Training Center – Vietnam Airlines Engineering Company

REVIEW FOR AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE STAFF

Choose the best answer

1. EXAMINE/THE/SHOCK/OF/GLAND/THE/SEALS/ABSORBER/OF/OIL/FOR/LEAK/ SIGNS

A. The gland seals of the shock absorber examine signs of oil for leaks.

B. Examine the gland seals of the shock absorber for signs of oil leaks.

C. Examine the signs of oil leaks for the gland seals of the shock absorber.

2. SURE/THAT/YOU/MAKE/PUT/WARNING/A/NOTICE/IN/THE/COCKPIT/PERSON/NOT/ TO
TELL/TO/ OPERATE/GEAR/LANDING/THE

A. You put a warning notice to tell persons in the cockpit to make sure that not to operate the
Landing gear.

B. Make sure that you put a warning notice in the cockpit to tell persons not to operate the Landing
Gear.

C. To tell persons not operate the Landing gear you make sure to put a warning notice in the
cockpit.

3. THROUGH THE RESERVOIR FILLING SYSTEM/ THE MECHANIC/ TO REPLENISH THE

SYSTEM/ FILLS/ THE RESERVOIR.

A. THE MECHANIC FILLS THE RESERVOIR THROUGH THE RESERVOIR FILLING

SYSTEM TO REPLENISH THE SYSTEM
B. TO REPLENISH THE SYSTEM THE MECHANIC FILLS THE RESERVOIR THROUGH
THE RESERVOIR FILLING SYSTEM

C. THE RESERVOIR THROUGH THE RESERVOIR FILLING SYSTEM THE MECHANIC

FILLS TO REPLENISH THE SYSTEM

4. STORES/ THE SELECTED TRACK NUMBER/ A BATTERY-BUFFER MEMORY/ FOR

LATER USE.

A. THE SELECTED TRACK NUMBER STORES A BATTERY-BUFFER MEMORY FOR

LATER USE.

B. A BATTERY-BUFFER MEMORY FOR LATER USE STORES THE SELECTED TRACK

NUMBER

C. A BATTERY-BUFFER MEMORY STORES THE SELECTED TRACK NUMBER FOR

LATER USE.

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5. THE FUEL SUPPLY/ CONTROLS/ TO THE OTHER WING/ A CROSS-FEED VALVE.

A. A CROSS-FEED VALVE CONTROLS THE FUEL SUPPLY TO THE OTHER WING

B. THE FUEL SUPPLY CONTROLS A CROSS-FEED VALVE TO THE OTHER WING

C. THE FUEL SUPPLY TO THE OTHER WING CONTROLS A CROSS-FEED VALVE

6. TO CONTROL THE AIRCRAFT/ THE MAIN INFORMATION/ PRESENTS/ THE SCREEN

A. The screen presents the main information to control the aircraft.

B. To control the aircraft the screen presents the main information.

C. The main information the screen presents to control the aircraft.

7. TO OPEN THE VALVE/ NECESSARY/ A MINIMUM/ UPSTREAM PRESSURE OF 8 PSIG/ IS

A. A minimum upstream pressure of 8 psig is necessary to open the valve.

B. To open the valve a minimum upstream pressure of 8 psig is necessary.

C. Pressure of 8 psig is necessary to open the valve a minimum upstream.

8. COMPRISES/ EXTENDING FROM FRAME 1 TO FRAME 24/ THE LOWER SECTION OF

THE FUSELAGE/ 3 SKIN PANELS.

A. The lower section of the fuselage extending from frame 1 to frame 24 comprises 3 skin panels.
B. Extending from frame 1 to frame 24 the lower section of the fuselage comprises 3 skin panels.

C. The lower section of the fuselage comprises 3 skin panels extending from frame 1 to frame 24.

9. ENTERING/ THE SYSTEM/ TO PREVENT/ OIL/ SEALS/ ARE INSTALLED

A. To prevent oil entering the system seals are installed

B. Seals are installed to prevent oil entering the system.

C. Oil entering the system are installed to prevent seals

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10. A SIGNAL/ THE SENSOR/ TO TURN ON THE RED WARNING/ PROVIDES

A. To turn on the red warning the sensor provides a signal.

B. The sensor provides a signal to turn on the red warning.

C. The sensor provides the red warning to turn on a signal.

11. Choose the correct group of words

A. LIGHT GENERATOR BREAKER

B. BREAKER GENERATOR LIGHT

C. GENERATOR BREAKER LIGHT

12. THE/ OF/ AN/ A/ WITH/ CERAMIC CORE/ CONTINUOUS LOOP/ SENSING ELEMENT/
CONSISTS/ INCONEL TUBE/ FILLED

A. With a ceramic core consists of sensing the element filled an inconel continuous tube loop.

B. The continuous loop sensing element consists of an inconel tube filled with a ceramic core.

C. The ceramic core filled with a tube loop consists of sensing an inconel continuous element.

13. SUPPLY/ THE/ AILERON/ VALVE/ SHUTOFF/ IS/ OF/ A/ COMPONENT/ THE AILERON/
MODULAR UNIT/ SYSTEM.

A. The aileron supply shutoff valve is a component of the aileron system modular unit.
B. The aileron system modular unit is a component of the aileron supply shutoff valve.

C. A component of the aileron system modular unit is the aileron supply shutoff valve.

14. REMOVE/WHICH/THE/CONNECTS/CLAMP/CONDENSER/THE/PACK/TO/THE/ AIR/

OUTLET-BELLOWS.

A. Remove the clamp which connects the condenser to the pack air outlet-bellows.

B. Connects the condenser to the clamp which remove the pack air outlet-bellows.

C. The clamp which remove the pack air outlet-bellows connects to the condenser.

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15. TO THE SEAT TRACKS/WITH TWO FASTENERS/THE SEAT UNIT/AN ATTACHMENT

FITTING/ATTACHES

A. The seat unit attaches an attachment fitting to the seat tracks with two fasteners.

B. With two fasteners the seat unit attaches an attachment fitting to the seat tracks.

C. An attachment fitting attaches the seat unit to the seat tracks with two fasteners.

16. THE/CONNECTOR/FROM/VALVE/ELECTRICAL/THE/DISCONNECT/BYPASS

A. Disconnect the electrical connector from the bypass valve.

B. Disconnect the connector electrical from the bypass valve.

C. The electrical bypass valve disconnect from the connector.

17. PUT/ON/BLANKING/ THE/CAPS/ELECTRICAL/DISCONNECTED/CONNECTORS

A. The electrical connectors put on blanking caps disconnected.

B. The connectors put on electrical disconnected blanking caps.

C. Put blanking caps on the disconnected electrical connectors.

18. Choose the correct group of words.

A. AIR DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM CONDITIONED AFT CABIN

B. DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM CONDITIONED AIR AFT CABIN

C. AFT CABIN CONDITIONED AIR DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM.

19. Choose the correct group of words.

A. CONTROL BUTTON RECLINE

B. RECLINE CONTROL BUTTON

C. RECLINE BUTTON CONTROL

20. Choose the correct group of words.

A. FUEL INTEGRAL TANK

B. FUEL TANK INTEGRAL

C. INTEGRAL FUEL TANK

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21. Choose the correct group of words.

A. RIGHT OUTER WING

B. WING RIGHT OUTER

C. OUTER RIGHT WING

22. Choose the correct group of words.

A. INNER RIGHT WING TRAILING EDGE

B. TRAILING EDGE INNER RIGHT WING

C. RIGHT INNER TRAILING EDGE WING

23. Choose the correct group of words.

A. TIP RIGHT WING

B. RIGHT WING TIP

C. WING RIGHT TIP

24. Choose the correct group of words.

A. LEFT FORWARD PASSENGER DOOR

B. PASSENGER DOOR LEFT FORWARD

C. FORWARD LEFT PASSENGER DOOR

25. Choose the correct group of words.

A. SAFETY PIN GROUND NOSE GEAR

B. GROUND NOSE GEAR SAFETY PIN

C. NOSE GEAR GROUND SAFETY PIN

26. Choose the correct group of words.

A. PRESSURE LOW SWITCH WARNING

B. LOW PRESSURE WARNING SWITCH

C. WARNING SWITCH LOW PRESSURE

27. Choose the correct group of words.

A. CARGO DOOR LOCK FITTINGS

B. CARGO DOOR FITTINGS LOCK

C. FITTINGS LOCK CARGO DOOR

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28. Choose the correct group of words.

A. LIGHT INNER MARKER

B. INNER MARKER LIGHT

C. MARKER INNER LIGHT

29. Choose the correct group of words.

A. AFT CABIN DISTRIBUTION AIR CONDITIONED SYSTEM

B. CONDITIONED AIR DISTRIBUTION AFT CABIN SYSTEM

C. AFT CABIN CONDITIONED AIR DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM

30. Choose the correct group of words.

A. LEFT HAND WING TIP FAIRING

B. TIP FAIRING LEFT HAND WING

C. LEFT HAND WING FAIRING TIP

31. Choose the correct group of words.

A. FLIGHT CREW OXYGEN SYSTEM

B. CREW FLIGHT OXYGEN SYSTEM

C. OXYGEN SYSTEM FLIGHT CREW

32. INDICATE/ TWO GREEN LINES/ THAT THE PROTECTION IS AVAILABLE/ INSIDE THE
SPEED SCALE

A. TWO GREEN LINES INDICATE THAT THE PROTECTION IS AVAILABLE INSIDE THE
SPEED.

B. INSIDE THE SPEED THAT THE PROTECTION IS AVAILABLE INDICATE TWO GREEN
LINES

C. TWO GREEN LINES INSIDE THE SPEED SCALE INDICATE THAT THE PROTECTION
IS AVAILABLE.

33. Choose the correct group of words.

A. LEFT HAND WING FAIRING TIP

B. TIP FAIRING LEFT HAND WING

C. LEFT HAND WING TIP FAIRING

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34. Choose the correct group of words.

A. CONTROL HANDLE SPOILER
B. SPOILER CONTROL HANDLE
C. CONTROL SPOILER HANDLE

35. THE POSITION/ TWO SWITCHES/ ACCORDING TO A LOGIC/ GIVE

A. THE POSITION GIVE TWO SWITHCHES ACCORDING TO A LOGIC.

B. TWO SWITCHES GIVE THE POSITION ACCORDING TO A LOGIC.

C. ACCORDING TO A LOGIC GIVE THE POSITION TWO SWITCHES.

36. Choose the correct group of words.

A. RIGHT UPPER TRAILING EDGE
B. UPPER RIGHT TRAILING EDGE
C. TRAILING EDGE UPPER RIGHT

37. Choose the correct group of words.

A. NOSE GEAR INTERPHONE BOX
B. NOSE GEAR BOX INTERPHONE
C. INTERPHONE BOX NOSE GEAR

38. Choose the correct group of words.

A. AFT BULKHEAD PRESSURE
B. AFT PRESSURE BULKHEAD
C. PRESSURE BULKHEAD AFT

39. Choose the correct group of words.

A. DISPLAY LOWER UNIT
B. LOWER DISPLAY UNIT
C. DISPLAY UNIT LOWER
40. Choose the correct group of words.
A. GEAR MAIN DOORS
B. DOORS MAIN GEAR
C. MAIN GEAR DOORS

41. Choose the correct group of words.

A. LIGHTING EXTERIOR CONTROL PANEL

B. CONTROL PANEL EXTERIOR LIGHTING

C. EXTERIOR LIGHTING CONTROL PANEL

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42. Choose the correct group of words.

A. POWER GROUND RECEPTACLE ACCESS DOOR

B. GROUND POWER RECEPTACLE ACCESS DOOR

C. ACCESS DOOR GROUND POWER RECEPTACLE

43. Choose the correct group of words.

A. CABIN SYSTEM TEST AND COCKPIT

B. CABIN SYSTEM AND COCKPIT TEST

C. COCKPIT AND CABIN SYSTEM TEST

44. Choose the correct group of words.

A. MAIN AIR EXTRACTION DUCT

B. DUCT AIR MAIN EXTRACTION

C. EXTRACTION DUCT MAIN AIR

45. Choose the correct group of words.

A. CARGO CEILING FORWARD COMPARTMENT PANELS

B. FORWARD CEILING COMPARTMENT CARGO PANELS

C. FORWARD CARGO COMPARTMENT CEILING PANELS

46. Choose the correct group of words

A. REVERSE OPERATION OR NORMAL THRUST

B. NORMAL REVERSE OR THRUST OPERATION

C. NORMAL OR REVERSE THRUST OPERATION

47. Choose the correct group of words.

A. ONE PIECE CONICAL STRUCTURE

B. ONE STRUCTURE CONICAL PIECE

C. ONE CONICAL PIECE STRUCTURE

48. Choose the correct group of words.

A. APU SHUTDOWN PUSHBUTTON SWITCH EMERGENCY

B. APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN PUSHBUTTON SWITCH

C. APU PUSHBUTTON SWITCH EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN

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49. Choose the correct group of words.

A. BULK CARGO LOWER DECK COMPARTMENT

B. LOWER DECK BULK CARGO COMPARTMENT

C. BULK CARGO COMPARTMENT LOWER DECK

50. Choose the correct group of words.

A. PIPE SHROUD DRAINAGE TRIM FUEL

B. FUEL TRIM PIPE SHROUD DRAINAGE

C. FUEL PIPE TRIM DRAINAGE SHROUD

51. Choose the correct group of words.

A. DEFUEL REFUEL ISOLATION VALVES

B. REFUEL DEFUEL VALVES ISOLATION

C. REFUEL DEFUEL ISOLATION VALVES

52. Choose the correct group of words.

A. INTERCHANGEABLE FIXED BODY SERVO CONTROLS

B. FIXED SERVO CONTROLS INTERCHANGEABLE BODY

C. FIXED INTERCHANGEABLE BODY SERVO CONTROLS

53. Choose the correct group of words.

A. SEALED IGNITION LEAD CONDUIT

B. CONDUIT SEALED IGNITION LEAD

C. IGNITION LEAD CONDUIT SEALED

54. Choose the correct group of words.

A. AIR BLEED SYSTEM SUPPLY ENGINE

B. BLEED AIR SYSTEM ENGINE SUPPLY

C. ENGINE BLEED AIR SUPPLY SYSTEM

55. Choose the correct group of words.

A. GREEN FIRE SHUT-OFF VALVE

B. FIRE SHUT-OFF GREEN VALVE

C. SHUT-OFF VALVE GREEN FIRE

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56. Choose the correct group of words.

A. BRISTLE SOFT NON-METALLIC BRUSH

B. NON-METALLIC SOFT BRISTLE BRUSH

C. SOFT BRUSH NON-METALLIC BRISTLE

57. Choose the correct group of words.

A. ELECTRICAL POWER EMERGENCY PUSHBUTTON SWITCH

B. EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL POWER PUSHBUTTON SWITCH

C. PUSHBUTTON SWITCH EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL POWER

58. Choose the correct group of words.

A. FLIGHT CONTROL ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

B. ELECTRICAL FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

C. ELECTRICAL FLIGHT SYSTEM CONTROL

59. Choose the correct group of words.

A. DOWN LOADING AND UP SYSTEM DATA

B. SYSTEM LOADING UP AND DOWN DATA

C. UP AND DOWN DATA LOADING SYSTEM

60. Choose the correct group of words.

A. 3.5 INCH DISK DRIVE UNIT

B. DISK DRIVE UNIT 3.5 INCH

C. UNIT DISK DRIVE 3.5 INCH

61. Choose the correct group of words.

A. FLOOR PROXIMITY EMERGENCY ESCAPE PATH

B. EMERGENCY ESCAPE PROXIMITY FLOOR PATH

C. FLOOR PROXIMITY ESCAPE PATH EMERGENCY

62. Choose the correct group of words.

A. ROUND TYPE SEAL HOSE

B. ROUND HOSE TYPE SEAL

C. SEAL TYPE ROUND HOSE

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63. Choose the correct group of words.

A. CARGO COMPARTMENT DOOR FORWARD BRACKET HINGE

B. FORWARD CARGO COMPARTMENT DOOR HINGE BRACKET

C. CARGO COMPARTMENT DOOR FORWARD HINGE BRACKET

64. Bird strikes can damage the fan blades.

A. The fan is damaged bird strikes.

B. The fan can damaged by bird strikes.

C. The fan can be damaged by bird strikes.

65. The servos are powered by three hydraulic systems.

A. The servos power three hydraulic systems.

B. Three hydraulic systems power the servos.

C. Three hydraulic systems are powered by the servos.

66. A device monitors voltage and frequency.

A. Voltage and frequency is monitored by a device.

B. Voltage and frequency are monitored by a device.

C. Voltage is monitored by a device and frequency.

67. Smoke is detected by an optical sensor

A. An optical sensor detects smoke.

B. An optical sensor is detected smoke.

C. An optical sensor is detecting smoke.

68. The catering truck brings the beverages to the aircraft.

A. The beverages to the aircraft is brought by the catering truck.

B. The beverages to the aircraft are bring by the catering truck.

C. The beverages to the aircraft are brought by the catering truck.

69. A wire connects the unit to the ground.

A. The unit is connected to the ground by a wire.

B. The ground is connected to a wire by the unit.

C. The unit to the ground connects a wire.

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70. The control cables are activated by the outboard control valve quadrant.

A. The outboard control valve quadrant is activated the control cables

B. The outboard control valve quadrant actives the control cables

C. The outboard control valve quadrant activates the control cables

71. The C/B must be safetied

A. You must safe the C/B.

B. You must safety the C/B.

C. You must be safed the C/B

72. You must set the master switch to OFF.

A. The master switch must be set to OFF

B. The switch must be set to OFF by the master

C. The master switch must set to OFF by you.

73. The catering truck brings the beverages to the aircraft.

A. The beverages to the aircraft is brought by the catering truck.

B. The beverages to the aircraft are brought by the catering truck.

C. The beverages to the aircraft are bringed by the catering truck.

74. Bird strikes can damage the fan blades.

A. The fan is damaged bird strikes.

B. The fan can damaged by bird strikes.

C. The fan can be damaged by bird strikes.

75. The length of the fuselage is 37.57 m

A. The fuselage is 37.57 m long

B. 37.57 m length is the fuselage

C. The fuselage’s long is 37.57 m

76. A device monitors voltage and frequency.

A. Voltage and frequency is monitored by a device.

B. Voltage and frequency are monitored by a device.

C. Voltage is monitored by a device and frequency.

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77. Smoke is detected by an optical sensor

A. An optical sensor is detected smoke.

B. An optical sensor detects smoke.

C. An optical sensor is detecting smoke.

78. The catering truck brings the beverages to the aircraft.

A. The beverages to the aircraft is brought by the catering truck.

B. The beverages to the aircraft are brought by the catering truck.

C. The beverages are to the aircraft brought by the catering truck.

79. 3000 psi hydraulic fluid/the metering valve/to the actuator/directs

A. 3000 psi hydraulic fluid directs the metering valve to the actuator

B. The metering valve directs 3000 psi hydraulic fluid to the actuator

C. 3000 psi hydraulic fluid directs to the actuator the metering valve

80. entering the system/to prevent oil/seals/are installed

A. Seals entering the system are installed to prevent oil

B. To prevent oil seals are installed entering the system.

C. Seals are installed to prevent oil entering the system.

81. controls/to dampen yaw axis movement/the yaw damper system/the rudder

A. To dampen yaw axis movement the yaw damper system controls the rudder

B. The yaw damper system controls the rudder to dampen yaw axis movement
C. The rudder controls the yaw damper system to dampen yaw axis movement.

82. a signal/the sensor/to turn on the red warning/provides

A. The sensor provides a signal to turn on the red warning

B. A signal provides the sensor to turn on the red warning

C. To turn on the red warning the sensor provides a signal

83. the push-button/the system/pushing/resets

A. The push-button resets the system pushing

B. Pushing the system resets the push-button

C. Pushing the push-button resets the system

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84. the valve/opens and closes/to control the fuel flow/an electrical motor

A. An electrical motor opens and closes the valve to control the fuel flow

B. To control the fuel flow the valve opens and closes an electrical motor

C. The valve opens and closes an electrical motor to control the fuel flow

85. the bleed air temperature/a pre-cooler/controls.

A. Controls the bleed air temperature a pre-cooler.

B. The bleed air temperature a pre-cooler controls.

C. A pre-cooler controls the bleed air temperature.

86. with two fasteners/the seat unit/to the seat track/an attachment fitting/attaches.

A. The seat unit with two fasteners to the seat track an attachment fitting attaches.

B. An attachment fitting with two fasteners to the seat track attaches the seat unit.

C. An attachment fitting attaches the seat unit to the seat track with two fasteners.

87. inhibits/ an electronic device/ of several transmitters/ the simultaneous selection.

A. The simultaneous selection inhibits of several transmitters an electronic device.

B. An electronic device inhibits the simultaneous selection of several transmitters.

C. An electronic device of several transmitters the simultaneous selection inhibits.

88. the 115 V 400 Hz current/ the exciters/ to enable ignition/ into high voltage, pulsating current/
transform.
A. The exciters transform the 115 V 400 Hz current into high voltage, pulsating current to enable
ignition.

B. To enable ignition into high voltage, pulsating current transform the 115 V 400 Hz current the
exciters.

C. To enable ignition into high voltage, pulsating current transform the exciters the 115 V 400 Hz
current.

89. from the engine HP compressor/by a heat exchange process/cools/the pre-cooler/the hot air.

A. The hot air cools the pre-cooler from the engine HP compressor by a heat exchange process.

B. The pre-cooler cools the hot air from the engine HP compressor by a heat exchange process.
C. Cools the hot air by a heat exchange process the pre-cooler from the engine HP compressor.

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90. to open the valve/necessary/a minimum upstream pressure of 8 psig/is

A. A minimum upstream pressure of 8 psig is necessary to open the valve.

B. To open the valve is necessary a minimum upstream pressure of 8 psig.

C. A minimum upstream pressure of 8 psig is to open the valve necessary.

91. comprises/extending from frame 1 to frame 24/ the lower section of the fuselage/3 skin panels.

A. The lower section of the fuselage comprises 3 skin panels extending from frame 1 to frame 24.

B. 3 skin panels extending from frame 1 to frame 24 comprises the lower section of the fuselage.

C. The lower section of the fuselage extending from frame 1 to frame 24 comprises 3 skin panels.

92. to drive the valve/if the other motor does not operate/permits/the gear system/one motor.

A. To drive the valve if the other motor does not operate the gear system permits one motor.

B. If the other motor does not operate the gear system permits to drive the valve one motor.

C. The gear system permits one motor to drive the valve if the other motor does not operate.

93. the position/two switches/according to a logic/give.

A. According to a logic two switches give the position.

B. Two switches give the position according to a logic.

C. Give two switches the position according to a logic.

94. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The flight controls shall be cycled before take-off.

B. The flight controls shall cycled before take-off

C. The flight controls shall cycle before take-off.

95. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Both wheels need change if the damage to the tire is not serious.

B. Both wheels need not be changed if the damage to the tire is not serious.

C. Both wheels need be changed if the damage to the tire is not serious.

96. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The oil level be replenished after each flight.

B. The oil level replenish after each flight.

C. The oil level should be replenished after each flight.

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97. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The main gear could be towed from the aircraft.

B. The aircraft towed from the main gear.

C. The aircraft could be towed from the main gear.

98. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Stabilizer position indicated by trim indicators.

B. Stabilizer position is indicated by trim indicators.

C. Stabilizer position indicates by trim indicators.

99. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Aileron Trim switches must be operated together.

B. Aileron Trim switches must operated together.

C. Aileron Trim switches must operate together.

100. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The air intakes must be inspected for any damage.

B. Any damage must be inspected for the air intakes.

C. The air intakes inspect any damage.

101. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The control cables activates the outboard control valve quadrant .

B. The outboard control valve quadrant is activated by the control cables.

C. The outboard control valve quadrant activates the control cables.

102. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The weather image displays on the ND.

B. The ND display the weather image.

C. The weather image may be displayed on the ND.

103. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The rudder pedals adjust a screw.

B. The rudder pedals can be adjusted with a screw.

C. A screw can be adjusted with the rudder pedals.

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104. When the aircraft __________ up, tire pressure __________ 4% lower.

A. is jacked / are B. is jacked / is C. jacks / is

105. Disconnect the panel __________ the fasteners 90° counterclockwise.

A. by turning B. turning C. to turn

106. Wipe the surface with a cloth __________ with solvent.

A. dampened B. dampening C. in dampening

107. Make sure that the thrust reverser doors are fully __________.

A. stored B. stacked C. stowed

108. Check for a puddle or oil __________ at the lower end of the strut.

A. stripping B. wetting C. fretting

109. The input signals are __________ to the amount of pedal travel.

A. perpendicular B. proportional C. binary

110. Alternate braking without anti-skid is the __________ mode of operation.

A. secondary B. primary C. minority

111. All ends of cable jacket must be cut __________ and at right angles to the cable

A. tapered B. chamfered C. square

112. The pump __________ to pressurize both systems.

A. can B. may C. is able

113. A rapid movement __________ cause damage to the equipment.

A. need B. could C. should

114. The escape slide __________ be disarmed before opening the passenger door.

A. is to B. may C. has

115. When you set the switch to ON, the cabin lights __________ come on.

A. will B. shall C. must

116. The volume __________ be adjusted with this knob.

A. should B. needs C. can

117. The unit is designed __________ give the flight crew priority.

A. due to B. in order to C. so

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118. The cross feed valve opens automatically __________ the position of the selector.

