gam 174 gyrations, Gam PP » wr api2pss.com Do these characteristics satisfy their corresponding st perpave requirements? (A) Yes, all the parameters are within an accept- able range. (B) No, the VMA is excessive. (C) No, the dust-to-asphalt ratio is too high. (D) No, Gang at Nias 5 too high, 89. A road leading to a stone quarry is traveled by 40 trucks, with each truck making an average of 10 trips per day. When fully loaded, each truck consists of a front single axle transmitting a force of 10,000 Ibf and. two rear tandem axles, each axle transmitting: a force (of 20,000 Ibf. The load equivalency factor for the front single axle is 0.0877. The load equivalency factor for each rear tandem axle is 0.1206. The 18,000 Ibf equivalent single axle load (ESAL) for the truck traffic on this road for 5 yr is most nearly (A) 0.33 ESAL (B) 130 ESAL (C) 48,000 ESAL (D) 240,000 ESAL Problems 40 and 41 are based on the following illustra- tion, 40. The magnitude of the maximum bending moment in the beam is most nearly (A) 6.3 km (8) UkNm (C) 25kNm (D) 63 kNam. 41. If the beam is made entirely of steel and the whole beam has a moment of inertia about the axis of bending, of 2.0 x 108 mm‘, the magnitude of the vertical deflee= tion at point D is most nearly (A) 0.20 mm (B) 23mm (C) 23mm (D) 50 mm.Problems 42 and 43 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration, A truck is facing in its intended direction of travel along the beam as shown. Tens 42, For a truck traveling in the direction shown, the ‘maximum vertical live load shear at support C is most nearly 27 kN ) 76 KN 100 kN 110 kN 43. For a truck traveling in the direction shown, the ‘maximum live load bending moment at support C is, most nearly (A) 80 kN-m (B) 90 kNm (C) 140 kN-m (D) 360 kN-m Problems 44 and 45 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration, A plane truss span is shown. The roadway behaves as simply supported beam spans between the supporting lower chord truss joints. By convention, positive forces are tensile forces, and negative forces are compressive forces. 4m Practice Exom 147 44. In the z-direction as shown, the maximum infiu- cence line ordinate for tensile force in member BF is most nearly (A) 0.18 kN/kN (B) 0.36 KN/kN (C) 0.53 KN/KN (D) 0.71 KN/KN 45. In the z-direction as shown, the maximum influ ence line ordinate for compressive force in member BF is most nearly (A) 0.71 KN/kN (B) ~0.53 KN/KN (©) 0.36 KN/kN (D) 0.18 KN/kN Problems 46 and 47 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration, The cross sections of two short, concentrically loaded reinforced concrete columns are shown. 4900 Iotin? 30,000 Ibn? ongitundinal reinforcement | Ye round spiral column (cross section) (Prob. 46) ‘square tied column 4G. For the short round spiral column, the applied axial, dead load is 150 kips, and the applied axial live load is, 350 kips. Assuming that the longitudinal reinforcing bars are all the same size, the minimum required size of, each longitudinal reinforeing bar is (A) no. (B) no. (C) no. (D) no. 47. For the short square tied column, the applied axial dead load is 150 kips, and the applied axial live load is 250 kips. Assuming that the longitudinal reinforcing Pw wun ppi2pass com48 Gill Discpline-Spectic Review forthe FE/ET bars are all the same size, the minimum required size of each longitudinal reinforcing bar is (A) no. 3 (B) n0.4 (C) no. 5 (D) no. 6 Problems 48 and 49 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration. A steel compression member has a fixed support at one end and a frictionless ball joint support at the other as shown, The total applied design load consists of a dead load of 7 kips (which includes the weight of the member) and an unspecified live load. Recommended effective lengths are to be used. Ft fixed wall fretioness ers 7 frtoniess bal joint steel compression member member properties: J, = 633 in¢ tof 48. In accordance with American Institute of Steel Construction (AISC) load and resistance factor design (LRFD) specifications, this compression member is a (A) pier (B) short column (©) intermediate column (D) tong column 49, In accordance with AISC LRED specifications, the ‘maximum allowable design live load is most nearly (A) 340 kips (B) 490 kips (C) 580 kips (D) 650 kips Problems 50 and 51 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration. ‘A bolted steel tension member is shown, The total ap- plied design load consists of a dead load of 15 kips and ‘an unspecified live load. 4 in diameter holes eee (iorkinoos F, = 58kipsint in thick sts! plate 50. What is the effective net area in tension for this plate? (A) 2.25 in? (B) 2.5 in? (©) 3.0 in? (D) 3.2 in? 51, In accordance with AISC LRFD specifications, the maximum allowable design live load is most nearly (A) 50 kips (B) 56 kips (©) 65 kips (D) 70 kips 52, The progress of a construction project is monitored as follows. loperation veer yeor2 Jul [Aug] Sep] Oct] Nov] Dec) Jan |Feb [Mar] Apr excavation] 1 iormavork 1 TT legend: scheduled work{—] acta! work [I] This is an example of a (A) critical path chart (B) rectangular-bar progress schedule (C) PERT chart (D) triangular-bar progress schedule TSa oer Fach fer 1 of Problems 53-55 are based on the following information and illustration. A construction project is composed of activities A through H with the durations, in days, given for each activity in the diagram shown. This project is on a strict schedule that starts at the beginning of January 1. Work can only be performed during the day and must be done on every day of the week (Sunday through Sat- 53. The earliest date this project can be completed is (A) January 8 (B) January 9 (©) January 11 (D) January 17 54, The total float for activity (A) 04 (B) 34 (©) 6a (D) 9a 55. The latest day that activity E can start is (A) January 8 (B) January 13, (C) January 14 (D) January 16 56. A highway department has $375,000 in the pre- sent budget set aside for transportation improvement, projects. It has the option of constructing a bridge now for a cost of $350,000 or waiting 5 years and construct- ing the same bridge when there is $400,000 in the bud- get. Which option is best, assuming an average inflation rate of 5%? (A) Build the bridge now. (B) Wait 5 years to build the bridge. (C) Both options are equally affordable (D) There is not enough information to solve. 57. If $500 were deposited into a bank savings account, how much would be in the account in 3 yr if the bank ays 6% interest. compounded annually? (A) $596 (B) S597 (©) $598 (D) $599 58, At the elastic limit of a copper specimen, the stress is 310266 kPa with a 5% strain, The elastic modulus, for this specimen is most nearly (A) 62 MPa (B) 600 MPa (C) 6 GPa (D) 62 GPa 59. A stee lintel has a modulus of elasticity of 2.0.10" Pa, The lintel is subjected to astrain of 8.9% 10~* m/s. ‘The area of the lintel is 0.0206 m?, What is most nearly the compressive force applied to the lintel? (A) 0.016 kN (B) 450 kN (C) 37MN (D) 140 MN 60. The American Association of State and Highway and Transportation Officials’ (AASHTO) design struc- tural number for a road is 4. The material specifications are as follows. layer thickness experience material (in) coefficient sandy gravel subbase 10 oun ‘crushed stone base course 6 od If a high-stability plant mix asphalt conerete surface course with an experience coefficient of 04d is to be placed on top of the specified subbase and base course materials, the required surface course thiekness is most nearly (A) 3in () 4in (C) din (D) 6in ee no SS50 Gol Discipline-Spetic Review forthe FE/E0 200, SOLUTIONS TO PRACTICE EXAM 1 found from trigonometry using the basic rela- tionships for slopes. 53°07'48"" ‘The answer is D. 2. First, find the radius of the curve. 5729.58 ft-° D 5729.58 ft-° Next, solve for the tangent. A ronan ~ (ost 8) (0 222) = 94.98 f PC is the same as station BC in this problem. BC=PI-T = 1487.33 ft — 94.98 fe 1902.35 ft (sta 13+92.4) ‘The answer is D. 3. By Simpson's ¥/s rule, fy +2 (Shoat) +4( io ths 4.2 m+ (2)(6.7 m) a + (4)(8.1 m+7.6 m)+83m 6 m| Cer = 147.8 m? (148 m?) ‘The answer is C. 4, From the PVC at sta 10+35 to the location of desired, elevation at sta 11435, 2 = 1135 m — 1035 m = 100 m. The hotizontal vertical curve length, from PVC to PVT, is given in the problem statement as L = 350 m. The grades are given as g; = 7% and gz = —5%. The eleva- tion of the PVC is given as ypvo = 60.0 m. Therefore, the curve elevation at sta 11+35 is nusas = ve tones (25) 2 = 60.0 m + (7%) (wax) (100 m) (9% = 0) (so (2)(350 m) + (100 m)? =65.29m (65 m) ‘The answer is A- 5. The PVIis located at x = L/2 = (350 m)/2 = 175m from the PVC. The tangent elevation is v= tpve + ne = 60.0 m + 7%) (ei) (70m) = 72.25 m (72m) The answer is D. ‘The intersection angle, I, is soe + 5) ( Ir = 104.6" The radius of the curve is Pe SOa rR PEMHCE Era” | Sst 7. From Sol. 6, R = 157.98 m. The length of curve from PC to PT is, L=RI = (157.08 m)(104.6°) (5 iz) 7 = 2864 m PC+L 1046.0 m+ 288.4 m 13344 m_ (sta 194344) ‘The answer is C. 8, The wetted perimeter for a triangular channel is, P=2ddVi+m? = (2)(1.5 m) 1+ QF =67m The answer is D. 9. The head supplied to the turbine can be calculated from the energy equation. Assume outlet velocity head is insignificant. 