Questions in ORTHODONTICS

1. The “ugly duckling” stage in mixed dentition is characterized by

A. increase overjet and deep overbite
B. distoangular axial inclination of both maxillary central and lateral incisors with
median diastema
C. transposition of maxillary central and lateral incisors
D. retroclination of maxillary central and proclination of lateral incisor
2. A labial frenum causes a diastema between the permanent maxillary central incisors. The lateral incisors and
canines have not erupted. The most appropriate immediate management is to
A. perform a frenectomy
B. close the space with a fixed orthodontic appliance
C. observe the case until the eruption of permanent maxillary lateral incisors and canines
D. close the space after the eruption of the permanent lateral incisors
3. Your patient's molar relationship can be described as having the lower second primary molar's distal surface
more posteriorly than the maxillary second primary molar that it occludes against. This relationship is known as a
A. class III
B. distal step
C. mesial step
D. flush terminal plane
4. In an 8 year old patient, the most appropriate management of mild anterior crowding is to
A. interproximally reduce all proximal contacts
B. extract the deciduous canines
C. perform a space analysis
D. regain space in the arch
5. A 10 year old patient is missing a permanent maxillary left lateral incisor. There are no other orthodontic
problems. A dental implant is planned when the patient is an adult. The most appropriate management is to
A. extract the maxillary left canine as soon as possible
B. encourage the permanent left canine to erupt into an Angle’s Class I relationship
C. let the permanent canine erupt into a mesial position and reposition it into an Angle’s Class I as soon as
possible
D. let the permanent canine erupt into a mesial position and reposition it into an Angle’s Class I before
placing the implant
E. let the permanent canine erupt into a mesial position and place the implant distal to the canine
6. Clinical examination of a 15 year old girl shows permanent central incisors, permanent canines and primary
canines all in contact and anterior to the premolars. The most likely cause is
A. ankylosed primary canines
B. ankylosed permanent canines
C. impacted permanent lateral incisors
D. congenitally missing permanent lateral incisors
7. Conversion of a flush terminal plane to a mesial step/Class I terminal plane in the absence of orthodontics is
primarily the result of
A. loss of mandibular primate space
B. greater maxillary than mandibular forward growth
C. differences in leeway between the maxillary and mandibular arches
D. distal movement of the maxillary first permanent molars
8. What is the most appropriate time to extract a mesiodens?
A. As soon as diagnosed
B. Just prior to the eruption of the maxillary central incisors
C. Just prior to the eruption of the maxillary canines
D. Just prior to the eruption of the first permanent molars
9. What happens to the permanent molar occlusion in the presence of a flush terminal plane and mandibular
primate spaces?
A. Erupts end-to-end; early mesial shift into Class I occlusion
B. Erupts end-to-end; late mesial shift into Class I occlusion
C. Erupts with Class II tendency
D. Erupts with Class III tendency
10.What would be the likely effect of early unilateral loss of a deciduous second molar on the developing
dentition?
A. Shift of the dental midline to the unaffected side
B. Shift of the dental midline to the affected side
C. No shifting of the dental midline
11. The leeway space as determined by Nance refers to the size differences between the primaryteeth and their
successors. In the mandibular arch, this is ___mm. per quadrant, while in themaxillary arch this is ___mm. per
quadrant.
A. 1.7 and 0.9
B. 0.9 and 1.7
C. 1.5 and 0.7
D. 0.7 and 1.5
12. A 17 year old has maxillary mammelons due to the presence of an anterior
A. edge-to-edge bite
B. cross bite
C. deep bite
D. open bite
13. A patient presented with a history of cleft palate and anterior crossbite. What is the most likely skeletal
cephalometric finding?
A. Maxillary protrusion
B. Maxillary retrusion
C. Normal maxillary position
D. Mandibular protrusion
14. A y-axis of growth value that is greater than its maximum normal range is indicative that the patient is
growing
A. normally
B. more horizontally
C. more vertically
D. at its pace
15. A 4-year-old child who has to undergo removal of severely decayed second primary molar would require a
A. band and Loop space maintainer
B. crown and Loop space maintainer
C. distal shoe space maintainer
D. removable partial denture
16. A Class II Division 1 patient exhibits
A. overjet of 2 mm.
B. overjet of 10 mm.
C. competent lips
D. prognathic mandible
17. Crossbites are
A. abnormal mesial-distal relation between opposing teeth in centric relation
B. abnormal facial-lingual relation between opposing teeth in centric relation
C. abnormal occlusal-cervical relation between opposing teeth in centric relation
18. Methods of serial extraction are, EXCEPT
A. Steiner
B. Nance
C. Dewel
D. Tweed
19. Distocclusion with labioversion of the maxillary anterior teeth
A. Angle Class II Div. 0
B. Angle Class II Div. 1
C. Angle Class II Div. 2
20. The following sites in the craniofacial complex grow by endochondral ossification
A. Maxilla and cranial base
B. Cranial base and cranial vault
C. Mandible and cranial base
D. Cranial vault and mandible
21. Mosstheory explains that the primary determinant of craniofacial growth is _______and that bone responds
passively to being displaced.
