January 2016

Examiners’ Report
NEBOSH International
Diploma in
Occupational Health
and Safety (Unit C)
Examiners’ Report

NEBOSH INTERNATIONAL DIPLOMA IN

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY

UNIT IC:
INTERNATIONAL WORKPLACE
AND WORK EQUIPMENT SAFETY

JANUARY 2016

CONTENTS

Introduction 2

General comments 3

Candidate performance 4

Learning outcomes 4

Examination technique 10

Command words 13

 2016 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700 fax: 0116 282 4000 email: [email protected] website: www.nebosh.org.uk

The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered charity, number 1010444
 Introduction

NEBOSH (The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health) was formed in 1979 as
an independent examining board and awarding body with charitable status. We offer a
comprehensive range of globally-recognised, vocationally-related qualifications designed to meet the
health, safety, environmental and risk management needs of all places of work in both the private and
public sectors.

Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 50,000 candidates annually and are offered
by over 600 course providers, with examinations taken in over 120 countries around the world. Our
qualifications are recognised by the relevant professional membership bodies including the Institution
of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH) and the International Institute of Risk and Safety
Management (IIRSM).

NEBOSH is an awarding body that applies best practice setting, assessment and marking and applies
to Scottish Qualifications Authority (SQA) regulatory requirements.

This report provides guidance for candidates which it is hoped will be useful to candidates and tutors
in preparation for future examinations. It is intended to be constructive and informative and to promote
better understanding of the syllabus content and the application of assessment criteria.

© NEBOSH 2016

Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to:

NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester
LE19 1QW

tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
email: [email protected]

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 General comments

Many candidates are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant
answers in response to the demands of the question paper. This includes the ability to demonstrate
understanding of knowledge by applying it to workplace situations.

There are other candidates, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment and who
show both a lack of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how key
concepts should be applied to workplace situations, which is an essential requirement at Diploma
level.

This report has been prepared to provide feedback on the standard date examination sitting in
January 2016.

Feedback is presented in these key areas; examination technique, command words and learning
outcomes and is designed to assist candidates and course providers prepare for future assessments
in this unit.

Candidates and course providers will also benefit from use of the ‘Guide to the NEBOSH International
Diploma in Occupational Health and Safety’ which is available via the NEBOSH website. In particular,
the guide sets out in detail the syllabus content for Unit IC and tutor reference documents for each
Element.

Additional guidance on command words is provided in ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ which is also available via the NEBOSH website.

Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit IC ‘Example question paper
and Examiners’ feedback on expected answers’ which provides example questions and details
Examiners’ expectations and typical areas of underperformance.

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 Unit IC
International workplace and work equipment safety

Candidate performance
This report covers the examination sitting in January 2016.

Learning outcomes

Question 1

11.1 Outline the principles of operation of liquefied gas storage; refrigeration systems; and
heating systems

Learning outcome 11.1 is broad in its requirements. However, there are two specific demands within
the supporting text concerning the hazards of steam and the mechanism of a steam explosion.
Candidates need to be able to outline the hazards that steam poses in industrial processes. This not
only includes the thermal comfort issues but also gas under pressure, the potential for noise and the
problems associated with steam hammer.

Candidates are also expected to be able to understand the mechanism of a steam explosion. The
syllabus identifies the Corus Blast Furnace accident in Port Talbot in 2001. It would have been a
distinct advantage for candidates to have read about this incident, or a similar one, in order to have
correctly answered the question.

It was evident that there was a lack of sufficient background reading on this subject. This would have
given candidates an insight into the practical issues surrounding steam explosions, such as having
sufficient cooling water available; having adequate means of leak detection; and having recovery
plans following abnormal plant conditions.

Most candidates found this area of the syllabus extremely challenging, with many not attempting the
question at all. A major pitfall was that candidates answered the question that they would have liked
to have been asked, or that they had a prepared answer for. Quite a number of candidates provided
answers to a previous question concerning the inadvertent closure of connecting valves to sight
glasses on a package(d) boiler. While the answers were correct in their own way, they were not worthy
of marks.

Candidates appear not to be prepared for an element 11 question. This confirms the comments given
in the July 2015 Examiners’ Report concerning Q3 on that paper.