2 3 Mont tiePont baat Sh Det eat 5 + hy + hating 2 3 i_m Noose = Btn +B 2 tee =B tat ZB a Z =0+200 m-+0~0~ 180 m-0-18 m =2m The power output of the turbine is P= Qrheurvine) = Qpghrurbine = (492 2) (1000 4) (051 2) 2 moss) = 2051 W (SY) The answer is A. 10. The hydraulic elements graph for circular sewers in the civil engineering section of the NCEES Handbook can be used to avoid having to calculate the hydraulic radius and cross-sectional area of flow for partial flow in circular pipes. The full-flow velocity is 7 = 8.49 m/s ‘The ordinate to be located on the hydraulic elements graph is d _ 050m D> ism = 0.333 From the relevant curves on the hydraulic elements graph for circular sewers, the Q/Qy and v/v, ratios are 0.2250, = (0228) (15 =) = 3.375 m/s (3.4 m*/s) The answer is B. 11. The flow velocity when the depth of flow is 0.50 m is 0.78 y v= O.78vy = (079 (a9 62 m/s (6.6 m/s) The answer is D. Fe Hi52 Gil Discipline-Spetic Review forthe FE/ET 0) 12. The overall runoff coefficient is determined by weight- ing each runoff coefficient by the area it covers. Acotat = Atawn + Aroadnay + Arcot = 7500 m? + 2000 m? + 500 m? = 10000 m? The overall runoff coefficient is AtawnCiawa + Aroadway Croedway ) ArootCroot Covert = Atal (ce m?)(0.20) + (2000 m?)(0. a) + (500 m?)((0.80) 10,000 m™ =0.22 ‘The answer is B. 13. From the sewage flow ratio curves in the civil engi- neering section of the NCEES Handbook, the minimum flow ratio is conservatively determined from curve Ea, unless otherwise specified, to be about 0.32 for a pop lation of 20000. The estimated minimum sewage flow ae 0.32 Qnin = 0320 neg m? = (0.32) (soo 5) 1560 m/d (2600 m*/d) 14, From the sewage flow ratio curves in the civil en- gineering section of the NCEES Handbook, the maxi- ‘mum flow ratio is conservatively determined from curve C, unless otherwise specified, to be about 3.4 for a pop- ulation of 20000. Therefore, the estimated maximum. sewage flow is Qmax = 34Qavg = (24) (suo ™) = 27200 m3/d_ (27000 m°/d) ‘The answer is C. 15. At bridge A, : eee “a= 47 0m? = 0.067 m/s Ae brig B m? 47 ion? 100 m/s The change in velocity between the bridges is A =0100 20057 2 0.033 m/s The aorwer i A. 16, Shrinage for sol sound fm the sats weight to volume for both the natural and compacted soil w shrinkage = | 1- Hess! } 100% Veompacted (1 ssa) x Peompacted _(, 2 7500 x 100% = 30% The answer is B. ‘The answer Pei50 Gol Discipline-Spetic Review forthe FE/E0 200, SOLUTIONS TO PRACTICE EXAM 1 found from trigonometry using the basic rela- tionships for slopes. 53°07'48"" ‘The answer is D. 2. First, find the radius of the curve. 5729.58 ft-° D 5729.58 ft-° Next, solve for the tangent. A ronan ~ (ost 8) (0 222) = 94.98 f PC is the same as station BC in this problem. BC=PI-T = 1487.33 ft — 94.98 fe 1902.35 ft (sta 13+92.4) ‘The answer is D. 3. By Simpson's ¥/s rule, fy +2 (Shoat) +4( io ths 4.2 m+ (2)(6.7 m) a + (4)(8.1 m+7.6 m)+83m 6 m| Cer = 147.8 m? (148 m?) ‘The answer is C. 4, From the PVC at sta 10+35 to the location of desired, elevation at sta 11435, 2 = 1135 m — 1035 m = 100 m. The hotizontal vertical curve length, from PVC to PVT, is given in the problem statement as L = 350 m. The grades are given as g; = 7% and gz = —5%. The eleva- tion of the PVC is given as ypvo = 60.0 m. Therefore, the curve elevation at sta 11+35 is nusas = ve tones (25) 2 = 60.0 m + (7%) (wax) (100 m) (9% = 0) (so (2)(350 m) + (100 m)? =65.29m (65 m) ‘The answer is A- 5. The PVIis located at x = L/2 = (350 m)/2 = 175m from the PVC. The tangent elevation is v= tpve + ne = 60.0 m + 7%) (ei) (70m) = 72.25 m (72m) The answer is D. ‘The intersection angle, I, is soe + 5) ( Ir = 104.6" The radius of the curve is Pe SOa rR PEMHCE Era” | Sst 7. From Sol. 6, R = 157.98 m. The length of curve from PC to PT is, L=RI = (157.08 m)(104.6°) (5 iz) 7 = 2864 m PC+L 1046.0 m+ 288.4 m 13344 m_ (sta 194344) ‘The answer is C. 8, The wetted perimeter for a triangular channel is, P=2ddVi+m? = (2)(1.5 m) 1+ QF =67m The answer is D. 9. The head supplied to the turbine can be calculated from the energy equation. Assume outlet velocity head is insignificant. 2 3 Mont tiePont baat Sh Det eat 5 + hy + hating 2 3 i_m Noose = Btn +B 2 tee =B tat ZB a Z =0+200 m-+0~0~ 180 m-0-18 m =2m The power output of the turbine is P= Qrheurvine) = Qpghrurbine = (492 2) (1000 4) (051 2) 2 moss) = 2051 W (SY) The answer is A. 10. The hydraulic elements graph for circular sewers in the civil engineering section of the NCEES Handbook can be used to avoid having to calculate the hydraulic radius and cross-sectional area of flow for partial flow in circular pipes. The full-flow velocity is 7 = 8.49 m/s ‘The ordinate to be located on the hydraulic elements graph is d _ 050m D> ism = 0.333 From the relevant curves on the hydraulic elements graph for circular sewers, the Q/Qy and v/v, ratios are 0.2250, = (0228) (15 =) = 3.375 m/s (3.4 m*/s) The answer is B. 11. The flow velocity when the depth of flow is 0.50 m is 0.78 y v= O.78vy = (079 (a9 62 m/s (6.6 m/s) The answer is D. Fe Hi52 Gil Discipline-Spetic Review forthe FE/ET 0) 12. The overall runoff coefficient is determined by weight- ing each runoff coefficient by the area it covers. Acotat = Atawn + Aroadnay + Arcot = 7500 m? + 2000 m? + 500 m? = 10000 m? The overall runoff coefficient is AtawnCiawa + Aroadway Croedway ) ArootCroot Covert = Atal (ce m?)(0.20) + (2000 m?)(0. a) + (500 m?)((0.80) 10,000 m™ =0.22 ‘The answer is B. 13. From the sewage flow ratio curves in the civil engi- neering section of the NCEES Handbook, the minimum flow ratio is conservatively determined from curve Ea, unless otherwise specified, to be about 0.32 for a pop lation of 20000. The estimated minimum sewage flow ae 0.32 Qnin = 0320 neg m? = (0.32) (soo 5) 1560 m/d (2600 m*/d) 14, From the sewage flow ratio curves in the civil en- gineering section of the NCEES Handbook, the maxi- ‘mum flow ratio is conservatively determined from curve C, unless otherwise specified, to be about 3.4 for a pop- ulation of 20000. Therefore, the estimated maximum. sewage flow is Qmax = 34Qavg = (24) (suo ™) = 27200 m3/d_ (27000 m°/d) ‘The answer is C. 15. At bridge A, : eee “a= 47 0m? = 0.067 m/s Ae brig B m? 47 ion? 100 m/s The change in velocity between the bridges is A =0100 20057 2 0.033 m/s The aorwer i A. 16, Shrinage for sol sound fm the sats weight to volume for both the natural and compacted soil w shrinkage = | 1- Hess! } 100% Veompacted (1 ssa) x Peompacted _(, 2 7500 x 100% = 30% The answer is B. ‘The answer PeiSS 18. From Sol. 17, Q = 3 x 10~* m?/s per lineal meter of dam width. The total flow rate under the dam is Qreta = Qe _ Bs (: x10-* =) (10 m) =3x10" m/s The answer is A. 19. For 20% of the total settlement, 7 = 0.031. For the doubly drained clay layer with sand layers bounding it The amount of time required for 20% settlement is TaoH? _ (0.031)(5 m)? 2 a Couaaaootn ae 0.004 5 = 193.75 4 (190 d) The answer is C. 20. For doubly drained clay, 10m H The time factor is mn? ee (o.004 2 we 6 a = 0.058 (365 a) Linear interpolation of the time factor table for T = 0.058 gives Uayg = 26.8%. Based on a total settlement of 8 cm, the amount of settlement after 1 yr is S = (26.8%) (saz) (Sem) =21em ‘The answer is B. 21. The impervious bedrock bounding one side of the clay makes this a singly drained clay layer for which H = 10m. The time factor is ; oa _ (005 =) xs a we “aha = 0.0146 Linear interpolation of the time factor table for T = 0.0146 gives Unvg = 13.0%. Based on a total settle- rent of 8 cm, the amount of settlement after one year is approximately 8 = 120%) (5) (8 om =104em (1.0 cm) The answer is A. 22. The soil is cohesionless (c = 0). The ultimate bear- ing eapacity of the sot! is cNe+7DsN, + 0.57BN, = Ne + pgDyNq + 0.509BN, = (0)(9.6) + (1808 S)e 81 3) men) 5 H)(es 3) @my12) aint + (05) (188 70205 Pa ulti —pgDy ~ 70205 Pa (105 #8) (081 2) am = 52203 Pa (52.2 KPa) The allowable bearing capacity is utrimate a= SS 52.2 kPa, 3 = 174 kPa (17 kPa) ‘The answer is A. 23, Use the average end area method ta solve. 