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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ THỂ THAO (2)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James A.
Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now
Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the
wintertime. The New England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in outdoor
activities. Naismith determined that a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void
after the baseball and football seasons had ended.
First he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon found
them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game.
In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets as either end of the gymnasium at the
school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game. The
early rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball a violation. Every time a
goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball.
Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the
United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City,
which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.
The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in the 1897 season.
When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Louis, it
quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the
basket, but the name basketball has remained.
Question 1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. The Olympic Games in St. Louis in 1904
B. The development of basketball
C. The YMCA athletic program
D. Dr. James Naismith
Question 2. When was the first demonstration game of basketball held during the Olympics?
A. 1891
B. 1892
C. 1897
D. 1904
Question 3. The phrase “balked at” in paragraph 1 could best replaced by
A. resisted
B. enjoyed

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C. excelled at
D. were exhausted by
Question 4. The word “fierce” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. long
B. boring
C. extreme
D. dark
Question 5. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. indoors
B. seasons
C. games
D. areas
Question 6. Where in the passage does the author discuss the first basketball championship
tournament?
A. Naismith determined that a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the
baseball and football seasons had ended.
B. In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets as either end of the gymnasium at the
school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game.
C. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City, which was won by the
Brooklyn Central YMCA.
D. The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in the 1897 season.
Question 7. What does the author mean by the statement in: “When basketball was introduced as a
demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Louis, it quickly spread throughout the
world”?
A. Basketball was not considered an Olympic sport at the St. Louis games.
B. Basketball became popular worldwide after its introduction at the Olympic Games in St. Louis.
C. Basketball players from many countries competed in the Olympic Games in St. Louis.
D. Basketball was one of the most popular sports at the Olympic Games in St. Louis.
Question 8. Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
A. He did not like soccer or rugby.
B. He was tired of baseball and football.
C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.

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D. He could not convince his students to play indoors.

Question 9. The author mentions all of the following was typical of the early game of basketball
EXCEPT
A. three points were scored for every basket
B. running with the ball was not a foul
C. nine players were on a team
D. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score
Question 10. It can be inferred from the passage that the original baskets
A. were not placed very high
B. had a metal rim
C. did not have a hole in the bottom
D. were hung on the same side
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Foot racing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as
a way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good
cause. Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might
not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to
enjoy the fun and exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in
strollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college
campuses through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest foot race in the world in the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco
every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west
side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the streets and
hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in as
little as 34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take several hours to finish. In the back of the
race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who
dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a long
line and who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a
long white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and
they were actually married at some point along the route.
Question 1. The phrase "to a good cause" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of
the following?
A. to protect a wise investment
B. for a good purpose
C. to reward the winner
D. for an award

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Question 2. A "bystander" in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?

A. walker
B. participant
C. spectator
D. judge
Question 3. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. chronological order
B. statement and example
C. cause and result
D. specific to general
Question 4. The word "camaraderie" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. companionship
B. jokes
C. games
D. views
Question 5. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?
A. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization.
B. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
C. Walkers can compete for prizes.
D. Foot races appeal to a variety of people.
Question 6. In what lines does the author give reasons for why people enter foot races?
A. People of all ages … in length.
B. The largest … 34 minutes.
C. Behind them … a fire hose.
D. Foot racing … and exercise.
Question 7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners were serious about winning.
B. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
C. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.

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D. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.

Question 8. The main purpose of this passage is to
A. describe a popular activity
B. encourage people to exercise
C. make fun of runners in costume
D. give reasons for the popularity of foot races

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ THỂ THAO

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision to make about
their children's careers. Should they allow their children to train to become top sportsmen and women?
For, many children it means starting very young and school work, going out with friends and other
interests have to take second place. It's very difficult to explain to a young child why he or she has to train
for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when most of his or her friends are playing.
Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for' training is available from the
government for the very best young sportsmen and women. If this help cannot be given it means that it is
the parents who have to find the time and the money to support their child's development - and sports
clothes, transport to competitions, special equipment etc. can all be very expensive.
Many parents are understandably worried that it is dangerous to start serious training in a sport at an early
age. Some doctors agree that young muscles may be damaged by training before they are properly
developed. Professional trainers, however, believe that it is only by starting young that you can reach the
top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very few people do reach the top and both parents
and children should be prepared for failure even after many years of training.
Question 1. When a child is determined to train a sport, it means that
A. he or she has to study much harder in class
B. he or she needs to get the best marks in class
C. his or her time must be devoted to school work
D. his or her school work is considered less important than training
Question 2. In many countries, it’s the government that
A. trains all of the young sportsmen and women
B. provides the best young sportsmen and women with the money for training
C. helps parents with the transport to competitions
D. supplies the time and education for the best young sportsmen and women.
Question 3. Some doctors think that
A. training at an early age may cause damage to the muscles
B. young muscles can be properly developed by training hard
C. by starting young a child can reach the top as a sportsperson
D. it’s dangerous for young children to play any sports

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Question 4. According to the author, parents and their children should

