ITIL Foundation Examination – Sample Questions

1. What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known
as?

a) Strategic service
b) Delivered service
c) Internal service
d) External service

2. Which of the following would NOT normally be in a business case?

a) A description of business impact

b) A financial analysis
c) A detailed project plan
d) An outline of risks and contingencies

3. Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service
lifecycle?

a) Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages

b) Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
c) Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes
and the service designs that are produced
d) Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting
processes

4. Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

a) Defining where the vendor of an application should be located

b) Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business
outcome
c) Deciding who the vendor of storage devices will be
d) Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

5. Service design emphasizes the importance of the 'Four Ps'. These 'Four P's' include
Partners, People, Processes and one other 'P'. Which of the following is the additional 'P'?

a) Profit
b) Preparation
c) Products
d) Potential
6. Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?

a) Incident management
b) Access management
c) Change management
d) Request fulfilment

7. Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by
The phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper
development of the principles defined in the vision'?

a) Where are we now?

b) Where do we want to be?
c) How do we get there?
d) Did we get there?

8. Which Problem Management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and
management information can be obtained?

a) Categorization
b) Detection
c) Prioritization
d) Escalation

9. In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?

1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors

2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

a) Both of the above

b) Neither of the above
c) Option 1 only
d) Option 2 only

10. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

a) The availability of a service or component

b) The level of risk that affects a service or process
c) How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
d) How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order
11. What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support
Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

a) Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality

b) Strategic, tactical and operational
c) Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities
d) Technology, process and service

12. Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships
between components of the IT infrastructure?

a) Service level management

b) Change management
c) Incident management
d) Service asset and configuration management

13. Which one of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?

a) To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all
changes
b) To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in
the Configuration Management System (CMS)
c) To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized
d) To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

14. What is the BEST description of the purpose of the Service Operation stage of the
service lifecycle?

a) To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
b) To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
c) To design and build processes that will meet business needs
d) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

15. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

a) Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item
(CI) or IT service
b) An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT
service
c) The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
d) Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem

16. Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?

a) Act
b) Plan
c) Do
d) Co-ordinate
17. Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?

1. Logging details of incidents and service requests

2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only

18. Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the
performance drops below acceptable limits?

a) Service asset and configuration management

b) Event management
c) Service catalogue management
d) Problem management

19. Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

a) Capacity management
b) Governance
c) Service design
d) Service level management

20. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and
Configuration Management?

a) Describes the topography of the hardware

b) Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
c) Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
d) Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

21. Which one of the following contains information that is passed to Service Transition to
enable the implementation of a new service?

a) A service option
b) A Service Transition Package (STP)
c) A Service Design Package (SDP)
d) A service charter
22. Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of Service Catalogue
Management?

a) Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate

b) Ensuring that Service Level Agreements are maintained
c) Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the
Service Portfolio
d) Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

23. Consider the following list:

1. Change Authority
2. Change Manager
3. Change Advisory Board (CAB)

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

a) Job descriptions
b) Functions
c) Teams
d) Roles, people or groups

24. In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Catalogue
Management, Information Security Management and Supplier Management?

a) Service strategy
b) Service design
c) Service transition
d) Service operation

25. Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

1. To automatically detect service-affecting events

2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

26. Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary
knowledge?

a) Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt

b) Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
c) Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often
undocumented
d) Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environment
27. How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

a) As many as necessary to complete the activity

b) Only one – the Process Owner
c) Two – the Process Owner and the Process Enactor
d) Only one – the Process Architect

28. What type of service is BEST used to measure the value to the business of investment in
services?

a) Tactical service
b) Technical service
c) External service
d) Internal service

29. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder

2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Neither of the above
d) Both of the above

30. Which processes represent the scope of Financial Management for IT Services?

a) Budgeting, Accounting and Charging

b) Budgeting, Costing, Charging
c) Cost Models and Invoicing
d) Charging, Accounting and Billing

31. Which statement about the Service Portfolio is TRUE?

a) The Service Portfolio includes all services except those managed by third parties
b) It is an integral part of the Service Catalogue
c) It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the
service lifecycle
d) It allows the organization unlimited resources when planning for new service
deployments

32. Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks which could
seriously affect IT Services, the IT Service Provider can always provide minimum agreed
business-related service levels?

a) IT Service Continuity Management

b) Change Management
c) Financial Management for IT Services
d) Service Catalogue Management
33. What is the primary focus of Business Capacity Management?

a) Future business requirements for IT Services are quantified, planned, designed and
implemented in a timely fashion
b) Management , control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of the
individual elements of IT Technology
c) Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of
live, operational IT Services
d) Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with Supplier
Management

34. Which of the following is NOT one of the five aspects of Service Design?

a) The design of the Service Portfolio including the Service Catalogue

b) The design of new or changed services
c) The design of market spaces
d) The design of the technology architecture

35. Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a
regular basis?

a) Service Level Management

b) IT Service Continuity Management
c) Service Catalogue Management
d) Supplier Management

36. Where would you expect Incident resolution targets to be documented?

a) A Request for Change (RFC)

b) The Service Portfolio
c) A Service description
d) A Service Level Agreement (SLA)

37. Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the
impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

a) Service Level Management

b) Problem Management
c) Change Management
d) Event Management

38. The BEST description of an Incident is?

a) An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

b) An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
c) Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
d) Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether
the service is impacted or not
39. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Centralized Service Desk?