Question 2

6.2 Describe, with examples, the principal generic mechanical and non-mechanical hazards
of general workplace machinery

6.3 Describe protective devices found on general workplace machinery

6.4 Explain the principles of control associated with the maintenance of general workplace
machinery

Within the general category of work equipment, candidates need to be able to identify the generic
hazards presented by a range of work equipment, including bench-mounted saws. Circular saws, and
by implication bench-mounted saws, are specifically listed in learning outcome 6.2.

Overall, the Examiners are of the view that there was a high degree of rote learning associated with
this question. For many candidates, this was their highest scoring question on Section A.

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Candidates provided good answers on these learning outcomes and there were no identifiable areas
of weakness or common pitfalls. One minor exception was that few candidates identified the need for
a braking system as a means of safeguarding bench-mounted saws.

This question assessed three specific learning outcomes within element 6 and candidates seemed to
be well prepared for this area of the syllabus.

Question 3

2.2 Outline the behaviour of structural materials, buildings and build contents in a fire

2.3 Outline the main principles and practices of fire and explosion prevention and protection

This question assessed two specific learning outcomes within element 2. Both required an
understanding of the principles of fire and explosion and its effects on structural materials. This
appears to be a popular area for candidates and may reflect the high proportion of candidates from the
oil and gas industry entering this award.

There were no evident areas of weakness and candidates seemed to be well prepared for this area of
the syllabus. Many candidates gave long explanations for part (b) that only required an ‘identify’. This
was a classic example of where candidates do not read and follow the question’s command word.
However, as with Question 2 above, Examiners were of the view that there was a high degree of rote
learning.

Question 4

1.3 Explain the assessment of risk and safe working practices associated with work in
confined spaces

Many candidates provided plausible answers to this question. Although candidates may not be
familiar with the scenario, they need to be able to apply general principles to specific situations.
Confined spaces can occur in many workplace settings not just the conventional entry into sewers and
tanks. Candidates were asked to consider a different environment, that of a roof space. Many
potential issues are present including overheating, falls from height and how to extract a worker in an
emergency (limited size of access way), a single means of access and so on.

Candidates did not read the question and take the time to fully understand the scenario presented to
them and in consequence they sometimes provided irrelevant or unrelated answers. Many candidates
were unable to define what constituted a confined space.

When the question asks for the ‘factors to be considered’ in assessing the risks it is not looking for
candidates to go straight into listing all the possible control measures. Within the risk assessment
process, candidates are attempting to miss out essential steps and going straight to ‘the answer’.

The syllabus is very clear that ‘candidates should be able to demonstrate understanding of the content
through application of knowledge to familiar and unfamiliar situations’. These words preface each
and every set of learning outcomes in the syllabus. Course providers and candidates need to be
reminded of this and they should expect to face (as in the past) scenario-based questions, that reflect
real-life working practices.

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Question 5

5.2 Explain how risks to health and safety arising from the use of work equipment are
controlled

5.4 Explain the role of competence, training, information and supervision in the control of
risks arising from the installation, operation, maintenance and use of work equipment

7.1 Describe the main hazards and control measures associated with commonly encountered
mobile work equipment

This question was scenario-based and required candidates to demonstrate understanding across a
number of learning outcomes relating to work equipment and to mobile work equipment especially.

Candidates need to be able to explain the full range of hazards associated with mobile work
equipment. Learning outcome 7.1 specifically refers to the hazards associated with power take offs
(PTOs). Many works vehicles use PTOs to power ancillary equipment such as pumps and generators.
PTOs are therefore a commonly encountered and practical aspect of mobile work equipment (along
with drive shafts and moving parts). Candidates need to be familiar with them.

The main area of weakness was that candidates were not prepared for questions based on practical
scenarios covering a number of learning outcomes. In Unit C, candidates are expected to show an
understanding of health and safety issues across a number of manufacturing processes and industrial
settings. Background reading, case studies and personal research all help to better equip candidates
to be able to tackle these demands.

There were two main pitfalls. Firstly, candidates confused belt drives with PTOs. Secondly,
candidates had a limited understanding of ‘competence’. There are many instances where the
employer has to make a judgement on a worker’s competence. Candidates seemed unable to explain
what constitutes competence, except for saying that a worker needs to attend a course, or have a
relevant certificate.