A. look forward to the failure
B. be made to expect the failure
C. think of the failure they may meet
D. prepare for many years of training
Question 5. What’s the writer’s intention?
A. inform us about training
B. discuss training methods
C. give details about training costs
D. suggest a training program
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
In ancient Greece athletic festivals were very important and had strong religious associations. The
Olympic athletic festival, held every four years in honour of Zeus, eventually lost its local character,
became first a national event, and then, after the rules against foreign competitors had been abolished,
international. No one knows exactly how far back the Olympic Games go, but some official records date
from 776 B.C.
The Games took place in August on the plain by Mount Olympus. Many thousands of spectators gathered
from all parts of Greece, but no married woman was admitted even as a spectator. Slaves, women and
dishonoured people were not allowed to compete. Records show that the evening of the third day was
devoted to sacrificial offerings to the heroes of the day, and the fourth day, that of the full moon, was set
aside as a holy day. On the sixth and last day all the victors were crowned with holy garlands of wild
olive from a sacred wood. So great was the honour that the winner of the foot race gave his name to the
year of his victory. How their results compared with modern standards, we unfortunately had no means of
telling.
After an uninterrupted history of almost 1,200 years, the Games were abolished in A. D. 394 because of
their pagan origin. It was a great many years before there was another such international athletic
gathering. The Greek institution was brought back into existence in 1896 and the first small meeting took
place in Athens. After the 1908 London Olympics, success was re-established and nations sent their best
representatives.
Today, the Games are held in different countries in turn. The Olympics start with the arrival in the
stadium of a torch, lighted on Mount Olympus by the sun’s rays. It is carried by a succession of runners to
the stadium. The torch symbolizes the continuation of the ancient Greek athletic ideals, and it burns
throughout the Games until the closing ceremony.
Question 1. The first Olympic Games took place
A. in the 17th century A.D
B. certainly before 700 B.C

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C. over three thousand years

D. a thousand years ago
Question 2. At the ancient Olympic Games, any competitor had to be
A. Greek
B. male
C. unmarried
D. neither a slave nor a foreign
Question 3. The word “that” refers to
A. the third day
B. the fourth day
C. the evening
D. a holy day
Question 4. During the Games, on the evening before the moon was full,
A. sheep and cattle were sacrificed to Zeus
B. all the victors were crowned with garlands
C. olive branches were gathered from a sacred wood
D. the heroes were honoured with sacrificed offerings
Question 5. Modern athlete’s results cannot be compared with those of the ancient runners because
A. details such as times were not recorded in the past
B. the Greeks had no means of telling the time
C. modem athletes are much better
D. official records were lost soon after the Games were abolished
Question 6. The word “pagan” is closest in meaning to
A. Greek
B. Olympic
C. religious
D. sporty
Question 7. The continuity of the Olympic Games
A. was broken in the year A.D 1200
B. was broken in 1896

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C. was interrupted for over 1,500 years

D. was interrupted for almost 1,200 years
Question 8. The phrase “in turn” can best be replaced by
A. in a sequence
B. by chance
C. in order
D. in time
Question 9. The word “succession” is closest in meaning to
A. procession
B. a number
C. process
D. marching
Question 10. The modern Olympics compared with the ancient ones are
A. inspired by the same ideals
B. more restricted in the variety of events
C. different in every respect
D. too much concerned with international rivalry

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ MÔI TRƯỜNG (2)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 3. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Global warming could cause drought and possibly famine in China, the source of much of Hong Kong’s
food, by 2050, a new report predicts. Hong Kong could also be at risk from flooding as sea levels rose.
The report recommends building sea-walls around low-lying areas such as the new port and airport
reclamations. Published by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), the report, which includes work by
members of the Chinese Academy of Meteorological Sciences, uses the most recent projections on
climate change to point to a gloomy outlook for China.
By 2050, about 30 to 40 per cent of the country will experience changes in the type of vegetation it
supports, with tropical and subtropical forest conditions shifting northward and hot desert conditions
rising in the west where currently the desert is temperate. Crop-growing areas will expand but any benefit
is expected to be negated by increased evaporation of moisture, making it too dry to grow crops such as
rice. The growing season also is expected to alter, becoming shorter in southern and central China, the
mainland’s breadbasket. The rapid changes make it unlikely that plants could adapt.
“China will produce smaller crops. In the central and northern areas, and the southern part, there will be
decreased production because of water limitations”, Dr. Rik Leemans, one of the authors of the report,
said during a brief visit to the territory yesterday. Famine could result because of the demands of feeding
the population - particularly if it grows - and the diminished productivity of the land. “It looks very
difficult for the world as a whole”, he said.
Global warming is caused by the burning of large amounts of fossil fuels, such as coal and oil, which
release gases that trap heal in the atmosphere. World temperatures already have increased this century by
about 6 degrees Celsius and are projected to rise by between 1.6 degrees and 3.8 degrees by 2100.
Dr. Leemans said China’s reliance on coal-fired power for its industrial growth did not bode well for the
world climate. “I think the political and economic powers in China are much greater than the
environmental powers, and [greenhouse gas emissions] could accelerate,” Dr. Leemans said. “China is
not taking the problem seriously yet, although it is trying to incorporate this kind of research to see what
is going to happen.”
The climate change repot, which will be released tomorrow, focuses on China but Mr. David Melville of
WWF-Hong Kong said some of the depressing scenarios could apply to the territory. Food supplies, for
instance, could be affected by lower crop yields. “Maybe we could afford to import food from elsewhere
but you have to keep in mind that the type of changes experienced in southern China will take place
elsewhere as well,” he said. Sea levels could rise as glaciers melted and the higher temperatures expanded
the size of the oceans, threatening much of developed Hong Kong which is built on reclaimed land.
Current projections are that sea levels worldwide will rise by 15 to 90 centimetres by 2100, depending on
whether action is taken to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
“Hong Kong has substantial areas built on reclaimed land and sea level rises could impact on that, not
only on Chek Lap Kok but the West Kowloon Reclamation and the Central and Western Reclamation -
the whole lot,” Mr. Melville said, adding that sea walls would be needed. Depleted fresh water supplies
would be another problem because increased evaporation would reduce levels. Mr. Melville said the
general outlook could be helped if Hong Kong used water less wastefully and encouraged energy
efficiency to reduce fuel-burning. He also called on the West to help China improve its efficiency.