150 m? m? cut sta 1 tog = Mme + Ome sta2 to3 silk stalto2=454 Gil Discpline-Spectc Reviow forthe FE/ET 2 SS Now determine the earthwork volumes. cuts V = (75 m?) (1000 m) + (50 m4) (1000 m) 125000 m* (60 m*) (1000 m) + (60 m?) (1000 m) 100000 m* ‘There is 125000 m* - 190000 m$ = 25000 m* more swaste than borrow, all: V The answer is D. 24. The specific gravity of the soil is found using the following equations. my = 318 keg — 204 kg 114 kg v= Jk i000 114m? =Vi-Va 193 m? — 0.114 m* 079 m* The specific gravity is c= Ye 204 ke (0.079 m) (2000 8 =2) The answer is B. 25. Using the equations for effective stress and pore water pressure gives n= OR T= Kame = pgh = (1002 $8) (081 3) 0.2) + (on $) (es 3) 02m = 33938.7 Pa a7 = (0.4)(33938.7 Pa) = 13575.5 Pa 5 kg m on= 19576 Pa+ (1000 (081 5) (12 m) = 25347 Pa (25 kPa) ‘The answer is C. 26, Bach lift is 0.1 m thick. The mass of each square meter of lift is (0.1m) (1000 8) 163 kg/m? The amount of bentonite in the soil is to be 5% dry basis. Therefore, the amount of bentonite in each lift is (os (1s 3) 518 g/t (2b) ‘The answer is A. 27. The number of covalent bonds formed by # carbon ‘atom under normal conditions is four. ‘The answer is B. 28, Although iron and manganese ions contribute to ‘water hardness, their presence is less commonplace than, calcium and magnesium ions, Sodium ions do not con- tribute to water hardness. The answer is B. 29. Substitute the seven-day values into the rearranged, equation for BOD exertion. w=La-e™) we T-eF “ire 337.8 mg/L (340 mg/L) ‘The answer is C. 30. From Prob, 29, L = 338 mg/L. Substituting appro- priate values into the equation for BOD exertion gives w= Le) as = (387.8 58) (1-e On yea) = 170 mg/L The answer is B. 1. The dissolved oxygen content (DO) at 760 mm Hg, ‘can be found by linear interpolation from the table given, in the problem statement. 23.3°C — 23°C 24°C = 23°CPractice Exam | Solutions 55 mg _ gy ms ( (esac eer) er me x (23.8°C — 23°C) DOz sc = 87 48 ++ = 8.64 ma/L Oxygen is only slightly soluble in water and does not react with water chemically. Therefore, Henry's lw is applicable, and oxygen's solubility is directly propor- tional to its partial pressure. The percent saturation of oxygen in the given freshwater sample at an attno- spheric pressure of 730 mm Hg is 730mm Hig) (5:7 % saturation = (=e) (=e) x 100% soa = 63.4% (63%) The answer is A. 82. The cross-sectional area of the channel is Azwd 1.5 m)(3 m) 2 ‘Therefore, the approach velocity is, > Tam =0.11 m/s (0.1 m/s) ‘The answer is A. 8.4= (sq ‘The answer is D. 84. The tangent of the curve is T=Rtan $ = (537 mtan ( = 58.33 m PC=PI-T = 1102 m — 58.89 m = 1048.67 m_ (sta 10444) ‘The answer is A. 85. The degree of curvature is converted into radians, and the radius of curvature is (a) (Go = 4010.7 ft ‘The minimum required length of spiral transition onto this road is mt\? (« 2) 4010.7 fe 165 = (16) = 36.35 ft (36 ft) The answer is B. 36. A vehicle will require a longer braking distance if it is traveling downhill. Therefore, stopping sight dis- tance, S, has to be subtracted from the denominator to result in the largest design braking distance. The braking distance is found to be a +t FES) _((#¥2) (0 2) (wots). am) (gov) = 119.6 m (120 m) The answer is D. ee56 Gul Discipline Specific Review for the E/E OS 87. There are two equations to check. First, where stopping sight distance, S, is less than the curve length, L: AS? (100%) (V2 + V3F) (156 = (3%) (800 mj? (200%) ( VOTE my) + Boz m)) 7564 m L= Second, where stopping sight distance is greater than the curve length: pang 2000 (VA vin)’ _ (200%) (Vim + VO2m)” = (2)(800 m) - Tay = 480m Since the previous two equations show that the stop- ping sight distance is less than the curve length, the minimum required vertical curve length is L=756.4m (760 m) The answer is C. 38. This mixture would be designated as a 19 mm st perpave mixture. The limits for such a mixture are 4.0% 13% air voi minimum VMA at Nine = 8 gyrations, maximum Grn at Neg = 174 gyrations, maximum Grom All parameters in this mixture are within superpave specifications, ‘The answer is A. 39. The total ESAL per truck for each trip is ESAL ruck = (1 single axle) (0.0877) + (2 tandem axles) (0.1206) = 0.3289 ESAL/truck-trip The total daily ESAL for 40 trucks, each making 10 trips a day, is ESAL gay = (40 trucks) ( se) day Le = 131.56 ESAL/day For 5 yr, the total ESAL is ESALs yr = (5 31) (208 &) (2810 esa vr lay = 240,097 ESAL (240,000 ESAL) ‘The answer is D. 40. Construct shear and moment diagrams. The change in shear is the area under the applied loading, and the change in moment is the area under the shear diagram. 5m 5m 5m iF TERN | yee van Munem) 0} ‘The largest magnitude of bending moment is =62.5 kN-m (63 kN-m) at support C. ‘The answer is D. 41, Use the principle of virtual work to find the vertical defection at point D. a0-E(fo(z)#) ‘The moment functions in the directions indicated by, the local 2-coordinate for each beam segment under the actual loading are shown on the following moment dia gram, e001 OSes Practice Exam | Solutions 57 ‘The moment functions in the directions indicated by the local 2-coordinate for each beam segment under the vir- tual unit loading at point D are shown on the following, ‘moment diagram. iN mikN-m) A table summarizes the moment functions as follows. region AB region BC region cD Srss M 1252 6.25-13.752 —2.524 m -O.5r -2.5-05r ma EI EL EL EI of steel is B= 2.1 x 10" Pa. The modulus of elasticit From the principle of virtual work, the vertical defiee- tion at point D is 5x) (1.25: Er = 0.52)(6.25 ~ 13.752) 4 i: eee lr 0.62528 |* 0625"! — 15.6252 ah at 6.87523 ET ans = 26,042 kN?.m® — 78.125 kN?-m? + 390.625 kN?.m* +286.458 kN? +390.625 kN?.-m? 1 kPa 1000 Pa (2a x10" Pay ( a x 10° mm*) ( ———_ x (2.0 x 10° » sean = (8 2) Since the unit load in the virtual force system was down- ward and the answer is positive in sign, the actual de- fection is also downward. ‘The answer is C.58 Gul Discpline-Specfc Review forthe FE/ET EXO 42. Construct and use an influence line for vertical shear at support C. The influence line is constructed by plot- ting the change in response on a free-body diagram of a section of beam at support C as a unit load travels across the structure. Sm 5m Sm f Ks) c Se O o influence line for Ve (kNAN) | | load position THAT KN 37.79KN formeximum (ear axle) (front axle) vertical sh sam The load position shown results in the maximum re- sponse in the beam at support C for the specified di- rection of travel. The maximum vertical shear can be found by superposition as Veomax = (: 5 ) (rT kN) = 106.8 KN (110 KN) ‘This problem asked for the magnitude of maximum ver- tical shear at support C for a truck traveling in the direction shown. If this problem had asked for the mag- nitude of maximum vertical shear at support C for the given truck arle configuration, the axle load positions would have to be switched around and both axle loads placed on the influence line with the heavier axle load ‘on the larger influence line ordinate and the lighter axle load on the smaller influence line ordinate. This would result in a larger numerical answer. The answer is D. 43, Construct and use an influence line for bending mo- ment at support C. The influence line is constructed by plotting the change in response on a free-body diagram of a section of beam at support C as a unit load travels across the structure, of Tinfluenes line for Me (Nei) load position for maximum bending moment The load position shown gives the mi in the beam at support C for the specified direction of, travel. The maximum bending moment can be found by superposition as wy, Most= ls se) (7117 kN) = 355.8 kN-m_ (360 kN-n) ‘This problem asked for the magnitude of maximum bending moment at support C for a truck traveling in the direction shown. If this problem had asked for the magnitude of maximum bending moment at support C {for the given truck azle configuration, the axle load po- sitions would have to be switched around and both axle loads placed on the influence line with the heavier axle load on the larger influence line ordinate and the lighter axle load on the smnaller influence line ordinate, This ‘would result in a larger numerical answer. ‘The answer is D. 44, Construct an influence line for the force in mem= ber BF. The influence line is constructed by plotting, the change in response in member BF as a unit load travels across the structure. LP ae a aeinfluence line or Far 0 (ive ‘When moving the unit lond across a truss structure, this load must be distributed to the two joints. Tt is stated that the roadway acts as simple beam spans between truss joints, Therefore, when a load is placed between truss joints, the two joints adjoining the beam span act ‘as simple beam supports and the