A. irrespective of B. whenever C. although

119. The resistance is de-energized _______ the threshold temperature is reached.

A. as a result of B. as long as C. as soon as

120. Rudder deflection decreases __________ airspeed increases.

A. as B. therefore C. due to

121. Do not _________ hot brakes.

A. touches B. touch C. touching

122. Skydrol ______ here.

A. is storing B. stored C. is stored

123. The door ______ to the support arm by _____ of upper and lower connection links.

A. is attached/ means B. is attached/ meaning C. attached/ means

124. They _______ to ________ electrical circuits

A. are designed/ protect B. designed/ protect C. designed/ protecting

125. They are used ______ carry-on baggage.

A. stowing B. stowed C. to stow

126. It supports your arm _______ a seat.

A. on B. by C. in

127. The EFIS advises the crew _______ the status _______ the aircraft.
A. with/ of B. of / of C. with/ in

128. The pilot can reckon his position _______ Navaids.

A. with no B. except C. without

129. The circuit is checked _______ each flight.

A. before B. on C. in

130. The anti-skid system prevents the wheels _______ locking.

A. for B. out of C. from

131. The _______ the altitude, the _______ the atmosphere

A. higher/better B. higher/colder C. higher/heavier

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132. B747 is _______ civil transport.

A. the largest B. the tallest C. highest

133. The First Class seats are ________ the Economy Class seats.

A. the most comfortable B. the more comfortable C. more comfortable than

134. A check valve is _______ a non-return valve.

A. as B. same as C. the same as

135. A turbofan is ________ a conventional jet engine.

A. more and more efficient B. more efficient than C. the more efficient than

136. Excessive speed

A. out of speed B. down speed C. over speed

137. Non - conformity

A. disagree B. non-agree C. in-agree

138. Time between a/c arrival and departure

A. turn round B. turnaround C. turning round

139. To return to point of departure

A. put back B. feed back C. turn back

140. Insufficient pressure

A. pressure down B. under pressure C. over pressure

141. Check each heat-pack wear indicator with parking brake applied.
This is page block.

A. 201 B. 601 C. 401

142. Set the oil tank in the correct position on the engine.

You must.

A. select a control position B. adjust the oil C. put the tank in position

143. Make sure that the LOCKING TOOL - FLAP/SLAT CONTROL LEVER is installed on the

slat/flap control lever.

You must be.

A. in the flight compartment B. at the wing trailing edge C. at the wing leading edge

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144. Make a dummy connector with three jumper leads to simulate an installed LDMCR (lower deck

mobile crew rest compartment).

You need.

A. a simulator B. an electrician C. a wire loom

145. Connect the pressure and case drain lines together with the engine pump case drain/ pressure
connection.

Connect the pressure hose of the hydraulic cart to the case drain line with the interface.

You are going to __________ the system.

A. flush B. pressurize C. drain

146. Remove the nipple from the RACSB valve drain port and set aside for use on the new RACSB
valve. You must __________ the nipple.

A. replace B. retain C. install

147. The command from the ENG / MASTER switch interfaces directly with the lock type solenoid of
the HP fuel shut-off valve. The opening function is ensured by.

- a hydraulic changeover

- a magnetic locking device

The ENG/MASTER switch signals:

A. a solenoid B. a locking device C. a hydraulic shut-off valve

148. A differential connects the hydraulic motors together. The hydraulic motors have a valve
block. The Pitch Trim Actuator controls the valve block. The valve block can also be operated by
the THS mechanical input.

The valve block is actuated.

A. hydraulically and mechanically

B. hydraulically

C. electrically

149. The actuator body attaches to the butterfly and contains a rod. Two diaphragms divide the
actuator body into three chambers. A spring in the top chamber keeps the actuator rod in the extended
position.

The actuator rod is maintained extended by the.

A. top chamber B. middle chamber C. bottom chamber

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150. If a REFUEL-DEFUEL-VALVES switch is moved to OPEN during the automatic refuel, the
FCMS ignores the command until the automatic refuel is complete. Then, after approximately 15
seconds, the refuel will continue in manual mode into the applicable tank.

A. you can override the automatic mode by setting the switch to OPEN

B. manual mode is only effective after the automatic cycle is finished

C. you can override the automatic mode after a 15 s. time delay

151. The loops are connected in parallel to a Fire Detection Unit (FDU). The connection is made
through an AND logic to avoid spurious FIRE warnings. If one loop fails, the AND becomes an OR
logic.

The aircraft can be released in this configuration.

A. two sets of loops avoid false warnings

B. normally, both loops must detect a fire simultaneously

C. the aircraft cannot depart with only one loop operative

152. Remove the QAD bolt and retain its __________ and the ball seat washer.

A. packing B. coating C. cowling

153. Apply common grease to the __________ of the drive shaft.

A. elbows B. looms C. splines

154. Removal of the THS front __________ center box access panel.

A. tip B. spar C. spare

155. Install the call __________ on its support.

A. jack B. horn C. worn

156. On the instrument panel, set the BRT/DIM __________ to OFF.

A. notch B. probe C. knob

157. _________ the safety pin

A. Insert B. Introduce C. Enter

158. Drain ______ and refill the gearbox.

A. spray B. de-ice C. flush

159. Before performing the test ______ C/B 6XX.

A. trigger B. trip C. dump

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160. _______ the panel with Dzus fasteners.

A. Stow B. Secure C. Slide

161. The oxygen cylinder disc has ______.

A. popped out B. tripped C. jacked up

162. Cold weather causes metal _______ shrink.

A. down B. into C. to

163. If the cargo door is not locked, indicators protrude _______ the bottom of the door.

A. from B. through C. under

164. You can revolve the pallets _______ the ball mat.

A. with B. on C. by

165. The flaps are extended 25o _______ landing.

A. for B. as C. in

166. The window runs _______ a groove or track.

A. by B. in C. on

167. ADF sense antenna 1 is on the left lower fuselage ______ No 2 is on the right

A. where as B. thus C. since

168. The HUD enables landing ______ visibility is poor.

A. provided B. because C. though

169. The needle is in the green range _____ the nitrogen pressure is low.
A. as a result B. thus C. unless

170. The glide scale is displayed on the ADI _____ it is repeated on the HIS.

A. in order to B. moreover C. so

171. The shut-off valve is electrically controlled _____ pneumatically operated.

A. but B. if C. because

172. The wing anti-ice system is (deactivate)______ when the a/c is on the ground

A. deactivating B. making deactivate C. deactivated

173. An overheat thermostat (de-energize)______ the resistance when a window overheat condition
exists.

A. de-energizes B. de-energized C. is de-energized

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174. (Depress) ______ the LOOPS push-button tests the continuity of the fire detection loops.

A. Depression B. Depressive C. Depressing

175. The water tank is (fill)______ during turnaround.

A. being filled B. filled C. filling

176. The engine mount bolts are (ease) ___ into position.

A. eased B. eased down C. being eased

177. Not ordered

A. un-command B. inordinate C. un-commanded

178. Auto-regulating

A. Self-regulation B. Self-regulating C. self-regulate

179. Ready for use

A. unusable B. standby C. by available

180. Time A/C or equipment inoperative

A. downtime B. off-time C. in-off

181. Excessive speed

A. out of speed B. down speed C. over speed

182. Non - conformity

A. disagree B. non-agree C. in-agree

183. Time between a/c arrival and departure

A. turn round B. turnaround C. turning round

184. To return to point of departure

A. put back B. feed back C. turn back

185. Insufficient pressure

A. pressure down B. under pressure C. over pressure

186. Middle of wing, blade est. …

A. mild-span B. mid-fan C. mid-span

187. A problem in a trailing edge ball screw transmission causes the torque limiter to lock _____.

A. in B. out C. back

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188. If oil is flowing __________ the weld it will show a rippling effect.

A. down B. within C. between

189. The fan stator contains fixed stator vanes mounted __________ all stages of the rotor.

A. in front of B. beyond C. behind

190. Make sure that the backlash of the motor/converter goes _______ when you apply light finger
pressure on the arm.

A. out of B. off C. away

191. The thermal switches are found _______ the wing leading edge and in the struts

A. through B. along C. over

192. HP stage pressure ______ than 35 psig and lower than 100 psig, air is bled from the HP port.

A. less B. most C. higher

193. The engine features direct fan speed control for _______ low pressure and high pressure turbines.

A. both B. all C. each

194. This could cause __________ explosion.

A. one B. a C. an

195. __________ of the components of the green hydraulic system are installed in the main landing
gear well.

A. Most B. Each C. Much

196. The computer operates using __________ channel 1 or 2.

A. both B. every C. either

197. The engine fuel system consists of four __________ systems

A. pre B. Sub C. semi

198. The water/waste system also discards wastewater from the toilet washbasins and from the galleys
__________board.

A. over B. under C. out

199. Make sure that the O-ring is in the __________ position.

A. corrected B. correctly C. correct

200. Cabin pressure __________ control the quantity of air that flows out of the fuselage

A. controlling B. controllers C. controller

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201. The WING P/B SW is installed on the ______-ICE ______ panel 225 VU.

A. ANTI / overheat B. ANTI / overhead C. DE / overheat

202. __________ pressure from hydraulic system No. 1.

A. Repair B. Request C. Release

203. During the APU shutdown cycle, when the P3 pressure ____ to a predetermined level, the spring-
loaded valve will automatically start to close.

A. drops B. reaches C. remains

204. The accessory drive system _____energy from the high pressure compressor rotor to drive the
engine accessories.

A. extends B. Expands C. extracts

205. Do these steps if the brake has _____ too hot because of a rejected takeoff.

A. begun B. started C. become

206. JOIN

A. add B. connect C. joint

207. CONFORM TO

A. confirm to B. support to C. comply

208. ANNUL

A. cancel B. annual C. annulus

209. IDENTIFY
A. identity B. inertial C. mark

210. MOVE SLOWLY

A. easy B. ease C. easel

211. SPURIOUS

A. serious B. unexplained C. unwanted

212. LEG

A. landing gear B. support C. flight

213. UNCOVERED

A. explained B. shown C. repaired

214. REGARDLESS

A. as regards B. whatever C. because

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215. OMITS

A. does not B. cancels C. repeats

216. ARTIFICIAL FEEL

A. engine thrust B. sensation on controls C. bad feeling

217. CENTER PEDESTAL

A. control stands between pilots B. supports to

C. control stands between two aisles

218. COTTER PIN

A. cancel B. un-safety attachment C. safety attachment

219. SCREW-JACK

A. actuator that moves slats/ flaps B. component that transmits rotary movement

C. shaft with teeth

220. ASYMMETRY

A. symmetrical position B. asynchronism C. not symmetrical position

221. PROGRESS

A. IN B. TO C. UNDER

222. FLIGHT

A. ON B. WITH C. IN

223. THE GROUND

A. NEAR B. ON C. AT

224. LAST

A. OF B. AT C. FOR

225. BOARD

A. ON/OVER B. OF C. BY

226. PHASE

A. IN/OUT B. OF C. ON

227. ACCORDING

A. ON B. FOR C. TO

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228. PICK

A. ON B. UP/OFF C. TO

229. STAND

A. OUT B. OF C. BY

230. WAY

A. UNDER B. OFF C. AT

231. The ___________ is made to seal unions and ensure tightness. .

A. accentor B. o-ring C. accelerometer

232. The _________ serve to draw oil or fuel.

A. scavenge pump B. pump C. constitution pump

233. The purpose of the _______ is to control the aircraft on the yaw axis

A. Rudder pedals B. Rudder C. Pedals

234. Its purpose is to distribute electrical power

A. bushing B. detector C. bus bar

235. It is made to measure dynamic air pressure.

A. pi-tot comb B. pi-tot tube C. pi-tot probe

236. The purpose of the ___________ is to monitor engine vibrations.

A. accentor B. Accelerometers C. accelerometer

237. The __________ enable the engine control

A. trestle table B. throttle valve C. throttle levers

238. The _________ is used to rotate the generator at the same speed.

A. constant speed drive B. same speed drive C. constitution speed drive

239. The purpose of the _______ is to control the aircraft on the yaw axis

A. Rudder pedals B. Rudder C. Pedals

240. The ________ is designed to trap particles.

A. filter-tip B. filter C. filter-passer

241. The purpose of the ___________ is to control the ailerons.

A. Control wheel B. Control valve C. Valve control

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242. The __________ is to adjust the lights

A. Knob dim B. Dim knob C. Knob

243. The _________ acts as a means of connecting the tanks to the atmosphere.

A. Vent tank B. Surge vent tank C. Surge vent

244. The purpose of the _______ is to control the aircraft on the yaw axis

A. Pedals B. Rudder C. Rudder pedals

245. The ________ serves to draw oil or fuel.

A. Scavenge pump B. Electrical pump C. Pump

246. A motor to move a valve is.

A. Valve drive B. Driving valve C. Drive valve

247. Procedure to check lights are called.

A. Test light B. Light testing C. Light test

248. Activates a valve electrically.

A. Valve for solenoid B. Solenoid valve C. Valve solenoid

249. Air used to cool hot air.

A. Cooling air B. Air cooling C. To cool air

250. System that provides hot air.

A. Air bleed B. Bleed air C. Air for bleed

251. Air from engine compressor.

A. Bleed air B. Air bleed C. Air for bleed

252. Signal sent back by the system.

A. System for feed back B. System feed back C. Feed back system

253. Back of the seat.

A. Back of seat B. Seat back C. Back seat

254. A disc on the brake unit

A type of brake B. Disc brake C. Brake disc

255. The center of the tank

A. Tank center B. Center tank

C. The tank in the wing center box

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256. The function of a loader

A. loading B. loader C. loaded

257. A part which restricts

A. restriction B. restricted C. restrictor

258. A lever that rocks

A. rock lever B. rocking lever C. rocked lever

259. A bottle to extinguish fires

A. firing extinguisher B. fire extinguisher C. fires extinguisher

260. It reverses the direction of thrust

A. thrust reverser B. thrust reversers C. thrusts reverser

261. The _________ acts as a means of connecting the tanks to the atmosphere.

A. Surge vent tank B. Vent tank C. Surge vent

262. The purpose of the _______ is to control the aircraft on the yaw axis

A. Pedals B. Rudder C. Rudder pedals

263. The ________ serves to draw oil or fuel.

A. Electrical pump B. Scavenge pump C. Pump

264. Object going into the engine

A. ingetion B. ingestion C. ingle

265. Interference to radio signals, est.

A. Disunion B. Interferogram C. noise

266. The throttles ________ for power up.

A. are advancing B. are advanced C. advanced

267. The catering truck ______ the beverages ______ the aircraft.

A. brings/to B. bringing/to C. bringing/into

268. As the aircraft ______ the cabin altitude ______.

A. descending/decreases B. descend to/increases C. descends/ decreases

269. After removal, the assembly _______ for _____.

A. is dismantled/overhaul B. dismantled/overhaul C. dismantled/overhauling

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270. The air ____ inside a double skin which _____ a heat exchanger.

A. flowed/acted as B. flows/acted of C. flows/acts as

271. Make sure that the controls _____ with the position of the items they operate.

A. achieve B. agree C. appear

272. The flaps ______ automatically when the signal _____.

A. will be moving / will be activated

B. will move / is activated

C. are moving / will be activated

273. ______ an engine on the other side _____ the relay to close.

A. Starting / causes B. Start / will cause C. To start / causes

274. If the starter ______ a malfunction, the input shaft _____.

A. is / will disconnect B. is / disconnects C. has / disconnects

275. On the ground the air _____ through a _____ unit.

A. passed / cooled B. passes / cooling C. pass / cooled

276. The air conditioning system ____ the air in the ____ fuselage compartments at the

correct pressure, temperature and freshness.

A. is kept / pressurizing B. keep / pressurized C. keeps / pressurized

277. When the wiper blade is in the parked position it should be ____ to move 1/8 to 1/4 inch from the
stop.
A. free B. available C. serviceable

278. The hot heater probes can cause ____ burns.

A. deep B. sharp C. severe

279. The fire extinguishing system is designed to extinguish at an _____ stage any fire occurring in
the protected nacelle zones.

A. after B. early C. accurate

280. If the fault produces a FLAPS PRIMARY message followed by a FLAPS DRIVE message, it is
______ the result of a Flaps Disagree

A. likely B. actually C. fully

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281. There are three cases of pneumatic operation. HP stage pressure ____ than 35 psig (average
value)...

A. lower B. slower C. hotter

282. If these components are not installed in the correct position, oxygen flow ___ stop.

A. shall B. would C. could

283. Hot oil contacting eyes or skin __________ cause severe burns.

A. should B. will C. has to

284. Do not reroll on any core less than 7 inches in diameter or damage to laminate ______ occur.

A. may B. would C. should

285. Make sure you ____ see the threads on the end fitting through the inspection hole.

A. shall B. will C. can

286. Splices __________ not be installed under clamps or other supports.

A. may B. can C. shall

287. Make sure the EICAS shows the TEST PASSED message _____ the test is complete.

A. when B. while C. during

288. A fire can be _____ excessive overheat or flammable fluid leaks and can endanger the aircraft
safety.

A. as B. despite C. due to

289. On the ground, an external electrical power source is needed ____ an internal aircraft power
source is not available.
A. although B. as long as C. so that

290. The connection is made through an AND logic ____ avoid spurious warnings.

A. in order to B. according to C. therefore

291. Generator ________ causes load shedding.

A. overloaded B. overloading C. overactive

292. The Go-around levers ______ full thrust.

A. trigger B. triggered C. Bringing

293. The propeller ______ is automatic ____ engine failure.

A. feathering/ in the event of B. feathered/ in event of C. feathering/ in event of

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294. The pilot _______ the trim wheel 3 turns _____ direction.

A. can rotate/ in other B. can rotate/ in either C. may rotate/ in other

295. The EPR ____ the take-off warning horn.

A. activated B. activates C. activating

296. Any voltage deviation of more than 0.2 volts causes a signal to be sent to the sensor unit, ____

triggering a warning.

A. thus B. so on C. that

297. ____ the difference network in the monitor detects a difference in the two signal inputs, ____

the carrier output will rise to an amplitude sufficient to close gate N0 1.

A. Because/ so B. Because/ then C. If/ then

298. _____ the 2800 Hz signal passes through the flag logic circuit, it is amplified ____ the other
conditions are fulfilled.

A. As/ as soon as B. Once/ as soon as C. As soon as/ when

299. Trouble shooting lasts ____ the failure is identified.

A. till now B. until C. till then

300. The Engineering Division _____ Maintenance, Overhaul, Material and Design.

A. is broken into B. broke into C. is broken down into

301. If 601 PP is lost, only the right dome light remains. It is supplied by busbar 403 PP through CB
1LE1. The three positions of the switch operate.
In case of busbar 601 PP loss, the __________ dome light is supplied __________ regulation.

A. First Officer / without B. First Officer / with C. captain / without

302. For the second group of computers, the links with the data __________ are direct.

A. Spacer B. Charger C. Loader

303. Do not open the radome if the wind speed is __________ than 35 knots.

A. Higher B. Larger C. Harder

304. Neuvering speeds are linked directly to the __________ and the center of gravity.

A. Depth B. Width C. Weight

305. When trouble __________ trailing edge flap system faults which __________ no similar CMC
messages, it is important to note the EICAS messages and their faults
A. shooting / has B. shooting / have C. shoot / has

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306. Caution. Cut the tube slowly and smoothly to make sure that the end of the tube does not change
its shape. Which of the following is correct?

A. Make sure that the end of the tube is not broken.

B. Cut the tube slowly and smoothly to keep the tube unbroken.

C. Cut the tube carefully to keep its shape stay the same.

307. The elevators are deflected symmetrically. The LH elevator is deflected _____ the RH elevator.

A. As much as B. Much C. More than

308. The brake wear indicator is ______

A. Troubleshooting B. Protruding C. Overriding

309. Apply a thin __________ of common grease on the bare metal areas.

A. Coat B. Shim C. Screen

310. The needle is in the green range _______ the nitrogen pressure is low.

A. As a result B. Unless C. Thus

311. Remove the 4 bolts which attach the fuel supply tube to the __________ of the IDG cooler port.

A. Groove B. Thread C. Flange

312. During the __________ of time or date, only the digits corresponding to the position of the UTC
selector switch are displayed.

A. Scanning B. Setting C. Sampling

313. The MCDU slew __________ (arrow up and arrow down) adjacent to the LAT indication are
shown.
A. Legends B. Knob C. Prompts

314. These disk-__________ data can be __________ analyzed on the ground.

A. storing / director B. stored / direct C. stored / directly

315. If there __________ a warning signal, the MASTER WARN lights __________ and a
continuous repetitive chime __________.

A. are / flash / is heard B. is / flash / is heard C. is / flashes / hearing

316. These keys __________ the operator __________ data to a specific system.

A. enable / to enter B. will enable / entering C. enables / to enter

317. The failure data __________ and you can __________ it on the MCDU after each flight
A. is storing / see B. is stored / to see C. is stored / see

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318. The surfaces __________ by three types of computer __________ on their functions

A. controlled / depended B. are controlling / depending C. are controlled / depending

319. The system is also __________ as a data concentrator __________ data to other systems.

A. used / to provide B. using / provided C. uses / providing

320. Warning. Before proceeding with maintenance work on or near mechanical flight controls or
primary flight control surfaces, landing gears, associated doors or any moving component, make
certain that ground safeties and/or warning notices are in correct position to prevent inadvertent
operation of control. Which of the below action no needs to obey this warning?

A. Test flaps operation. B. Access to avionic compartment.

C. Do maintenance of nose landing gear.

321. The ECU is __________ vibration-isolated single unit mounted on the fan case.

A. a B. an C. the

322. __________ ECU channel receives data from the two ADIRUs.

A. Each B. A C. All

323. A trim air valve adds __________ hot air from the hot air manifold to the forward cargo
compartment.

A. the B. several C. “__“

324. The Captain and First Officer seats are symmetrical and have __________ functions.

A. more B. the same C. several

325. The air conditioning compartment ventilation system ensures air circulation in order to maintain
a __________ temperature of 80°C.

A. full B. minimum C. mean

326. _______ that the safety barriers are in position to prevent access to the landing gear door travel
ranges. You must stop _____.

A. Make sure / people B. Making sure/ gear movement

C. Making sure/ hydraulic supply

327. Determine the position number of the fuel nozzles ______. You must know the _______ of the
nozzles.

A. removing/ P/N B. to be removed/ location C. removing/ quantity

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328. If the pressure in all the reservoirs _____ less than 3.5 bars, continue as follows. use special
materials and do a leak test. _____

A. are/ you repair the leak if each reservoir < 3.5 bars

B. have/ you repair the leak if any reservoir < 3.5 bars

C. is/ you test the system if each reservoir < 3.5 bars

329. The recirculation pipe starts on the engine at the FRV and _____ at the press-holding valve in the
inner tank. The holes in the adaptor let the fuel flow through the recirculation pipe and into the inner
tank _____.

A. finished/ supply the engine B. finishing/ fill the fuel tanks C. finishes / cool the IDG

330. The diffuser is downstream of the load compressor impeller. It is of radial design with 19 guide
vanes in the shape of cambered vanes. The radial __________ has 19 __________ vanes.

A. diffuser / curved B. impeller / flat C. diffuser / flat

331. When energized in AP mode, the solenoid controls roller engagement, __________ locking the
artificial feel mechanism.

A. then B. thus C. but

332. Lubricate the new __________ with oil.

A. safety pin B. bonding braid C. O-ring

333. Push the line into the discharge head until you feel the __________.

A. stop B. flange C. gasket

334. Remove and discard the __________.

A. washer B. rod C. cotter pin

335. Hold the spoiler and remove the __________ bolt and the bush.

A. hinge B. groove C. thread

336. Engage the torque __________ into the torque limiter.

A. spindle B. roller C. shaft

337. Use __________ to protect the surface of the aileron during removal and installation.

A. patch B. padding C. tape

338. Use __________ to tie the shaft to the trolley.

A. wires B. hoists C. straps

339. The connections must point __________ from the door hinge of the compartment.

A. away B. downstream C. counterclockwise

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340. Lock the mechanism of the access door with the ______ when you open the access door.

A. key B. rigging pin C. pip pin

341. Move the lever __________ backwards and forwards several times.

A. steadily B. fully C. around

342. Troubleshooting ___________ electrical power (MM 24-22-00/201) and TE flaps position
between up and 25 units.

A. prerequisites B. records C. requests

343. The first troubleshooting __________ is to look for something to jam the drive train.

A. step B. stage C. scale

344. __________ the brakes and the wheels become cool.

A. Leave B. Keep C. Let

345. On the ENG/APU FIRE PNL (on the __________ control and indicating panel), press the ENG 1
TEST pushbutton switch.

A. overheat B. overhead C. overall

346. Instruments are powered with both __________ and direct current.

A. alternating B. alternative C. alternate

347. Make sure that the wheel chocks are in position.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 29 - hydraulic power B. 27 - flight controls C. 32 - landing gear

348. The pressure regulator/transmitter reduces this high pressure to low pressure for the downstream

system and distribution equipment.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 24 - elec. power B. 31 – instruments C. 35 - oxygen

349. Remove the related mount vibration-isolator.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 49 – APU B. 28 – fuel C. 21 - air conditioning

350. An air cycle machine first compresses the air then expands it.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 72 – engine B. 21 - air conditioning C. 36 - pneumatic power

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351. It keeps a distance between two parts.

A. spacer B. spark C. spatula

352. It changes direction of movement.

A. bell frame B. bell loader C. bell crank

353. It secures bolts, screws, nuts, etc.

A. coquito B. cotter pin C. courier

354. It gives the nut a flat surface.

A. wispily B. washer C. washer face

355. It attaches bolts, screws.

A. cotter pin B. notations C. nut

356. Replace the bonding jumper ____ it is damaged.

A. if B. when C. while

357. Perform the procedure _____ described above.

A. whom B. as C. that

358. Protect the unit _____ it is being transported.

A. till B. until C. while

359. _____ necessary apply grease.

A. whoever B. whatever C. wherever

360. The action taken is ____ the seriousness of the damage.

A. dependent upon B. as C. if

361. The flight crew oxygen masks are housed ___ the side consoles.

A. under B. by side C. inside

362. The passenger oxygen units are mounted ___ the overhead baggage.

A. under B. on C. near

363. In the event of depressurization the mask drop ____ the units.

A. out B. from C. because

364. Install the placard ___ the container.

A. in B. on C. to

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365. The third oxygen mask is located ____ the observer station.