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Question 1. Overall, what sort of picture is painted of the future effects of global warming?
A. relatively optimistic
B. on balance things are going to be satisfactory
C. potentially disastrous
D. disastrous

Question 2. What is this passage?

A. a preview of a report
B. a report
C. an article describing a response to a report
D. an article previewing a report

Question 3. Mr. David Melville suggests that in future more food could be imported into Hong
Kong. He thinks these measures could be
A. inefficient B. efficient C. insufficient D. sufficient

Question 4. The main point of paragraph 3 is to describe:

A. effects of changes in the climate of China on the growing season.
B. future changes in the climate of China.
C. projected future changes in the climate of China.
D. effects of changes in the climate of China on food production.

Question 5. The main point of paragraph 5 is to describe:

A. global warming.
B. the effects of global warming.
C. the causes and effects of global warming.
D. the causes and projected effects of global warming.

Question 6. Why does the writer add the information in square brackets in paragraph 5?
A. because, although they are not part of the original quote, the additional information given is necessary
to understand the statement.

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B. because the writer is quoting from another source.

C. because the quote is from a second language user whose command of English is not perfect.
D. because the writer wants to emphasize the meaning of these words.

Question 7. In paragraph 7, which point is Mr. Melville NOT making?

A. suggesting that there is a potential disaster in Hong Kong.
B. criticising current safeguards.
C. making a call for action.
D. suggesting that reclamation areas arc at risk.

Question 8. How would you describe the Dr. Leeman’s attitude towards China?
A. admiring. B. mainly favourable.
C. supportive in theory. D. critical.

Question 9. In paragraph 2, “negated” is closest in meaning to

A. reduced B. made ineffective C. made possible D. paid for

Question 10. In paragraph 7, “depleted” could be replaced by which of the following?

A. decaying B. decimated C. reduced D. poor

Exercise 4. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a
greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily
available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such resources are
solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of
worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of
photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are
equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of
the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power,
which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are
trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is produces

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electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel
resources. And as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple.
A prime example of effective geothermal use is in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where
over 80 percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal energy are just
two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is long overdue to
invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale.
Question 1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 2. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
Question 3. Which of the following words could best replace the word “harnessing”?
A. Capturing
B. Harassing
C. Depleting
D. Exporting
Question 4. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 5. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy
production?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.