a) There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

b) The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
c) The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple
desk locations are in one place
d) The desk provides 24-hour global support

40. Which process or function will be responsible for monitoring activities and events in the
IT Infrastructure?

a) IT Operations Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Capacity Management
d) Incident Management

41. Which function is responsible for the closure of an Incident record?

a) Event Management
b) Either the Service Desk or an appropriate third-party engineer
c) Any appropriate function
d) The Service Desk only

42. Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?

a) An issue reported by a user

b) The cause of one or more incidents
c) A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business
d) The cause of two or more incidents

43. What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

a) Rapid, one-off improvement

b) Return on investment within 12 months
c) Quick wins
d) Steady, ongoing improvement

44. What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the
service provider to deliver customer-facing services?

a) Business services
b) Component services
c) Supporting services
d) Customer services
45. A process owner is responsible for which of the following?

1. Defining the process strategy

2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) None of the above
d) All of the above

46. Configuration Management Database (CMDB) and the Configuration Management

System are both elements of what larger entity?

a) The Asset Register

b) The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS)
c) The Known Error Database (KEDB)
d) The Information Management System

47. With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact
coding system?

a) Service Asset and Configuration Management

b) Capacity Management
c) IT Service Continuity Management
d) Incident Management

48. Which of the following do Service metrics measure?

a) The end-to-end service

b) Functions
c) Maturity and cost
d) Infrastructure Availability

49. What are customers of an IT Service Provider who purchase services in terms of a
legally binding contract known as?

a) Strategic Customers
b) Valued Customers
c) External Customers
d) Internal Customers
50. “Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing
value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational
capabilities include which of the following?

a) Applications and Infrastructure

b) Functions and Processes
c) Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
d) Markets and Customers

51. Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?

a) Process Owner
b) Service Manager
c) Process Practitioner
d) Change Manager

52. Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and
dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live
environment?

a) Service Level Management

b) Service Catalogue Management
c) Demand Management
d) Service Transition

53. The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service

component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?

a) A change
b) A change model
c) A change request
d) A Change Advisory Board

54. Which of the following activities are carried out in the “Where do we want to be?” step
of the Continual Service Improvement model/approach?

a) Implementing service and process improvement

b) Reviewing measurable improvements
c) Creating the baseline
d) Defining measurable targets

55. What are the three Service Provider business models?

a) Internal service provider, outsourced 3 rd party and off-shore party

b) Internal service operation provider, external service operation provider, shared service
unit
c) Internal service provider, external service provider, outsourced 3 rd party
d) Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service provider
56. Which of the following is a source of best practice?

a) Suppliers
b) Technologies
c) Standards
d) Advisers

57. Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?

a) Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not

b) Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
c) Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not
d) Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset

58. Which one of the following activities would be performed by a Process Practitioner?

1. Performance of one or more process activities

2. Creating records to show activities have been carried out correctly
3. Defining Process Strategy

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

59. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

a) Change Management
b) Service Transition
c) Service Strategy
d) Service Design

60. Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?

a) Wisdom – Information – Data – Knowledge

b) Data – Information – Knowledge – Wisdom
c) Knowledge – Information – Information – Data
d) Information – Data – Knowledge – Wisdom

61. The group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal
change process is called the:

a) Technical Management (TM)

b) Emergency CAB (ECAB)
c) Urgent Change Board (UCB)
d) Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
62. The objective of which process is: “To improve the quality of management decision-
making by ensuring that reliable and secure knowledge, information and data is
available throughout the lifecycle”?

a) Availability Management
b) Service Asset and Configuration Management
c) Knowledge Management
d) Change Management

63. What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?

a) Informational, Scheduled, Normal

b) Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency
c) Informational, Warning, Exception
d) Warning, Reactive, Proactive

64. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?

a) To prevent Problems and their resulting Incidents

b) To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle
c) To restore service to a user
d) To eliminate recurring incidents

65. Where should the following information be stored?

1. The experience of staff

2. Records of user behavior
3. Supplier's abilities and requirements
4. User skill levels

a) The Forward Schedule of Change

b) The Service Portfolio
c) A Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
d) The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS)

66. What is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

a) An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database

b) A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
c) An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of
Configuration Management
d) Information recorder by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported
67. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A business case is a decision support and planning tool

2. A business case should contain a financial analysis

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Neither of the above
d) Both of the above

68. The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the
following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?

a) Training in risk management for all staff and identification of tasks

b) Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital
c) Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk
d) Training of all staff and investment of capital

69. Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within
Service Operation to perform?

1. Communication between Data Centre shifts

2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

70. Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

a) Incident and Financial Management

b) Change and Release and Deployment Management
c) Knowledge and Service Level Management
d) Incident and Event Management
ANSWERS:
36. D
1. C
37. B
2. C
38. B
3. A
39. A
4. B
40. A
5. C
41. D
6. B
42. B
7. B
43. D
8. A
44. C
9. A
45. A
10. C
46. B
11. D
47. D
12. D
48. A
13. D
49. C
14. D
50. B
15. A
51. C
16. D
52. B
17. B
53. A
18. B
54. D
19. B
55. D
20. B
56. C
21. C
57. B
22. B
58. A
23. D
59. D
24. B
60. B
25. B
61. B
26. C
62. C
27. B
63. C
28. C
64. C
29. A
65. D
30. A
66. C
31. C
67. D
32. A
68. C
33. A
69. D
34. C
35. D 70. D