Course providers and candidates need to note that the syllabus refers to ‘commonly encountered’
mobile work equipment and that the requirement is a broad one. Questions concerning lift trucks,
agricultural tractors and works’ vehicles (such as shovel loaders, aircraft tugs and dumper trucks) are
all examinable.

Few candidates were able to explain competence requirements for mobile work equipment. This is an
area that might have been considered, incorrectly, as a Unit A topic and as a result may have been
overlooked by both candidates and course providers.

Question 6

4.1 Outline the main physical and chemical characteristics of industrial chemical processes

Most candidates had a clear understanding of batch manufacturing processes involving chemicals.
Some of the answers showed a level of detail that clearly indicated that the candidate had some first-
hand, practical knowledge of the subject. Better answers were evident when candidates were asked
to outline methods for preventing and mitigating runaway reactions. Candidates cited the use of
neutralisation, inhibitors, and the dumping of reactants, plus the use of high integrity temperature
detection and agitation failure alarms.

One of the three parts of this question used the command word ‘identify’. Many candidates wasted
valuable time by providing more fulsome ‘outline’ answers, when these were not required.

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In giving the meaning of ‘runaway reaction’, the key aspect is its exponential nature. An exothermic
reaction on its own does not necessarily lead to a runaway reaction.

An exothermic reaction can lead to thermal runaway, which begins when the heat produced by the
reaction exceeds the heat removed. The surplus heat raises the temperature of the reaction mass,
which causes the rate of reaction to increase.

Thermal runaway can occur because, as the temperature increases, the rate at which heat is removed
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increases linearly but the rate at which heat is produced increases exponentially.

Generally, candidates provided good answers to this question and, other than the exponential nature
of runaway reactions, there were no identifiable areas of weakness or common pitfalls.

Question 7

4.2 Outline the main principles of the safe storage, handling and transport of dangerous
substances

This question concerned the storage of dangerous substances and how bulk, palletised containers of
flammable materials are stored and used. Learning outcome 4.2 is wide-ranging and concerns
‘storage methods and quantities – bulk, intermediate, drum storage, specific locations’. While not
explicitly stated in the question, the part of the learning outcome that was being assessed in this case
was that of intermediate storage (on pallets). For clarity, intermediate storage also includes bulk bags
known as flexible intermediate bulk storage (FIBCs), commonly known as bulk bags. These are
widely used across many industries and typically store one tonne of bulk materials and are within the
scope of the syllabus.

Candidates often provided answers to the wrong parts of the question. So, answers concerning
design issues appeared in response to the parts of the question concerning use of the store.
Examiners are unable to award marks to answers given in this way and candidates must read the
question carefully and then correctly answer question in the order that it is asked.

Some candidates over-concentrated on transport systems and forklift trucks, while these were valid
points they did not warrant a large number of marks. Candidates did not appreciate that this was a
question concerning storage of dangerous goods rather than a workplace transport one. Very few
answers related to protection zones and intrinsic safety.

Question 8

6.2 Describe, with examples, the principle generic mechanical and non-mechanical hazards
of general workplace machinery

6.3 Describe protective devices found on general workplace machinery

6.6 Explain the key safety characteristics of general workplace machinery control systems

Learning outcome 6.2 lists common machinery hazards that candidates are expected to understand.
In addition to simpler machines such as radial drills, guillotines, sanders and lathes, it also lists more
complex machinery such as computer numerical control (CNC) machines and robotics. It may be
incorrectly thought that these machines are only used in heavy engineering. However, they have
applications in many industries. Example of their usage includes engraving, manufacturing of circuit
boards and pick-and-place operations in food production and food packaging.

Candidates are expected to know the full range of safeguarding measures available, including
interlocked guards, light curtains and pressure mats. Maintenance provisions and the safety
requirements for the training of robots are also included.

This was not a popular question. However, those candidates who did answer showed a good
knowledge of hazards presented by robots. Very few candidates could outline how the risks of injury
(and the introduction of the necessary safeguarding measures) could be minimised.

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The feedback from Examiners was that candidates had rote learned the answers to this question. This
was an unpopular question with candidates, with modest marks gained by those who did attempt it.
The impression gained by Examiners was that candidates were unprepared for this learning outcome.
This would suggest that both course providers and candidates are neglecting more complex
machinery hazards in learning outcome 6.2 and the relevant aspects of learning outcome 6.6 on
machinery control systems.