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Question 6. Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence: “Although the US
is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a similar capacity to generate
geothermal power”?
A. after the phrase “earth-friendly”
B. after the phrase “growing steadily”
C. after the phrase “by geothermal power”
D. after the phrase “global scale”
Question 7. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.
Question 8. What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
Question 9. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power
Question 10. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
C. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ KHOA HỌC VÀ CÔNG NGHỆ (1)
Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
For many years, scientists have speculated that the cataclysmic impact of ail asteroid with the earth was
responsible for the demise of the dinosaurs approximately 65 million years ago. Previous discoveries and
results have hinted that an asteroid two kilometers in diameter struck the Yucatan peninsula in Eastern
Mexico. This impact, stronger than one thousand nuclear explosions, is speculated to have cast a cloud of
dust and debris into the atmosphere, covering the entire surface temperature of the earth and blocking out
the sun and consequently lowering the surface temperature of the earth. With such a radical change in the
earth’s environment, scientists believe that over 99% of all animal and plant species were eradicated.
Only after millions of years did plants and animals even begin to recover. But, the reign of the dinosaurs
had ended and the age of mammals had begun.
The crucial link that has held this theory together has been the element iridium. Iridium is not commonly
found on either the surface of the earth or inside the crust. It is more commonly found in asteroids or
meteorites throughout the solar system. Scientists have hypothesized that after the asteroid impacted the
earth, an even layer of iridium sediment settled over the globe and eventually became part of its surface.
The theory, of course, has depended on the discovery of such an existing layer of iridium.
Unfortunately, scientists have never been able to offer absolute proof that this asteroid impact ever
occurred. Recently, however, a discovery may go a long way toward validating these scientists’ theories.
In 1996, a team of marine biologists excavated samples of rock from the floor of the Atlantic Ocean just
off the coast of Bermuda. Found thousands of meters below the sea, these samples contain iridium similar
to those found in the Yucatan peninsula thousands kilometers away. At first, scientists were skeptical
whether the samples were from the same time period. But since carbon dating placed them to 65 million
years ago, their doubts were quickly alleviated. Since then many of the other theories for the demise of
the dinosaur have been finally laid to rest.
Question 1. This passage mainly discusses a theory about
A. which type of dinosaur roamed where
B. archeological evidence from Mexico and the Atlantic Ocean
C. why the dinosaurs turned into birds and reptiles
D. the extinction of the dinosaurs
Question 2. According to the passage, approximately how large was the asteroid that scientists believe
struck the Earth?
A. 2 kilometers in diameter
B. 65 kilometers in diameter
C. 1000 kilometers in diameter
D. 99 kilometers in diameter

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Question 3. The word “hinted” is closest in meaning to

A. disproved B. flirted
C. denied D. implied
Question 4. The word “cast” is closest in meaning to
A. shone B. climbed
C. dispersed D. excused
Question 5. What can be inferred from the passage about asteroid impact mentioned in the passage?
A. New plants and animals evolved with the changed environment.
B. The gravitational force from the earth’s core is altered.
C. A planetary defense system formed.
D. The climate remained fairly constant.
Question 6. The word “reign” is closest in meaning to:
A. understanding B. dominance
C. denial D. extremity
Question 7. The word “It” refers to
A. crust B. asteroids
C. earth D. iridium
Question 8. What does third paragraph of the passage mainly discuss?
A. The major processes that have created the Earth’s crust.
B. The composition of the ocean floor in the Atlantic Ocean.
C. Recent discoveries that may confirm the asteroid impact hypothesis.
D. The discovery of ancient fossils located far beneath the ocean floor.
Question 9. According to the passage, the iridium found beneath the ocean floor near Bermuda
A. can be refined into fossil fuels
B. is similar to the iridium found on the Yucatan peninsula
C. originated from dinosaur remains
D. was chemically manufactured by miners
Question 10. The paragraph following the passage probably discusses
A. the relationship between volcanic activity and dinosaur extinction
B. why dinosaurs lived where they did

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C. recent computer imagery of dinosaur movement

D. the possibility of a future asteroid impact
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
The ubiquitous bar code, developed more than twenty years ago, is not a stagnant product. On the
contrary, the technology has been improved so that it can be used more efficiently. Much less expensive
than a computer chip, the bar code can hold more information than it has in the past by adding a second
dimension to the structure.
The bar code consists of a series of parallel vertical bars or lines of two different widths, although
sometimes four widths are used, printed in black on a white background. Barcodes are used for entering
data into a computer system. The bars represent the binary digits 0 and 1, just like basic computer
language, and sequences of these digits can indicate the numbers from 0 to 9, which can then be read by
an optical laser scanner and processed by a digital computer. Arabic numbers appear below the code.
The traditional bar code has been used to monitor skiers at ski lifts and to determine price and perform
inventory control on groceries, drugs, medical supplies, manufactured parts, and library books to name a
few. The bar code used on grocery products, introduced in the 1970s, is called a universal product code
(or UPC) and assigns each type of food or grocery product a unique code. The five digits on the left are
assigned to a particular manufacturer or maker and the five digits on the right are used by that
manufacturer to identify a specific type or make of product. Traditional single dimension bar codes are
not readily customizable because there is little extra space.
The two-dimensional bar code, with an information density of 1,100 bytes, allows a considerably greater
amount of information to be coded than does the traditional bar code, including customized information.
[A] It also has built-in redundancy, meaning that the identical information is duplicated on the same code.
[B] Therefore, if the code is damaged, it can still be read. [C] The technology even allows pictures or text
to be contained within the code, as well as barcode encryption. [D] The new technology dramatically
reduces the errors of the single dimensional bar code and reduces the enormous costs that some
companies have reported in the past.
Question 1. The word “ubiquitous” in the first sentence is closest in meaning to:
A. outdated B. ever-present C. new D. complicated
Question 2. The word “stagnant” in the first sentence is closest in meaning to
A. ever-changing B. useful C. stale D. useless
Question 3. The author implies that the bar code:
A. has only recently become popular
B. will never change
C. is not useful
D. has existed in one-dimensional form for years
Question 4. The author’s main purpose is to describe
A. the current technology and newest innovation of bar codes

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B. problems with the bar code