A. at B. by C. next

366. The assembly is fitted ____ four screws and washers.

A. by B. along C. with

367. The face mask is folded ____ the box.

A. inside B. in C. out of

368. When energized in AP mode, the solenoid controls roller engagement, _______ locking the
artificial feel mechanism.

A. also B. then C. thus

369. Lubricate the new ______ with oil.

A. safety pin B. lock-wire C. O-ring

370. Carefully put the valve into its recess on the rear face of the fan frame at the 4.30 o'clock
position. You install the valve in a.

A. cavity B. frame C. housing

371. Put an entry in the aircraft log to tell people not to use towbarless tow operations. You must.

A. not tow the aircraft B. write to the manufacturer

C. use a tow vehicle and tow bar

372. Caution. Do not tighten the adjuster assembly on the hoisting sling too much or you will cause
damage to the unit/assembly. You want to __________ a component.

A. lift B. adjust C. repair

373. Make sure that the dimension "y" is between 0.1 mm and 0.5 mm (the stops of the actuator rod-
end are parallel). If one stop of the actuator rod end is in contact with the washer the dimension "y" is
between 0.5 and 1.0 mm. You make sure that.

A. "y" is between 0.5 and 1.0 mm B. the stops of the rod-end are parallel

C. one stop touches a washer

374. During a defuel, the fuel pump can empty the collector cell faster than the collector cell can fill.
Thus you must let the collector cell fill again before the defuel can continue. You must.

A. not let the collector cell become empty B. drain the collector cell

C. wait for the collector cell to fill again

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375. To prevent a hazardous condition, a baulk in the bypass valve prevents the movement of the
ground door-opening handles to the close position, unless the hydraulic system is pressurized.
Unwanted door closure is prevented.

A. hydraulically B. mechanically C. electrically

376. The duct-type cooling effect detector ensures permanent monitoring of the cooling capacity of
the blowing airflow by measuring the cooling of a heating unit. The detectors monitor cooling.

A. on several sample avionic units B. on a sample avionic unit

C. on a device installed in the cooling duct

377. As differential pressure increases, the piston compresses its spring and moves away from the
upper magnetic piston. The upper piston spring overcomes the magnetic force and drives the pop-out
indicator out. In case of excessive differential pressure:

A. the upper piston moves

B. a spring moves the pop-out indicator

C. the upper piston pushes the pop-out indicator

378. It enables the airplane systems to be supplied with air under a nominal pressure below 48 psig.
The pressure levels are slaved to the flow to obtain a balance between the flows from the engines. The
bleed valve outlet pressure depends on.

A. flow B. temperature C. flight phase

379. If there is a rupture of the aircraft return line, the relief valve holds the fluid volume in the
accumulator. The mode selector valve moves under the action of its spring and the servo control
operates in damping mode. Damping mode is triggered by.
A. the relief valve

B. spring action on the mode selector valve

C. the accumulator

380. Remove the 4 bolts which attach the fuel supply tube to the _____ of the IDG cooler port.

A. groove B. flange C. thread

381. Make sure that the pressure shown on the pressure __________ is correct.

A. grip B. gage C. gasket

382. Remove the __________ caps from the electrical connectors.

A. setting B. crimping C. blanking

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383. While you hold the outer body in this position, turn the removal _______ to push the lock-
washer into position.

A. sill B. tool C. beam

384. Put __________ when you touch cables.

A. in cloth B. in clothes C. on gloves

385. There is a sensor on _________the input and output.

A. Above B. All C. Both

386. _________the probes are heated.

A. Several B. All. C. Most

387. Select _________HI __________LO

A. Either…or B. Neither…nor C. “-“…..or

388. STATUS comes into view if there is __________ status messages.

A. Some B. Some more C. One or more

389. _______________ of the amber cautions occurs during take-off

A. Not any B. None C. Non

390. The C/B trips (protect) ………… the circuit.

A. protect B. for protecting C. to protect

391. The drain valves (drain) ………… water from the tank

A. drain B. is draining C. to drain

392. The speed (regulate) ………… by a governor

A. are regulated B. is regulated C. regulates

393. There (be) ………. cracks on the frame, so check it

A. were B. are C. is

394. (Remove) ……… the chocks before push-back

A. Remove B. Removes C. To remove

395. On the ground the air __________ through a __________ unit.

A. pass / cooled B. passes / cooling C. passing / cool

396. __________ an engine on the other side __________ the relay to close.

A. Starting / causes B. Starting / to cause C. To start / causes

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397. If the starter __________ a malfunction, the input shaft __________.

A. is / will disconnect B. has / disconnect C. has / disconnects

398. The air conditioning system __________ the air in the __________ fuselage compartments at the
correct pressure, temperature and freshness.

A. keeps / pressurized B. keep / pressurized C. is kept / pressurizing

399. Make sure that the controls __________ with the position of the items they operate.

A. achieve B. agree C. appear

400. When the wiper blade is in the parked position it should be __________ to move 1/8 to 1/4 inch
from the stop.

A. available B. free C. ready

401. The hot heater probes can cause __________ burns.

A. hard B. sharp C. severe

402. The fire extinguishing system is designed to extinguish at an _______ stage any fire occurring in
the protected nacelle zones.

A. after B. early C. accurate

403. There are three cases of pneumatic operation. HP stage pressure _______ than 35 psig (average
value)...

A. slower B. hotter C. lower

404. If these components are not installed in the correct position, oxygen flow ______ stop.

A. shall B. would C. could

405. The connection is made through an AND logic ______ avoid spurious warnings.

A. in order to B. due to C. according to

406. Make sure the EICAS shows the TEST PASSED message ________ the test is complete.

A. while B. as long as C. when

407. The flaps __________ automatically when the signal __________.

A. will be moving / will be activated B. will move / is activated

C. are moving / is activated

408. Hot oil contacting eyes or skin __________ cause severe burns.

A. will B. has to C. should

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409. Do not reroll on any core less than 7 inches in diameter or damage to laminate _______ occur.

A. must B. may C. should

410. On the ground, an external electrical power source is needed ________ an internal aircraft power
source is not available.

A. although B. as long as C. so that

411. A fire can be __________ excessive overheat or flammable fluid leaks and can endanger the
aircraft safety.

A. due to B. because C. as

412. Make sure you ______ see the threads on the end fitting through the inspection hole.

A. will B. can C. shall

413. Splices __________ not be installed under clamps or other supports.

A. may B. can C. shall

414. If the fault produces a FLAPS PRIMARY message followed by a FLAPS DRIVE message, it is
__________ the result of a Flaps Disagree.

A. likely B. actually C. fully

415. The tire pressure ___________ (be check) every day

A. shall be checked B. will be checked C. is checked

416. The temperature _________ (detect) by a sensor

A. detects B. is detected C. detected

417. The pump __________ (increase) the flow.

A. increased B. increasing C. increases

418. The gas ___________( release) when the handle ________(pull)

A. is released/is pulled B. is releasing/pulling C. releasing/ is pulling

419. There _______ (be) cracks on the frame, so ________(check) it

A. is/ check B. are/ check C. are/ checking

420. Select _________HI __________LO

A. Either…or B. Neither…nor C. “-“…..or

421. STATUS comes into view if there is __________ status messages.

A. Some B. More C. One or more

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422. _______________ of the amber cautions occurs during take-off

A. Not any B. None C. Non

423. _________ the inner wing ___________ the stabilizer is de-iced.

A. Either…or B. Neither…nor C. Non of…..or

424. The solenoid valve is mounted ________________the pump

A. On B. Next to C. In

425. This applies to S/N 8576 ______ 8690.

A. between B. thru C. within

426. The fire extinguisher bottles are controlled ______ the cockpit.

A. from B. to C. into

427. The wrap shall extend 3/8 inch ______ the end of the splice.

A. behind B. within C. beyond

428. If only one actuator operates, the status message PEDAL STEERING will come _____ view on
the EICAS.

A. in B. on C. into

429. The contact must be seated squarely _______ the cable dielectric or insulator.

A. under B. against C. over

430. Pressing the pushbutton switch at ______ attendant station will turn on all the cabin lights.

A. any B. these C. some

431. Charge the cylinder until the pressure is ______ than 1850 psi.

A. greater B. most C. less

432. Apply _____ water to the windshield to test the windshield wiper system.

A. the B. a C. “_”

433. The elevator hydraulic actuation is ensured by 2 electro-hydraulic servo controls on _____
surface.

A. the B. each C. all

434. The MLI is a glass-reinforced plastic rod. At _____ end of the rod is a magnet.

A. one B. a C. both

435. The test may be ____ at any time by _____ the line select key next to the ABORT prompt.

A. aborted / pressing B. aborted / pressed C. aborting / pressing

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436. The control surfaces must be ______ after installation.

A. rigging B. rig C. rigged

437. Handsets are installed at all the cabin ______ stations.

A. attendants B. attendants' C. attendant's

438. Install the four _______ sunk screws.

A. in B. down C. counter

439. The current speed and altitude are displayed on a digital ______.

A. reader B. readout C. reading

440. _______ goggles, protective gloves and face mask.

A. Wear B. Carry C. Support

441. The OFF legend of the IDG will ______ if a correct reset of the disconnect mechanism has
occurred.

A. lighten B. come on C. go off

442. The active CPC _______ control signals through a bus to the outflow valve.

A. sets B. sends C. releases

443. The thrust reverser helps _______ the aircraft.

A. to brake B. braking C. brake

444. The monitoring channel _______ any fault messages to the Master Warning.

A. conveyed B. conveys C. is conveying

445. In the event of overpressure, the filter _______.

A. bypassing B. by passed C. is bypassed

446. The throttles _______ (advance) for power-up.

A. advance B. are advanced C. should advance

447. _______ the safety pin before aircraft departure.

A. Remove B. Removing C. Removed

448. The aircraft _____ to their base by the Company frequency

A. is linked B. linked C. are linked

449. The cabin seats _____ floor rails

A. attached in B. are attached with C. are attached to

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450. Excessive brake pressure _____ wheel ____.

A. causes/ locking B. cause/ be locked C. cause/ locked

451. We _____ oil samples from Engine 1

A. took B. have taken C. are taken

452. They _____ metal filings on the magnetic plug.

A. have found B. finds C. are finding

453. _______ damaged part of the fuselage is the forward section.

A. The most B. The best C. The much

454. The response time is _____ possible.

A. the best B. as good as C. as short as

455. The radome is _____ part of the aircraft.

A. the best exposed B. the most exposed C. the much exposed

456. ______ the air speed, ______ the rudder deflection angle.

A. The lower/ the lower B. The lower/ the higher C. The higher/ the lower

457. There are ____ seats abreast in First class ____ in Economy.

A. fewer/ than B. less/ than C. more/ than

458. The parts are old. Throw them _____.

A. out B. off C. away

459. The big overhauls don’t take place ____ that airport.
A. in B. at C. on

460. The rivets which we need ____ this repair are available ____ the workshop.

A. to/ in B. for/ at C. to/ of

461. The First Officer is the person who sits ____ the left hand side ___ the cockpit.

A. on/ in B. in/ at C. at/ at

462. He needs a special instrument ____ detecting the fault.

A. according to B. for C. to

463. Connect the nut of the rod supply pipe on the lower pivoting door actuator.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 27 - flight controls B. 31 – instruments C. 78 - exhaust

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464. Make sure that the safety barriers are in position to prevent access to the landing gear door travel
ranges. You must stop.

A. people B. gear movement C. door movement

465. Determine the position number of the fuel nozzles to be removed. You must know the

__________ of the nozzles.

A. P/N B. quantity C. location

466. If the pressure in all the reservoirs is less than 3.5 bars, continue as follows.

- use special materials and do a leak test

A. you repair the leak if each reservoir < 3.5 bars

B. you test the system if each reservoir < 3.5 bars

C. you repair the leak if any reservoir < 3.5 bars

467. The recirculation pipe starts on the engine at the FRV and finishes at the press-holding valve in

the inner tank. The holes in the adaptor let the fuel flow through the recirculation pipe and into

the inner tank.

This fuel is used to.

A. cool the IDG B. fill the fuel tanks C. supply the engine

468. The ventilation of the wing leading edge makes sure that the flammable fuel vapor is removed
and the hot components are cooled. Air enters through gaps around the slat tracks and goes out
through drainage holes.

The air flow avoids.

A. icing B. fire and overheating C. overheating

469. A coupling permits rapid removal or installation of the electric pump without ______ of fluid.

A. bleed B. display C. loss

470. Do not hit the inlet plenum with your hands or your tools. _______ damage to the plenum can
occur.

A. The B. A C. “-“

The equipment and furnishings are installed in the cargo compartments for the __________ and

471. Safety of the cargo.

A. handler B. handling C. handled

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472. The oxygen is sent to the oxygen stowage boxes which contain a _______ face _______ donning
mask each.

A. full / quick B. full / quickly C. fully / quickly

473. The permanent measurement of the resistor of the in-service sensor __________ the correct
temperature regulation.

A. ensures B. prevents C. inserts

474. The duct leak detection system uses thermal switches to find ________ leak in a bleed air duct.

A. “-“ B. a C. the

475. The pressure relief disc will __________ out at a pressure of 2.7 to 6.8 bars relativ

A. show B. flow C. blow

476. The hot heat probes can cause severe burns if not __________ correctly or not __________ to
cool sufficiently.

A. handling / allowing B. handle / allow C. handled / allowed

477. The outboard end of the retraction lever __________ to the rear spar through a retraction link.

A. attach B. is attached C. are attached

478. When trouble __________ trailing edge flap system faults which __________ no similar CMC
messages, it is important to note the EICAS messages and their faults.

A. shoot / have B. shooting / has C. shooting / have

479. The ball screws should __________ at closely.

A. be looked B. to look C. be looking

480. The IP check valve __________ __________ any air recirculation through the engine.

A. close / to prevent B. is closed / to prevent C. is closed / to be prevented

481. The thrust reverser helps _______ (brake) the aircraft.

A. to brake B. braking C. brakes

482. The monitoring channel _______ (convey) any fault messages to the Master Warning.

A. conveyed B. conveys C. is conveying

483. In the event of overpressure, the filter is _______ (bypass)

A. bypassing B. by pass C. bypassed

484. The throttles _______ (advance) for power-up.

A. advance B. are advanced C. should advance

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485. _______(Remove) the safety pin before aircraft departure.

A. Remove B. Removing C. Removed

486. The fluorescent lights run _______ the ceiling

A. along B. above C. on

487. The radar antenna can be tilted ______ .

A. up and out B. in or out C. up or down

488. Tugs tow the aircraft _____ the hangar _____ the apron.

A. from/ into B. from/ to C. in/ to

489. Wind the cable ______ the drum.

A. round B. about C. around

490. After removal, the assembly is dismantled _____ overhaul.

A. in B. for C. at

491. The gage is at zero. There is _______ flow.

A. none B. no C. not

492. There are ________ problems. (an indefinite number)

A. some B. many C. few

493. The indicator shows slow. There is not ___________ pressure.

A. little B. “-“ C. any/much

494. The Air Data Computer receives ______ inputs. (a large number)
A. some B. much C. many

495. There is _______ corrosion on the fitting. (a large quantity)

A. much B. many C. a

496. The oxygen is sent to the oxygen stowage boxes which contain a _______-face ________
donning mask each.

A. fully / quick B. full / quickly C. full / quick

497. The outboard end of the retraction lever ________ to the rear spar through a retraction link.

A. attach B. is attached C. attaching

498. The equipment and furnishings are installed in the cargo compartments for the ______ and
safety of the cargo.

A. handler B. handling C. handle

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499. The heating elements are part of the fill/drain nipple and _______ nipple of the potable water
system.

A. under floor B. outflow C. overflow

500. Put the _____ collar-door MLG (3) in position on the piston rod of the MLG door actuator.

A. safely B. safety C. safe

501. When the ground speed of the aircraft is more than 40 Knots the angle of steering available
____.

A. decreases B. processes C. increases

502. The pressure relief disc will __________ out at a pressure of 2.7 to 6.8 bars relative.

A. blow B. flow C. show

503. The hot heat probes can cause severe burns if not __________ correctly or not __________ to
cool sufficiently.

A. handling / allowing B. handle / allow C. handled / allowed

504. When trouble ______ trailing edge flap system faults which ______ no similar CMC Messages,
it is important to note the EICAS messages and their faults.

A. shoot / have B. shooting / has C. shooting / have

505. When the test is __________ monitor the trim air valve symbols on the AIRCOND page.

A. in progress B. serviceable C. replenished

506. For minimum cooling, the ram air inlets and outlets are almost closed and the regulation valves
are fully open. On the ground, the inlets are fully closed to prevent dust entering the system. To
increase air temperature, the inlets and outlets are.

A. fully closed B. fully open C. nearly closed

507. Check the expiry date on the cylinder to make sure that you can still use the cylinder.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 26 - fire protection B. 35 – oxygen C. 21 - air conditioning

508. Disconnect the overflow line from the union.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 21 - air conditioning B. 38 - water and waste C. 36 - pneumatic power

509. Remove the cover from the terminal block of the starter motor.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 49 - APU B. 26 - fire protection C. 27 - flight controls

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510. Make sure that the clearance between the sensing elements and the duct is approximately
12.7mm minimum. Check the gap between.

A. two ducts B. the detection and a duct C. the power supply and a duct

511. Make an entry into the log-book that the APU LP fuel shutoff valve is reactivated.

You must.

A. connect B. reactivate C. write

512. Alternate braking with anti-skid. Braking inputs are made only at the pedals. These operate LP
system. This system causes the main hydraulic supply to go to the second set of Pistons in the brakes.
The alternate braking system:

A. operates another batch of pistons B. is not provided with anti-skid

C. operates few pistons

513. Low heating or over current or heating loss triggers a warning. Monitoring of the TAT sensors is
inhibited on the ground. A monitoring system activates when heating is incorrect. A warning is caused
by.

A. low current B. absence of voltage C. over voltage

514. Before installation, you must examine the gaskets already used to make sure that they are
serviceable. You must.

A. change all the seals B. install the supports C. change damaged seals

515. The priority valve closes __________ a failure.

A. because B. as C. in the event of

516. The standby frequency is effective _______ the transfer key is pressed.

A. if B. so that C. and

517. The INS is inoperative ________ the aircraft is grounded

A. and B. however C. so

518. The inner tanks are located between ribs 1 and 14 ______ the outer tanks are between ribs 14 and
27.

A. therefore B. unless C. whereas

519. The gear doors can be closed on the ground ______ there is hydraulic power

A. so that B. provided that C. furthermore

520. The standby system is used ________ the main system fails
A. as B. if C. while

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521. If the clamps _______, vibration may _______ on the pipes.

A. are loose/ cause chafing B. are loosed/ cause chafing C. are loose/ causing chafe

522. In the event of a flap jam, the flaps ______ extended or retracted.

A. can not be B. could not be C. can not being

523. Excessive brake pressure _____ wheel locking.

A. will cause B. caused C. causes

524. A shear pin ______ on the tow-bar

A. is fitting B. is fitted C. fits

525. After 2.000 cycles, the assembly _____ signs of wear.

A. showed B. shows C. showing

526. The First Class seats are _______ (comfortable) the Economy Class seats.

A. most comfortable than B. more comfortable than C. comfortable than

527. The landing speed is ______ (low) when the flaps are fully extended

A. more low B. lower C. lowest

528. A check valve is the _____ (same) a non-return valve.

A. same as B. same C. as same

529. The ______ the altitude, the ______ the atmosphere

A. higher/colder B. colder/higher C. more/more

530. The _____ the flight, the ____ the trip fuel.
A. long/ heavier B. longer/ heavy C. longer/ heavier

531. There is a leak _______ the hot air duct.

A. in B. on C. inside

532. The HI PRESS light illuminates in the event _______ overpressure.

A. of B. by C. with

533. There is detergent contamination _______ the potable water system.

A. on B. into C. in

534. _______ lubrication, the mechanism may be stiff.

A. none B. without C. out

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535. The ground spoilers are armed _______ landing.

A. before B. after C. forward

536. Carefully put the valve into its recess on the rear face of the fan frame at the 4.30 o'clock
position. You install the valve in a.

A. cavity B. frame C. bracket

537. Put an entry in the aircraft log to tell people not to use towbarless tow operations. You must.

A. placard the nose landing gear B. write to the manufacturer

C. use a tow vehicle and tow bar

538. Caution. Do not tighten the adjuster assembly on the hoisting sling too much or you will cause
damage to the unit/assembly. You want to __________ a component.

A. install B. lift C. adjust

539. ______ the operational test of the engine fire extinguishing.

A. Ensure B. Perform C. Allow

540. This temperature selection will __________ the heat probe stabilize at a temperature slightly
below the nominal close temperature.

A. let B. permit C. cause

541. The failure data __________ and you can __________ it on the MCDU after each flight.

A. stored / see B. is storing / see C. is stored / see

542. If there __________ a warning signal, the MASTER WARN lights __________ and a
continuous repetitive chime __________.
A. is / flash / is heard B. has / flash / hears C. is / flashes / hearing

543. The surfaces __________ by three types of computer __________ on their functions.

A. controlled / depending B. are controlling / depending C. are controlled / depending

544. Mechanically and hydraulically __________ doors close __________ the aerodynamic contours
when the landing gear retracts.

A. operated / made B. operated / to make C. operating / to make

545. Servo __________ is ensured __________ the position data supplied by one of the RVDTs
driven by the other cam.

A. monitoring / to use B. monitoring / using C. monitor / using

546. The __________ valve will automatically start to close.

A. self-contained B. self-held C. spring-loaded

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547. The system is kept physically __________ from the other two systems wherever possible.

A. integrated B. connected C. apart

548. ________ checks should be made to make sure that the tire pressure is within limits.

A. daily B. yearly C. unscheduled

549. Wear goggles, __________ gloves and other protective clothes.

A. rubber B. isolated C. insulated

550. If any alodine is spilt on the skin, rinse immediately with a _________ supply of water.

A. plentiful B. full C. replenished

551. You __________ carefully install the ground locks in all the landing gear.

A. can B. must C. will

552. The indication is normally based on data sent by FCSC1 ________ such data is found invalid.

A. provided B. as long as C. except if

553. The engine pumps are automatically controlled __________ the crew can control them from the
cockpit when necessary.

A. if B. when C. but

554. You can monitor the operation of the pneumatic system on the BLEED page of the SD.
The APU page of the SD __________ shows some information.

A. and B. also C. so

555. Do not connect electrical equipment to a power source that is _____ than 30 meters away.
A. least B. most C. less

556. The inner tanks are located between ribs 1 and 14 ___ the outer tanks are located between ribs 14
and 27.

A. and B. whereas C. therefore

557. The gear door can be closed on the ground ____there is hydraulic power

A. provided that B. so that C. therefore

558. Main wheel brakes can be applied at touchdown ______the nose gear shock absorber is not
compressed

A. so that B. although C. therefore

559. When the aircraft touches down the spoilers extend. The green arrows illuminate ____the gear is
not down locked.

A. as long as B. if C. because

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560. The oil must be retained within the engine, __________ seals of various types are provided to
confine and direct oil re-circulation.

A. nevertheless B. however C. therefore

561. Steel brakes wear ____than carbon brakes

A. more slowly B. less slowly C. as slowly as

562. The reinforced areas offer ____ resistance ____ the non-reinforced areas

A. better/than B. worse/than C. the best/over

563. The elevators are deflected symmetrically. The LH elevator is ____the RH elevator.

A. deflected as much as B. more deflected than C. less deflected than

564. Conventional ILSs are _____ MLSs

A. more inaccurate than B. as accurate as C. more accurate than

565. A turbofan is ________a conventional jet engine.

A. Less efficient than B. More efficient than C. As efficient as

566. The escape slide ________ disarmed before _____ the passenger door.

A. may be / open B. could be/ to open C. is to be/ opening

567. The test ____ at any time by ____ the line select key next to the ABORT prompt.

A. may be aborted/ pressed B. may aborted/ pressed C. may be aborted/ pressing

568. The control surface ____ after installation.

A. must rig B. must be rigged C. must be rigging

569. The active CPC ____ control signals through a bus to out flow valve.

A. sends B. releases C. receives

570. This temperature selection ____ the heat probe stabilize at a temperature slightly below the
nominal close temperature.

A. will let B. will permit C. shall do

571. Lay the lock-wire tails flat ___ the surface and apply a 2 mm thick layer ___ sealants.

A. with/ by B. on/ of C. in/ with

572. Put the access platform ___ position ___ the cargo door.

A. in/ under B. under/ in C. at/ near

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573. The windshield anti-icing system makes sure that the crew can see ____ the windshield and side
windows.

A. around B. through C. over

574. The test results are shown ____ panel 231 VU.

A. beyond B. on C. in

575. The water/ waste system also discards waste/ water ___ the toilet washbasins and ___ the galleys
____ board.

A. in/ in/ out B. in/ out / under C. from/ from/ out

576. Remove the proximity sensor __________ with the proximity sensors.

A. brackets B. gaskets C. clevises

577. Put the hydraulic __________ and the 1 m harness in position on the guide blocks.

A. locknut B. unions C. hoses

578. Fully install the __________ in the lug of the shortening mechanism rear pintle pin.

A. screw B. sleeve C. nut

579. Put a safety __________ in position when you work near an open door.

A. net B. barrier C. procedure

580. Turn the pump 30° __________.

A. upwards B. forward C. clockwise

581. Wires break most __________ where cables go through fairleads or around pulleys.
A. frequently B. slowly C. quietly

582. You must __________ install a new O-ring before you install a removed union.

A. often B. never C. always

583. Adjust the position of the knurled nut with __________.

A. a screwdriver B. your fingers C. a wrench

584. The fire extinguishing system is __________ when fire is detected by the fire and overheat
detection system.

A. activated B. actuated C. excited

585. Slowly open the vacuum control __________ you get a stable pressure value.

A. onto B. unless C. until

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586. The relay continuously __________ the ground condition on any switch.