Question 9

1.5 Explain the hazards, risks and controls when working at heights

1.6 Explain the hazards, risks and controls for lone working

9.3 Explain the hazards associated with working at heights from fixed work or temporary
platforms and the necessary precautions and safe working practices

Candidates must be able to apply their knowledge and understanding to practical situations that may
touch on a number of syllabus areas. In this case, working at height from a temporary platform and
lone working. Unit B has similar, but adjoining, topics concerning psycho-social agents. However,
these are concerned with work-related violence and aggression. Learning outcome 1.6 looks at the
wider problems facing lone workers, and candidates and course providers are advised not to overlook
its requirements.

Many candidates did not fully describe the safety precautions as directed by the question’s stem.
While answers were mostly correct, many lacked a full description. This meant that candidates often
did not gain the full marks for what was otherwise a good answer. There were misunderstandings
about the use of harnesses and the need to use carabineers to connect the harness to an anchored
point on the work platform.

A common mistake was to misread the question. What was asked for was the ‘factors’ to be
considered in developing an emergency plan for a worker, not the controls that would be implemented
after considering the relevant factors. Candidates tended to list all the control measures they could
think of, and consequently did get awarded any marks for what was not relevant to the question.

Course providers and candidates are reminded that aspects of lone working appear on the Unit IC
syllabus and are examinable. There are complementary but different syllabus requirements in Unit IB
concerning violence and aggression.

Question 10

8.3 Outline the issues relevant to the installation, use, inspection and maintenance of
electrical systems

8.4 Outline the main principles for safe working in the vicinity of high voltage systems

This question was based around the scenario of the safe use of electricity on a construction site. The
expectation was that candidates could apply their knowledge and understanding of electrical safety to
the practical situation of a construction site. The dynamic nature of the work, the use of contractors,
damage to cables (whether overhead, underground and surface) and the damage by vehicles and
plant are all factors that increase the risk of using electricity in this environment. Safe working near
high voltage lines is also covered on this part of the syllabus.

Many candidates seemed to be unaware of the practical issues that may arise when using electricity
on a construction site. While candidates were aware of the use of ‘goal posts’ and barriers to prevent
contact with high voltage lines, they were unable to talk about issues concerned with the installation of
electricity (especially the strength and capability of equipment for the environment). Neither were they
able to discuss excess current protection; cutting off supply and isolation; or working space and
access.

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The most common pitfall was to confuse the answers to the two parts of the question. The first part
concerned the factors that increased the risks from using electricity on construction sites and the
second concerned control measures to minimise those risks. Marks were unavailable for correct
answers albeit to the wrong question.

Course providers and candidates need to be prepared to answer long questions that assess learning
outcomes 8.3 and 8.4, which are arguably the more demanding aspects of element 8.

Question 11

3.5 Explain the purpose of, and essential requirements for, emergency evacuation
procedures

This question concerned a fire drill exercise at a large multi-storey office premises. Candidates need
to be able to explain the purpose of emergency evacuation procedures. These procedures include,
but are not limited to, evacuation in the event of a fire. Other emergencies may foreseeably arise.
The learning outcome also incorporates the phrase ‘..and essential requirements for..’ emergency
evacuation procedures. This means that candidates are going to be asked questions around their
understanding of why emergency plans are necessary, rather than being asked to detail the contents
of an emergency plan.

A common mistake generally with this learning outcome is that candidates wish to provide great detail
about the contents of an emergency plan, when they are actually being asked a question around the
necessity for having such a plan.

It was clear to Examiners that some candidates had rote-learned answers to this question. Examiners
draw attention to the comments made above in relation to Q4, that the learning outcomes are prefaced
by the requirement that ‘candidates should be able to demonstrate understanding of the content
through application of knowledge to familiar and unfamiliar situations’. Candidates might therefore
be asked to consider the fire evacuation arrangements in commonly encountered workplace settings
including public buildings, hotels and workers’ hostels.

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Examination technique
The following examination techniques are consistently identified as the main areas in need of
improvement for candidates:

Candidates misread/misinterpreted the question

Careful and thorough preparation for the examination is vital for candidates. Accredited course
providers should assist candidates in setting out and applying sound revision and examination practice
and preparation techniques to ensure that they are well prepared for the examination. This includes
ensuring that candidates carefully read the question to determine exactly what is being asked and
answer accordingly.