C. the UPC used in grocery stores
D. why the bar code is no longer viable
Question 5. Where in the final paragraph ([A], [B], [C], or [D]) could the following sentence be logically
placed?
Thus, the manufacturer is able to add additional information on the bar code that it finds useful for its own
tracking purposes.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Question 6. Which of the following can be a UPC symbol?
A. A code with five digits on the left, five on the right, two different widths, and one number under each.
B. A code with six digits on the left, four on the right, two different widths, and one roman numeral under
each.
C. A code with five digits on the left, five digits on the right, five or six different widths, and one number
under each.
D. A code with five digits on the left, five digits on the right, reverse form (white text on black
background), and no numbers under.
Question 7. A UPC is a type of
A. computer program
B. bar code
C. grocery item
D. scanner
Question 8. The word “widths” in the second paragraph refers to
A. its size
B. its direction
C. its location
D. its content
Question 9. In the past, a common use of the bar code was
A. to encrypt pictures
B.to keep track of products stocked and sold
C. to act as a computer
D. to hide text
Question 10. The word “considerably” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ MÔI TRƯỜNG (1)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or
have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast
numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost
entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in
personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of
extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the
world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival –
and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an
effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then
charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend
on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect
the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products
made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from
being hunted and killed.
Question 1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Problems with industrialization
B. The Bengal tiger
C. International boycott
D. Endangered species
Question 2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “alarming” in paragraph 1?
A. distressing B. dangerous C. serious D. gripping
Question 3. Which of the following could best replace the word “case” as used in paragraph 1?
A. trade B. contrast C. situation D. act
Question 4. The word “poachers” as used in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. concerned scientists B. trained hunters
C. illegal hunters D. enterprising researchers
Question 5. The word “callousness” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. indirectness B. independence
C. incompetence D. insensitivity

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Question 6. The previous passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.
A. specific and general information B. a comparison and a contrast
C. a problem and a solution D. a statement and an illustration
Question 7. What does the word “this” in paragraph 1 refer to in the passage?
A. Interest in material gain B. Killing animals for personal gratification
C. Bengal tigers D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 8. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in paragraph 2?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
Question 9. What does the term “international boycott” in paragraph 2 refers to?
A. Buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. A global increase in animal survival
D. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
Question 10. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. surprised C. vindictive D. concerned

Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in what are called
greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but tend to reflect back
downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the Earth's atmosphere. This
process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most significant of these gases – there is
25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than there was a century ago, the result of our
burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a warmer place.
They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5 degrees Celsius in the
next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years from 1987 to 1997 were the
warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that global warming has actually begun
because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade to decade, and it takes many years of
records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little disagreement, though, that global warming is
looming.
Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected to have more
extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more powerful storms.
Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that exaggerated weather
conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the western United States, where
temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic decreases in rainfall may lead to severe
droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of Africa, for example. Warmer temperatures are

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expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the
year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood coastal cities, force people to abandon low-
lying islands, and completely inundate coastal wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are
primarily found in the tropics, may become more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics
and the polar regions, called the temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal
species that are not easily able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may
bring extinction.
Question 1. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Problems and Solution
B. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
C. Global Warming: Future Reactions
D. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
Question 2. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in
greenhouse gases?
A. Glass in a greenhouse B. Humans
C. Carbon dioxide D. Solar radiation
Question 3. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. scientists B. temperatures C. gases D. increases
Question 4. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means
A. fading B. showing C. ending D. appearing
Question 5. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.
B. Global climate naturally changes over time.
C. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
D. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.
Question 6. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means
A. improving B. increasing C. preventing D. decreasing
Question 8. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
A. Sarcastic B. Informative C. Ironic D. Argumentative

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ KHOA HỌC VÀ CÔNG NGHỆ (3)
Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Botany, the study of plants, occupies a peculiar position in the history of human knowledge. For many
thousands of years it was the one field of awareness about which humans had anything more than the
vaguest of insights. It is impossible to know today just what our Stone Age ancestors knew about plants,
but from what we can observe of pre-industrial societies that still exist; a detailed learning of plants and
their properties must be extremely ancient. This is logical. Plants are the basis of the food pyramid for all
living things, even for other plants. They have always been enormously important to the welfare of
people, not only for food, but also for clothing, weapons, tools, dyes, medicines, shelter, and a great many
other purposes. Tribes living today in the jungles of the Amazon recognize literally hundreds of plants
and know many properties of each. To them botany, as such, has no name and is probably not even
recognized as a special branch of ‘knowledge’ at all.
Unfortunately, the more industrialized we become the farther away we move from direct contact with
plants, and the less distinct our knowledge of botany grows. Yet everyone comes unconsciously on an
amazing amount of botanical knowledge, and few people will fail to recognize a rose, an apple, or an
orchid. When our Neolithic ancestors, living in the Middle East about 10,000 years ago, discovered that
certain grasses could be harvested and their seeds planted for richer yields the next season, the first great
step in a new association of plants and humans was taken. Grains were discovered and from them flowed
the marvel of agriculture: cultivated crops. From then on, humans would increasingly take their living
from the controlled production of a few plants, rather than getting a little here and a little there from many
varieties that grew wild - and the accumulate knowledge of tens of thousands of years of experience and
intimacy with plants in the wild would begin to fade away.
Question 1. Which of the following assumptions about early humans is expressed in the passage?
A. They probably had extensive knowledge of plants.
B. They divided knowledge into well-defined fields.
C. They did not enjoy the study of botany.
D. They placed great importance on ownership of property.
Question 2. The word “peculiar” is closest in meaning to
A. clear B. large
C. unusual D. important
Question 3. What does the comment “This is logical” mean?
A. There is no clear way to determine the extent of our ancestors’ knowledge of plants.
B. It is not surprising that early humans had a detailed knowledge of plants.
C. It is reasonable to assume that our ancestors behaved very much like people in pre-industrial societies.
D. Human knowledge of plants is well-organized and very detailed.