magnitudes of the loads applied to the two truss joints are the same as for the calculated reaction forces of this beam. ‘The maximum ordinate for tensile force in member BF is 0.53 KN/EN, ‘The answer is C. 45. From the influence line in Sol. 4, the maximum ordinate for compressive force in member BF is -0.53, EN/KN. ‘The answer is B. 46. Determine the amount of reinforcing steel required by the minimum required reinforcement ratio, py, of 0.01. The minimum area of reinforcing steel required is As= Pos = (00 (2222) = 2.54 in? Determine the required amount of reinforcing steel based. on the factored axial load, P,, Py = 1.2Paend + 1-6Phive (1.2)(150 kips) + (1.6)(350 kips) = 740 Kips ‘The nominal axial compressive load capacity is given by P, = 0.85P, = (0.85)(0.85f! Aconeete + yA) = (0.85) (0.85f2(Ay — As) + fy As) Practice Exam 1 Solutions 59 It is required that 6P, 2 Py. For axial compression Mi ene ae ae Con. Sting ghee and solving for the area of longitudinal reinforcing steel as Po ee fy cg (100 0 tip (no BE) (0.85)(0.70) ~ (085 (7 ™) (22522) ~ cod 085 (som ES) = 6.69 in? —O.85f,Ag 35. A, = 6.69 in?, required for the given applied axial com- pressive loads, is greater than A, = 2.54 in? based on the minimum allowed reinforcement ratio, py = 0.01 The minimum required area of reinforcement is Ay 6.69 in? The column has six longitudinal reinforcing bars. The required area of each longitudinal reinforcing bar is = 1.11 in? /bar A bar area of 1.11 in? is satisfied by a no. 10 bar, which has a nominal area of 1.27 in? In an actual design/analysis situation, a check should ‘also be made to see thet the actual longitudinal rein- forcement ratio does nat exceed the maximum allowable ratio of 0.08. ‘The answer is D. AT. Determine the amount of reinforcing steel required, by the minimum required reinforcement ratio, 2g, of 0.01. The minimum area of reinforcing steel required is As = Pods (0.01)(18 in)? = 3.24 in? Determine the required amount of reinforeing steel based. on the factored axial load, P,, Py = 1.2Paead + 1.6Five (2.2)(150 kips) + (1.6)(250 kips) = 580 kips NS [#1 72HOS.cOM60. Civil Distipine-Spectc Review forthe F/T EO ‘The nominal axial compressive load capacity is given by Py =0.8P,, (0.8)(0.85 fc Aconerete + fs) (0.8)(0.85f2(Ag — Ae) + fyAa) It is required that @P, > Py. For axial compression with tied reinforcement, 6 = 0.65. Setting ¢P, = Py and solving for the area of longitudinal reinforcing steel gives Pu fy — 0.85 fe ws (tp (so BE) (0.8)(0.65) = (08 (0) as 60, 000 e (0.85) (00 moat? Ay = 0.244 in® required for the given applied axial compressive loads is less than A, = 3.24 in? based on the minimum allowed reinforcement ratio, py = 0.01 ‘Therefore, the minimum required area of reinforcement is A, = 3.24 in? The square tied column has eight uniformly sized lon- gitudinal reinforcing bars. The required area of each longitudinal reinforcing bar is As _ 3.24 in? hace 8 bars = 0.405 in? /bar ‘A bar area of 0.405 in? corresponds to a no. 6 bar, which has a nominal area of 0.44 in?. Iman actual design and analysis situation, a check should also be made to see that the actual longitudinal rein- forcement ratio does not exceed the maximum allowable ratio of 0.08, ‘The answer is D. 48. From the civil engineering section of the NCEES Handbook, the design value for the effective column length factors about the «-axis and y-axis, re- spectively, are ky = 0.80 and ky = 0.80. The modulus of elasticity of steel is so BE) ( 2 =(# i 1000 1bF = 29,000 liye? ‘The unbraced length of the compression member is the same about the z-axis as about the y-axis. Therefore, (10 ft) (2 2) 120 in The radius of gyration about the x-axis is [ie _, [saaint "V4 > Viorm =5.28 in The slenderness ratio about the x-axis is fate _(080)(120 in) Stoll 5.28 in =182 SRy The radius of gyration about the y-axis is yan Va>\ term =3.02 in The slenderness ratio about the yraxis is Kyly _ (0.80)(120 in) 7 30Fin =318 sR, = ‘The larger SR controls. Use SR = SR, = 31.8. The SR is now compared with the critical slenderness ratio. soz. 8021 Ce SS = 134 VF fey Hips Vane Since SR = 31.8 is less than C, = 113.4, the column is intermediate and fails by inelastie buckling ‘The answer is C. 49, From Prob, 48, the controlling slenderess ratio ia 318, and SR < 802.1/\/F,. Therefore, the column strength is oF =09F, (0 oss St ) 3 (_ foetyeunt = 09) (30) (oes = 41.79 kips/in? BEER RR A EEEes Practice Exam | Soltions 61 This value could have been read directly from AISC Table 4-22. The column capacity is . 18) a P= Ford (a9 ae) 9a ) 798.2 kips By setting Protal = cPy = 798.2 kips, the allowable design live load can be found. Protat = 1.2Pjeaa + 1.6Pive Pootal ~ 1-2Pi TS 798.2 kips Phe 1.2)(7 ips) 6 = 493.6 kips (490 kips) ‘The answer is B. 50. It is necessary’ to check both yielding on the gross area and fracture on the effective net area. For yielding, the gross area is (0.5 in)(2.25 in-+ 3 in +2.25 in) 2 = 3.75 in’ ‘The allowable tensile stress for yielding is Fe =06F, = (06) (2 = 21.6 kips/in® The allowable tensile force for yielding is Prout = Fidy “ (as oe) (3.75 in?) = 81.0 kips For fracture, in order to determine the net area, the con- trolling net width of the member must be determined. 2 in diameter holes. aa for Fin bolts ont io]_fetin Pet & SE fs =. : For line ABCD across the member width, the net width bp =b- Sod = (2.25 in +3 in +2.25 in) — (2 holes)(0.75 in) =6in For line ABEF across the member width, the net width -Yoa+ a to = (2.25 in +9 in + 2.25 in) ~ (2 holes)(0.75 in) (1 space)(4 in)? Bin) =7.33 in bn The smaller net width controls. Use by = 6 in. The net area is An = bat = (6 in)(0.5 in) in? This is less than 85% of the gross area, and the shear lag factor, U, is 1.0. So, the effective net area is Ac =UA, 3.0 in (2.0)(3 in?) The answer is C. Bi. It is necessary to check both yielding on the gross area and fracture on the effective net area. For yielding, the gross area is (0.5 in)(2.25 in +3 in + 2.25 in) 3.75 in? The allowable tensile force for yielding is oP, = 0.9FyAy = (09) (6 oe) (ri = 121.5 kips For fracture, in order to determine the net area, the con- trolling net width of the member must be determined. From Sol, 50, the effective net area is Ay = 3.0 in?62. Gwil Discpline-Specfc Review forthe FE/ EIT EXO ‘The allowable tensile force for fracture is O:P, = O.T5FuAL = (0.75) (ss =) (3.0 in?) = 130.5 kips ePx, = 130.5 kips for fracture is larger than 6:P, 121.5 kips for yielding, so use 6¢P, = 121.5 kips. By setting Prorat = érPy = 121.5 kips, the allowable design live load can be found by -2Phea + L.OPive 2Pead 1.6 121.5 kips ~ (1.2)(15 kips) ae = 64.7 kips (65 kips) The answer is C. 52. The chart shown is a rectangular-bar progress schedule, ‘The answer is B. Problems 53-55 can be solved with critical path method (CPM) calculations. Since the project is to start on January 1, it is easy to designate the actual start time as the end of the previous day, December 31, (day 0) and January 1 as day 1. Determine the earliest start time (EST) and earliest finish time (EFT) for an activity from a forward pass through the diagram. The duration, D, of each activity is given in the arrow network. ‘The EST of an activity is calculated as the maximum of the EFTs of the activities preceding it. For example, activity A has no activities preceding it, so it has an EST of day 0. The EFT of this activity is EPT=EST+D = day 0+8d = day 8 Similarly, activity B has an EST of day 0 and an EFT of day 5. Activity D is preceded only by activity B, so its EST is, the EFT of activity B. That is, the EST of activity D is day 5 and the EFT is day 14. Activity F is preceded by two activities, A and D, so the EST of activity F is the maximum EFT of the two. ‘That is, the EST of activity F is day 14 and its EFT is day 17. Similar calculations show that the minimum project du- ration is 17 d (EFT for activity F is day 17) Determine of the latest start time (LST) and latest fin- ish time (LFT) for an activity with a backward pass through the diagram using the minimum project dura- tion as the starting point. That is, day 17 is the starting point for these calculations, ‘The LET of an activity is the minimum LST of the activities following it. For example, the LFTs of the activities preceding the project finish are all day 17 since no activities follow them. Accordingly, the LFTs of activities F and G are each day 17. The LST of activity Fis LST =LFT-D day 17-34 day 14 Similarly, the LST of activity G is day 1 d= day 12. Activity D is preceded only by activity F, so its LFT is the LST of activity F. That is, the LFT of activity D is day 14 and the LST of activity D is day 5. Activity B is preceded by two activities, D and G, so, its LFT is the minimum LST of the two. That is, the LET of activity B is day 5, The total float time (TF) of an activity is determined, either by subtracting the EFT from the LFT or by sub- tracting the EST from the LST. For example, the TF of activity G is LET - EFT = day 17-day 10 74 ‘Making a summary table is a good way to organize these, results, duration EST EFT LST LPT TF activity (d) (day no.) (day no.) (day no.) (day no.) (d) Apia 1S, o 5 6 ou 6 BLS ° 3 0 30 cmt ° 7 ow 8 a) 5M 5 MoO zp ge 5 3 8 Pi tesh euler) a7 | ol GF ppl 5 om oF ‘m| oe 5 . 