A. commands B. controls C. monitors

587. Put the removed parts in a bag in order not to __________ them.

A. lose B. loose C. loss

588. You must wait 5 minutes after each engine shutdown before you check and ______ engine oil.

A. top off B. fill out C. fulfill

589. A self-sealing coupling permits rapid removal or installation of the electric pump without loss of
fluid.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 36 - pneumatic power B. 29 - hydraulic power C. 32 - landing gear

590. The hydraulic actuation is controlled by the Pitch Trim Actuator.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 49 - APU B. 21 - air conditioning C. 27 - flight controls

591. Hold the water heater and remove the clamps.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 30 - ice/rain protection B. 38 - water and waste C. 36 - pneumatic power

592. If you remove the drain tube from the fuel nozzle adjacent to the 6 o'clock bore scope plug, you
will be required to perform a leak check after this inspection. Use the 6 o'clock bore scope port only if
necessary.

A. you use the bore scope port to check for leaks

B. to remove the drain tube, you must remove the bore scope

C. it is preferable not to remove the bore scope plug

593. Make sure that you cannot install the GAGE-END STOP, FLAP ACTUATOR between the
rotary actuator and the rotary actuator stop bolt.

A. you should install a stop

B. you should install an actuator

C. you should not be able to install a gage

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594. Turn the upper drum of the HOIST-MINILIFT until you have removed the slack from the hoist
cable. Make sure that you do not lift the SUPPORT FRAME-APU. Then disconnect the APU from
the SUPPORT FRAME-APU.

To disconnect the APU.

A. the support must be removed B. the cable must be loose

C. the cable must be tight

595. The transmitter unit has one potentiometer for each MLG. Each one has 4 tracks. They send
outputs to the BSCU. The BSCU has two isolated channels; only one controls system operation. The
other is a backup.

A. only 1 channel is active at a time B. the potentiometer has 2 tracks per gear

C. only 1 potentiometer is active at a time

596. The HUD enables landing …………….. visibility is poor.

A. BECAUSE B. PROVIDED C. ALTHOUGH

597. The needle is in the green range ……………… the nitrogen pressure is low.

A. AS A RESULT B. UNLESS C. THUS

598. The glide scale is displayed on the ADI …………… it is repeated on the HSI.

A. IN ORDER TO B. SO C. MOREOVER

599. The landing gear "ground/flight" microswitches close …………… the shock absorber is
compressed.

A. SO THAT B. DESPITE C. AS SOON AS

600. Seat belts are fastened ……………… the aircraft reaches its gate.

A. PROVIDED THAT B. UNTIL C. UNLESS

601. The rain repellent system is not used ……………… the rain is very heavy.

A. UNLESS B. AS SOON AS C. DESPITE

602. The system was inoperative. …………… the aircraft took off.

A. THEREFORE B. HOWEVER C. SO

603. The standby frequency is effective ……………… the transfer key is pressed.

A. IF B. SO THAT C. AND

604. ADF sense antenna 1 is on the left lower fuselage …………….. N° 2 is on the right.

A. THUS B. SINCE C. WHEREAS

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605. The HUD enables landing …………….. visibility is poor.

A. BECAUSE B. PROVIDED C. ALTHOUGH

606. The needle is in the green range ……………… the nitro gen pressure is low.

A. AS A RESULT B. UNLESS C. THUS

607. The glide scale is displayed on the ADI …………… it is repeated on the HSI.

A. IN ORDER TO B. SO C. MOREOVER

608. Each seat back is hydraulically reclinable. …………… you can manually fold the back
forward.

A. FURTHERMORE B. SO C. AS

609. Both the low …….high levels are pre-adjusted.

A. AND B. SO C. WHEREAS

610. Main wheel brakes can be applied at touchdown …………… the nose gear shock absorber is not
compressed.

A. ALTHOUGH B. MOREOVER C. BECAUSE

611. The blower fan is inoperative ……………… the equipment may overheat.

A. DESPITE B. SO C. IN ORDER TO

612. The amplifier is designed ……………… give the flight crew priority over the hostess.

A. SO AS TO B. AND C. BUT

613. Check the line for faults ………………… the antenna does not tune.
A. DUE TO B. SO THAT C. IF

614. Fail safe systems have ______probability of failure ____other systems

A. more/than B. less/than C. as much/as

615. The elevators are deflected symmetrically. The LH elevator is ____the RH elevator.

A. deflected as much as B. more deflected than C. less deflected than

616. The tires have been overhauled. Now they are____new.

A. good B. less good C. as good as

617. There is __fuel in the outer tank ___in the inner tank

A. less/than B. more/than C. as much/as

618. Conventional ILSs are _____MLSs

A. more inaccurate than B. as accurate as C. more accurate than

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619. The useful load of an aircraft is the

A- difference between the maximum gross weight and empty weight.

B- difference between the net weight and total weight.

C- sum of the empty weight and the maximum gross weight.

620. The maximum weight of an aircraft is the

A- empty weight plus crew, maximum fuel, cargo, and baggage.

B- empty weight plus crew, passengers, and fixed equipment.

C- empty weight plus useful load.

621. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls?

A- Stainless steel.

B- Chrome-molybdenum alloy steel.

C- Magnesium-titanium alloy steel.

622. During starting of a turbine powerplant using a compressed air stater, a hung start occurred.
Select the proper procedure.

A- Advance power lever to increase RPM.

B- Re-engage the starter.

C- Shut the engine down.

623. The speed of sound in the atmosphere

A- varies according to the frequency of the sound.

B- changes with a change in temperature.

C- changes with a change in pressure.

624. The mounting flange is attached with six studs to the bottom skin of the tank. Four of the studs
also attach the actuator below the tank. The drive engages with the actuator. The actuator is installed
____ the tank with _____ studs.

A. under / four B. in / six C. in / four

625. The gearbox housing has a capacity of 8.5 l. On the left side there are the gravity oil fill, the fill-
pressure and the overflow ports. The gearbox has internal oil lines. They transmit the oil from the
gearbox sump to the oil pump.

A. there are two oil-fill ports on the right B. there is a single oil-fill port on the left

C. the oil pump scavenges oil from the sump

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626. The hydraulic fluid enters the annular space formed by the two tubes. The fluid flows.

A. in the outer tube B. in both tubes C. from one tube to the other

627. The tank heater assembly is installed on the water tank. It is wrapped around the water tank and
held in position by the tension of loaded springs. The heating resistance is.

A. at the bottom of the tank B. around the outer surface of the tank

C. in the center of the tank

628. The maneuvering speeds are linked directly to the _____ and the center of gravity.

A. depth B. weight C. height

629. Wash your _____ with soap and rinse with clean water.

A. eyes B. coil C. skin

630. For the second group of computers, the links with the data ____ are direct.

A. loader B. spacer C. charger

631. Make sure that the ON BAT _____ comes on for 5 seconds, then goes off.

A. enunciator B. flag C. switch

632. The high voltage electrical current in the ____ of the strobe light is dangerous.

A. lens B. sleeve C. capacitor

633. Each engine (HP rotor) drives its associated IDG ______ the accessory gearbox.

A. inside B. around C. through

634. The current transformers provide outputs proportional to the current in the links connecting the
neutral _____ of the main stator windings to the neutral terminal.

A. ends B. sides C. tips

635. Remove excess solder _____ the outer surface of the contact.

A. at B. from C. to

636. Pulling a selector knob always leads _____ an immediate acquisition and hold of the
corresponding parameter.

A. on B. onto C. to

637. Fully move down the handle to the _____ of the screen.

A. rear B. bottom C. side

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638. The MCDU also indicates _____ failures in the system and gives trouble shooting data for the
system.

A. each B. some C. any

639. The interconnection between the FMGECs and the peripherals is accomplished in such a way
that a single failure of a peripheral has _____ effect on the AFS.

A. nothing B. no C. none

640. The AC main generation enables supply of the _____ aircraft electrical system in normal
configuration.

A. entire B. 100% C. all

641. The sensors are calibrated at zero degree A/C pitch attitude. They have a range of operation
from ______ 5° to ______ 5° pitch attitude.

A. minimum / maximum B. least / most C. minus / plus

642. The VHF system is used for all _____-range voice communications.

A. in B. short C. low

643. _____ electrical power can be dangerous.

A. unwanted B. shutoff C. shutdown

644. _____ turn the pushbutton switch clockwise.

A. Smoothly B. Smoothed C. Smoothing

645. The aircraft navigation systems provide the crew with the data ______ for flight.

A. requiring B. requires C. required

646. A ______ panel is located on the center pedestal.

A. switch B. switching C. switches

647. Where the wire lengths do not _____ arrangement in accordance with para. 5.A, arrange splices
with 0.25 inch minimum spacing.

A. apply B. agree C. allow

648. The switches are _____ to close at 250°F.

A. fitted B. set C. monitored

649. The horn in the nose gear well must _____ as long as you push the CALLS/MECH pushbutton
switch.

A. operate B. apply C. trigger

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650. The clock is _____ with a built-in battery.

A. provided B. pointed C. performed

651. A short push action on the CLR key _____ the last character.

A. releases B. transmits C. erases

652. After a certain time period, the relay ____ and the cams ____ their position.

A. de-energizes / keep B. de-energizes / keeps C. is de-energized / keep

653. If the operator does not make any action for 10 s., the CMC, instead of _____ the current screen,
_____ the screen corresponding to the preceding level.

A. displaying / will display B. displaying / display C. to display / will display

654. These keys _____ the operator _____ data to a specific system.

A. enable / to enter B. enabling / enter C. enables / to enter

655. The system is also ____ as a data concentrator ____ data to other systems.

A. using / provide B. used / to provide C. using / provided

656. The AC emergency generator _____ part of the distribution network _____ in case of loss of the
main generation sources.

A. allows / to recover B. will allow / recovering C. allows / to be recovered

657. The generator is a 3-phase, _____, spray-oil cooled, rotating, rectifier machine.

A. brushless B. foolproof C. lintfree

658. The GCU ensures the _____ power quality of the aircraft electrical system.
A. requested B. required C. prerequisite

659. When the pilot decides not to land

A. go-round B. go-around C. go-back

660. Moment the wheels leave the ground

A. lift-off B. leave-off C. leave-up

661. Uncontrollable movement or heating

A. run-away B. run-up C. run-off

662. Dismantle, remove parts of assembly

A. move down B. bring down C. tear down

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663. Put the removal tool core in the fully extended position. make sure that its inner face aligns with
the bottom internal face of the outer tab lockwasher body. Align the _______ face of the tool with the
________ part of the lockwasher.

A. Inner/outer B. Extended/outer C. Extended/internal

664. Install the clamps, the collar and the __________ duct on the shutoff valve

A. Intake B. Input C. Inlet

665. Make a dummy connector with three jumper leads to simulate an installed LDMCR (lower deck
mobile crew rest compartment).

You need.

A. an electrician B. a simulator C. a wire loom

666. Lay the lockwire tails __________ on the surface and apply a 2 mm thick layer of SEALANTS

A. Deep B. Flat C. Safe

667. The rotating artificial feel mechanism consists of two levers and is hinged on a shaft held by the
rudder control frame, between which two paralell springs are installed.

A. Two springs are connected to the rudder control frame.

B. The artificial feel mechanism consists of a sharft.

C. Two springs are connected to two levers.

668. Make sure that the safety barriers are in position to prevent access to the landing gear door travel
ranges. You must stop

A. People B. gear movement C. hydraulic supply

669. One heat_____ power level only is available for the windows.

A. -ing B. “-“ C. ED

670. The input signals are __________ to the amount of pedal travel

A. mismatched B. binary C. Proportional

671. The nuts are safetied __________ prevent unwanted movement

A. in order to B. So C. Therefore

672. Beginning at the forward edge and working rearwards tighten the nuts in small increments so that
the clamping bars hold the fairing assembly fully engaged on the fairing supports.

A. Tighten the nuts at both sides

B. Tighten the nuts at the forward and rear edges

C. Tighten the nuts gradually

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673. The actuator body attaches to the butterfly and contains a rod. Two diaphragms divide the
actuator body into three chambers. A spring in the top chamber keeps the actuator rod in the extended
position.

The actuator rod is maintained extended by the.

A. bottom chamber B. three diaphragms C. top chamber

674. You cannot detect potential oil leaks with a __________ test

A. Motors B. Motor C. Motoring

675. __________ a bead of sealant around the retainer nuts __________ a sealing gun

A. Applying / using B. Apply / using C. To apply / using

676. Four __________ drain masts are located on the lower fuselage centerline

A. Heated B. Heater C. Heating

677. Use a respirator if you __________ smell vapors

A. Should B. Can C. Would

678. Raceways contain some electrical cables. They are made in U-sections from aluminum alloy with
a lynon coating. The mounting brackets are installed on the forward face of the front spar and the aft
face of the rear spar. Wiring is routed ________.

A. Throughout the wing B. Along the wing leading edge

C. Along the wing leading and trailing edge

679. Disconnect and remove the sense lines from the air cycle machine, the condenser and the water
extractor.
You must remove the __________ lines

A. Detection B. Supply C. Power

680. A trim air valve adds __________ hot air from the hot air manifold to the forward cargo
compartment.

A. A B. Several C. “ - “

681. The position of the rudder is __________ on the SD

A. Set B. Shown C. Signaled

682. The tank heater assembly is installed on the water tank. It is wrapped around the water tank and
held in position by the tension of loaded springs. The heating resistance is.

A. at the bottom of the tank B. in the center of the tank

C. around the outer surface of the tank

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683. Engine oil must be checked and __________ 5 minutes after each shutdown

A. Replenished B. Completed C. Filled

684. Choose the correct group of words.

A. fairing fillet triangular rudder B. triangular fillet rudder fairing

C. triangular rudder fillet fairing

685. Low heating or overcurrent or heating loss triggers a warning. Monitoring of the TAT sensors is
inhibited on the ground. A monitoring system activates when heating is incorrect.

A warning is caused by.

A. low current B. overvoltage C. absence of voltage

686. Work on the hydraulic system __________ be dangerous

A. Should B. Will C. Can

687. The loops are connected in parallel to a Fire Detection Unit (FDU). The connection is made
through an AND logic to avoid spurious FIRE warnings. If one loop fails, the AND becomes an OR
logic. The aircraft can be released in this configuration.

A. normally, both loops must detect a fire simultaneously

B. if one loop fails the OR logic becomes AND logic

C. two sets of loops avoid false warnings

688. Alternate braking with anti-skid. braking inputs are made only at the pedals. These operate a LP
system. This system causes the main hydraulic supply to go to the second set of pistons in the brakes.

The alternate braking system

A. is not provided with anti-skid B. operates another batch of pistons

C. operates at reduced pressure

689. The APU hoist and the remaining two mounts __________ support the APU when you remove
an APU mount

A. May B. Must C. Could

690. __________ a bead of sealant around the retainer nuts __________ a sealing gun

A. Apply / to use B. Applying / using C. Apply / using

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691. The actuator body attaches to the butterfly and contains a rod. Two diaphragms divide the
actuator body into three chambers. A spring in the top chamber keeps the actuator rod in the extended
position.

The actuator rod is maintained extended by the.

A. bottom chamber B. middle chamber C. top chamber

692. On the center pedestal, on the panel 115 VU, make sure that the RUD TRIM indicator shows 0.

This is ATA chapter.

A. 49 – APU B. 27 - flight controls C. 24 - elec. Power

693. You cannot detect potential oil leaks with a __________ test

A. Motors B. Motor C. Motoring

694. The nose gear must be compressed __________ than 8 inches before steering is attempted

A. Most B. Less C. More

695. A differential connects the hydraulic motors together. The hydraulic motors have a valve block.
The Pitch Trim Actuator controls the valve block. The valve block can also be operated by the THS
mechanical input.

The valve block is actuated.

A. Electrically B. Hydraulically

C. hydraulically and mechanically

696. Install the clamps, the collar and the __________ duct on the shutoff valve

A. Intake B. Ingress C. Inlet

697. Torque the union to __________ 120 and 140 lbf.

A. Between B. around C. From

698. Wiper operation __________ damage to a dry windshield

A. Cause B. causing C. will cause

699. Electrical power heats the system automatically when __________ of these conditions occurs

A. Some B. One C. Both

700. The valve __________ of a valve body with a butterfly __________ by a pneumatic actuator

A. consist / controls B. consists / controlled C. consist / to control

701. The DC tie contactor …………… (CONNECT) DC BUS 1 and DC BAT BUS.
A. CONNECTS B. CONNECTED C. WILL CONNECT

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702. The recorder is used …………… (RECORD) flight data.

A. TO RECORD B. TO RECORDING C. RECORDED

703. If an overpressure is.............................. (DETECT), the valve opens.

A. DETECTED B. DETECTING C. BEING DETECTED

704. The pump …………… (DELIVER) 80 1. a minute.

A. DELIVERS B. WILL DELIVER C. TO DELIVER

705. Propeller …………… (FEATHER) is automatic in the event of engine failure.

A. FEATHER B. FEATHERING C. TO FEATHER

706. The amber warning is …………… (TRIGGER) by an overheat.

A. TO TRIGGER B. TRIGGERED C. TRIGGERING

707. The cabin is _____ the hold.

A. Upper B. Over C. On

708. The cabin lights run ____ the ceiling.

A. On B. Out C. Along

709. The Purser station is at the ______ of the cabin.

A. Behind B. Front C. Forward

710. The main landing gear is _____ the wing.

A. Behind B. Below C. Under

711. The cargo compartments are _____ the lower deck.

A. On B. Under C. Behind

712. The circuit breaker is _____ the panel.

A. At B. On C. In

713. The tanks are located _____ ribs 1 and 4.

A. On B. Between C. Within

714. The insulator is _____ the wire.

A. On B. At C. Around

715. The cable passes ____ the cut out.

A. Along B. Over C. Through

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716. The indicator is not ____ the red index. It’s OK.

A. Out of B. Beyond C. Within

717. The lever is used ______ the flaps.

A. extend B. to extend C. extending.

718. ______ the circuit, pull the circuit breaker.

A. Opening B. To open C. Open

719. If the tire is ______, _______ it.

A. wear/ remove B. wore/ removed C. worn/ remove

720. _____ the door _____ access to the refuel/ de-fuel coupling.

A. Opening/ to have B. Open/ have C. Open/ to have

721. The EMER EXIT LT switch ______ three positions.

A. have B. has C. having

722. _____ the hot parts to prevent burns

A. Touch B. Touching C. Don’t touch

723. During the flight the escape slide _____.

A. are armed B. armed C. is armed

724. The fittings _____ bolted ____ the pylon

A. are/ to B. are being bolted/ in C. be/ on

725. The line _____ by a clamp.

A. is maintained B. are maintained C. being maintained

726. Flap _____ triggers a warning

A. jam B. jamming C. jams

727. These screws ___fit. They are too big.

A. not B. haven’t C. don’t

728. If you press this button a light_____

A. will go on B. don’t go on C. have gone on

729. There ____ a lot of defective seats in the workshop yesterday.

A. were B. have C. was

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730. All our planes ____ checked regularly.

A. will B. are C. is

731. The First Officer is the person _______ sits on the left hand side in the cockpit.

A. whose B. which C. who

732. Be careful when the engine_____

A. run B. have run C. is running

733. The pilot ______ extend the landing gear before landing.

A. shall be B. must C. doesn’t have to

734. 1708. Frame 22 is _____frame 21 and frame 23.

A. in front of B. between C. after

735. Landing gear _____ and ____ .

A. are retracted/ locked B. retract/lock C. is retracted/ locked

736. A defective part ______ whenever it is necessary.

A. is changed B. are changed C. was changed

737. ______ electrical ground power unit.

A. Disconnect B. Remove C. Close

738. _____ the blue light illuminates.

A. Release B. Reset C. Observe

739. ______ START push-button.

A. Record B. Depress C. Ensure

740. _____ a new unit.

A. Install B. Remove C. Release

741. _____ push button.

A. Release B. Set C. Observe

742. _____ covers are removed

A. Set B. Monitor C. Ensure

743. _____ the electrical connectors

A. Install B. Connect C. Place

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744. A device which ignites

A. Ignitor B. Igniting C. Igniter

745. _____ the electrical network

A. Energize B. Depressurize C. Pressurize

746. _____ any anomalies

A. Ensure B. Set C. Record

747. _____ the jack under the shock absorber.

A. Unlock B. Tighten C. Place

748. ______ the rotary selector to ‘NORM’.

A. Place B. Reset C. Press

749. ____ caps on coupling

A. Disconnect B. Install C. De-energize

750. _____ the four fasteners

A. Close B. Remove C. Tighten

751. In direction contrary to clock

A. clockwise B. counterclockwise C. downlocked

752. The extension fitting _____ on the door.

A. installation B. install C. is not installed

753. Entry for air on engine

A. intake B. inboard C. inlet

754. A/c returns to departure

A. Turnaround B. turnback C. pushback

755. Time between a/c arrival and departure

A. downtime B. turnaround C. mismatch

756. A component which heats

A. heater B. heated C. head

757. An assembly which mixes

A. mixered B. mixing C. mixer

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758. The fuction of detection

A. senes B. sensing C. sensor

759. Turning in different directions

A. counterrotating B. counterclockwise C. counterorder

760. Front section of flap

A. before flap B. forelap C. foreflap

761. A lever that rocks

A. rocked B. rocking C. rocking lever

762. What is the contrary of the word FRAGILE

A. ease B. inert C. tough

763. What is the contrary of the “hollow”

A. rigid B. solid C. foil

764. Which can be bent?

A. glass B. wire C. wood

765. Flexible. Made of rubber or plastic. Cylindrical. 3-4 cm in diameter.

A. rod B. tab C. hose

766. Conical with rounded end. Often black. Hollow. Mounted on end of fuselage.

A. radome B. fairing C. tube

767. The surface which reflects

A. sun shy B. shiny C. clear

768. which can you break easily?

A. metal B. glass C. paper

769. Which material is often used for structure?

A. fabric B. glass C. alloy

770. Which material is used for brake discs?

A. composites B. carbone C. resine

771. Wheel base

A. distance from nose gear to main gear B. distance between two main gears
C. distance from side to side

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772. Sealant ____ every 500 hours.

A. is apply B. are apply C. is applied

773. Maintenance practices ____ the Authorities’ requirements .

A. must fulfill B. may be fulfilled C. must fulfilled

774. Datum fuselage length

A. total fuselage length B. design length C. _

775. distance from side to side

776. The distance from ground to lowest point on aircraft or engine.

A. ground distance B. ground clearance C. altitude

777. The purpose of the _____ is to control the ailerons.

A. control wheel B. rudder pedal C. throttle levers

778. The _____ is used to adjust the lights.

A. antenna B. dim knob C. spoiler

779. The _____ is designed for _____ signals.

A. constant speed drive/ transmitted B. batteries/ transmit

C. antenna/ transmitting

780. The _____ is made _____ unions and ensure tightness.

A. compressor casing/ to seal B. filter/ seal C. O-ring/ to seal

781. The ground power unit ___ electrical power on the ground.
A. provides B. provided C. providing

782. The ____ is designed ______ (catch, collect) particles.

A. compressor casing/ to trap B. filter/ to trap C. spoiler/ trapping

783. The purpose of the ______ is ____ turns and reduce lift on the wing.

A. spoiler/ to coordinate B. temperature sensor/ coordinated

C. control wheel/ coordinating

784. The _____ is used to rotate the generator at the same speed.

A. throttle lever B. control wheel C. constant speed drive

785. The ____ serves to draw (suck, recover) oil or fuel.

A. check valve/ drawing B. scavenge pump/ to draw C. temperature sensor/ drawing

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786. The _______ provides a flow in one direction.

A. control wheel B. rudder pedals C. check valve

787. The ____ enables temperature monitoring.

A. temperature sensor B. dim knob C. spoiler

788. The purpose of the ____ is to _____ the aircraft on the yaw axis.

A. rudder pedals/ control B. control wheel/ controlling C. throttle levers/ controlled

789. They are used to cool the brakes.

A. airbrakes B. brake fans C. pitot tube

790. Its purpose is to distribute electrical power.

A. electrical pump B. proximity detector C. bus bar

791. They enable the a/c to be raised off the ground for maintenance.

A. jacks B. escape slide C. seat rails

792. On arrival, the flight crew may _____ technical assistance from the station.

A. reorder B. request C. requested

793. They are used to increase and decrease engine thrust.

A. cross feed valve B. horizontal stabilizer C. throttle levers

794. Its purpose is to connect the fuel tanks in the two wings.

A. cross feed valve B. electrical pump C. servo controls

795. The absence of the washer does not affect installation ____ it should be
mounted at the next removal.

A. in addition B. however C. so

796. Cables are worn ____ an absence of protection.

A. due to B. despite C. because

797. The standby system is used ____ the main system fails.

A. if B. whereas C. and

798. The amplifier is designed ____ give the flight crew priority over the hostess.

A. but B. and C. so as to

799. The seal is old ____ it must be replaced.

A. however B. so as to C. so

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800. The outflow valve is operated ____ regulate cabin pressure.

A. due to B. in order to C. until

801. The part is serviceable …………… it must be removed.

A. but B. therefore C. where as

802. The rain repellent system is not used ____ the rain is very heavy.

A. as soon as B. unless C. despite

803. Only original parts should be used but approved equivalent parts ______ be installed.

A. can B. may C. should

804. Water _______ accumulate in the lower fuselage.

A. may B. can C. should

805. The hand pump ______ pressurize the yellow system.

A. May B. must C. can

806. ______ the washer is perished, the union ______ .

A. when / may leak B. when / will leak C. if / may leak

807. It is _____ to inform the Captain _____ any dangerous cargo.

A. compulsory / of B. need/ about C. good/ on

808. _____ normal servo-valve failure, the alternate servo-valve will take over.

A. In event of B. in the event of C. in case

809. You _______ use a mask when you cut composite materials
A. must B. should C. can

810. The A321 is ____the A320

A. longer than B. shorter than C. as long as

811. Steel brakes wear ____carbon brakes

A. more slowly than B. less slowly than C. as slowly as

812. There is __fuel in the outer tank ___in the inner tank

A. as much/as B. more/than C. less/than

813. The landing speed is ____when the flaps are fully extended

A. lower B. higher C. faster

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814. There are __seats in the Economy Class ___the First Class.