Examiners noted that there was evidence of candidates not understanding the question that was
asked and therefore providing an answer that was not relevant to the question.

The range of English language skills demonstrated in the examination by candidates varies
enormously. Examiners often find themselves faced with scripts where candidates do not appear to
have understood the question and struggle to write a coherent answer in English. Candidates for this
examination should satisfy the required IELTS Level 7 language requirements. Course providers are
reminded that it is incumbent on them to provide appropriate advice and guidance to candidates to
help ensure that they stand a reasonable chance of success in the study of the NEBOSH Diploma.

There were numerous examples of quite long, detailed answers that suggest practical experience but
do not focus on the question being asked. This may be a result of candidates either not reading the
question properly, or because of possible language issues where candidates do not understand what
the question is asking.

The examination is assessing candidates on their understanding if ‘managing’ health and safety and a
number of candidates did not seem to grasp this resulting in long, detailed answers on such issues as
‘what to look for in an audit’ rather than how to prepare for and manage an audit.

Examiners ask questions based on the syllabus. Points, no matter how valid, but unrelated to the
question being asked, will not attract any marks. Candidates should note that where there is
emphasis in a question (eg by the use of italics) it is to guide candidates towards a particular point.
Reading and re-reading the question encompasses taking due note of this emphasis.

Candidates’ handwriting was illegible

The examination situation is a stressful time for candidates and while the examination is not a test of
the English language or handwriting scripts must be legible for Examiners to mark them fairly. As the
examination progresses, candidates can become both mentally and physically tired. In an
increasingly electronic age, professional people do not have the same need to write text in longhand.
However, to pass this examination it is an essential and necessary part of the preparation to rehearse
writing questions in full and in the time allocated.

When practicing examination technique, candidates should hand-write their answers and get feedback
from their course providers on legibility (as well as how they performed).

Course providers need to identify those candidates whose handwriting is illegible and provide them
with appropriate advice. Examiners cannot award marks for answers that they are unable to read.

Candidates unnecessarily wrote the question down

There are 15 minutes to answer a 10-mark question in Section A and 30 minutes available to answer
a 20-mark question in Section B of the question paper. This time will be required for reading, re-
reading and understanding the question, developing an answer plan on the answer booklet and finally
committing the answer to the answer booklet. The efficient use of time is essential in order to answer
the 9 questions within the 3 hours available. The majority of Examiners reported that candidates felt it
necessary to write the question out in full, before providing the associated answer, and this limits the
time available. Course providers should remind candidates that it is not necessary to include a
question with their answer.

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Good examination technique is followed where the candidate frames the answer in the context of the
question, rather than rewriting the whole of the question. As with the other examination technique
points above, good examination technique is developed through practice and good preparation.

Candidates repeated the same point but in different ways

In some cases candidates tended to make the same point more than once, eg training. Once a valid
point has been made and the mark awarded Examiners will not be able to award the mark again.
Unless otherwise stated, most questions require candidates to respond with a wide range of issues to
gain high marks. Consequently candidates should take care when using terms that contain numerous
points that should be made separately.

Accredited course providers should brief candidates on examination technique by way of

understanding what points are mark worthy in an answer and those that are not.

Candidates did not respond effectively to the command word

A key indicator in an examination question will be the command word, which is always given in bold
typeface. The command word will indicate the depth of answer that is expected by the candidate.

Generally, there has been an improvement in response to command words, but a number of
candidates continue to produce answers that are little more than a list even when the command word
requires a more detailed level of response, such as ‘outline’ or ‘explain’. This is specifically addressed
in the following section dealing with command words, most commonly failure to provide sufficient
content to constitute an ‘outline’ was noted. Failure to respond to the relevant command word in
context was also a frequent problem hence information inappropriate to the question was often given.

Course exercises should guide candidates to assessing the relevant points in any given scenario such
that they are able to apply the relevant syllabus elements within the command word remit.

Candidates provided rote-learned responses that did not fit the question

Examiners report a high incidence of candidates writing down answers they have memorised from
previous Examiners’ Reports. These answers often relate to a similar, but different question, to which
the memorised answer is not wholly applicable. For example, it may require a different aspect of the
topic or relate to a different scenario.