6 i 8 20) ee Fcritical path — 53. ‘The earliest date this project can be completed is the maximum BFT of the entire project. The EFT of activity F is day 17. Therefore, using January 1 as day 1, day 17 falls on January 17. The answer is D. 54, The total float for activity A is ead from the sum- mary table as 6 d, ‘The answer is C. 55, The LST for activity B is day 13. Therefore, using January 1 as day 1, the latest day that activity E can start is January 13. The answer is B. 56. The equation F = P(1-+i)" is used to calculate the future worth of the money based on the present value Use that to determine the more cost-effective solution. F=P(+i = (8350,000)(1 + 0.05)* $446,698 In 5 years, the project will cost $446,698 to build, yet there will only be $400,000 in the budget. The highway department should build the bridge now. ‘The answer is A. 57. Use the following equation to determine the future worth of the money F=P(tiy = ($500) (1 + 0.06)* = $505.51 (8596) ‘The answer is A. Practice Exom 1 Solutions 63, 158. The elastic modulus equation is the stress divided by the strain of the material = 6205320 kPa (6 GPa) ‘The answer is C. 59. 2.010" Pa) (89 «10 ®) = L.78 x 10° MPa Determine the force, Food 1.78 x 10° Pa) (0.0206 m*) x (1 1000 N. 36668 KN (37 MN) The answer is C. 60. The AASHTO structural number equation can be rearranged to solve for surface thickness, Dy. SN = a,D; + 02D; +03D3 _ SN = a2D2 ~05D3 4 = (0.14)(6 in) - (0.11)(20 in) 0.44 = 468 in (5 in) The answer is C.Practice Exam 2 ee ESSERE PROBLEMS 1. Boundary and traverse lines bounding an irregular area are shown, boundary ‘The total area between the irregular boundary and the traverse line is most nearly (A) 330 m? (B) 350 m? (C) 370 m? (D) 390m? Problems 2 and 3 are based on the following illustration. A £ Ae ean Ne Oz 2. The tangent distance is most nearly (A) 195 m (B) 197m (©) 284m (D) 286 m 3. The length of curve is most nearly (a) 370m (B) 380m (C) 390m (D) 410m 4, The boundary and traverse line of an irregular area are shown. boundary Using the trapezoidal rule, the total area between the irregular boundary and the traverse line is most nearly (A) 141m? (B) 143 m? (©) 148m? (D) 151 m? 5. A reading of 3.50 m is taken on a 4 m leveling rod that is 0.50 m out of plumb at the top of the rod. The correct reading, when the rod is truly vertical, is most nearly (A) 3.06 m (B) 347m (C) 353m (D) 3.94 m 566 Gill Displine-Specic Revi 6. What is the length of the curve with an intersection angle of 11.25° and a radius of 352 m? (A) 69 m (B) 170m (©) 310m (D) 350m 7. A highway used for evening commuters experiences peak hour traffic of 3500 passenger equivalent vehicles per hour between 5:00 p.m. and 6:00 p.m. The traffic ‘during the 15-minute segments is 5:00 pam.-6:15 p.m.—650 veh 5:15 pam.-6:80 p.m.—920 veh 5:30 pam.-to 545 pom.—1140 veh 5:45 pam.-to 6:00 p.m. —790 veh Most nearly, what is the peal hour factor?” (a) 030 (B) 0.77 (C) 13 (D) 17 8. Invigation water flows at a depth of 4 m in a 15 m ‘wide, concrete, rectangular open channel with a 0.5% slope. The Manning roughness coefficient for this cian- (A) 7.5 m/s (B) 89 m/s (C) 98 m/s (D) 10 m/s 9, Water flows at 20°C through 10 m of 8 mm inside diameter smooth glass pipe at 2.0:m/s. The friction fac- tor for glass is 0.0180. The head loss caused by friction is most nearly Soc FEET Bey ere ae SEES (A) 1.7m (B) 24m (C) 46m (D) 65m 10. A centrifugal pump lifts groundwater 100 m verti- to a surface storage tank at a rate of 0.25 m®/s. The pump has a 75% efficiency. The power required to drive this pump is most nearly (A) 330. KW (B) 350 kW (C) 480 kW (D) 500 RW Problems 11 and 12 are based on the following infor- mation, A store property has an 8 ha asphalt parking lot with fa runoff coefficient of 0.85, a 2 ha building roof with a runoff cooficent of 0.75, and 1.5 ha of lawn with a runoff coefficient of 0.20. The time of concentration for the watershed is 30 min, A 30 min, 20-year storm with an intensity of 80 mm/h occurs. A concrete sewer pipe, flowing full at peak runoff, carries the runoff from the site at a velocity of 10 m/s, 11. The peak runoff for the store property is most nearly (A) 0.50 m/s (B) 0.75 m3/s (C) 19 m/s (D) 22 m/s 12. The mi ‘most nearly (A) 0.50 m (B) 084m (C) 14m (D) Lm 1um pipe diameter to handle this flow is 1. A capillary tube 3.8 mm in diameter is placed in a beaker of 40°C distilled water. The surface tension is 0.0696 N/m, and the angle made by the water with the wetted tube wall is negligible. The specific weight of water at this temperature is 9.730 kN/m®. The height to which the water will rise in the tube is most nearly (A) 12mm (B) 36mm (©) 75mm (D) 9.2mm a RR RE SEPractice Exo 2 67 14, Water flows through a 30.0 em inside diameter pipe at an initial velocity of 1.9 m/min. The pipe diameter subsequently reduces to 15.0 cm before discharging into, fan open channel. The discharge velocity is most nearly (A) 38 m/min (B) 7.5 m/min (C) 86 m/min (D) 93 m/min Problems 15-17 are based on the following information and illustration. An impervious dam on pervious soil above an impervi- ous rock layer has piezometric data as shown. piezometer 25m 15. The total pressure head above atmospheric at point ‘Ais most nearly (A) 9m (B) tom (C) 20m (D) 30m 16. The total pressure head above the tailwater at point ‘A is most nearly (A) 9m (B) 10m (C) 4m (D) 15m 17. The uplift pressure at point A is most nearly (A) 10 kPa (B) 30 kPa (C) 70 kPa (D) 190 kPa 1B. 09m 12mx12m<05m = 2002 kgm? | Tron tg yee c ep = toot kgm The 1.2 m x 1.2 m footing shown is 0.9 m below the sand’s surface. Assuming the water table is at the base of the footing, the allowable bearing pressure with & factor of safety of 3 is most nearly (A) 240 kPa (B) 360 kPa (C) 600 kPa (D) 790 kPa Problems 19-21 are based on the following information. An undisturbed sample of clay has a weight of 29 kg, a dry weight of 26 kg, and a total volume of 0.014 m? Clay solids have a specific gravity of 2.65. 19. What is most nearly the water content of the sample? (A) 1.2% (B) 43% (©) 12% (D) 81% 20, The degree of saturation is most nearly (A) 19% (B) 24% (C) 62% @) 75% 21, The void ratio is most nearly (a) 02 (B) 03 (C) 04 (D) 0768 Gull Discpine-Spcific Review for the FE/EIT EXOM Problems 22-24 are based on the following information. A soil specimen has a unit weight of 17.6 kN/m®, the specific gravity of the solids is 2.70, and the water con- tent is 30%. 22, The degree of saturation of the soil specimen is ‘most nearly (A) 57% (B) 64% (©) 1% (D) 84% 23, The void ratio of the soil specimen is most neatly (A) 0.67 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.86 (D) 0.96 24, The porosity of the soil specimen is most nearly (A) 0.23 (B) 0.36 (©) 049 (D) 0.57 25, An excavated slope in a uniform soil is shown. 16m failure plane ‘The soil properties are unit weight, = 17.3 kN/m’, cohesion ¢ = 19.2 kPa, and friction angle, @ = 15°. The factor of safety for slope stabil (a) 15 (B) 23 (©) 29 (D) 34 yy is most nearly 26. Using the American Association of the State High- way and Transportation Officials (AASHTO) Soil Clas- sification System, determine the classification of soil with the following characteristics. Faoo = 0.34 liquid limit (LL) = 39 plastic limit (PL) = 29 (A) A24 (B) A265 (©) Ad (D) As 27. Using the Unified Soil Classification System, clas- ify a soil with the following characteristics. Fao0 = 0.69 liquid limit (LL) = 72 plasticity index (PI) = 48 (a) GW (B) ML (C) MH (D) cH 28. Using the AASHTO Soil Classification System, identify the classification for the soil with the follow- ing characteristies. grain size % passing no. 10 TR no. 40 55 no. 200 4l plasticity index (PI) = 15 liquid limit (LL) = 32 (A) 2 (B) A4 (C) As (D) A6 29, An open tank contains 80 m of water beneath 1.5 m of kerosene, Kerosene has a specific weight of 8.0 KN/m®. The pressure at the kerosene/water inter- face is most nearly (A) 35 kPa (B) 5.0 kPa (C) 80 kPa (D) 12 kPa 30. A municipal water system requires an effluent chlo- rine residual of 0.15 mg/L. The chlorine demand placed upon the system is 0.45 mg/L, and the treatment plant