A. more/than B. less/than C. fewer/than

815. The non-reinforced areas offer ____ resistance ____the reinforced areas

A. better/than B. worse/than C. the best/over

816. Fail safe systems have ______probability of failure ____other systems

A. more/than B. less/than C. as much/as

817. The anti-shimmy prevents the nose gear from _____.

A. vibrate B. vibrated C. vibrating

818. To increase engine thrust, ______ the throttle levers.

A. advance B. advanced C. advancing

819. Any leaking toilet fluid ______ the side of the fuselage.

A. spreads along B. spread along C. spread in

820. The rudder _____ 250 right.

A. deflect B. deflection C. deflects

821. The windshield wipers _____ the _____.

A. sweeps/glass B. sweep/windshield C. sweep/window

822. The crew seats can ____

A. tilted up B. be tilted along C. be tilted forwards

823. The window _____ its side of the flight deck.

A. slides on B. slide in C. slide along

824. Over flow drains _____ the side of the casing.

A. protrude B. protrude from C. protrude above

825. What is the contrast in the following words?

A. Drop B. fall C. increase

826. _____ the male plug _____ the socket.

A. inserting/into B. insert/out C. insert/into

827. _____ the A/C ____ the painted line.

A. tow/on B. towing/on C. towing/in

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828. _____ speed _____350 to 280 knots.

A. Increase/from B. Decrease/from C. Increase/up

829. The A/C is _____ its downwind leg.

A. turning into B. turning onto C. turning up to

830. It takes 10 man-hours ____ the unit.

A. to dismantle B. for dismantle C. dismantle

831. An _____ scale displays the values in the middle range of the VSI.

A. expanding B. expansion C. expanded

832. ____ the crank handle extends the gear in an emergency.

A. Turn B. Turning C. Turn on

833. The Mode Annunciator ………… the crew of the autopilot modes engaged.

A. informs B. reports C. tells

834. The secondary flight controls …………… the spoilers.

A. include B. includes C. including

835. The Outflow Valve is ………… a Vacuum Relief Diaphragm.

A. equipped to B. provided to C. fitted with

836. The Audio Control Panel …………… on the center pedestal.

A. are mounted B. is mounted C. mounts

837. The anti-skid systems ………… the wheels ………… locking

A. prevent/ to B. prevents/ from C. prevent/ from

838. Bird-strikes ………… during take-off or approach.

A. usually occur B. occur usually C. usually happens

839. …………… channel 1…………… channel 2 may lead.

A. neither/ or B. either/ or C. either/ nor

840. The screen can be ..................... by pressing the CLR Key.

A. cleared B. safeguarded C. updated

841. . ………… pilot has ………… oxygen mask.

A. every/a B. each/ a C. each/ an

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842. The box only ………… a few minutes ………… warm up.

A. takes/ to B. take/ to C. take/ for

843. ……….. the tires …………… cuts, wear and general condition.

A. Checks/ for B. Check/ to C. Check/ for

844. The wheel brake is .................. upon an order from the anti-skid.

A. released B. cleared C. deployed

845. A short circuit can cause the circuit breaker to be ...................

A. safetied B. set C. tripped

846. The ground spoilers are …………… before landing.

A. armed B. grounded C. secured

847. During the pre-flight check, the parking brake is ......................

A. released B. applied C. hot

848. Check that all the doors and surfaces are ........................ with the fuselage.

A. clean B. shut C. flush

849. The parking brake is ……… for pushback.

A. applied B. set C. released

850. Circuit Breaker 16 XY shall be pulled and ………… before any work is performed on the
system.

A. safetied B. set C. tripped

851. Each unit is ………… before acceptance testing.

A. cleared B. debugged C. issued

852. The thrust reverser doors are ………… during landing roll-out.

A. Closed B. shut C. deployed

853. The spoilers are ………… asymmetrically for turn coordination.

A. extended B. retracted C. deflected

854. The Light is ……………, the GPU can be cut in.

A. flashing B. dimmed C. illuminated

855. When the thrust reverse levers are pulled, the reverser doors are ..................

A. stowed B. closed C. deployed

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856. A voltage divider provides the voltages necessary to forward bias CR21, ………… allowing the
detector to operate in the linear portion of the characteristic curve of the diode.

A. so B. then C. thus

857. The plane has been grounded …………… three days.

A. since B. for C. from

858. Troubleshooting lasts ………… the failure is identified.

A. until B. during C. while

859. The ground engineer ………… any anomalies to the flight crew.

A. informs B. advises C. reports

860. The assembly …………. of G, H, I, J, K.

A. comprises B. consists C. includes

861. The rocking lever …………… the pilot to control the pitch trim electrically.

A. enables B. provides C. ensures

862. He ………… the Service Bulletin on the aircraft by performing the modifications.

A. embodies B. conforms C. obeys

863. The center tank ………… making a "tech stop" for refueling on long flights.

A. prevents B. avoids C. stops

864. A Vacuum Relief Diaphragm is …………… on the Outflow Valve.

A. equipped B. fitted C. mounted

865. ………… a hydraulic system failure, the P.T.U. is used

A. In event of B. In the case of C. in the event of

866. The number of man-hours …………

A. can be assessed B. can assess C. could assess

867. The engineering division ………… into Maintenance, Material, Overhaul, and Design

A. broken B. is broken down C. is broken

868. The CSD ……….. the generator ………… rotate at a constant speed.

A. allows/ of B. permits/ to C. enables/ in

869. We enforce the Directive. We …………… the instructions.

A. conform with B. comply to C. comply with

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870. The main gear is ................... with a locking sleeve during a night stop.

A. earthed B. safetied C. armed

871. With the G.P.U. connected, the aircraft is ....................

A. in transit B. hot C. de-energized

872. The system is ..................... through a bonding strip.

A. latched B. locked C. earthed

873. The controls ____ and placarded during the test.

A. is safetied to B. are safetied C. are connected to

874. The landing gear control unit ____ several systems.

A. are interfaced with B. is interfaced in C. is interfaced with

875. The hand mikes ____ the side consoles

A. are connected to B. are connected with C. is connecting to

876. The power setting ______ the take-off weight, the Outside Air Temperature and the altitude of
the field.

A. is related to B. are related to C. are related with

877. There _____ 3 mm. play ____ the door and fuselage

A. are/between B. is/between C. is/ ”-“

878. Fan blade _____ is the distance ____the tip of the fan blades and the casing.

A. moving/ through B. space/ to C. clearance/between

879. The abstract connection is ____

A. relation B. the relation C. related

880. What type of connection do you use to articulate on free-rotating connection?

A. mounted B. hinged C. hooked

881. Connection between two metal parts

A. metal-to-metal B. metal-with-metal C. metal and metal

882. The PLAY in the mechanism must not exceed ____.

A. 4 mm. B. 3 mm. C. 2 mm.

883. Cabin with two aisles

A. twin aisle cabin B. twin aisles cabin C. dual aisle cabins

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884. Fastener that can be disconnected quickly

A. quickly disconnect fastener B. quick disconnected fastener C. quick disconnect fastener

885. Door between flight deck and cabin

A. flight deck doors B. flight deck door C. flights deck door

886. The aircrafts____ their base ____ the Company frequency.

A. are linked to/ by B. is linked to/ by C. is linked by/ to

887. They are partly superimposed

A. overlapping B. cover lapping C. rear mounting

888. It can be adjusted

A. adjust it self B. adjusted it self C. adjustable

889. Not affected by impacts

A. proof-shocks B. shocks-proof C. shock-proof

890. It has an independent means of lubrication

A. self lubricating B. self lubricated C. self-lubricate

891. Insert a safety pin to ____the gear from retracting.

A. prevent B. let C. avoid

892. All the terms and conditions must be_____

A. required B. fulfilled C. apply

893. The motor ____servicing every 700 cycles

A. need B. asks for C. requires

894. ___the oil _____before checking the level

A. Make/cool B. let/cool C. let/cooling

895. The cabin is _______glass wool blankets

A. isolated with B. covered with C. insulated with

896. _________the oil level in the tank

A. fill B. replenish C. fulfill

897. The engines are ______the _____

A. mounted on/pylons B. attached to/pylon C. linked to/pylon

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898. The valve regulates ____flow ______shuts off the supply

A. “_”/and also B. the/ and also C. the/ and

899. The computer _____the engine speed

A. control B. retards C. controls

900. The crew _________ this problem on the ____flight

A. experienced/previous B. experienced/current C. experience/last

901. In ___case of a leak, that part of the system is ______

A. the/ delayed B. “__”/isolated C. the/isolated

902. There is a short ______on the board

A. circuit B. transient C. shock

903. To ______thrust, ___the throttle levers

A. reduce/retard B. decrease/depress C. increase/retard

904. The synonym of “important”

A. high quality B. significant C. big

905. The synonym of “standby”

A. alternative B. alternating C. supply

906. The blue system failed, but the crew _____ the flight

A. stayed B. overrode C. pursued

907. In case of fire, ____ the

A. cut out B. shut down C. cut in

908. A generator driven by the engine

A. Driven engine B. Driven generator C. Engine-driven generator

909. A plug that can not be connected incorrectly

A. proofed plug B. un-fool plug C. fool proofed plug

910. Rod moving longitudinally

A. pull-push B. push-pull C. pulling push

911. Slow, unwanted flow of fluid

A. seepage B. over flow C. spillage

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912. Small fragment missing from edge of part

A. chip B. ship C. piece

913. The alarm goes off at 7.20.

A. stops B. rings C. goes down

914. When the generator ………… is too high, the galley is shed.

A. load B. peak C. range

915. Any ………… in voltage is detected by the voltmeter

A. Drop B. drops C. dropping

916. One foot equals______ meters

A. 0.3068 B. 0.3058 C. 0.3048

917. One yard equals _______meters

A. 0.914 B. 0.814 C. 0.714

918. Jane had gone to the supermarket………..she got home.

A. as soon as B. after C. before

919. Wiring is …………… in critical areas.

A. soldered B. shielded C. swaged

920. One nautical mile equals ____meters

A. 1,853 B. 1,835 C. 1,385

921. Do you enjoy……………..cartoons?

A. watching B. to watch C. watch

922. One US gallon is about____ liters

A. 3.875 B. 3.587 C. 3.785

923. Small bend in wire

A. twist B. wind C. kink

924. How can you read “3/4”.

A. three fouth B. third fourths C. three fourths

925. How can you read “12.34”.

A. twelve point thirty four B. twelve point three four C. one two point three four

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926. How can you write “20th”

A. twentyth B. twentith C. twentieth

927. Preceding, the one before.

A. previous B. following C. after

928. ……………lessons do you have everyday?

A. How much B. How many C. What kind

929. The ……………… burn-off (trip fuel) was 600 kg more than planned.

A. actual B. estimated C. present

930. There is a ………………. amount of fuel under the engine.

A. large B. wide C. many

931. . …………...the oil level in the gearbox.

A. fill B. replenish C. fill in

932. …………... the push-button and observe the lights come on.

A. pull B. release C. push

933. In case of a leak, that part of the system is ……………

A. isolated B. insulated C. protected

934. Only use …………….. quality products.

A. important B. significant C. good

935. Set the master lever to OFF. ………… press the APU fire push-button.
A. after B. next C. then

936. There is an ……………., back-up supply.

A. alternating B. alternative C. oscillating

937. She expected..............the English club.

A. joined B. to joining C. to join

938. When machine is unserviceable

A. turnaround B. downtime C. step-down

939. Mark values on a curve

A. layer B. thread C. plot

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940. Part of a circuit, etc.

A. stage B. trip C. thread

941. Remove dirt with cloth, etc.

A. coat B. wipe C. sweep

942. The final examination will be held ……………… Jan 18th, 2012

A. on B. in C. at

943. The clock is ______ with a built-in battery.

A. provided B. pointed C. performed

944. A short push action on the CLR key _____the last character.

A. releases B. transmits C. erases

945. After a certain time period, the relay _____and the cams keep their position.

A. de-energizes B. is de-energized C. is de-energized

946. If the operator does not make any action for 10 s., the CMC, instead of ____ the current screen,
will display the screen corresponding to the preceding level.

A. to display B. display C. displaying

947. These keys _____the operator ____data to a specific system.

A. enable / to enter B. enables / to enter C. will enable / entering

948. The system is also ____ as a data concentrator _____data to other systems.

A. using / provide B. used / to provide C. using / provided

949. The AC emergency generator _____ part of the distribution network ____ in case of loss of the
main generation sources.

A. allows / to recover B. will allow / recovering C. allows / to be recovered

950. The generator is a 3-phase, _____, spray-oil cooled, rotating, rectifier machine.

A. brushless B. foolproof C. fire-resistant

951. The GCU ensures the ______power quality of the aircraft electrical system.

A. requested B. required C. prerequisite

952. If the amplifier output signal disappears or becomes too ____, a search cycle is triggered.

A. hard B. soft C. weak

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953. The height information has been duplicated, allowing a _____comparison of the computed
heights.

A. cross B. relevant C. digital

954. Remove the _____ bulb from its socket.

A. serviceable B. alternating C. defective

955. Uneven or ragged faces ______not seat properly in contact or connector.

A. should B. will C. must

956. Splices _____ not be installed inside connector backshells/adapters.

A. may B. would C. shall

957. Electrocution is ____ if the AC or DC power stays connected.

A. possible B. mandatory C. optional

958. Do not touch the strobe lights for at least 5 minutes after operation. The strobe light _____ still be
hot.

A. must B. shall C. will

959. The computer is active _____ the aircraft is supplied with electrical power.

A. until B. as long as C. unless

960. He will be asked ___a presentation at next month’s staff meeting.

A. give B. to give C. to giving

961. The number of the part

A. Number part B. Part number C. Part numbers

962. The support of the seal

A. Supporting seal B. Support Seals C. Seal support

963. A container for storage

A. Storage container B. Containing storage C. Container storage

964. The frame of the compressor

A. Compressor frame B. Compressing frame C. Frame compressor

965. Areas that are welded

A. Welding areas B. Area’s welding C. Welded areas

966. Make sure the reading on the gage is ________ these limits.

A. along B. within C. behind

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967. Operate the pump ________ full load.

968. A. in B. on C. under

Position the steps ________ the access door.

A. below B. above C. on

969. Put shrouding ________ the pipes.

A. in B. across C. around

970. Warning. Before proceeding with maintenance work on or near mechanical flight controls or
primary flight control surfaces, landing gears, associated doors or any moving component, make
certain that ground safeties and/or warning notices are in correct position to prevent inadvertent
operation of control. Which of the below action noneeds to obey this warning?

A. Access to avionic compartment B. Test flaps operation.

C. Open bulk cargo door.

971. Caution. Cut the tube slowly and smoothly to make sure that the end of the tube does not change
its shape. Which of the following is correct?

A. Cut the tube carefully to keep its shape stay the same.

B. Do not cut the tube fast to change its shape.

C. Make sure that the end of the tube is not broken

972. The transformer rectifier (TR), which is supplied by the 400Hz, 115/200 volt three phase
network, has an output voltage of 28 VDC and a nominal amperage of 150A. The TR operates without
ventilation up to mid-load. Beyond this point, the fan is put into operation automatically by an
electronic module. Which of the following is correct?
A. If the load is less than 50%, the fan will operate automatically.

B. Without ventilation, the TR can operate properly if the load is less than 50%.

C. The TR operates without ventilation beyond mid-load.

973. … Once the values from the EFIS control panels show on the Mode Control Panel (MCP), they
stay on the MCP even if you change the EFIS control panel barometric minimums. The MCP rounds
up to the next 10 feet. So if you select a barometric minimums value of 181 feet, the MCP shows 190
feet. Which of the following is correct?

A. The scale of MCP is 10 feet.

B. The MCP will show whatever numbers selected in EFIS control panels.

C. The barometric minimums value of MCP is 190 feet

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974. The purpose of this telex is to inform all A320 operators that a number of A320 IDG magnetic
pick-up (MPU) speed sensors were manufactured with the noise cancellation coil wired in reverse. In
this configuration the function of the coil is no longer realized and in fact noise may be added in the
MPU signal. Which of the following is correct?

A. The noise cancellation coil operates normally.

B. IDG magnetic pick-up (MPU) speed sensors were wired in reverse.

C. The noise cancellation coil is malfunctioned.

975. The product improvements which were introduced via service bulletins 1431 and 1471 are not
demonstrating the reliability improvements which were anticipated. Which of the following is correct?

A. Service bulletins 1431 and 1471 are not demonstrating the reliability improvements.

B. The product improvements are not demonstrating the reliability improvements.

C. The product improvements are demonstrating the reliability improvements.

976. Caution. Operation at minimum idle in icing conditions is permissible for extended periods. If
the condition exceed 30 minutes or if significant engine vibration occurs; the engine should be
accelerated to 70%N1 minimum for approximately 15 seconds duration prior to higher thrust
operation.

If there are large engine vibration in icing conditions, you must.

A. Stop the engine in 15s

B. Operate the engine at more than 70%N1 for 15s

C. Operate the engine at less than 70%N1

977. Soldering equipments must be well grounded. When soldering and unsoldering a solid state
device, use a heat sink on the leads to prevent damage to the device.

To prevent damage to transistors, you must install a heat sink on.

A. The contact of the component B. he soldering iron

C. The ground

978. Caution. Use two wrenches to hold the fittings when you torque the oil-in and oil-out lines. If not
you can transmit to much torque to the IDG fittings and cause damage to the IDG bosses.

2 wrenches are necessary to tighten the ________ of the IDG.

A. Fastener B. Oil lime attachment fittings C. Oil inlet and outlet line

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979. Beginning at the forward edge and working rearwards tighten the nuts in small increments so that
the clamping bars hold the fairing assembly fully engaged on the fairing supports.

A. Only partially tighten the nuts

B. Tighten the nuts gradually

C. Tighten the nuts at the forward and rear edges

980. Put the removal tool core in the fully extended position. make sure that its inner face aligns with
the bottom internal face of the outer tab lockwasher body. Align the _______ face of the tool with the
________ part of the lockwasher.

A. Inner/outer B. Inner/internal C. Extended/outer

981. Most of the shroud box is made from composite material, but it has 5 ribs of aluminum alloy. the
trailing edge of the shroud box has a honeycomb core and a rubbing strip made of Fabroid ________
the shroud box has a honeycomb core.

A. The front of B. The rear of C. The top of

982. The fan cowls are made from epoxy skins that contain a nomex honeycomb core and copper
screen. Lands provide an interface with the intake cowl at the forward end, and with the thrust reverser
at the aft end. The rear edge of the fan cowls touches.

A. The exhaust nozzle B. The turbine casing C. The thrust reverser

983. The rotating artificial feel mechanism consists of two levers and is hinged on a shaft held by the
rudder control frame, between which two parallel springs are installed.

A. Two springs are connected to the rudder control frame.

B. The artificial feel mechanism is installed on the rudder control frame.

C. Two springs are connected to two levers.

984. The stage 3 LPT nozzle assembly includes 18 nickel alloy segments of 7 vane airfoils each with
integral inner stationary air seals. The third LPT stage nozzle assembly has ______ vanes.

A. 126 B. 378 C. 18

985. Excessive white light will interfere with detection of a rejectable size indication. A test part
having a known defect can be used to evaluate effectiveness of white light shielding. You may need a
_________ to do this inspection.

A. Shield B. Second light source C. Sample

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986. Raceways contain some electrical cables. They are made in U-sections from aluminum alloy with
a nylon coating. The mounting brackets are installed on the forward face of the front spar and the aft
face of the rear spar. Wiring is routed ________.

A. Along the wing leading and trailing edge B. Along the wing trailing edge

C. Throughout the wing

987. The main source of electrical power is the two 400 Hz constant frequency 90 KVA AC
generators, each of which is driven mechanically by an engine through a constant speed drive unit
(CSD). Which of the following is correct?

A. There are two 400 Hz variable frequency 90KVA AC generator on aircraft.

B. The main source of electrical power is driven mechanically by an engine through a CSD

C. Each AC generator is driven electrically by an engine through a CSD

988. 400Hz Single-phase 115 Volt AC network.

A single- phase static inverter, supplied by the “emergency” DC busbar, supplies the “emergency”
AC busbar in case of failure of the main AC network.

If main AC network fail, the “emergency” AC busbar will get power from.

A. A 400Hz three-phase 115Volt AC network B. A 50Hz three-phase 220Volt AC network

C. A single-phase static inverter

989. If you remove the fire extinguisher bottles in a closed hangar, make sure that there is a flow of
new air in the hangar. Which of the following is correct?
A. Only removing the fire extinguisher bottles in a closed hangar when it is ventilated.

B. Make sure that there is a flow of new air in the hangar when you extinguish fire in a closed
hangar.

C. Close the hangar when you remove the fire extinguisher bottles.

990. Two synchro pickoffs at the wing tips detect any asymmetrical extension of the flaps, such
detection results in the control unit internal brakes locking the hydraulic motors, thus preventing
further movement of the flaps.

A. The synchro pickoffs at the wing tips detect any extension of the flaps.

B. The syncho pickoffs are used to detect the asymmetry when the flaps extend.

C. The synchro pickoffs prevent the movement of the flaps

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991. Warning. Before proceeding with the maintenance work on the wing ice protection system, make
certain that pneumatic system is depressurized, and install warning notices prohibiting its
pressurization. Install flaps and slat control lever locking tool.

Which statement is NOT correct?

Before doing maintenance on wing ice protection system, you must…

A. Depressurize the pneumatic system

B. Lock flaps and slat control lever

C. Installing warning notices to pressurize the pneumatic system

992. You open the APU vent doors first to permit air to go into the APU compartment. This makes
pressure the same in the APU compartment and permits you to open the main APU doors when the
APU is on.

Which of the following is true?

A. Opening the APU vent doors makes pressure the same in the APU compartment.

B. When the APU is on, the pressure is the same in the APU compartment

C. APU compartment pressure is the same when you open the main APU doors

993. The PFCS also includes the speedbrakes. The spoilers not only supply roll control but also are
speedbrakes in the air and on the ground. They extend on the two wings to increase drag and to
decrease the lift supplied by the wings.

A. The spoilers supply roll control in the air and on the ground only.

B. The spoilers extend on the two wings to reduce the drag of the airplane.
C. Spoilers are used to control airplane roll and speedbrake as well.

994. The three primary flight computers (PFCs) and the four actuator control electronics (ACEs) have
interfaces with the flight controls data buses.

The L PFC, C PFC and R PFC receive data from all three flight controls data buses but transmit
data only on their on-side data bus.

A. L PFC can receive and transmit data from/to left data bus.

B. R PFC can receive and transmit data from/to left and right data bus.

C. C PFC can receive and transmit data from/to all three flight controls data buses.

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Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C
BEARING OIL SUPPLY TUBE

Recently, two CFM 56-3C operators ______(1) oil leaking from the AFT cowl area. Both engines
______ (2) within 600 to 850 flight hours since new. Trouble-shooting _______ (3) an external oil
leak _____ (4) the LPT frame, located at the oil supply and scavenge tube exits ______ (5) struts 5 and
6. Origin of the leak ______(6) to be a crack in the number 5 bearing oil damper cavity supply tube,
close to the inlet cover fitting weld joint. In both _____ (7), the faulty tube was replaced on-wing and
the aircraft was released for revenue service.

The affected hardware is under investigation _____ (8) the cause of the crack and define corrective
actions.

If leaks from a N0. 5 bearing oil damped cavity supply tube _____ (9), a procedure is available to
replace the tube on-wing. This procedure _____ (10) in service bulletin 72-472, targeted to be issued
before June 30.

We will keep you informed as further information becomes available.

1. A. experiment B. experienced C. experience

2. A. being B. are C. were

3. A. were revealed B. reveals C. revealed

4. A. in B. on C. from

5. A. from B. between C. to

6. A. determined B. was determined C. being determined

7. A. casa B. case C. cases

8. A. established B. establish C. to establish

9. A. are confirmed B. will be confirmed C. were confirmed

10. A. is incorporated B. will be incorporated C. can be incorporated

Read the following paragraph and then decide which is True (A) or False (B) or Not given (C).
WINGS GENERAL

The wings are joined at the fuselage side to a center wing box built integrally with the fuselage
each comprises a primary structure of box – type construction, auxiliary structure and movable
flight surfaces. The main gear is supported by the continuation of the primary structure aft of the
rear spar.

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The primary structure consists mainly of machined spars, ribs and stringer reinforced top and
bottom main skins, and is utilized as two fuel tanks with boundaries formed by the front and rear
spars and ribs 1, 14 and 27. Design of these tanks provides that primary sealing is by the
mechanical attachment of the structural members with the additional use of polysulphide sealants.
The fasteners used are mainly steel and titanium Hi-Lok or Taper-Lok type bolts and light alloy
Drivematic rivets. Bolt location diagrams, which identify each bolt position in the skins between
the front and rear spars, are available on request under Drawing number R571.40138 for B2
airplanes and R571.40141 for B4 airplanes.

With the exception of ribs 2 and 15, the intervening ribs act as fuel baffles. Ribs 2 and 15 are
partially sealed and fitted with clack valves which permit the fuel to flow inboard only. The area
between ribs 27 and 29 is utilized as a fuel surge vent tank.

Access to the fuel tank interior is through removable manhole covers in the bottom skin panels.

No Sentences TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

(A) (B) (C)

1 Each wing comprises three main parts

2 The main gear is attached to the wing center box

3 The spars are assembled

4 There are 29 ribs

5 The fuel tanks are formed by the two spars and ribs
1, 13, 27

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C
CABLE RE-ROUTING

TITLE: Fuel-general-Re-routing of cable for high level sensor in outer tank.

There have been occurrences ______ (1) the high level sensor cable between ribs 26 and 27 in the
outer fuel tank ______ (2). The clipping and routing of the cable coupled ____ (3) excessive slack
between “P” clips could allow it _____ (4) against the support canister for _____(5) magnetic level
indicator (MLI).