Candidates are expected to apply their knowledge and understanding to the actual question given, not
the question they think they see. This is why it is extremely important that candidates understand and
are able to apply their knowledge, and not just memorise. Course providers should help candidates
apply their knowledge to a range of different scenarios to aid understanding of the topic.

Candidates did not allocate enough time to the question

Some candidates were unable to give answers of sufficient depth to warrant good marks and
sometimes spent more time on questions carrying fewer marks than was warranted by the command
word.

Candidates need to take note of the fact that answers in Section A are worth 10 marks and those in
Section B are worth 20 marks. The Examiners’ expectation is that more detailed answers are required
in Section B. Some candidates spend a disproportionate amount of time in writing long answers to
Section A questions at the expense of time spent on the more in-depth answers demanded in Section
B. Proper preparation and ‘mock’ examinations can help to correct this.

Accredited course providers should ensure that candidates are given adequate opportunity to develop
examination skills to ensure that answers are provided to the depth and breadth required.

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Structured Answers

It is important for candidates to structure their answers as this helps cover all the requirements of the
question without losing focus. It is good examination technique to look for the principles or the
concepts that underpin the topic and to use those as a basis for delivering a structured answer.

Candidates answered by posing a question

Candidates need to resist the temptation to present their answers as merely a series of questions.
‘Outline’ requires candidates ‘To indicate the principal features or different parts of’ and this is not
done through posing questions to the Examiners.

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Command words

Please note that the examples used here are for the purpose of explanation only.

The following command words are listed in the order identified as being the most challenging for
candidates:

Outline

Outline: To indicate the principal features or different parts of.

Most candidates are familiar with the requirements of ‘outline’. However, a number of candidates
expect that by listing or giving bullet points that will be sufficient. At this level of qualification
candidates are expected to be able to construct sentences around their answers.

An ‘outline’ question requires candidates to give the main issue and then provide the key features in
the context of the question. Where a question that requires candidates to ‘outline the issues to be
addressed in the development of an audit system’ the response should provide adequate context to
the issues in order to gain the marks. An answer that merely includes issues such as ‘scope, training,
commitment, etc’ will not gain good marks since while the issues are relevant there is no context to the
issues in relation to the question asked.

Candidates should provide context to the point being made to demonstrate understanding of the
subject.

As required by a Diploma level qualification candidates should be able to demonstrate a detailed

understanding of the subject matter and therefore be able to summarise and contextualise technical
points in the field of health and safety. Those candidates who did provide good outlines to questions
demonstrated understanding of the topic without going into too much detail.

If asked to ‘outline the purpose of local exhaust ventilation’ in a given scenario, an answer such as
‘contaminant removal, exposure limits’ would be insufficient as this represents a listed answer.
However, removal of contaminant at source (as far as possible) and ensuring exposure limits are not
exceeded would higher gain marks.

If asked to ‘outline how health risks from exposure to lead should be managed…’ in a given scenario,
an answer such as medical tests, PPE, RPE would be insufficient as this represents a listed answer.
However, surveillance tests for lead in blood/urine, the use of PPE such as overalls, the use of RPE
such as respirator with appropriate particulate/fume filters would gain marks.

Explain

Explain: To provide an understanding. To make an idea or relationship clear.

Many candidates are still not properly prepared for this examination. A list of points (no matter how
relevant) will not satisfy Examiners when the command word is ‘explain’. So for example, where
candidates were asked to explain the circumstances where heat and smoke detectors would be
inappropriate, Examiners were looking for candidates to explain that heat detectors would be
inappropriate in environments where temperatures fluctuate suddenly during normal work activities.
Just saying ‘workshops’, for example, is not enough to provide an answer to an ‘explain’ question.

Commonly, candidates do not provide adequate detail in relation to this command word, eg ‘explain
limitations of relying on accident numbers only as a measure of health and safety performance’. An
appropriate response would provide the reader with reasons why relying solely on accident numbers
would not provide a comprehensive view of the organisational performance in health and safety, eg
accident numbers do not indicate incidence of ill-health and accident data may go up following
initiatives following underreporting, etc.