processes a daily water flow of 15,000,000 gal. The chlo- rine required is most nearly PF 6 0 90 505Practice Exon 2 69 (A) 17 kg/d (B) 26 kg/d (C) 34 kg/d (D) 43 kg/d 31. One liter of a solution is made by adding 3 g of acetic acid (HAc) to distilled water. The molecular ‘weight of acetic acid is 60.052 g/mol. The acid-dissocia- tion constant for acetic acid is Ka = 1.75 x 10-®. The chemical equation for the dissociation of acetic acid into hydrogen ions and acetate ions is HAc —+ H* + Acy ‘The percentage of acetic acid ionized in solution is most nearly (A) 0.40% (B) 1.9% (©) 5.0% (D) 9.3% 82. A continuous flow stirred tank reactor treats 0.25, m/s of settled wastewater having 250 mg/L BOD, at 20°C. The design mean cell resistance time, 0, is 10 d Viens BODS ng =05 The effluent BODs is 6.2 mg/L. MLVSS 3500 mg/L. ‘The endogenous decay coefficient is Ky = 0.06 d- ‘The reactor capacity is most nearly (A) 3000 m8/a (B) 3300 m°/a (C) 4700 m*/a (D) 5000 m8/a Problems 33 and 34 are based on the following informa- tion, A vertical curve with Gi = —2.0% and Ga = 1.6% has ‘a PVI at sta 87+00 and an elevation of 743.24 ft. The length of the curve is 800 ft, 33, The PVC station for this curve is (A) sta 79400 (B) sta 83+00 (C) sta 91400 (D) sta 95+00 34, The elevation at the PVT is most nearly (A) 740 ft (B) 750 fe (C) 760 fe (D) 770 Problems 35 and 36 are based on the following informa- tion. ‘Acar traveling at 15 m/s accelerates uniformly at @ rate of 1.5 m/s? until it reaches a speed of 20 m/s. 35. What distance does the car travel in reaching a final speed of 20 m/s? (A) 44m (B) 47m (C) 50m (D) 58m 36. How long does it take the car to reach its final cruising speed? (A) Is (@B) 3s (©) 7s (D) 10s 37. The following illustration relates traffic den mean vehicle speed. ° a =o z je = a0 7 2 20 2 3 3 2 3 370 Gill Discpline-Specic Review forthe FE/EIT 00) The traffic low relationship is given by q = kv, in which is the traffic volume in veh/hr. ‘The maximum traffic volume for this road is most nearly (A) 760 veh/hr (B) 880 veb/ir (C) 900 veh/hr (D) 960 veh/hr 88, The stopping sight distance is 430 ft for a design speed of 50 mph on a section of highway. The grades for this highway section are —1% followed by 3%. The required length of vertical curve needed to satisfy the AASHTO stopping sight distance for this design speed is most nearly (A) 270 (B) 380 f (©) 410 f (D) 450 f 89. A one-lane rural road has a 10° curve extending for 230 m along its centerline, The road is 5 m wide with, 3.m wide shoulders. The design speed for this road is, 75 km/h. ‘The superelevation needed so that side friction is not needed is most nearly (A) 0.00050 (B) 0.034 (a1 (D) 19 40. The worn surface course of a high-volume pave ‘ment is being replaced with a design requiring a total structural number of 6.6. The engineer has decided to replace 6 in of the surface with recycled-in-place asphalt concrete having a surface course strength coefficient of 0.42, leaving in place 3 in of sound original pavement having a strength coefficient of 0.3. Under the o1 nal pavement are a 10 in cement-treated base having a strength coefficient of 0.20, and an 8 in sandy gravel subbase. What is the minimum strength coefficient for the subbase? (A) 0.05 (B) 0.10 (©) 015 (D) 0.20 Problems 41 and 42 are based on the following informa- tion and illustration, The beam shown is loaded with two 1000 N point loads. The separation is maintained at 2 m, but the loads may be moved to any location on the beam. ey 4 oro) oe oa tom tom 41. The maximum value for shear at support A is most nearly (A) 2000.N (B) 2800 N (©) 3000 N (D) 3800 N 42. The maximum value for moment at support A is ‘most nearly (A) L8 kN (B) 80kNm (C) 10kNm (D) 18kN-m 43, A triangular pin-connected truss carries a load of 4448 N as shown, Each member has the same modulus of elasticity and cross-sectional area, M 28m amees Pi £ ‘The truss member properties are E = 200 x 10° kPa and A = 2580.6 mm?. The vertical deflection at point P is most nearly (A) 0.25 mm (B) 0.48 mm (C) 0.51 mm (D) 075 mm Problems 44-46 are based on the following illustration, n Problems 47-49 are based on the following information and illustration, The span length and cross section of a reinforced con- crete beam are shown. The beam is underreinforced. The concrete and reinforcing steel properties are f = 3000 Ibf /in?, f, = 40,000 Ibf/in®, and A, = 3 in’. fe ere agearenarear ie TOO gs a eens) sel wl ff 44, Ifthe reaction at support A is 18.75 N, the reaction at each of the outer supports is most nearly (A) 56N (B) 72N (c) uN (D) 14N 45, The maximum value of vertical shear at any point along the beam is most nearly (A) 47N (B) 94N (Cc) uN (D) 18 46. The maximum value of moment at any point along, the beam is most nearly (A) 12m (B) 31N-m (C) 4.6 Nm (D) 57 Nm AT. Neglecting beam self-weight and based only on the allowable moment capacity of the beam as determined using American Conerete Institute (ACI) strength de- sign specifications, the maximum allowable live load is most nearly (A) 23,000 lof {B) 29,000 Ibt (C) 35,000 Ibt (D) 50,000 tbf 48. The beam supports a concentrated live load of 50,000 Ibf. Neglect beam self-weight. The minimum amount of shear reinforcement required for a center to-center stirrup spacing of 12 in under ACT strength design specifications is most nearly (A) 0.18 in? (B) 0.36 in? (C) 0.67 in? (D) 0.78 in? 49. The balanced reinforcing steel ratio for this beam in accordance with ACI specifications is most nearly (A) 0.037 (B) 0.083 (C) 0.051 (D) 0.058 Fo 2 Desc72 Gil Disdpline-Specitic Review forthe FE/EIT EXO) Problems 50 and 51 are based on the following infor- ‘mation and illustration. A solid steel column with a fixed support and material and geometric properties as shown is concentrically loaded. Pp | gin iia -EEK cin column of cross section 50. In accordance with American Institute of Steel Construction (AISC) load and resistance factor design (LRED) specifications, the available axial compressive stress for design purposes is most nearly (A) 13 kips/in? (B) 26 kips/in? (C) 29 kips/in? (D) 39 kips/in® 51. lithe column is braced against buckling in the weak direction at midheight, the available capacity is (A) 470 kips (B) 780 kips (C) 940 kips (D) 1400 kips 52. A steel beam is shown, AT dead 103d, wieag 2 Kips al, a2 7 ty=025in—e] |e | = 18in section AA, ‘The yield strength is 50 kips/in®. Neglect beam weight, In accordance with AISC LRFD specifications, the max- imum allowable live load is most nearly (A) 2 kips/ft (B) 5 kips/ft (C) 6 kips/ft (D) 8 kips/ft 53. Upon graduating from college in 4 years, Irene will need $800 for a trip to Europe. If the money is to come from a savings account that pays 5% interest annually, approximately how much does she need to deposit at the beginning of those 4 yr? (a) $660 (B) 8740 (C) $820 (D) $970 54, A man deposits $5000 on January 1 in a savings account that pays 8% interest compounded annually. He wishes to withdraw all the money in five equal end- of-the-year payments beginning December 31 of the first year. How much will he withdraw each year? (A) $1000 (B) $1080 (©) $1252 (D) s1469 CF ee RR RR SE SSS ES EEens Prodice Exum 2 73 55. What is a surety bond? (A) insurance that a project will be completed (B) insurance to protect the owner in case the cho- sen bidder refuses to perform the work (C) a guarantee of funds equivalent to a cosigned promissory note (D) a guarantee of funds to pay subcontractors 56. Which of the following statements is valid for a bid bond? (A) It pays for costs incurred by the bidder if the bid deadline is missed. (B) It represents the costs that the owner incurs if the bidder fails to enter into a contract. (C) It represents the costs incurred by subcontrac- tors if a project is underbid, (D) It pays for office overhead costs related to a bid. 57. One of the main reasons to enter into a joint ven- ture on a big construction project is to (A) let bidders know the size of the project for more accurate cost estimating (B) better plan future uses for the completed pro ject (C) spread the risks associated with the project (D) pay for the bidding process 58. A construction project network consisting of activ- ities B through F is shown, along with their durations in days, start ‘The critical path consists of the activities (C) AB-D-F-G (D) ACG Problems 59 and 60 are based on the following illustra- tion. (Pe) 40 35 1 2 3 4 Bete 59. What is most nearly the ultimate strength of the material? (A) 17Pa (B) 25 Pa (C) 35 Pa (D) 40 Pa 60. The yield point of the material is most nearly (A) 17 Pa (B) 26 Pa (C) 34Pa (D) 40 PaTA Gvil Discptine-Specific Review for the FE/E0 OS SOLUTIONS TO PRACTICE EXAM 2 1. The trapezoidal rule is ano(® Fe ha tha the + boundary 1 1 65m! 7A1mi 88m 1 H am! om iam ne 019+992 4452 me +71 m+88m+96m = 365.4 m? (370 m?) ‘The answer is C. 2. Convert the intersecti pra es I= 110 +05 (5) = 110.75" ‘The tangent distance is = 285.99 m (286 m) ‘The answer is D. 3. Convert the intersection angle into decimal format, angle into decimal format. Caleulate the radius of the curve. Le 325 m Convert the intersection angle into radians. Ina = (1025) (;5) = 1.9329 rad ‘The length of curve from point of curvature (PC) to point of tangent (PT) can be found using the following equation L=RI = (197-48 m) (1.9329 rad) 381.7 m (380m) ‘The answer is B. 4, By the trapezoidal rule, the area is vo (Bee 2 + hatha +h) uy (22880 atom (224 = 143.2 m? (143 m*) +81m+67m+76m) The answer is B. 5, The 4m long rod can be described as extending from the center of a 4m radius circle. The end of the rod is at the top of the circle when it is truly vertical and makes a circular are when it goes out of plumb. 