A. bone
B. cartilage
C. soft tissue matrix
D. neurotrophic
22. The mesiobuccal cusp of 26 is located in the distobuccal groove of 36.
A. Normal
B. Class I
C. Class II
D. Class III
23. An analysis that predicts the size of erupting permanent 3,4,5 by the sum of M-D width of mandibular incisors
divided by 2 + 10.5mm in the mandibular arch.
A. Moyers
B. Tanaka and Johnston
C. Huckaba
D. Go
24. Nolla’s stages of calcification is important to determine the following, EXCEPT
A. time of eruption
B. age
C. rate of eruption
D. rotation
25. A plane which is constructed by connecting porion and orbitale
A. Maxillary plane
B. Mandibular plane
C. FHP
D. SN line
26. Long and narrow head
A. Dolicocephalic
B. Mesocephalic
C. Brachycephalic
27. FMA value associated with open bite
A.  25
B.  25
C. = 25
28.Apatient with a hypodivergent profile exhibits
1. flattened occlusal plane
2. steep occlusal plane
3. clockwise mandibular rotation
4. counter-clockwise mandibular rotation
5. AFH is less than the PFH
6. AFH is greater than the PFH
A. 1, 3, 5
B. 2, 4, 6
C. 1, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 6
E. 1, 3, 6
29. In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently used. In patients with
severe Class II malocclusion, the angle is
A. less than the norm
B. greater than the norm
C. normal
D. unrelated
30. An orthodontic force wherein the crown and root are moved in opposite directions around a center of rotation
within the root
A. Torque
B. Translation
C. Tipping
31. Which of the following is the best space maintainer?
A. Band and loop appliance
B. Nance holding arch
C. Pulpectomized primary molar
D. Fixed lingual arch
32. The growth theory that implicates the role of the nasal cartilage in the growth of the maxilla and mandible is
the
A. Sicher’s theory
B. Scott’s theory
C. Van Limborgh’s theory
D. Petrovic’s theory
33. A patient with hyperdivergent facial form has an anterior vertical facial growth that is greater than posterior
condyle growth with clockwise rotation expressed as steep mandibular plane. This condition has the tendency to
develop
A. deep bite
B. open bite
C. crossbite
34. A patient presents a True Class III in his primary dentition stage. It presents a classic skeletal and dental pattern
with retruded maxilla, prognathic mandible, concave profile and retroclined lower incisors. What would be the
treatment of choice for this patient?
A. 2x4 appliance
B. Reverse pull headgear
C. Parietal pull headgear
D. Occipital pull headgear
E. Cervical pull headgear
35. The anchorage which is not allowed to change or move during orthodontic treatment
A. Simple anchorage
B. Stationary anchorage
C. Reciprocal anchorage
36. Treatment options for Class III malocclusions are, EXCEPT
A. protraction facemask
B. chincup
C. twin block
D. camouflage treatment
 E. orthognathic surgery
37. Premature exfoliation of deciduous canines may indicate
A. arch length deficiency
B. thumb sucking habit
C. lip biting habit
D. skeletal malocclusion
38. The points Go, Me, Pog are found in the
A. cranial vault
B. maxilla
C. mandible
D. all of the above
39. Best example of reciprocal tooth movement
A. distalization
B. mesialization
C. diastema closure
D. extrusion/intrusion
E. none of the above
40. Force required for bodily movement
A. 70-120 gm
B. 80-90gm
C. 55-70gm
D. 56-80 gm
41. The function of this appliance is to prevent the corrected malocclusion to undergo relapse
A. Nance holding arch
B. Lingual holding arch
C. Hawley’s retainer
D. Hyrax appliance
42. The smaller the interincisal angle, the relation of the upper and lower teeth with one another is
A. more protrusive
B. more vertical
C. either A or B
D. neither A nor B
43. Prolonged non-nutritive sucking habits have been associated with the following, EXCEPT
A. decreased maxillary arch width
B. increased overjet
C. increased overbite
D. anterior open bite
E. posterior crossbite
44.What is the response of alveolar bone to orthodontic sites?
A. Tooth movement stimulates jaw growth, thereby allowing arch expansion
B. Bone is deposited at pressure sites, and resorbed at tension sites
C. Bone is resorbed at pressure sites and deposited at tension sites
D. Alveolar bone does not respond to orthodontic forces unless the individual is growing
45. Fracture of maxillary central incisors will generally occur in an 8 year old child with
A. Class I type 3
B. Class I type 4
C. Class II division 1
D. class II division 2
46. Functional appliances are, EXCEPT
A. Frankel's regulator
B. Edgewise appliance
C. Bionator
D. Activator
E. Trainer system
47. Wire used for the construction of Adam’s clasp
A. 0.020” SS wire
B. 0.024”SS wire
C. 0.030”SS wire
D. 0.042”SS wire
48. Each set of clear aligners should be worn at least 20 hours a day for
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 30 days
49. An indicator of pubertal growth peak which utilizes the lateral cepahalogram for ideal timing of growth
modification treatment
A. radiographic hand and wrist maturational method
B. cervical vertebrae maturational method
C. third finger middle phalanx method
D.dental maturation method
50. The maxilla as a whole translates ______ and ______ as it grows.
A. upward, forward
B. downward, forward
C. downward, backward
D. upward, backward