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Candidates are generally unable to provide clear answers where this command word is used but that
may be due to lack of knowledge rather than not understanding what is required, since an explanation
requires the candidate to provide reasoning for their answer. For example, when a question specifies
‘explain’ the candidate is required to provide an understanding or make clear an idea or relationship.
For example ‘explain how malaria is transmitted to humans’. If a candidate responded with mosquito
bites humans this would be insufficient to merit full marks as this does not provide a deep enough
understanding or relationship from the specified command word or the context in which the question is
asked. However, a candidate would get full marks if they elaborated on this stating that the disease
originates with the plasmodium parasite that is then transmitted to humans via a bite from a feeding
female mosquito that carries it; the parasite then transferring to the human blood stream, travelling to
the liver.

For example, when a question specifies ‘explain’ the candidate is required to provide an
understanding or make clear an idea or relationship. For example ‘explain how the wet bulb globe
temperature (WBGT) equation is used to assess heat stress’. If a candidate responded with calculate
WBGT and compare with standards this would be insufficient to merit full marks as this does not
provide a deep enough understanding or relationship from the specified command word or the context
in which the question is asked. However, if a candidate responded with stating the WBGT equation
(outside vs inside), the need to compare the calculated result with the international standard values,
the need to take account of factors such as metabolic rate (as tabulated in the standard), the
assumptions of the typical fit, healthy worker and normal level of clothing etc, this would merit the
awarding of marks.

Describe

‘Describe. To give a detailed written account of the distinctive features of a topic. The account should
be factual without any attempt to explain.’

Candidates are required to provide a word picture in response to this command word and therefore
the candidate needs to have a good understanding of the topic of the question in the examination in
order to gain good marks. Typically, a limited response to this command word will be an inadequate
amount of detail in the answer.

For example, when asked to describe the contents of a safety policy candidates should provide the
Examiner with relevant information about the contents of the policy, eg ‘the policy should contain
details of the organisational commitment to health and safety’. This would be supported with specific
targets and commitment resource to ensuring compliance as a minimum but developing the health
and wellbeing of the employees, etc’. An answer that goes no further than listing the topics of to be
covered in the policy would not attract good marks in the examination.

In the examination, lists and single word answers will rarely satisfy the requirement of the Examiners
in terms of answering the question at this level. It is noticeable that the well prepared candidate has
less trouble deciphering command words and tends to gain good marks whereas those candidates
who use single word answers will tend not to have the knowledge to write anything further in the
context that is required.

Give

Give: Only a short answer is required, not an explanation or a description.

‘Give’ is normally used in conjunction with a further requirement, such as ‘give the meaning of’ or ‘give
an example in EACH case’.

In some circumstances candidates may spend too much time giving unrequired detail in response to
this command word. It is often used in conjunction with the meaning of a phrase or statement and
candidates can overelaborate the required answer. Time management is important in the examination
and candidates should ensure that they respond with appropriate brevity where the command word
and available marks suggest that is all that is required.

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When asked to ‘give the meaning of motivation’, it would appropriate to say that ‘motivation is the
driving force that leads an individual to behave in a certain way’. It would not be appropriate to
discuss in detail different motivational theories.

On the whole most candidates respond well to this command word, often by offering a definition.
There is evidence where candidates go into too much detail that left those candidates writing large
amounts of text for very few marks.

Identify

Identify: To give a reference to an item, which could be its name or title.

As with ‘give’ above it is not uncommon for candidates to overelaborate their answers in response to
this command word. It is adequate for a candidate to provide the key point to the Examiner without
further developing the point with supporting theory or examples unless they are specifically asked for.

When providing a response to ‘identify’ the mental selection and naming of an answer that relates to
the question should be sufficient. In most cases, one or two words would be sufficient to be awarded
corresponding marks. Any further detail would not be required and impacts negatively on the time
limit for completing the examination. For example, if the question was ‘identify possible effects on the
body when someone is exposed to lead’ suitable responses would include developmental effects in
unborn babies, anaemia, nausea/vomiting in order to be awarded a mark.

For additional guidance, please see NEBOSH’s ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ document, which is available on our website:
www.nebosh.org.uk/students/default.asp?cref=1345&ct=2.

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The National Examination
Board in Occupational
Safety and Health

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email [email protected]
www.nebosh.org.uk