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Question 4. The phrase “properties of each” refers to each

A. tribe B. hundred
C. plant D. purpose
Question 5. According to the passage, why has general knowledge of botany declined?
A. People no longer value plants as a useful resource.
B. Botany is not recognized as a special branch of science.
C. Research is unable to keep up with the increasing number of plants.
D. Direct contact with a variety of plants has decreased.
Question 6. What is the author’s purpose in mentioning “a rose, an apple, or an orchid”?
A. To make the passage more poetic
B. To cite examples of plants that are attractive
C. To give botanical examples that most readers will recognize
D. To illustrate the diversity of botanical life.
Question 7. According to the passage, what was the first great step toward the practice of agriculture?
A. The invention of agricultural implements and machinery.
B. The development of a system of names for plants.
C. The discovery of grasses that could be harvested and replanted.
D. The changing diets of early humans.
Question 8. The word “controlled” is closest in meaning to
A. abundant B. managed
C. required D. advanced
Question 9. The relationship between botany and agriculture is similar to the relationship between
zoology and
A. deer hunting
B. bird watching
C. sheep raising
D. horseback riding
Question 10. Where in the passage does the author describe the benefits people derive from plants?
A. Botany, the study of plants, … of human knowledge.
B. Plants are the basis … many other purposes.

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C. Unfortunately, the more … knowledge of botany grows.

D. From then on, … to fade away.
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of
extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun’s rays .Desert
mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature.
Instead of trying to keep down the body temperatures deep inside the body, which would involve the
expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally
be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant’s gazelles.
The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall
unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of
the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does
not begin until well into the day.
Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be
fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without
harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight.
An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can
drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few
minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one
session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body
fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the
desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and
far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely
dehydrated; it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate
thirst.
Question 11. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Weather variations in the desert
B. Adaptations of desert animals
C. Diseases of desert animals
D. Human use of desert animals
Question 12. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators.
B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
C. It helps them see their young at night.
D. It keeps them cool at night.
Question 13. The word “maintaining” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to:
A. measuring

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B. inheriting
C. preserving
D. delaying
Question 14. The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of
A. an animal with a low average temperature
B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
D. a desert animal with a constant body temperatures.
Question 15. When is the internal temperature of large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise
B. Just after sunset
C. In the middle of the day
D. Just after drinking
Question 16. The word “tolerate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. endure
B. replace
C. compensate
D. reduce
Question 17. What causes water intoxication?
A. Drinking too much water very quickly
B. Bacteria in water
C. Drinking polluted water
D. Lack of water
Question 18. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?
A. They do not need to eat much food.
B. They can eat large quantities quickly.
C. They easily lose their appetites.
D. They can travel long distances looking for food.
Question 19. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels.

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B. To contrast them to desert mammals.

C. To give instructions about desert survival.
D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
Question 20. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures.
B. Drinking water quickly.
C. Eating while dehydrated.
D. Being active at night.

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Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.