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_____ (6) cable chafing, this modification _____ (7) locally manufactured longer cleats and a reversal
of the “P” clips _____ (8) the cable. To prevent further cable sag, “P” clips of a smaller size _____ (9)
to grip the cable tighter. This ensures that adequate clearance _____ (10) between the cable and the
MLI support canister.

1. A. where B. when C. while

2. A. has chafed B. has found chafed C. has been found chafed

3. A. in B. within C. with

4. A. chafe B. to chafe C. chafing

5. A. the B. this C. a

6. A. Prevent B. Preventing C. To prevent

7. A. introduction B. introduced C. introduces

8. A. supporting B. support C. supported

9. A. are using B. are used C. are

10. A. maintaining B. is maintained C. is maintaining

Read the following paragraph and then decide which is True (A) or False (B) or Not given (C).

ENGINE FLAME-OUT

Subject: Single engine flame out in flight due to fuel starvation

Description:
To identify the control Knob configuration. Please note that following wing tank/cross feed valve
Knobs exist.

P/N NM87-1006-3 (isolation valve), NM87-1011-4 (X-feed valve): basic version with a round bore,
fit-table to the flat drive shaft by special installation instructions only (should not be in service any
more).

Since no P/N is engraved on the control Knobs, a physical check of the bore is to be performed by
removing the control Knobs.

Airbus Industrie strongly recommend applying the test procedure as per AMM 28-21-00, page block
400, subsequent to control Knob reinstallation, thus assuring that the tank isolation valves and X-feed
valve are actually open.

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No Sentences TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

(A) (B) (C)

1 There was an engine fire in flight

2 Fuel flow was stopped to one engine

3 The fuel lever was set to OFF

4 Airbus Industry recommends operators to check P/N on

Knob

5 The bore of the old Knob is circular.

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C
WASTE BIN FIRE EXTINGUISHER

This Service Bulletin introduces ____ (1)new fire extinguisher _____(2) each lavatory waste container
area. _____ (3) new fire extinguishers have modified discharge tubes _____ (4) enable them to be
installed in a vertical position ____ (5) the discharge tubes below. This increases the discharge
efficiency ____ (6) the units.

DESCRIPTION

Accomplishment of this Service Bulletin consists of :

- ____ (7) the bulk heading (with the fire extinguisher attached) and waste chute from the waste
container area of _____ (8) lavatory.

- Installing the new fire extinguishers ____ (9) the waste chutes.

- Installing the temperature plates on the waste chutes

- Installing the waste chutes ____ (10) the bulk headings.

1. A. the B. “-“ C. a

2. A. at B. in C. on

3. A. The B. A C. This

4. A. then B. which C. whom

5. A. and B. then C. with

6. A. of B. by C. under

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7. A. Remove B. Removing C. Removes

8. A. one B. every C. each

9. A. in front of B. on C. over

10. A. and B. with C. into

Reading comprehension
POWER LOADING

When the ULD is in the ball mat area, the lateral PDU moves it. The joystick controls the lateral PDU.
When you push the joystick to the IN position and hold it, the power is supplied to the lateral PDU.
This causes the rollers of the PDU to turn in the IN direction and the drive roller moves up to touch the
base of the ULD. The drive roller moves the ULD across the cargo compartment until it engages in the
YZ-latches and YZ-guide rails which stop it. The drive roller below the ULD turns until the joystick is
released and goes back to the center/neutral position. Thus the power supply to the lateral PDU is
stopped and causes the drive roller to go down.

To move the ULD in the ball mat area to the rear of the cargo compartment, push the joystick to the
AFT position and hold it. Power is supplied to all of the longitudinal PDU; this causes their rollers to
turn and the drive roller to come up. The ULD then moves to the rear of the cargo compartment from
one PDU to the next until the ULD engages the end-stops. The roller of the longitudinal PDU turn
until the joystick is released and goes back to the center/neutral position. The XZ latches keep the
ULD aligned while the ULD moves into the loading position. When the ULD is in position, you lift the
XZ single latch 32 in front of it manually to hold the ULD. When you lift the XZ single latch 32, the
proximity switch below the latch operates and stops the power supply to the related PDU. The PDU is
now isolated from the power supply. When you load the next ULD, the PDU below the ULD already
in position does not run.

Read the telex and decide if these sentences are TRUE (A) or FALSE (B) or NOT GIVEN (C)

N0 Sentence TRUE FALSE NOT

GIVEN (C)
(A) (B)

1 The drive rollers move the ULD.

2 The joystick controls both lateral and longitudinal

PDUs

3 The drive roller turns when the joystick is released.

4 The drive rollers can move up and down.

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5 Engagement of either the YZ-latches/ guide rails or

the end-stops stops ULD movement.

6 When the joystick is released the drive roller goes

down.

7 The XZ single latch is automatic.

8 The proximity switch is operated by the joystick.

9 The PDUs below the ULDs in position continue to

run.

10 The Aft cargo Compartment comprises 4 bays

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C

OXYGEN
You can find the passenger oxygen masks stowed in passenger service units ____ (1) the passenger
seats. When the passenger oxygen system ____ (2) the oxygen masks drop down ____ (3) the
overhead stowage boxes to be ____ (4) for the passengers….

Here you can see the release logic ____ (5) the passenger oxygen system. The system is normally
activated ____ (6) by a pressure switch in pressurized area.

If, for some ____ (7), automatic activation by the altitude pressure switch fails, there is a manual
control in the cockpit which ____ (8) the passenger oxygen system. After activation, the passenger
oxygen system must _____ (9) by pushing the reset button in the cockpit. For maintenance purposes
there is a special tool for opening single stowage boxes without activating the whole system.

The passenger oxygen system is activated ____ (10) on most aircraft, but the actual supply of oxygen
can be different. There are two ways that oxygen is supplied to the system., with a chemical system
and with a gaseous system.

1. A. on B. over C. above

2. A. is activated B. activates C. activated

3. A. in B. from C. into

4. A. able B. available C. availably

5. A. for B. to C. with

6. A. automatic B. auto C. automatically

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7. A. reasons B. reasonable C. reason

8. A. activate B. will activate C. activated

9. A. be reset B. reset C. been reset

10. A. the same way B. the same C. in the same way

Reading comprehension

GROUND CREW CALL HORNS (A 320)

It has been reported that since E.I.S and increased number of ground crew call horns have been
replace.

- Preliminary studies have shown that these horns are burning

- Further studies have been initiated in order to determine the exact causes of this phenomenon
and to find a solution to this trouble.

- Laboratory tests have indicated a weakness of relay 4WC.

- New fatigue strength tests with different relays were conducted.

- Test results showed that after 2 minutes of operation the horn failed.

- Operators should determine and advise airbus if the horn is being operated for more than 3
minutes at a time due to an activation of a warning on the ground, such as a loss of avionics
ventilation, APU fire or ADIRS operation on aircraft batteries. These warnings trigger as a
result of the ground crew call horn.

- In order to temporarily reduce the horn failure by 10% to 20%, an improved horn control relay
is now available through SB 23-1026.

- In addition investigations and tests are in process to improve the current horn reliability. The
result of these investigations is expected for end June 91.

1. Which component is faulty?

A. APU fifre B. batteries C. Ground crew call horn

2. Is there a solution to this problem?

A. No. B. Yes. C. Yes, have done

3. What is the reference of the faulty delay?

A. WC B. 4WC C. forward galley

4. The horn fails after how many minutes?

A. 2 mins B. 2 hrs C. 3 minutes

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5. Whom must the airlines tell of any failures?

A. Airbus Industry B. Vietnam Airlines C. VAECO

6. How can you install the new control relay?

A. Wait for the order B. Through an A/D C. Through S/B 23-1026

7. Is this a definitive solution?

A. No. B. Yes C. Exactly

Based on the above telex: which have the same meaning as these words
8. FURTHERMORE

A. addition B. in addition C. investigation

9. DEMONSTRATED

A. shown B. reported C. expected

10. UNDER WAY

A. due to B. being operated C. in process

Read the following passage carefully and then complete the missing word-endings by choosing A,
B, or C
The pump is of the variable-displacement type. The (1) rotat _____ assembly turn _____ all the time
that the engine operate _____. The pump has nine (2) piston _____ which are connect _____ to a
moveable yoke plate. When the angle of the yoke plate (3) change ____, the stroke of the piston _____
change ____ and the out put of the pump is (4) increase _____ or decrease ____ . The (5) compansat
____ valve supplie ____ servo pressure to the actuat ____ piston, which (6) control ____ the angle of
the yoke. A solenoid valve (7) (control ____ from the flight compartment) make ____ it possible to
change the operation of the pump so that it (8) do ____ not supply pressure to the system (depressurize
___ mode). The EDP (9) include ____ a block ____ valve which (10) isolate ____ the pump from the
hydraulic system when the pump operate ____ in the depressuriz ____ mode.

1. A. ing/ s/ s B. or/ s/ s C. or/ s/ ed

2. A. s/ ing B. s/ ed C. s/ s

3. A. ed/ s/ s B. s/ s/ s C. s/ s/ ing

4. A. s/ ed B. s/ s C. ed/ ed

5. A. ing/ s/ or B. or/ s/ or C. es/ s/ or

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6. A. ed B. ing C. s

7. A. ed/ s B. s/ s C. ing/ s

8. A. es/ ed B. ed/es C. ed/ ed

9. A. ed/ ed B. ing/ s C. s/ ing

10. A. ed/ s/ ed B. s/ ing/ ed C. s/ s/ ed

Reading comprehension

VACUUM TOILET

A320 AMM

Component Description

A. Vacuum Toilet assembly 50MG

Each toilet assembly has:

- a bowl and spray ring.

- a water (rinse) valve.

- an anti-syphon valve.

- a flush valve.

- a manual waste shutoff valve.

- a flush control unit.

- a supporting frame.

(1) Bowl and Spray Ring

The bowl is made of stainless steel and has a nonstick coating applied to its inside surface. The
spray ring is attached to the top of the bowl and connected to the anti-syphon valve.

----

(4) Flush valve

The flush valve is a motor-actuated, self-contained unit. A duct connects the flush valve to the toilet
bowl. The flush valve housing is a stainless steel investment casting. Waste flows through a 2.0 in.
(50.7999 mm) dia, molded and reinforced elastomer tube. The tube is fully open during the flush
cycle. A motor-actuated pinch-knife unit closes and seals the tube between the flush cycles. The

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flush control unit controls the flush valve operation. A manual waste shut-off valve is installed on
the down-stream side of the flush valve.

Use the text and the figure to find out if these sentences are TRUE or FALSE or NOT GIVEN.

SENTENCES TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

N0 (A) (B) (C)

1 The vacuum toilet assembly comprises seven

components

2 The supporting frame is circular

3 The spray ring is mounted on the rim (edge) of

the bowl

4 The flush valve is controlled by the flush

control unit

5 The flush valve is mounted downstream of the

manual waste shutoff valve

6 Some operators with vacuum toilet experience

high level of noise while flushing the toilet

7 The waste tube is made of stainless steel

Based on the above text:

What materials are mentioned?

8. MATERIALS

A. ring B. flush C. Stainless steel

9. MATERIALS

A. Elastomer B. valve C. pinch-knife

What manufacturing processes are mentioned?

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10. PROCESS

A. bowl B. duct C. casting

11. PROCESS

A. tube B. molded C. valve

Find the words in the text which also have these meanings in other contexts.
(to flush in this text means to clean with a fluid, but it is also an Adjective that means level with )

12. MAIN STRUCTURAL MEMBER

A. support B. frame C. unit

13. CIRCULAR SEAL

A. ring B. o-ring C. ringing

14. USE FOR NO REASON

A. wait B. water C. waste

15. TO AND INCLUDING

A. flow B. through C. inside

Read the following passage carefully and then fill in the missing spaces by choosing A, B, or C
The two outflow valves _____ (1) the front side of the rear pressure bulkhead just above floor level in
a sound-proofed box with a quick-removable cover. Each valve _____ (2) two major sections: an
outflow poppet section and a control chamber section. The main diaphragm ____ (3) the two sections
and ____ (4) a flexible air-tight partition between them. The outflow poppet section consists of a
spider-type base, to the center of which a pedestal and a baffle-type support ___ (5).

The spring-loaded outflow poppet, consisting of two parts, ____ (6) the main diaphragm and is guided
in its center by a pin, which ____ (7) a bush in the pedestal. A vacuum relief diaphragm is clamped at
its periphery between the two parts of the outflow poppet and ____ (8) its center to the pedestal.

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Normally it rests on the baffle-type support and ____ (9) the outflow poppet head a separate chamber,
which ____ (10) cabin pressure via holes in the poppet valve.

1. A. are flange-mounting to B. are flange-mounted to C. are flange-mounted at

2. A. consists of B. consisting C. consisting of

3. A. separated B. separate C. separates

4. A. formation B. formed C. forms

5. A. are mounted B. is mounted C. is mounting

6. A. is mounted in B. is mounted on C. is mounting to

7. A. slides in B. sliding on C. sided on

8. A. is attached with B. is attached to C. is attached at

9. A. formed with B. forms together with C. formed together by

10. A. is connecting to B. is connecting with C. is connected to

Reading comprehension
General

There are five in-line check valves installed in the landing gear hydraulic systems.

The check valves have a cylindrical body, made of stainless steel or aluminum alloy, which contains a
poppet and a spring. The body has hydraulic connections at each end. These connections have different
dimensions, which prevents incorrect installation of the check valve. When the check valve is in the
closed position, the metal-to-metal contact between the poppet and the valve seat makes the internal
seal.

When the pressure on the inlet inside is more than that on the outlet side, the poppet opens against the
spring compression. When the pressure on the outlet side is more than ( or equal to) that on the inlet
side, the spring compression keeps the poppet against the valve seat.

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Read the text and then decide if these sentences are TRUE or FALSE or NOT GIVEN.

SENTENCES TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

N0 (A) (B) (C)

1 The check valve body is tubular

2 There are five unions on the valve

3 Each cylinder is fitted with a pressure regulator .

4 The poppet moves inside the body

5 The spring closes the poppet when the upstream

pressure is greater

6 The different size of the connections are considered

to stop incorrect installation

7 The spring is down stream of the poppet

8 The inlet is larger than the outlet

9 There are four check valves on the system

Based on the above text. Find the words in the description which correspond to these definitions
10. Structure
A. string B. syndesis C. body

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11. A metal that can not corrode

A. stainless steel B. nickel C. nickel silver

12. A flexible, helicoidal part

A. spur B. spring C. squelch

13. A mixture of metals

A. alloy steel B. alodine C. alloy

Read the following passage carefully and then fill in the missing spaces by choosing A, B, or C
The centrifugal pumps _____ (1) in the bottom part of each tank provide for transfer of fuel toward the
engines under all conditions of flight, altitude and temperature.

The pumps ____ (2) to deliver fuel under pressure to the engine high pressure pumps, so as to avoid
vapor lock phenomena which could occur in plumbing affected by a rise in temperature or a drop in
pressure due to ____ (3).

Each pump _____ (4) by an electric motor.

The pump and motor form an explosion-proof unit, installed in a canister at the tank _____ (5) and
submerged in fuel;

Each pump draws in fuel _____ (6) a non-icing filter

Delivery pressure of _____ (7) pump is transmitted to a low pressure switch.

Furthermore:

- Part of each inboard tank outer pump output ____ (8) to the refueling system drain valve.
- Part of each outboard tank pump output is directed to a sequence valve which limits pump
delivery pressure _____ (9) 1.2 bars (17.5 psi) _____ (10) fuel from the inboard tanks is
delivered on a priority basis at 2.6 bars (38 psi).

1. A. installation B. installed C. are installed

2. A. are designed B. have designed C. designed

3. A. altitudinal B. altitude C. high

4. A. drove B. is driving C. is driven

5. A. centre B. heart C. bottom

6. A. across B. through C. throughout

7. A. ‘- “ B. each C. every

8. A. is directed B. are directed C. has directed

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9. A. to B. in C. on

10. A. so far B. so as C. so that

Reading comprehension

Storage Instructions

1. General
- Wherever possible retain units in their original storage pack until issued for use.

- Take care to avoid damage by undue weight if components are to be stored stacked.

- Do not store units in the vicinity of corrosive gases, fluids or any electric machine or light
source (for example mercury vapor lamps) whose operation produces ozone.

2. Transit Packaging
- All units are adequately packed in wooden cases, cardboard cartons or special containers to
prevent damage and deterioration of the unit during transit. The transit pack is in most cases the
storage pack.

- Cushioning materials are generally of wood wool, corrugated cardboard or similar material,
dependent upon the size and nature of the unit being packed and the method of transportation.

- Suitable labels are fixed externally on the container clearly identifying the contents.

3. Storage Packaging
- Units are pre-packed by being wrapped in a plastic film to provide protection from damage and
deterioration while in storage.
- Suitable labels are attacked to the unit giving part numbers, nomenclature and serial numbers.

4. Limiting Period
- Wing tips, packed as detailed and stored under approved conditions, is unlimited.

Are these sentences TRUE (A) OR FALSE (B) OR NOT GIVEN (C)

SENTENCES TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

N0 (A) (B) (C)

1 Units are only placed in their

containers for transit.

2 Excessive weight may damage the

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units if they are superimposed.

3 Only composite or metallic containers

are used.

4 The containers are provided with pre-

printed identification. So no labels are
necessary.

5 There is no limitation to the time of

storage.

Read the following passage carefully and then fill in the missing spaces by choosing A, B, or C
The fire ……… (1) system is designed to operate when fire sensing elements located on the engine
and on the pylon …. ……(2) overheat or fire.

The system is activated manually and ……… (3) means of two fire handles ………. (4) on the flight
compartment overheat panel. After ……… (5) of the fire extinguisher bottles, the system ……… (6)
two main effects:

- To extinguish, ……… (7) its early stages, any fire ……… (8) in the fan and compressor areas.

- To prevent engine fire ……… (9) spreading by isolating the engine from the rest of the aircraft. This
is achieved by closing the various ……… (10), bleed and conditioning lines from the engine to the
wings.

1. A. extinguish B. extinguisher C. extinguishing

2. A. sensor B. sense C. senses

3. A. by B. with C. of

4. A. located B. locates C. locating

5. A. discharger B. discharge C. discharging

6. A. have had B. have C. has

7. A. in B. on C. with

8. A. occurs B. occurring C. occurred

9. A. away B. from C. for

10. A. supplies B. supplier C. supply

Reading comprehension

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BATTERY CHANGE LIMITER (A320)

Operators have reported various cases of battery change limiter failure which necessitated a
“BATTERY PBSW RESET” in order to recover normal operation.

Furthermore, when BCL bite is interrogated, no faults are reported.

Investigation revealed that some failures were caused by:

1. Printed circuit card (PCB) disconnection.

Vendor SB 35, OL5, 24, 002 has been issued to correct this situation. This SB introduces a rubber
strip on the BCL front face to ensure a good contact between the PCB and the connection board
connectors.

2. A/D converter malfunction.

To inform operators of BCL reset procedure OEB 75/1 has been issued.

The next BCL standard consists in installing new software which will delete;

- Inadvertent BCL fault warnings

- Inadvertent class 3 messages on the PFR

- APU start inhibition of 45 sec at A/C power-up (REF TPU 49. 42. 00. 10)

Furthermore a battery change improvement (30 min time delay at the end of the charging cycle
after APU start). A new resistor on the contactor control transistor and an improved A/D converter
are planned.

The next BCL standard will be covered by an Airbus SB.

Are these sentences TRUE (A) OR FALSE (B) OR NOT GIVEN (C)

No Sentences TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

(A) (B) (C)

1 A rubber strip has been added

2 The push button switch wiring will be examined

3 New software will be used

4 There will be a 30-second APU start time delay

5 The converter will be made better

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Read the following passage carefully and then fill in the missing spaces by choosing A, B, or C
1. EVENT

The purpose of this telex ______ (1) to inform all ______ (2) operators that a number of A320 IDG
Magnetic pick-up (MPU) speed sensors _____ (3) with the noise cancellation coil wired in reverse. In
this configuration the function ____ (4) the coil is no longer realized and in fact noise _____ (5) on the
MPU signal.

2. OPERATIONAL EFFECTS

A non-complying MPU noise cancellation coil _____ (6) to affect normal system operation _____ (7)
engine start, during an engine start the GCU _____ (8) the MPU signal. When this signal is above
4320 RPM the GLC _____ (9) after a 80 MS time delay.

If noise is superimposed onto the MPU signal the GCU computes an over estimated IDG speed. If the
calculated speed is _____ (10) 4320 RPM the generator line contactor (GLC) will close.

1. A. are B. is C. was

2. A. A320 B. A330 C. ATR 72

3. A. are manufactured B. was manufactured C. were manufactured

4. A. at B. of C. in

5. A. could be added B. can be added C. may be added

6. A. is only known B. is known only C. is knowing

7. A. at B. when C. while
8. A. monitored B. monitors C. monitoring

9. A. will be closed B. will close C. would close

10. A. more than greatB. more great than C. greater than

Reading comprehension
ABORTED TAKEOFF.

CFMI CFM 56-3 TELEX

The purpose of this wire is to provide current information relative to the aborted takeoff at WICHITA,
KANSAS on March 17, 1990.

Disassembly and inspection of the CFM 56-3-81 engine involved in the aborted takeoff has revealed a
stage 1 HPC blade failure due to high cycle fatigue (HCF). The blade failed in HCF originating just
forward of corner 3 on the dovetail pressure face . One HPC stage 1 variable stator vane (VSV) lever

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arm was found to be disengaged from the VSV actuation half ring, this allowed the vane to rotate
freely during engine operation which resulted in a one-per-REV excitation to the stage 1. Blade
resulting in the HCF blade failure.

All indications are that the stage 1 VSV lever arm was not engaged in the VSV actuation ring during
the last engine shop visit (376 hours/ 172 cycles) prior to the failure. The blade failure, therefore,
appears to have been the result of the disengaged lever arm.

Read the text carefully and then you find the synonyms of these words in the text.
1. OBJECTIVE

A. purpose B. point C. schema

2. TELEX

A. telltail B. telephone C. wire

3. PRESENT

A. now B. current C. curry

4. DISMANTLING

A. disaster B. disassembly C. disband

5. CONCERNED

A. attract B. collect C. involved

6. PERMITTED

A. allowed B. obey C. promise

7. DISCONNECTED

A. disconcert B. disengaged C. disconsolate

8. BEFORE

A. prior to B. forward C. priority

9. CONSEQUENTLY

A. that B. consider C. therefore

10. SEEMS

A. abstract B. seen C. appears

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C

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VALVE BODY CORROSION

Wing anti-icing valves returned from service _____ (1) a secondary corrosion problem. The condition
takes the form ______ (2) white corrosion products on, and blistering of the chromed bore of the valve
body assembly. Corrosion around the shaft and its bearings has also _________ (3). The extent of this
corrosion fault is not known nor if it is time – or time- and temperature – related.

Description:

This Service Bulletin ______ (4) that any wing anti-icing valve _______ (5) exhibits any sign of
malfunction ______ (6) from the aircraft and ______ (7) for signs of corrosion as detailed in Section 2.
A _______ (8) wing anti-icing valve shall be subjected to the same inspection prior to installation on
an aircraft. Inspected wing anti-icing valves that show signs of corrosion must be returned to the
manufacturer to be fitted with new valve body assemblies. Wing anti-icing valves that _______ (9) are
identified by striking off N0. 2 on the nameplate. Existing wing anti-icing valves identified with strike
off number 2 do not _______ (10) application of this Service Bulletin.

1. A. has revealed B. revealed C. have revealed

2. A. of B. in C. about

3. A. reported B. been reported C. not reported

4. A. requires B. required C. requiring

5. A. what B. that C. which

6. A. may be removed B. shall be removed C. can be removed

7. A. exam B. examined C. examination

8. A. replacing B. replaceable C. replacement

9. A. have been repaired B. has been repaired C. has repaired

10. A. required B. require C. requires

Read the following paragraph and then choose the best answer for each question
System Description

The mechanical control system for the six elevator servo controls consists of two channels actuated by
the Captain’s and First Officer’s control columns. The control columns are interconnected by a rigid
rod through a detent bell crank assembly which enables the channels to be uncoupled at the control
columns.

The detent bell crank assembly slaves the non active control column to the driving control columns.
Should a control column jam, the detent bell crank enables pitch axis to be controlled via the
remaining control column.

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Two dynamometric rods, two bell crank assemblies and two rigid rods drive two cable tension
regulators.

Cables drive two independent cable quadrants. The quadrant on the Captain’s channel acts on the
artificial feel unit.

Downstream of the artificial feel unit, a detent rod is installed on each control channel.

These rods enable the channels to be uncoupled at the artificial feel unit.

Two torque tubes, one on the Captain’s channel, and the other on the First Officer’s channel, actuate
the servo control linkage of the LH and RH elevators respectively, via bell cranks.

1. How many elevator servo controls are there?

A. four B. six C. two

2. What connects the two control columns?

A. a rigid rod B. a detent bell crank C. channels

3. What lets the two channels be uncoupled?

A. two bell crank assemblies B. the rods

C. a detent bell crank assembly

4. Where is the detent rod?

A. on control channel B. Downstream of the artificial feel unit

C. control column jam

5. What actuates the servo control linkage?

A. Two torque tubes B. torque tube C. bell cranks

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C
BEARING CORROSION

Traces of chlorine _____ (1) on the raceway of the bearings _____ (2) to the assumption that during
maintenance work the handling _____ (3) cleaning fluid and subsequent expelling of grease ____ (4)
the corrosion followed by the bearing jam.

In all three cases the failure did not _____ (5) in any anomaly of the THSA function, neither _____ (6)
electrical nor _____ (7) mechanical mode, until the cracked/ ruptured flange of the interconnecting
shaft was detected _____ (8) maintenance.

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The consequence of a complete failure of the ____ (9) shaft flange ( disconnection of the mechanical
control linkage) is the ____ (10) the mechanical control of the pitch trim and consequently the loss of
aural warning (whooler) in the event of a pitch trim runaway.