4.00 m (leveling rod length circle center (om, -4m) PEEes Practice Exam 2 Solutions 75 With the reference taken at the top of the circle, the center is at coordinates Om and. -4m. ‘The equation of a circle with the center at (h,k) and a radius, 7, is (e— hy? +(y-k? e (my? (e-0 m)?+(y+4m)? Removing units for simplicity (but remembering that all distances are in meters) and simplifying the equation Ptsyte? ‘The change in vertical distance at the top end of the rod when it goes 0.50 m out of plumb can be solved by Tetting 2 = 0.50 and solving for y vt 8yta y? +8y + (0.50)? yp + 8y 40.25 y 0.0314 [the nontrivial solution ‘The change in vertical distance of the leveling rod end. is yp = —y = 0.0814 m. A ratio of the smaller circular are with a radius of 3.50 m to the larger circular are with a radius of 4.00 m can be used to find yp. Tain 7 Tom ae Nem n= (050m) (Tym) sean (08814 = 650m ( wo Since the out-of-plumb reading was 3.50 m, the correct reading with the rod truly vertical is 3.50 m — 0.0275 m 347m 3.50 m— y, ‘The answer is B. 6. In highway work, the length of the curve is under- stood to be the actual curved arc length, and the degree of the curve is the angle subtended by an are of 100 ft. z= ri(, = (352 m)(11.25°) ( (69m) = 69.11 m ‘The answer is A. 7. The peak hour factor, phf, is peak hourly traffic (peak 15 minute traffic) op eters (=e) = 0.768 (0.77) pht The answer is B. 8. The Manning equation for open channel flow is =) 3/5 Determine the hydraulic radius. _A_ (5 m(4m) “p-am+imsim =261m Solve for the velocity. Lease =1RPVS Je 61 m)*° YOO =894 m/s (8:9m/s) The answer is B. 9. Assuming steady, incompressible flow in a pipe, the head loss is| w=1()(%) as = 0018 ( 59m (4.6 m) ‘The answer is C. Pl « IDPS.76 — Gwil Displine-Specifc Review for the FE/EIT EXOT) SS 10. The pump power equation is A h P=Q hs a 9 é m™ (025%) (100 38) (o81 3 «(m2 ( 1kW. ) 075 ) \i000 W = 327 KW (330 KW) ‘The answer is A. 11. The total watershed area is A= 80000 m? +2000 m? + 15000 m? = 115000 m? Determine the weighted runoff coefficient for the total (80000 m?)(0.85) + (20.000 m?)(0.75) + (15000 m2)(0.20) 115000 m? 0.748 The rational formula is Q=CIA The peak runoff is (115000 m’) (22 1h 1000 mm ) \ 3600s 9 m/s The answer is C. 12. The pipe area is | (0.192 m?) (2 =0.49 m (0.50 m) The answer is A. 13, The capillary rise in liquids is e008 3 The answer is C. 14. ‘The continuity equation for one-dimensional flow is Ai = ave Solve for Ar and Ap. xd} _ 7(0.3 m)? a 7 =0.071 m? nd _ 4(0.15 m)? ee 4 4 018 m? Since the volumetric flow in the pipe stream is continu- ‘ous, solve for the water velocity at the discharge point. mm _ 071m?) (19 2) eee Ag 0.018 m? =149 m/min (75m/min ‘The answer is B. 15, The pressure head (length of water in the stand- pipe), fp, at point A is hy h4+z=9m+10m =19m (20m) ‘The answer is C. 16. The total head above the tailwater is he=h=9m ‘The answer is A. 17. The uplift pressure, p, at point A is P= byw = hppwg . 58) (gg ) (18a = 9.) (1000 $8) (981 3) (a5Ps) = 186 kPa (190 kPa) ‘The answer is D. ———— —————————_—_—— es Proctice Exon 2 Solutions 77 18. Determine the allowable stress by first determin- ing the ultimate bearing pressure. The cohesion, is assumed to be 0 dui: = 05 BN, +7D)Ny + = 0.5p9BN, + pgD;Ny + eNe = (05) (20m #8 ~ 1000 3) (ost x (1.2 m)(30.2) + (200 8 x (0.9 m)(30.2) +0 = 711917 Pa Divide the ultimate bearing pressure by the factor of safety, FS, to determine the allowable beating pressure of the soil. _ dun _ 711917 Pa datiownbie = Fg a = 237305 Pa (240 kPa) ‘The answer is A. 19. my = My +My Mag = My = Me = 20 kg — 26 kg =3kg w= TE x 100% 3kg = Hp * 100% = 115% (12%) ‘The answer is C. 20. 1, = hg +m, La kg 20 ke =3kg Find the volumes of water, sol, and voids, my __ake - 1000 # 26 ks (265) (2ooo 3) 0098 m8 ae 004m (0.01 m3) 0.014 m8 - 0.01 m? Find the saturation. a= x 100% 0.003 m* 0.008 ms, ) x 00% The answer is D. 21. The mass-volume relationships for the soil are used to determine the void ratio. ms 26 ke Gee (265) (1000) 0.0098 m$ (0.01 m*) Vi-V, = 0.014 m? - 0.01 m* = 0.004 m® _ Yo _ 0.004 °=¥, ~ Dorm =04 The answer is C. 22. Assume a total volume of the sample of 1.00 m°. Tos) i | x Ww water Mw " in v= 1.00 me Ve Calculate the water content. We wn * 100% wy 0% We = Too!" = roo” = 02007, ‘The weight of 1.00 m* of soil is v=(re!8) om 7.6 kN fo isp.78 Gil Discipin-SpecficReviw forthe FE/ET E00, Substituting, w Ve + Wy = W, + 0.30, = 1.3017, 6 kN Solve for the weight of the solid and liquid phases. 13.5 KN (0.30)(13.5 kN) The volumes of the water, solid, air, and total void space, respectively, are determined from the phase dia- gram, w= eg We Ve. vg = We 40888 7 9.0 =o m? W, ae W,_ We mm Gre 13.5 kN (270) (0 80 5) mn 51 m? -Vh—Ve 00 m® — 0.51 m® 0.41 mS 08 m* Wo=Ve+ Ve 08 1° + 041 mi? = 0.49 1 The degree of saturation is Vey. = FE «100% ‘The answer is D. 23, The void ratio is 0.49 mé Loom ‘The answer is C. 25. The following diagram shows relationships between forces on a free-body diagram of the soil wedge. 15m ‘The shear force along the assumed failure plane, S, is, the force that resists sliding. S=ch+Ntand =cb+Weosatand ‘The force that drives sliding of the soil wedge along the assumed failure plane is WV sina. ‘The factor of safety against sliding, FS, is defined as the resisting force divided by the driving force. FS ” Faviving _ch+Weosatand ~~ Weina 7 _ 15m sin 20° FTN sn etn SEE TSSINSSes Practice Exam 2 Soltions 79 2 1m = (48.9 m) c0820° — > 3.4m Assit wedge? 1 ' = (5) (23.4 mas m) (173 3036 EN/m ch + Weosatand Weina. (19.2 kPa) (43.9 m) 15 ‘The answer is A. 26. From the AASHTO Soil Classification System, when Fgo0 = 0.34, the soil is first classified as grami- lar material. The plasticity index is PI=LL-PL 9-29 0 For an LL of 39 and a PI of 10, the classification is AD. ‘The answer is A. 27, When F200 is 0.69, the soil is first classified as fine grained. From the plasticity chart, for an LL of 72 and a PI of 48, the soil is classified as CH. ‘The answer is D. 28. The soil is first classified as silty-clay material be- cause 41% passes through the no. 200 sieve. With an LL of 32 and a Pl of 15, the soil is classified as A-6. ‘The answer is D, 29. The hydrostatic pressure is porns ( =12 kPa ‘The answer is D. 30. Chlorine must be supplied to the system to satisfy both the demand and the residual. ‘The chlorine required is C= demand + residual mg 5 BEL one 45 TE + 0 = 0.60 mg/L (000 58) (saotsz) (se) ~ (000 £2) (az 4) 1 kg/d (34 kg/d) m=CQ= The answer is C. 31. The molar concentration of the acid solution is tag) = SBE 3s coose = mmol i: 0.05 mol/L (0.05 M) By letting 2 equal the number of moles of acetic acid that ionize in solution forming hydrogen ions (H+) and acetate ions (Ac™), the appropriate relationship can be determined to calculate the amount of acetate ions in solution, 5x 107% Solving for x gives the concentration of hydrogen or acetate ions in solution. 92 x 10°* mol/L. (9.27 x 10-' M) ‘The percentage of acetic acid ionized in solution is, 1.854% (1.9%) ( 27 10-4 M os ) x 0% ‘The answer is B. es [| « i. i7905: (0m80 Gv Discpline-Speifc Review forthe FE/EIT E00, 52. The solids residence time is e=vig ‘The suspended solids concentration is determined using the following equation 8eY(S.- 8) a+ Kee) Combining equations, the volume of the reactor can be found. ##0Y (S.- 8) X (1+ Ke) (aod) Jo 5) (250 * (2:00 28) (1+ (008 3) aoa) = 0.0544 m/s v= (nossa ®*) (sean $) = 4700 m3/d ‘The answer is C. 83. The PVC station for a vertical curve is found by subtracting half the curve length from the PVI station. L=s00ft L F = 4008 PVC pvi-£ = 8700 ft — 400 ft = 8300 ft (sta 83+00) ‘The answer is B. 34, The elevation at the PVT is PVT etey = PVIetee + oak = 743.24 ft + (0.016)(400 ft) = 749.64 ft (750 ft) The answer is B. 85. Using the basic relationship of velocity, accelera- tion, and distance to solve for distance gives 86. Time is a function of the velocity and acceleration. 