Dockside Green
The green movement is catching on in many pockets of the world. This is especially true in the
construction industry. Today's buzz words, which include global warming and zero emissions, are causing
everyday people (not just celebrities) to look for ways to reduce their carbon footprint. Purchasing an
environmentally-friendly home is a good investment for those who are concerned about their own health
and the well-being of our planet. Based on this trend, entire districts, known as eco-communities, are
being designed with green initiatives in mind. One of these communities is
Dockside Green in the Canadian province of British Columbia. Its goal is to become the world's first
zero-emission neighbourhood.
Dockside Green is a mostly self-sufficient community along the harbour front of Victoria, the capital
city of British Columbia. The community is home to around 2,500 people and includes residential, office,
and retail space. It includes a variety of environmental features, some of which are unprecedented.
The planners and builders of Dockside Green have the environment in mind with every choice they make.
They ensure proper ventilation and guarantee residents clean air indoors. Interior and exterior building
materials, such as paints and wood, are natural and non-toxic. One of these is bamboo which is used
because it's very durable and can be grown without the use of dangerous pesticides.
Energy efficiency is one of the top priorities in eco-communities like Dockside Green. Not only
do energy-efficient appliances
and light fixtures reduce the environmental impact of heating, cooking and lighting, they also save
residents money. Dockside Green claims that home owners use 55% less energy than the average
Canadian. Though many residents are sharing space by investing in condo-style living, they have their
own individual utility metres for electricity and gas. Studies show that people use around 20% less energy
when they are billed for exactly what they use.
Eco-communities also take the future into account by recycling waste and reducing carbon
emissions. At Dockside Green, waste water is treated and reused on-site for flushing toilets, and a
biomass gas plant converts waste wood into a renewable form of gas for hot water systems, stoves and
gas heaters. The community also reduces carbon emissions by using local suppliers for all their transport
and maintenance needs, and residents are encouraged to use a mini transit system and join the
community's car share program.
The first two stages of development at Dockside Green were completed in 2011, and additional
plans to increase sustainability are in the works. Similar green communities are now found all over the
world, especially smaller ones known as ecovillages or "intentional communities". Most have 50 to 150
residents, all of whom are trying to reduce their carbon footprints and create a model for sustainable
living in the future.
Question 1. You can reduce your carbon footprint by _______ less.
A. walking
B. driving
C. talking

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Question 2. By reducing your carbon footprint, you are helping to _______ the problem of global
warming.
A. create
B. worsen
C. solve
Question 3. Which aimed to become one of the world's first zero-emission neighbourhoods?
A. British Columbia
B. Victoria
C. Dockside Green
Question 4. People live in eco-communities because they're concerned about _______ issues.
A. environmental
B. buzz word
C. investment
Question 5. The builders of Dockside Green only used non-toxic _________.
A. residents
B. building materials
C. bamboo
Question 6. Which can save you money?
A. environmental impacts
B. energy-efficient appliances
C. higher energy prices
Question 7. What's used to flush toilets at Dockside Green?
A. toxic waste
B. carbon emissions
C. treated waste water
Question 8. What does the biomass plant at Dockside Green produce?
A. gas
B. electricity
C. stoves and heaters
Question 9. Smaller eco-communities are sometimes called ecovillages or _______ communities.

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A. inefficient
B. intentional
C. international
Question 10. Who would be most likely to support the development of eco-communities?
A. climate scientists
B. fossil fuel companies
C. coal mining investors
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in
such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a
very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established
in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or
smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has
developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air
pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapour might be considered an air pollutant under
certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by
various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air
purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global
basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human
output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The
result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the
adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the
absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant;
in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents
over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable
health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon
monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches
about 15 pm.
Question 11. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
Question 12. The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

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A. negatively
B. quickly
C. admittedly
D. considerably
Question 13. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A. water vapour is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 14. The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. the various chemical reactions
B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil
D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
Question 15. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in
controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 16. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
Question 17. The word “localized” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
Question 18. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance
is only useful if
A. the other substances in the area are known
B. it is in a localized area

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C. the natural level is also known

D. it can be calculated quickly
Question 19. The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. beneficial B. special
C. measurable D. separable
Question 20. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.

Exercise 3. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning inthe Amazon increased again. Over the past three decades
alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests – have been
cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High rates of
deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction because
many rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some scientists
estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some
logged forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone –
the roads built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area,
as well as a means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads
built through a forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized. Once the
loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless farmers arrive, they
clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield, especially after a couple
of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers or large plantation
owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle, lands are then
abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these lands without
human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a new piece of
land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
Question 21. What does the passage mainly discuss?

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A. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species

B. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction
C. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon
D. The size of tropical rainforest loss
Question 22. According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest
destruction is TRUE?
A. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s.
B. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s.
C. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s.
D. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the 1990s.
Question 23. The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by
A. fallen again
B. gone up and down
C. risen again
D. remained unchanged
Question 24. Which of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests?
A. The increase in the rainforest habitat
B. The disappearance of landless farmers
C. The disappearance of many rainforest species
D. The decrease in wasted lands
Question 25. According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in different
regions?
A. The search for new farm lands
B. The search for valuable woods
C. The search for rare animals
D. The search for oil
Question 26. The word "regenerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. repeat B. refine
C. recover D. renew
Question 27. The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. lands sold and colonized

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B. lands abandoned and wasted

C. lands for planting
D. lands for raising cattle
Question 28. What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage?
A. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end.
B. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions.
C. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers.
D. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners.