1. A. are found B. were found C. been found

2. A. leading B. leads C. leader

3. A. on B. in C. with

4. A. has caused B. had caused C. caused

5. A. result B. resulted C. results

6. A. of B. in C. on

7. A. on B. in C. of

8. A. while B. within C. during

9. A. interconnecting B. interconnected C. interconnect

10. A. lost of B. lot of C. loss of

Reading comprehension

Read the following passage carefully and then choosing the best answer A, B, or C
Recently, two CFM 56-3C operators experienced oil leaking from the aft cowl area. Both engines were
within 600 to 850 flight hours since new. Troubleshooting revealed an external oil leak in the LPT
frame, located at the oil supply and scavenge tube exits from struts 5 and 6. Origin of the leak was
determined to be a crack in the number 5 bearing oil damper cavity supply tube, close to the inlet cover
fitting weld joint. In both cases, the faulty tube was replaced on wing and the aircraft was released for
revenue service. The affected hardware is under investigation to establish the cause of the crack and
define corrective actions. If leaks from a No. 5 bearing oil damped cavity supply tube are confirmed, a
procedure is available to replace the tube on-wing. This procedure will be incorporated in service
bulletin 72-472, targeted to be issued before June 30. We will keep you informed as further
information becomes available.

1. What was the problem of the operators?

A. Cracks on the aft cowl area of the engines

B. Engine oil leak

C. Damage on fuel supply tube

2. What does “CFM 56-3C” refer to?

A. An engine type B. An airline’s name C. A location of a component

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3. According to the passage, which of the following is true?

A. The faulty tube was sent to the manufacture for repair

B. The aircraft was on ground to wait for procedure incorporated in the SB 72-472

C. The manufacture would inform the airlines of the related information soon

4. After troubleshooting, what was the cause of the failure?

A. Loose fitting B. Bearing breaking C. Tube cracking

5. According to the passage, which statement is NOT true?

A. The failure tube was investigated to define corrective actions

B. The old engine might be the reason of the failure

C. Only two operators experienced the problem

6. The engines were relative new?

A. Yes. B. No. C. It’s not given

7. When will the SB be issued ?

A. Early of Jun B. the end of Jul C. Before Jun 30

Read the following passage carefully and then choosing the best answer A, B, or C

Immediately after landing on a cold day, one operator recently experienced unsuccessful APU start
attempts while performed with A/C electrical network supplied by the batteries. The APU started
successfully as soon as external AC power source was connected to the A/C. The returned ECB has
been investigated and a faulty diode has been found, which lowers the DC voltage threshold to a value
which does not allow the ECB to start the APU.

1. What is the problem reported in the passage?

A. Hard landing B. APU start C. Bad weather

2. Which component caused the problem?

A. a diode in the ECB B. a diode in the APU C. a diode in the batteries

3. Finally, could the APU start?

A. Yes, but by batteries B. No C. Both A and B are incorrect

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C

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1/ Warning:

_____ (1) remove the filler cap ____ (2) the oil tank immediately after engine operation. ____ (3) the
oil pressure decrease for a minimum of 5 minutes after the engine shutdown.

If you open the filler cap ____ (4) there is pressure in the tank the oil can burn you dangerously.

2/ Cause:

The Vendor has ____ (5) that:

- The fan wheel hub cracks are ___ (6) fatigue originating at a sudden change of cross section.

Solutions:

The Vendor has ____ (7) the following improvements:

- Increase of fan hub material thickness, change of manufacturing process and gradual changes
in cross section ____ (8) fatigue life.

- ____ (9) of fan hub material

Results of fan blade containment demonstration ____ (10) airworthiness requirements have permitted
the improvement to be released by Vendor SB.

1. A. Do not B. Does not C. Not

2. A. on B. in C. of

3. A. Let B. Make C. allow

4. A. when B. where C. as

5. A. decide B. advised C. determined

6. A. reason B. due to C. therefore

7. A. suggest B. proposed C. gave

8. A. increases B. increasing C. to increase

9. A. Change B. to change C. changing

10. A. to comply with B. complies with C. complying with

Reading comprehension

Read the following passage carefully and then choosing the best answer A, B, or C
WINGS GENERAL

The wings are joined at the fuselage side to a center wing box built integrally with the fuselage
each comprises a primary structure of box – type construction, auxiliary structure and movable

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flight surfaces. The main gear is supported by the continuation of the primary structure aft of the
rear spar.

The primary structure consists mainly of machined spars, ribs and stringer reinforced top and
bottom main skins, and is utilized as two fuel tanks with boundaries formed by the front and rear
spars and ribs 1, 14 and 27. Design of these tanks provides that primary sealing is by the
mechanical attachment of the structural members with the additional use of poly-sulphide sealants.
The fasteners used are mainly steel and titanium Hi-Lok or Taper-Lok type bolts and light alloy
Drivematic rivets. Bolt location diagrams, which identify each bolt position in the skins between
the front and rear spars, are available on request under Drawing number R571.40138 for B2
airplanes and R571.40141 for B4 airplanes.

With the exception of ribs 2 and 15, the intervening ribs act as fuel baffles. Ribs 2 and 15 are
partially sealed and fitted with clack valves which permit the fuel to flow inboard only. The area
between ribs 27 and 29 is utilized as a fuel surge vent tank.

Access to the fuel tank interior is through removable manhole covers in the bottom skin panels.

No Sentences TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

(A) (B) (C)

1 Each Engine comprises three main parts

2 The main gear is attached to the wing center box

3 A chemical sealant is used to reinforce tank sealing

4 The fasteners are made of steel, titanium and light

alloy.

5 Bolt Location Diagrams are included in the SRM

6 All the ribs are used as fuel baffles.

7 The clack valves allow the free transfer of fuel.

8 The fuel surge vent tank is located from rib 27 to rib

29

9 Are the skin panels reinforced by stringers which are

joined to the left and right wing skin?

10 You can enter the tank through manhole covers on

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the upper wing

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C

AC Electrical System

The AC electrical system is the main source for airplane electrical power.

Electrical Load Management System (ELMS).

The ELMS ____ (1) load management and protection ____ (2) power is available ___ (3) critical and
essential equipment.

If the electrical loads exceed the power available (airplane or external), ELMS ____ (4) sheds AC
loads by priority until the loads ____ (5) within the capacity of the airplane or ground power
generators. The ____ (6) galleys first, ___ (7) utility busses. Utility busses are ____ (8) by individual
equipment items powered by the main AC busses. When an additional power source becomes
available or the loads decrease, ELMS ____ (9) power to shed systems (in the reverse order).

The message LOAD SHED displays on the electrical synoptic when load shed conditions exist.

The ELMS also provides inputs for display of EICAS messages for manual center tank fuel pump shut
off during climb/cruise, and automatic ____ (10) to prevent unintentional dry fuel pump operation
when the center fuel tank is empty.
1. A. providing B. provide C. provides

2. A. ensure B. to ensure C. ensuring

3. A. “-“ B. for C. to

4. A. automatically B. automatic C. automatics

5. A. are B. is C. is being

6. A. loading shed B. load sheds C. load shedding

7. A. after B. then C. before

8. A. following B. followed C. follows

9. A. restores B. restore C. restoring

10. A. shutting off B. shuts off C. shut off

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Read the following passage carefully and then choosing the best answer A, B, or C
AIR INTAKE COWL-DESCRIPTION AND OPERATION

1/ General

The engine air intake cowl structure is an interchangeable, aerodynamically faired assembly. It is
mounted on the forward face of the engine fan case A1 flange.

The assembly is composed of:

- an inner and outer barrel

- a nose lip

- a forward and an aft bulkhead.

The assembly also includes installation of:

- the anti-icing ducting

- the engine control until cooling inlet and re-exit ducts

- the interphone/ ground jack

- the T2 sensor

- hoisting provisions

- pip pin receptacles for the intake cover.

2/ Description

A. Air Intake Cowl Configuration

The outer barrel of the air intake cowl is made of two panels of composite construction

The inner barrel consists of:

- three acoustically treated panels. The panels are structural, bonded and replaceable. They are
installed with mechanical fasteners

- an engine attach ring

- 24 identical attach fittings

- A fire shield aft of the aft bulkhead.

- The aft bulk head and nose lip assembly connect the outer barrel to the inner barrel.

B. Air Intake Cowl Anti-Icing

The nose lip assembly consists of an outer lip skin and bulkhead. The lip skin and bulkhead
comprise the anti-icing “D” duct. A swirl nozzle is mounted in the “D” duct for distribution of the

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anti-icing air into the “D” duct. A supply tube supplies the anti-icing air to the swirl nozzle. The
supply tube penetrates the “D” duct bulkhead. A slip joint is provided at the “D” duct bulkhead to
allow for duct thermal expansion. Engine bleed air comes into the nose lip cavity through the swirl
nozzle. The air exists into the air intake cowl cavity aft of the “D” duct bulkhead: the air passes
through openings in the “D” duct bulkhead inner cap.

The air exhausts overboard through a flush exit duct in the outer barrel.

No Sentences TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

(A) (B) (C)

1 The outer barrel of the air intake cowl is made of 5

panels of alloy construction

2 An outlet doesn’t level with the skin

3 The assembly is composed of 5 items

4 Swirl nozzle makes the air turn

5 The engine air intake cowl is unchangeable

6 The inner barrel consists of 2 items

7 Engine bleed air doesn’t come into the nose lip cavity
through the swirl nozzle

8 The engine air intake cowl has an aerodynamic fairing

9 The assembly also includes installation of 7 items

10 A slip joint is used in the generator to transfer the AC

to DC

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C

SUBJECT: A320-ATA 56 – Loss of shroud panels FWD of Aileron.

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Two cases ____ (1) reported where the upper outboard shroud panel P/N 057546015008/009 (IPC 57-
51-05 Fig 31A …) FWD of aileron ____ (2) in flight .

INVESTIGATIONS

Initial investigations ____ (3) a production difficulty ____ (4) a recent batch of panels, the source of
____ (5) has been located ____ (6) corrected, it appears that the installation is causing the fasteners to
pull through the CFRP panel.

FOLLOW-UP PLAN

That an all operator telex ____ (7) next week requesting one-time visual inspection of these panels,
subject _____ (8) confirmation, the effected batch of panels were ____ (9) on approximately 80
aircraft, starting with MSN 183. Repair, if required will be by manufacturing the panel ____ (10)
aluminum alloy.

1. A. have recently been B. has been recently C. recently have

2. A. detaches B. attached C. detached

3. A. indicates B. indicate C. indicated

4. A. in B. on C. with

5. A. that B. whom C. which

6. A. and B. between C. under

7. A. will be issued B. will issued C. be issued

8. A. for B. by C. to

9. A. installing B. installed C. be installed

10. A. with B. from C. of

Read the following paragraph and then decide which is True (A) or False (B) or Not given (C)
FLOOR PROXIMITY LIGHTING

Many thanks for your Fax of 28 June. I have now had a discussion with my colleagues in U.S.A. on
the subject of the updated Supply Power Supplies for the range of aircraft to which they are fitted.

At this time we are still at the beginning of our new programme and Test Samples only have been
supplied to Airline A and Airline B, both of whom had problems with their current systems due to the
high sensitivity of the voltage detection system on some of their aircraft.

The improvements included are:

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Reduced sensitivity to voltage fluctuation in the supply.

Slugging of operation to prevent “switch-on” in the event of transient pulses in adjacent cabling.

Improved Inverter of our own manufacture giving much higher efficiency.

Protection against reverse polarity connection.

Wiring gauge increased from 24 to 22 for improved strength

Are these sentences TRUE(A) OR FALSE (B) OR NOT-GIVEN (C)

No. Sentences True False Not given

(A) (B) (C)

1 The system has been protected against reverse polarities.

2 Wiring has been made stronger by replacing the 22 gauge

with 24 gauge.

3 The customer has manufactured his own inverter.

4 A time-delay has been installed on the system

5 The system has been made less sensitive to fluctuations in

power supply voltage

6 All electrical equipment is grounded

Find the answers to these questions from this vendor’s letter.

7. What did the vendor talk to his American colleague about?

A. the voltage detection B. the test sample C. the updated power supplies

8. Have they finished their development?

A. No B. yes C. “-“

9. What was the problem with the voltage detection on their aircraft?

A. decrease of the wiring gauge

B. high sensitivity of voltage detection

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C. power supply

10. How many improvements have been made?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 3

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fit each space by
choosing A, B, or C

CRACK A320 TFU 78.11.12.01

Four operators _____ (1) one case each ____ (2) cracked centerbody assemblies, both cracks ____ (3)
station 291.6 adjacent to the weld. The cracks propagated circumferentially ____ (4) 260 degrees.

Rohr all operators letter AOL-CFM56-003 Rev B. ___ (5) march 1991. This revision ____ (6) the
inspection interval from “A” check to 150 flight hours, rohr all operators letter CFM56-003 issued
November 19th 1990 ____ (7) with this revision. Included in A.O.L CFM56-003 are the flight ____ (8)
limits and repairs.

Rohr are continuing to vibration test centerbodies. Initial results ____ (9) vibration induced failure. We
____ (10) operators of the results of these further tests, and if any service action is required.

1. A. report B. has reported C. have reported

2. A. on B. of C. in

3. A. occurred at B. ocurred in C. ocurred from

4. A. about B. of C. out

5. A. is issued B. was issued C. to be issued

6. A. is changing B. are changed C. changes

7. A. concurrently runs B. runs concurrently C. concurrently run

8. A. of B. in C. on

9. A. indicate B. indicates C. indicating

10. A. will inform B. are informed C. need informed

Read the following paragraph and then decide which is True (A) or False (B) or Not given (C)

Subject: A320 CFM56-5 ATA 78 uncommanded engine power reduction in flight.

Further to some operators’ comments on the original issue, the revision of this O.I.T provides
clarification on para III. The O.I.T. now reads as follows:

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1/ Event description

On 19 May 91, one operator experienced an uncommanded engine power reduction in flight during the
cruise phase after more than 3 hours flight. The flight was ended without diversion or other event.

The following snags have been reported:

- ENG 2 Rev faulty ecam warning came on during cruise followed by ENG. 2 power reduction
(down to 38 percent N1)

- ENG 2 stayed at Idle throughout the rest of the flight.

- Engine 1 operation normal.

- CFDS FADEC system report shows stow 8WJ5 DEPL/ stow SW.

Read the text and then answer these questions, which is TRUE (A) OR FALSE (B) OR NOT-
GIVEN (C)

No. Sentences True False Not given

(A) (B) (C)

1 Was there a flame-out in flight?

2 Is this the first telex about this incident?

3 Did the incident occur just after take-off?

4 Did they divert?

5 Did engine No 2 remain at idle

Choose the specific engine failures among these various failures

6. A. intall B. clogging C. flame-out

7. A. discrepancy B. shut down C. short

8. A. wetstart B. leak C. Jamming

9. A. occur B. lock C. rumbling

10. A. appeared B. ingestion C. ignore

Read the text quickly and then find the words which mean the same as these words.
11. following
A. along B. come on C. further to

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12. edition

A. publish B. issue C. contribute

13. uncontrol

A. undo B. uncommanded C. uncommend

14. incidents, failures, problems

A. snag B. snagging C. stale

15. appeared, illuminated

A. come on B. going on C. come about

16. told about by the crew

A. issue B. edit C. reported

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option
The main component of the air-cycle machine (1) _________a rotating shaft. A turbine, a compressor
and a fan (2) _________along the shaft. The shaft rotates (3) _________two self-acting foil-air
bearings, a double self-acting air-thrust bearing (4) _________the axial thrust loads. Air tapped from
the turbine inlet, is used to cool the bearing and then discharged (5) _________the ram airflow.
Labyrinth seals (6) _________ air leakage between static and rotating parts. The light-alloy turbine (7)
__________ with air through a stainless-steel nozzle and a light-alloy scroll. In case of turbine break
up, the stainless-steel nozzle (8) _________as a containment ring. The light-alloy centrifugal
compressor is mounted (9) _________ the center of the rotating shaft. Air is supplied (10)________a
light-alloy scroll. An outer scroll has a stainless-steel diffuser.
1. A. are B. be C. is

2. A. are mounted B. is mounted C. being mounted

3. A. in B. on C. above

4. A. took B. is taken C. takes

5. A. inside B. to C. into

6. A. reduce B. reduced C. is reduced

7. A. are supplied B. is supplied C. is supplying

8. A. acting B. is acted C. acts

9. A. to B. in C. on
10. A. from B. to C. into

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Read the text and then answer the questions.

Operations

A. Functional Description

(1) Nose wheel steering is available when the nose gear is in the down position and compressed by
weight of the airplane. Positioning the landing gear control lever to down makes systems hydraulic
pressure available from the landing gear down line to the steering metering valve for steering. The
nose gear must be compressed more than 8 inches before steering is attempted, to avoid damage to the
centering cams.

(2) When the airplane is on the ground (shock strut compressed), the switch actuator is away from the
squat switch sensor. With the squat switch not activated, the nose gear squat relays remain de-
energized (fig. 4). This provides 28-volt dc power to the interconnect actuators. The No.1 interconnect
actuator retracts as mechanism with the rudder pedals.

NOTE. Pedal steering engagement occurs is one or both interconnect actuators operate. If only
one actuator operates, the status message PEDAL STEERING will come into view on the EICAS.

(3) Any movement caused by the rudder pedals is then transmissed from the steering crank to the
rudder pedal steering quadrant. This quadrant is connected to the nose wheel steering cables. The
quadrant is free to move with the cables whenever the steering tiller is used, or drive the cables when
positioned by rudder pedal steering mechanism.

(4) When the shock strut is extended (gear retracted) the actuator is in proximity with the squat switch
sensor and the switch is activated. With the squat switch activated, the nose gear squat relays are
energized. This provides 28-volt dc power through the nose gear squat relays to energize the
interconnect actuators. The No.1 interconnect actuator extends as the No.2 interconnect actuator
retracts, disengaging the steering mechanism fro the rudder pedals.

NOTE. Pedal steering disengagement occurs only if both actuators operate.

Disengagement of steering prevents the nose gear from turning when rudder pedals are moved during
flight.

Which answers agrees with the data in the text? Read the text and then answer the questions.
1. The message PEDAL STEERING is caused by the.

A. Failure of the two interconnect actuators

B. Standby system operation

C. Failure of one of the two interconnect actuators

2. Steering is disengaged to prevent.

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A. Pressure surges

B. The movement of the nose gear in flight

C. Accidents on the ground

3. The quadrant moves the cables.

A. When the steering tiller is operated

B. When the rudder pedals are operated

C. In standby mode

4. On the ground, the interconnect actuators are supplied with 28 VDC when.

A. The compression microswitch does not operate

B. The compression microswitch operate

C. The rudder pedals are operated

5. At take-off, the interconnect actuators are supplied with 28 VDC when the.

A. Compression relays are not supplied

B. Compression microswitch is open

C. Compression microswitch is closed

6. The valves is supplied by.

A. Gear extension

B. Nose gear compression

C. Gear control lever movement

7. A ……… transmits the movement of the rudder pedals to the cables.

A. Spring rod

B. Quadrant

C. Rod

8. The steering mechanism is disconnected from the rudder pedals when the.

A. Interconnect actuator #2 extends

B. Interconnect actuator #1 retracts

C. Interconnect actuator #1 extends

9. Damage can be caused to the ……… if the nose gear shock absorber is not compressed.
A. Steering quadrants

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B. Centering cams

C. Actuators

10. Steering is disengaged when.

A. One of the two actuators is serviceable

B. The two actuators are unserviceable

C. The two actuators are serviceable

11. Nose wheel steering operates as soon as.

A. The nose wheel touches the ground

B. The main wheel touch the ground

C. The nose gear is compressed 20 cm

12. The steering mechanism is connected to the rudder pedals when the.

A. Interconnect actuator #2 extends

B. Compression microswitch opens

C. Interconnect actuator #1 extends

Read the following paragraph and choose the best answer for each question:

The Cabin Management Interface (CMI) is used by the Cabin Crew to control the In Flight
Entertainment System (IFES). Look at the next page for the Advance Master Control Unit (AMCU)
and Area Distribution Box (ADB) schematic diagrams. Their functions in details will be discussed
respectively after CMI functions.

There is a Main Menu soft button available at all CMI screens (except where noted). When pressed,
the CMI returns to the Main Menu. The CMI turns off the backlight after 300 seconds of inactivity.
The CMI displays selected available functionality at all times. Functionality not currently available is
grayed out.

Upon initialization and power up of the IFES, the CMI displays the Customer Logo Screen. To
access the CMI menus, a Cabin Crew user specific ID and password must be entered through the text
entry boxes on the CMI.

The CMI allows the operator to open and close a flight. Once a flight is closed, the IFES resets to a
default state and all temporary passenger saved items (for example, Audio On Demand Playlist) are
deleted. The CMI also allows the operator to enable or disable the entertainment system.

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Through the CMI audio jack, the operator monitor the audio associated with each audio
channel/program. The user is provided with the ability to control the volume of audio being monitored.

On the CMI, the video output of any source available to the IFES in real-time an be viewed or
previewed. The operator is provided with the ability to control the volume of video audio being
viewed/ previewed. Control and status includes: PLAY, FAST FORWARD, REWIND, PAUSE,
RESUME, and STOP.

1: What is the main topic of the paragraph?

A. CMS Functionality. B. How to control video output in the IFES.

C. Description of the IFES4.

2: What can you infer from the paragraph when the IFES in VNA A330 aircraft is initialized and
powered up?

A. VNA logo appears on the screen after user ID and password are entered.

B. VNA logo appears on the screen and then user ID and password must be entered to access CMS
menus.

C. Wrong ID and password caused the VNA logo not to be displayed.

3: According to passage, which statement is true?

A. After landing, temporary passenger saved items will be delete automatically.

B. The CMI permits cabin crew to disable the IFES.

C. The crew member cannot preview video output in real-time.

4: Can cabin crew adjust the volume of audio and video being monitored?
A. Yes, but volume of audio being monitored only.

B. Yes, but volume of video being monitored only.

C. Yes.

5: What topic will be discussed after the passage?

A. How to control video output when it is being played.

B. ADB functions.

C. ACMU functions.

Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question:
This battery is equipped with an integral fan assembly that consists of fan control circuitry and fan.
The control circuitry monitors battery and ambient temperature and the presence of the charger

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through the J2 connector. The fan and control circuitry are powered by the battery. When operating,
the fan draws ambient air from the opening in the front of the battery and exhausts out the openings in
the rear of the battery. The air is passed over both the top and bottom rows of cells.

The 20 FNC battery cells are housed in an aluminum case which is 13.75 in (34.93 cm) high, 13.7
in (34.8 cm) in length and is 11 in (27.9 cm) wide. Weight of the battery is 106.9 lbs. (48.5 kg). The
battery case and cover is painted a light green. Two connectors are provided on the front of the battery
case. A receptacle connector, J1, to provide the main high output connections and a flange mounted
electrical connector, J2, to provide control and interface with the battery charger. A system block
diagram can be found in Figure 2. A fan test switch is provided on the front of the battery case to
verify fan operation. Flanges are provided on the case to enable positive mounting of the battery.

1: What is the topic of the paragraph?

A. Description of the battery. B. How to test the battery fan.

C. How to make the battery maintenanced.

2: How can the Battery know the presence of the charger?

A. Via the J1 connector. B. Via the J2 connector.

C. Via flanges on the battery case.

3: What can you infer from the passages?

A. There must be passage(s) and figure(s) before the passages.

B. You can find the J1 and J2 connectors in Figure 2.

C. You can find the fan test switch in Figure 2.

4: If the dimension of a rack used to install the battery is 30 cm x 35 cm x 30 cm (High x Long x

Wide), can you install the battery on the rack?

A. Yes B. No

C. Not enough information to answer.

5: Which statement is true for battery control/monitor?

A. The battery is controlled by another computer.

B. Pressing a switch on the front of the battery permits you to test battery control/monitor function.

C. A circuit is installed inside the battery to monitor the battery.

Read the text and then answer the questions

ENGINE BLEED AIR SUPPLY SYSTEM – DESCRIPTION

** ON A/C ALL

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Each engine bleed air system includes three main sub-systems which are described hereafter:

(1) Pneumatic transfer system

This sub-system enables the selection of the HP compressor stage from which air is to be bled.
It includes two main components:

- The HP bleed valve

- The IP bleed check valve

This sub-system bleeds the air from the intermediate or higher stages of the compressor depending
on the available pressure and engine speeds as follows:

- In the normal engine air bleed configuration, the air is bled from the compressor IP port
(intermediate pressure, on the 5th stage) at high engine speed.

- At low engine speeds, especially during aircraft descents, with engine at idle, the IP port
pressure is insufficient. The air is automatically bled from the port (high pressure on the 9th stage)
through the HP bleed valve and the pressure downstream of this valve causes the IP bleed check valve
to close.

- When the IP port pressure exceeds the HP bleed valve target value, the HP bleed valve closes.
Air bleed transfer from the HP port to the IP port is pneumatically achieved. Air is directly bled from
the IP stage through the IP bleed check valve.

There are three cases of pneumatic operation:

- HP stage pressure lower than 35 psig (average valve):

Air is bled from the HP port through the HP bleed valve which is fully open. The IP bleed
check valve is closed to prevent any air recirculation through the engine.
- HP stage pressure higher than 35 psig and lower than 100 psig, and IP stage pressure lower
than 35 psig:

Air is bled from the HP port through the HP bleed valve which regulates the downstream
pressure at 35 psig. The IP bleed check valve is closed to prevent any air recirculation.

- IP stage pressure higher than 35 psig:

If the solenoid of the HP bleed valve is not energized, air bleed transfer from the HP port to the
IP port is pneumatically achieved. The IP bleed check valve is open.

NOTE: Transfer to the IP stage can be forced by closing the HP bleed valve via a solenoid
incorporated in the valve. This transfer is commanded by the BMC (Bleed air Monitoring Computer).

Which answer agrees with the data in the text?