33s (8s) ‘The answer is B. 87. From the vehicle speed versus density graph, the relationship is linear and is found to be 53 ni ie eo | (e625 = 53—0.8k [velocity in mi/hr] ‘This expression for speed can be substituted into the relationship for traffic volume and density to give q=kv (53 — 0.8K) 53k — 0.8" From this, the traffic volume is 0 veh/hr at traffic den- sities of O veh/mi and 66.25 veh/mi. This results in a parabolic curve as shown, volume, @ ‘ohne 800 600 400 200 1 2 3 0 80 6 70 ic density, k (vehi) ‘The maximum traffic volume is where the slope of this, curve equals 0. dg _ d(53k ~ 08k?) ae 13 — 1.6k : ~ Frost Le ne anne REESE‘The density is 33.125 veh/mi for maximum traffic vol ‘ume. Substitution into the traffic flow relationship gives, the maximum traffic volume. q = 53k — 0.8K? “(@n) (=a) ~ (08 sar) (85 878 veh/hr (880 veh/hr) ‘The answer is B. 88. Since there is a negative grade preceding a positive grade, this is a sag vertical curve. Using the sag verti- cal curve equations from the civil engineering section of the NCEES Handbook, the algebraic difference between, grades A= |-1% —3%| 4% Where the stopping sight distance, S, is less than the vertical curve length, L, As? L 10+ 358 _ (430)? 700+ (8.5)(430R) 388.2 ft Where the stopping sight distance is greater than the curve length, pang 04358 = canon) - 100+ 590 ft) = 383.8 ft From the two values for length of curve, it can be seen that the stopping sight distance is greater than the curve length, Therefore, the required vertical length of curve is 1 = 383.8 (380 ft) The answer is B. 39. The radius of curvature is @ 230 m For a side-friction factor of f = 0, the superelevation is, given by e+ “9 - ((75 $2) (2000 2)(@s)) (os) ase) = 0.0986 (0.004) ‘The answer is B. 40. The structural number is the sum of products of the layer depths (thicknesses) and strength coefficients. SN = Orecyete recycle + Gorisinal suriace Deriginal mrtace + OpaseDipase + GeubbaseDeudbase 6.6 = (0.42)(6 in) + (0.3)(8 in) + (0.2)(20 in) + aapeace(8 in) Gasbhase = 015 ‘The answer is C. 41, Draw an influence line for shear at support A with loads positioned as shown for maximum shear value. For example, for shear at support A, using basic beam staties, movement of unit load —> Influence line for shear at support A 2m ko 1000 N 1000 N eee re Toads placed for maximum shear value at support A ‘The maximum value for shear at support A is. Va = (1000 N)(1.8) + (1000 N)(2.0) = 3800 N ‘The answer is D. FI WH FFZPO.OM82 Gil Displine-Specifc Review forthe FE/EIT EXOT) SS 42, An influence line for bending moment at support A can be drawn with loads positioned as shown for max- imum moment value. As in finding the influence line for shear, a unit load is moved across the beam and the variation in bending moment at point A is graphed. le of unit oad —> Influence line for moment at support A en am FI 1000 N 1000 N Bom loads placed for maximum velue st support A ‘The maximum value for moment at support A (dis- regard the sign, since the maximum value is wanted) Ma = (1000 N)(8.0 m) + (1000 N)(10.0 m) = 18000 Nem (18 kN-m) ‘The answer is D. 43, The principle of virtual work can be used to find, the deflection at point P. Choose the positive directions as upward and to the right. Choose positive moments as clockwise. TM oN Ry, (3.0 m) + (4448 N)(4.6 m) 3820 N [tothe lef] N —Ry, (3.0 m) + (4448 N)(4.6 m) = 6820 N- {to the right] DR-0Nn Ry, — 4448 N Ry, = 4448 N upward] By inspection, the x-component of force in member MP is the same magnitude and opposite direction as the reaction at point M, MP = Ry = \/ Rhy, + Rh, (I NPT SNP 142 N =p es20N raz 30m on P ea20 n: ee20N 1 aaa N 4am Applying a unit load at point P produces the following virtual forces. TISN aN 2.0m on P Ligw. N TEN 1 1.N 46m The following table summarizes the actual and virtual forces. Fo Fp L FoFpL member (N) (virtual force) (m) (Nm) MP 81d2 18 549 80.459 NP 6820 15 4.6 47058 MN 0 0 3.0 0 total = 127517 Pile Bo eeCalculate the vertical deflection at point P. p= SoFesb= Det L FAL Fol 1 x (2580.6 mm?) ( ———_ eno (ssa) - (27517 Na) (1000 ™) = 025mm The answer is A. 44, From the laws of equilibrium, each reaction at an ‘outer support is ‘The answer is A. 45, The maximum shear can be determined from a shear diagram. (Although not necessary for this prob- Jem, a moment diagram has also been constructed, and this is used for solving the next problem.) ‘The change in shear is the area under the load diagram up to that point. Up to the center of the beam, point A, At point A, 9.4 N+18,75 N =935N (9.4N) The moment is equal to the area under the shear dia- gram. Practice Exam 2 Solutions 83 The change in moment is given by the area under the shear diagram up to that point. Mz Ment.2 m = (1) @6N0.12m) = (3) 66 maim =31 Nm L Mensa m+ (5 Menta m+ (5 Nv. ) (94390188 m w=5Nm un uO 5.6N am 18.75 N amy 56N xeMiam 188m 188m tam -57 From the shear diagram, the maximum value for occurs at support A. Vinex = 9.4 N ‘The answer is B. 46. From the moment diagram in Sol. 45, the value for ‘maximum moment occurs at support A. Minox = | — 5.7 Nem 5.7 Nam ‘The answer is D.86 Gull Discpline-Spectic Review for the FE/EIT EXOT For this condition, the normal shear strength is 418, Vn = 0.6F yw As he te = (06) (50 SE) (025 mys my) (3) 110.8 Kips (0.9)(110.8 kips) = 99.7 kips OV Set Vina = Vn to find the allowed wy, Wena (2)(99.7 kips) OR T6 4.7 kips/ft (5 kips/ft) ‘The answer is B. ‘58. Determine the present value of the money from its, anticipated future value, PsF(ti (8800) (1+ 0.05)~* = 8658 ($660) ‘The answer is A. 54. Use the annuity equation to determine the five equal payments made from the present-value deposit. ) (#5000) é 08)(1+0, sr) = 81252 The answer is C. 55. Bonds are not insurance. A surety bond is equiv- alent to a cosigned promissory note. The principal on 1 surety bond is primarily liable for the project. The surety is a cosigner who is liable only if the principal fails to discharge the obligation undertaken. ‘The answer is C. 56. Bid bonds are usually based on the amount of the bid and can run from 5-20% of the amount of the to- tal bid. This amount represents the damages or costs incurred by the owner if the bidder fails to enter into a contract and the work has to be readvertised for bids, or the difference in cost between the low bid submit- ted by the defaulting bidder and the next responsible bid where the work must be awarded to the next lowest bidder. ‘The answer is B. 157. Risk is an important factor in construction. There- fore, it is prudent to spread it as widely as possible. ‘One way to do this is to enter into a joint venture with other contractors. A joint venture is a short-term partnership arrangement in which each of two or more participating construction companies is committed to a predetermined percentage of a contract, and each shares, proportionately in the final profit or loss. One of the participating companies acts as the manager or sponsor Of the project. ‘The answer is C. 58. This can be solved with critical path method (CPM) caleulations. Determination of the earliest start time (EST) and earliest finish time (EFT) is done by a for- ward pass through the network. Determination of the latest start time (LST) and latest finish time (LFT) is done by a backward pass through the network, During a forward pass through the network, the EST of an activity is the maximum of the EFTs of the activi- ties preceding it. The EFT is the sum of the EST and ‘the duration, D. Therefore, minimum project time to ‘completion is 12 d. During a backward pass, the LST is found by starting with the minimum project time of 12 d. Then, the LFT of an activity isthe minimum LST of the activities preceding it. The LST is the LPT minus the duration. The critical path is the path that results in a total float (TF) of Od. TF is the LFT minus the EFT. duration EST ERT LST LPT TF (day no.) (day no.) (day no.) (dav 00.) (d) 7 vo BO 4 ° 4 0 40 ec 6 ° 6 8 oP ss DOS 4 9 a ceo BE 2 4 6 m0 2 6 Fbld onl5s 8 wd Roo Ged 0 2 mw Bw = = Therefore, the critical path is A-B-D-F-G. ‘The answer is C. PL emmm Pectce Exo 7 Solutions 87 59. The ultimate strength is defined as the maximum, stress the material can support without failure. The diagram shows it is 35 Pa. ‘The answer is ©. 60. The yield point is the point at which a material will experience permanent deformation. It is usually close to the elastic limit. The diagram shows it is 26 Pa. ‘The answer is B. RS oY YS SIEELE