1. The engine air bleed system has … main sub-systems.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

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2. The control of the transfer from HP to IP bleed is:

A. Usually pneumatic B. Usually electrical C. Only electrical

3. The HP bleed valve override is:

A. Controlled by a computer B. Pneumatic C. Electrical

4. The HP bleed valve is closed:

A. By 9th stage pressure B. By the valve of 5th stage pressure

C. When the overpressure valve opens

5. 35 psig is the … value.

A. Minimum B. Average C. Target

6. The HP bleed valve is open when the HP pressure is:

A. Less than 35 psig B. Less than or equal to 35 psig C. More than 35 psig

7. The selection of one valve or the other is caused by:

A. Pressure available and the systems used B. Temperature and the pressure available

C. Pressure available and engine speed

8. The check valve closes:

A. If the pressure is too high B. To stop the movement of air to the engine

C. To decrease the quantity of bleed air

9. The check valve is closed:

A. By 9th stage pressure B. By 5th stage pressure C. When the bleed valve closes
10. The IP bleed valve is open when IP pressure is:

A. Less than 35 psig B. More than 35 psig C. Less than or equal to 35 psig

11. The air is bled from:

A. One LP and one HP compressor stage B. Two HP compressor stages

C. One IP and one HP compressor stage

12. In climb and cruise … is (are) used.

A. The two bleeds B. The HP bleed C. The intermediate bleed

Read the text and complete the missing word-endings

The wing tank pump (1) ……… are located in a collect (2) ……… box form (3) ……... by root
Rib 1 and Rib 2. Rib 2 is sealed except for vent holes at the top and clack valves at the bottom through

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which fuel gravitate (4) ……… into the enclosure. Two inward-opening hinged panels in Rib 2
provide (5) ……… access into this area. This configuration make (6) ……… sure that the pumps are
fully in fuel during flight maneuvers. Each pump (7) ……… has an intake pipe fitt (8) ……… with a
strainer. A bypass pipe with suction valve enable (8) ……… the engine to get fuel by suction if the
pump (10) ……… do not work.

1. A. ing B. s C. or

2. A. or B. ing C. ed

3. A. s B. ed C. ing

4. A. s B. ed C. ing

5. A. “-“ B. s C. ing

6. A. ing B. ed C. s

7. A. s B. “-“ C. er

8. A. ed B. ing C. s

9. A. ing B. “-“ C. s

10. A. s B. “-“ C. ing

Read the following extract and then choose the best answer:
Take-off was aborted at 70 Kt. As IAS flag in Capt. ASI came into view. As an interim measure the
indicator was switched to ADC 2 and the A/C returned to service. At base, ADC N0 1 was replaced and
IAS indicators were swapped.

1. Is this a QRF?

A. No. B. Yes. C. It’s QRF.

2. Was the ASI measured?

A. Yes. B. It’s measured C. No.

3. Which ADC is replaced?

A. ADC N0 2 B. ADC N0 1 C. Non.

4. Where was it replaced?

A. At base B. On line C. In workshop

5. What was swapped?

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A. IAS B. ADC C. ABC

Read the following extract and then choose the best answer:
Pressurization on Syst 2. During climb, cabin rate of climb dropped -500 ft/min. Delta P increased.
Uncontrollable with RATE knob. Valves closed. Operation OK on SYS 1. See previous log entries
888949-888967-899304.

1. What A/C system is involved?

A. Syst. 1 B. Syst. 2 C. Syst. 3

2. What was anomaly?

A. Pressurization B. Oil level C. Bleed air

3. How much did cabin rate of climb decrease?

A. 300 ft/min B. 400 ft/min C. 500 ft/min

4. Did delta P decrease too?

A. Yes. B. No. C. Too much

5. How did they solve the problem?

A. Switching B. Swapping C. Replacing

Fill in the blank

Two cases _______ (1) where the upper outboard shroud panel P/N 057546015008/009 (IPC 57-
51-05 fig. 31A item 10A) FWD of aileron _______ (2) in flight.

Investigations
Initial investigations indicate ______ (3 production difficulty on a recent batch of panels, the
source _______ (4 which ______ (5 located and corrected. It ______ (6 that the installation is causing
the fasteners ______ (7 through the CFRP panel.

Follow-up plan

That an all operator telex _______ (8 next week requesting one-time visual inspection of these
panels. Subject to confirmation, the affected batch of panels _______ (9 on approximately 80 aircraft,
starting with MSN 183. Repair, if required will be ______ (10manufacturing the panel of aluminum
alloy.

1. A.have reported B. have recently been reported C. reported

2. A. detached B. detachment C. detach

3. A. a B. on C. in

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4. A. in B. to C. of

5. A. have been B. has been C. will be

6. A. appeared B. appear C. appears

7. A. to pull B. pull C. pulling

8. A. will issue B. will be issued C. would be issued

9. A. installed B. was installed C. were installed

10. A. caused B. from C. by

Read the following passages carefully and choose the best answer:

Passenger door operation

When the interior or exterior control handle is operated to open the door, a rod connected to the lifting
shaft and lower connection link raises the door to the opening level.

The door is swung outward in flight direction until the door buffer contacts the fuselage and the door
stay mechanism engage to lock the door.

Door guidance during the opening and closing operation is provided by the two guide arms causing the
door to remain parallel to the fuselage. To close the door the button located on the grip fitting of the
support arm is depressed releasing the door stay and the door is swung into the fuselage door frame.
When a control handle is operated the connection from the connection link to the lifting shaft lowers
the door.

No Sentences TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

(A) (B) (C)

1 Handle/ Connection lowers the door

2 The door is raised by a rod

3 Buffer isn’t used to stop the door

4 Guide arms maintain the door parallel to the

fuselage

5 The control handle isn’t operated to open the door

BATTERY CHANGE LIMITER (A320)

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Operators have reported various cases of battery change limiter failure which necessitated a
“BATTERY PBSW RESET” in order to recover normal operation.

Furthermore, when BCL bite is interrogated, no faults are reported.

Investigation revealed that some failures were caused by:

1. Printed circuit card (PCB) disconnection.

Vendor SB 35, OL5, 24, 002 has been issued to correct this situation. This SB introduces a rubber strip
on the BCL front face to ensure a good contact between the PCB and the connection board connectors.

2. A/D converter malfunction.

To inform operators of BCL reset procedure OEB 75/1 has been issued.

The next BCL standard consists in installing new software which will delete;

- Inadvertent BCL fault warnings

- Inadvertent class 3 messages on the PFR

- APU start inhibition of 45 sec at A/C power-up (REF TPU 49. 42. 00. 10)

Furthermore a battery change improvement (30 min time delay at the end of the charging cycle after
APU start). A new resistor on the contactor control transistor and an improved A/D converter are
planned.

The next BCL standard will be covered by an Airbus SB.

No Sentences TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN

(A) (B) (C)

1 A rubber strip has been added

2 The push button switch wiring will be examined

3 New software will be used

4 There will be a 30-second APU start time delay

5 The converter will be made better

OPERATIONAL EFFECTS

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A non-complying MPU noise cancellation coil is only known to affect normal system operation at
engine start, during an engine start the GCU monitors the MPU signal. When this signal is above 4320
RPM the GLC will close after a 80 Ms time delay.

If noise is superimposed onto the MPU signal the GCU computes an overestimated IDG speed. If the
calculated speed is greater than 4320 RPM the generator line contactor (GLC) will close.

Answer these questions:

1. At what IDG speed does the GLC close?

A. 3420 r.p.m. B. 2430 r.p.m. C. 4320 r.p.m

2. When does this fault change system operation?

A. At engine starts B. At engine start C. When engines start.

3. What do the sensors measure?

A. IDG speed B. IDG speeding C. Speed IDG

4. Which part of the sensor is wired in reverse?

A. The coil B. The noise C. The MPU

5. How may this effect the value of IDG speed?

A. It may be estimated B. It may be overestimated C. It may estimated

6. Use a scraper __________ the adhesive

A. remove B. to remove C.by removing

7. If the surface is dry, __________ it.

A. Lubricated B. Lubricates C. Lubricate

Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best option to fill in the blank

TRIM TRANSFER D/O

TRIM PIPE ISOLATION VALVE, AUXILIARY FORWARD TRANSFER VALVE AND
ACTUATORS
A trim pipe isolation valve and an auxiliary FWD transfer valve, both of the ball valve type,
…………… (1) in the center tank and ……………… (2) to the FWD face of the rear spar in the
center tank. The trim pipe isolation valve is installed at the FWD end of the fuel supply pipe to the
trim tank to …………… (3) all the aft transfers and the FWD transfers to the wings.
The auxiliary FWD transfer valve is installed in the trim pipe, in the center tank, to control the
fuel flow from the trim tank …………… (4) the center tank.
Each one is operated with a single electrical motor actuator attached to the rear face of the center
tank rear spar and equipped …………… (5) a visual position indicator.

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TRIM TANK ISOLATION VALVE AND ACTUATOR

A trim tank isolation valve, of the ball valve type, …………… (6) installed in the fuel line from
the trim tank to the trim pipe …………… (7) control the FWD transfer of fuel from the trim tank to
the trim pipe. It is installed at the bottom of the trim tank. It is operated with an …………… (8)
motor actuator attached to the bottom skin of the trim tank and equipped with a visual position
indicator.
TRIM TANK INLET VALVE AND ACTUATOR
A trim tank inlet valve, of the ball valve type, is installed in the fuel supply pipe to the trim tank in
order to control the flow of fuel into the trim tank. The valve is in the trim tank …………… (9) and is
attached to the bottom skin of the trim tank. It is operated with an electrical motor actuator attached to
the bottom skin of the trim tank and equipped with a visual position …………… (10).

1: A. is installed B. are installed C. is installing

2: A. attach B. attached C. attaching
3: A. control B. controlling C. controlled
4: A. of B. through C. to
5: A. with B. on C. to
6: A. is B. are C. “-“
7: A. due to B. in order to C. according to
8: A. electric B. electrical C. electrically
9: A. whereas B. so C. and
10: A. indicator B. indicate C. indicating

--
Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best answer for each question
following:
SYSTEM ARCHITECTURE D/O

In the VHF system, the RMPs are used for VDR1, 2 and 3 frequency control. The VDR
transceivers have 2 serial input ports: serial input port A and serial input port B. In normal
conditions, the three transceivers are tuned through port A from any RMP. The secondary port is
dedicated to RMP2 when RMP1 and RMP3 have failed. RMP3 controls the radio
communication transceivers through dialog buses and RMP1 and RMP2.The port selection is
performed through the PORT SELECTION information line.
The AMU acts as an interface between the users and the VHF systems for transmission and
reception of audio signals. The Push-to-talk (PTT) key line is a ground signal sent to the
transceivers through the AMU.
The ACPs are used for VHF transmission or reception selection mode and control of the
received audio signal levels through the AMU.
The VDR transceiver is a type 1 BITE system.
From the Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs) a discrete ground signal is sent to
the VDR transceivers, when the A/C is in flight with L/G down or not. The LGCIU sends the
FLIGHT/GROUND A/C status used by the VDR BITE, in order to increment the flight leg.
If the transmission lasts more than 1 minute, the "VHF1 EMITTING", "VHF2 EMITTING" or
"VHF3 EMITTING" amber message is displayed on the EWD, through the System Data
Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs).

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NOTE: Note: when a transmission lasts more than 30 seconds, the transceiver emits an aural
warning during 5 seconds.
The VDR 3 transceiver is also connected to the Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) for direct
exchange of data between the A/C and ground systems like A/C report or weather report. In
normal operation, the VDR 3 transceiver is tuned by the ATSU.

1. How many serial input ports are there in the VDR transceivers
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
2. Which panel controls the radio communication transceivers?
A. Radio management panel 1
B. Radio management panel 2
C. Radio management panel 3
3. What does AMU stand for?
A . Audio management unit
B. Automatic management unit
C. Automatic manage unit
4. What are used for VHF reception selection mode?
A. Automatic management units
B. Audio control panels
C. VHF data radio
5. When the A/C is in flight with L/G down or not, what signal is sent to the VDR transceivers?
A. A discrete ground from the LGCIU.
B. A discrete ground signals from the LGCIUs.
C. A discrete ground signal from the LGCIUs.

6. What happen if the transmission lasts more than 1 minute?

A. only the "VHF1 EMITTING" amber message is displayed on the EWD.
B. the "VHF1 EMITTING" amber message is disappeared on the EWD
C. an amber message :"VHF1 EMITTING", "VHF2 EMITTING" or "VHF3 EMITTING" is displayed
on the EWD.
7. What type is The VDR transceiver is a type 1 BITE system?
A. It is a type 1 BITE system.
B. It is a type 1 KBITE system.
C. It is a type 1 GBITE system.
8. What is the VDR 3 transceiver connected for direct exchange of data between the A/C and ground
systems
A. the Air Traffic Service Unit
B. the Air traffic control
C. The ATUS
9. In normal conditions, which transceivers are tuned through port A from any RMP?
A. VDR1 transceivers.
B. All three transceivers.
C. Both VDR1 and VDR2 transceivers.
10. When RMP1 and RMP3 have failed, which port is dedicated to RMP2
A .The serial input port B .
B. The serial input port A
C. The serial input port C.

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Read the following passage carefully and fill in the missing spaces by choosing A, B, or C

AIR SUPPLY SYSTEM D/O

GENERAL
Water tank pressurization is required to deliver water under pressure to the lavatories and galley
faucets. The water tanks are …..(1)….. between 25 psi and 30 psi (1.7 bar and 2.1 bar) using
different sources:
- the A/C pneumatic system (engines, APU),
- an electrical compressor,
- a ground air supply system.
A float valve …..(2)….. water from flowing from the Potable Water System (PWS) to the air
supply system.
AIR SUPPLY SYSTEM
The shuttle valve …..(3)….. the tanks to be pressurized either by the pneumatic system or the
ground air supply system. The air filter makes sure that unwanted material and dirt do not get
into the system. The relief and pressure-regulating valve …..(4)….. the pressure in a range of 25
to 30 psi and prevents overpressure in the water tank by …..(5)….. when the pressure reaches 34
psi (2.3 bar). The air check-valves let the pressurized air flow …..(6)….. in the direction of the
water tanks to prevent:
- a …..(7)….. of the pressure in the water tanks,
- an airflow …..(8)….. the tanks,
- a water flow in the direction of the air supply system.

AIR SUPPLY BOOST SYSTEM

The compressor power supply is a 115V AC …..(9)….. current. One air …..(10)….. is installed
on the inlet line and on the outlet line of the compressor. A thermal-overload protection circuit
protects the motor from overheating.

1. A. pushed B. pulled C. pressurized

2. A. allows B. prevents C. uses
3. A. allows B. prevents C. uses
4. A. increases B. decreases C. maintains
5. A. opening B. closing C. pulling
6. A. only B. with C. on
7. A. increase B. decrease C. stop
8. A. from B. to C. between
9. A. three-phase B. three-phased C. two-phase
10. A. tank B. pump C. filter
--

APU SYSTEM OVERVIEW

The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is located in the unpressurized tail cone.
The APU is a self-contained unit, which lets the aircraft be independent of external pneumatic
and electrical power sources. The APU is mounted in a fireproof compartment located in the
fuselage tail cone. Two access doors give access to the APU compartment for inspection and

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maintenance task. The APU is hanged in its compartment by shock-mounts. An exhaust duct
releases the APU gas into the atmosphere.
The APU is a constant-speed gas turbine engine. The constant-speed gas turbine engine drives
the accessory gearbox and a load compressor. The APU provides:
- electrical power for the aircraft systems,
- bleed air for engine starting and air conditioning on the ground,
- bleed air for air conditioning / pressurization and wing anti-ice in flight.
The APU air intake flap is mounted on the lower fuselage forward of the APU. The intake flap
opens when the APU master switch is selected ON and closes when the master switch is
selected OFF. When open, it supplies air to the APU inlet for combustion and pneumatic supply.
The APU operation is controlled and monitored by the Electronic Control Box (ECB). The ECB
has full authority over the following APU functions:
- starting,
- acceleration,
- speed governing,
- indication,
- fault monitoring,
- interface with A/C systems.
The APU is designed to operate throughout the entire flight envelope. Electrical power is
available whenever the APU operates, but bleed air is limited by the demand and is shut off
above approximately 23.000 ft.

1. Which ATA describes the APU?

A. 49 B. 63 C. 71-80
2. Where is the APU located?
A. The APU is located in the tail cone.
B. The APU is located in a compartment in the unpressurized tail cone.
C. The APU is located in a fireproof compartment in the unpressurized tail cone.
3. Which does the APU drive?
A. Constant-speed gas turbine engine.
B. Accessory gearbox and load compressor.
C. Both A & B
4. The APU does not provide:
A. Electrial power
B. Bleed air
C. Pressurization
5. What controls the APU intake flap?
A. The Electronic Control Box
B. The APU inlet
C. The APU master switch

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Choose the best answer:

Bleed air coming from the pneumatic system is first regulated in flow by two pack flow control
valves controlled by the Pack Controllers (PCs) according to flow demand inputs received from
the AIR panel and the Zone Controller (ZC).
Bleed air is then delivered to two independent air conditioning packs which ensure basic
temperature regulation. Each air conditioning pack mainly consists of an Air Cycle Machine
(ACM) and heat exchangers using ram air flowing through ram air inlet and ram air outlet flaps.
Pack temperature regulation is controlled by the associated PC according to a temperature
demand computed by the ZC based upon inputs received from the AIR panel and the Flight
Attendant Panel (FAP).
The cooled fresh air is then fed into a mixer unit. On ground, a ground cart supplies
preconditioned air through Low-pressure (LP) ground connectors. In flight, if both packs are
inoperative, an emergency ram air inlet will enable to maintain air supply to the cabin. The
emergency ram air supply is directly controlled from the AIR panel. Fine temperature
adjustment of air distributed in the pressurized zones is obtained by controlling the amount of
hot air added to the air coming from the mixer unit. This is under the control of the ZC
according to the temperature demand inputs received from the AIR panel and the FAP.A part of
cabin air is re-circulated by re-circulation fans through re-circulation valves in order to limit the
bleed air demand on the engines.

1. This is ATA chapter:

A. ATA 21- Air conditioning B. ATA 36-Pneumatic C. ATS 35 – oxygen
2. The text is about:
A. Bleed air demand on the engines
B. Temperature control and Re-circulation
C. The ramp air supply

3. The basic temperature regulation is ensured by

A. the AIR panel and the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP)
B. Not A & B
C. the ZC based upon inputs received from the AIR panel

4. How many air conditioning pack?

A. Many B. 2 C. 1

5. If the air conditioning packs are not operative, the air to cabin will be supplied by:
A. AIR panel B. An emergency ram air inlet C. a ground cart

6. The cabin air is re-circulated by re-circulation fans through re-circulation valves in order to
limit the bleed air demand on the engines.
A. True B. False C. Not given

-----
Choose the best answer:

The pressurization system makes sure that cabin altitude is safe and compatible with crew and
passenger comfort. The cabin pressurization is done by controlling the amount of cabin air
___1_ overboard through two outflow valves __2___ on the lower part of the aircraft Fuselage.

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The system is controlled automatically by the Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs), or manually
from the CABIN PRESS panel.
When the aircraft is on ground, the Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU) _3___ both outflow
valves ___4__ to the fully open position, __5___ the automatic control from CPCs and the
manual control as well.
This is to prevent any violent door __6__ in case of residual cabin pressure.
Three safety valves are installed at the rear pressure bulkhead to prevent excessive positive or
negative differential pressure. Due to the large volume of the fuselage, one negative-pressure
relief valve helps the safety valves to prevent negative differential pressure.

1/ A. discharged B. discharging C. charged

2/ A. are being located B. located C. are located
3/ A.forced B. is forced C. forces
4/A. moving B. to move C. moved
5/ A. overriding B. overide C. having been overridden
6/ A. opening B. to be openned C. open

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Choose the best answer:

GROUND CREW CALL HORNS (A 320)

It has been reported that since E.I.S and increased number of ground crew call horns have been
replace.
- Preliminary studies have shown that these horns are burning
- Further studies have been initiated in order to determine the exact causes of this phenomenon
and to find a solution to this trouble.
- Laboratory tests have indicated a weakness of relay 4WC.
- New fatigue strength tests with different relays were conducted.
- Test results showed that after 2 minutes of operation the horn failed.
- Operators should determine and advise airbus if the horn is being operated for more than 3
minutes at a time due to an activation of a warning on the ground, such as a loss of avionics
ventilation, APU fire or ADIRS operation on aircraft batteries. These warnings trigger as a result of
the ground crew call horn.
- In order to temporarily reduce the horn failure by 10% to 20%, an improved horn control relay
is now available through SB 23-1026.
In addition investigations and tests are in process to improve the current horn reliability. The result
of these investigations is expected for end June 91.

1. Which component is faulty?

A. APU fifre B. batteries C. Ground crew call horn
2. Is there a solution to this problem?
A. No. B. Yes. C. Yes, have done
3. What is the reference of the faulty delay?
A. WC B. 4WC C. forward galley
4. The horn fails after how many minutes?

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A. 2 mins B. 2 hrs C. 3 minutes

5. Whom must the airlines tell of any failures?
A. Airbus Industry B. Vietnam Airlines C. VAECO
6. How can you install the new control relay?
A. Wait for the order B. Through an A/D C. Through S/B 23-1026
7. Is this a definitive solution?
A. No. B. Yes C. Exactly
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SYSTEM ARCHITECTURE D/O

In the VHF system, the RMPs are used for VDR1, 2 and 3 frequency control. The VDR
transceivers have 2 serial input ports. serial input port A and serial input port B. In normal
conditions, the three transceivers are tuned through port A from any RMP. The secondary port is
dedicated to RMP2 when RMP1 and RMP3 have failed. RMP3 controls the radio communication
transceivers through dialog buses and RMP1 and RMP2.The port selection is performed through the
PORT SELECTION information line.
The AMU acts as an interface between the users and the VHF systems for transmission and
reception of audio signals. The Push-to-talk (PTT) key line is a ground signal sent to the
transceivers through the AMU.
The ACPs are used for VHF transmission or reception selection mode and control of the received
audio signal levels through the AMU.
The VDR transceiver is a type 1 BITE system.
From the Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs) a discrete ground signal is sent to
the VDR transceivers, when the A/C is in flight with L/G down or not. The LGCIU sends the
FLIGHT/GROUND A/C status used by the VDR BITE, in order to increment the flight leg.
If the transmission lasts more than 1 minute, the "VHF1 EMITTING", "VHF2 EMITTING" or
"VHF3 EMITTING" amber message is displayed on the EWD, through the System Data
Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs).
NOTE. Note. when a transmission lasts more than 30 seconds, the transceiver emits an aural
warning during 5 seconds.
The VDR 3 transceiver is also connected to the Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) for direct
exchange of data between the A/C and ground systems like A/C report or weather report. In normal
operation, the VDR 3 transceiver is tuned by the ATSU.

1. How many serial input ports are there in the VDR transceivers
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3
2. Which panel controls the radio communication transceivers?
A. Radio management panel 1 B. Radio management panel 2 C. Radio management panel 3
3. What does AMU stand for?
A. Audio management unit B. Automatic management unit
C. Automatic manage unit
4. What are used for VHF reception selection mode?
A. Automatic management units B. Audio control panels
C. VHF data radio
5. When the A/C is in flight with L/G down or not, what signal is sent to the VDR transceivers?
A. A discrete ground from the LGCIU. B. A discrete ground signals from the LGCIUs.
C. A discrete ground signal from the LGCIUs.

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6. What happen if the transmission lasts more than 1 minute?

A. only the "VHF1 EMITTING" amber message is displayed on the EWD.
B. the "VHF1 EMITTING" amber message is disappeared on the EWD
C. an amber message ."VHF1 EMITTING", "VHF2 EMITTING" or "VHF3 EMITTING" is
displayed on the EWD.
7. What type is The VDR transceiver is a type 1 BITE system?
A. It is a type 1 BITE system. B. It is a type 1 KBITE system.
C. It is a type 1 GBITE system.
8. What is the VDR 3 transceiver connected for direct exchange of data between the A/C and ground
systems
A. the Air Traffic Service Unit B. the Air traffic control C. The ATUS
9. In normal conditions, which transceivers are tuned through port A from any RMP?
A. VDR1 transceivers. B. All three transceivers.
C. Both VDR1 and VDR2 transceivers.
10. When RMP1 and RMP3 have failed, which port is dedicated to RMP2
A. The serial input port B . B. The serial input port A C. The serial input port C.

Choose the best answer:

WINGS GENERAL
The wings are joined at the fuselage side to a center wing box built integrally with the fuselage each
comprises a primary structure of box – type construction, auxiliary structure and movable flight
surfaces. The main gear is supported by the continuation of the primary structure aft of the rear spar.
The primary structure consists mainly of machined spars, ribs and stringer reinforced top and
bottom main skins, and is utilized as two fuel tanks with boundaries formed by the front and rear spars
and ribs 1, 14 and 27. Design of these tanks provides that primary sealing is by the mechanical
attachment of the structural members with the additional use of polysulphide sealants. The fasteners
used are mainly steel and titanium Hi-Lok or Taper-Lok type bolts and light alloy Drivematic rivets.
Bolt location diagrams, which identify each bolt position in the skins between the front and rear spars,
are available on request under Drawing number R571.40138 for B2 airplanes and R571.40141 for B4
airplanes.
With the exception of ribs 2 and 15, the intervening ribs act as fuel baffles. Ribs 2 and 15 are
partially sealed and fitted with clack valves which permit the fuel to flow inboard only. The area
between ribs 27 and 29 is utilized as a fuel surge vent tank.
Access to the fuel tank interior is through removable manhole covers in the bottom skin panels.

1. Each wing comprises three main parts

A. True B. False C. Not Given
2. The main gear is attached to the wing center box
A. True B. False C. Not Given
3. The spars are assembled
A. True B. False C. Not Given
4. There are 29 ribs
A. True B. False C. Not Given
5. The fuel tanks are formed by the two spars and ribs 1, 13, 27
A. True B. False C. Not Given

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