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ KHOA HỌC VÀ CÔNG NGHỆ (2)
Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the
future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile
engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity,
compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-
emission option presently available. Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a
powerful, compact battery or another dependable source of current is available, transportation expects
foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars,
three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric deliver vans, bikes, and trolleys. As automakers work to
develop practical electric vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on infrastructure
systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as
common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be
equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a
concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centers
might be reserved for electric cars. Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains and neighborhood
vehicles all meeting at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will
be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small
cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which is no doubt take place on automated freeways
capable of handling five times number of vehicles that can be carried by a freeway today.
Question 1. The following electric vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT
A. trolleys B. trains C. planes D. vans
Question 2. The author’s purpose in the passage is to
A. criticize conventional vehicles.
B. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles.
C. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future.
D. support the invention of electric cars.
Question 3. The passage would most likely be followed by details about
A. automated freeways.
B. pollution restitutions in the future.
C. the neighborhood of the future.
D. electric shuttle buses
Question 4. The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest meaning to
A. concentrated B. squared
C. inexpensive D. long-range

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Question 5. In the second paragraph the author implies that

A. everyday life will stay such the same in the future.
B. electric vehicles are not practical for the future.
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modern transportation.
Question 6. According to the passage, public parking lots in the future will be
A. equipped with charging devices.
B. more convenient than they are today.
C. much larger than they are today.
D. as common as today’s gas stations
Question 7. The word “charging” in this passage refer to
A. lightening
B. electricity
C. credit cards
D. parking
Question 8. It can be inferred from the passage that
A. the present electric engines are the best option as being practical.
B. electricity is the best alternative source of power as it is almost free of pollution.
C. many new types of practical electric engines have been developed.
D. the present cars are more economical than their future generation.
Question 9. The word “hybrid” in paragraph 4 is closest meaning to
A. automated
B. hazardous
C. futuristic
D. combination
Question 10. The word “commuters” in paragraph 4 refer to
A. cab drivers
B. daily travelers
C. visitors
D. shoppers

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Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use
one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are
more than a means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some
doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried
about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phone are bad for
your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile
phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detectced with modern scanning
equipment.In one case a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He
couldn’t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to
talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years.
His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor didn’t agree.
What is it that make mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there
is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use mobile phones less often.
Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really
need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and communicative, especially in emergencies.In the future,
mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it’s wise not
to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 1. According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications
B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot replaced by regular phones
Question 2. The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with:
A. the mobility of the mind and the body
B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain
D. the resident memory
Question 3. The word “means” in the passage most closely means
A. meanings
B. expression

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C. method
D. transmission
Question 4. The word “potentially” in the passage most closely means
A. obviously
B. possibly
C. certainly
D. privately
Question 5. “Negative publicity” in the passage most closely means
A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones
D. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
Question 6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may
A. damage their users’ emotions
B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users’ temperament
D. change their users’ social behaviors
Question 7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often,
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability
B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family
D. had a problem with memory
Question 8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful
A. their radiant light
B. their power of attraction
C. their rading power
D. their invisible rays
Question 9. According to the writer, people should
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies

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C. keep off mobile phones regularly

D. never use mobile phones in all cases
Question 10. The most suitable title for the passage should be
A. The Reasons why Mobile Phones are Popular
B. Technological Innovations and Their Price
C. The Way Mobile Phones Work
D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time.

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ THỂ THAO (3)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
There are many different kinds of sports that are undertaken by a wide variety of different people. Some
people do sport for their career and other people purely do sport for enjoyment and recreation. Some
sports, like cricket, require the use of a lot of equipment, while others need very little in order to
successfully play a game in that sport. Some people use public playing fields to play sport for free, while
other sports such as squash, tennis, badminton and table tennis are usually paid for on an hourly basis in
the comfort of a local leisure centre.
Most sports are played with a round object often known as a ball. Some sports use more than one ball
and snooker is one of the unique sports that make use of a number of balls while being played. The game
itself is often controlled by an impartial individual known as an umpire in cricket and a referee in sports
like football and rugby. Most sports have a duration of not more than a few hours, however some athletic
tournaments can last for up to a week and a game of cricket can be five days in duration before a winner
is announced.
Some people prefer to watch sport. This can either be done by going to a stadium, a local leisure centre,
park or on the television. It is often cheaper to watch sport from the comfort of a person’s home than to
visit the stadium or a special event. Some sports, such as football and cricket, are really popular in the
United Kingdom but not in the USA. In the USA people often play basketball and baseball. However,
most countries put aside time to compete in world sporting events such as the football world cup or the
Olympics, which occur every four years.
Nowadays, people who suffer from any kind of disability are also encouraged to participate in sport and
most sport equipment is adapted to suit the needs of a disabled person. This means sport is something that
can be enjoyed no matter the physical ability of the person. The para-olympics takes place a week after
the main event and it is equally popular. Participation in sporting activity is encouraged by doctors and at
schools given the beneficial impact it has on the health of the individual that participates, and it is for this
reason and the competitive nature of individuals that sport remains a very popular activity worldwide.
Question 1. Which sport requires the use of a lot of equipment?
A. Football
B. Athletics
C. Cricket
D. Rugby
Question 2. What sport is popular in the United Kingdom?
A. Baseball
B. Cricket
C. Basketball
D. Athletics

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Question 3. What sport is popular in the United States?

A. Cricket
B. Baseball
C. Football
D. Squash
Question 4. What sport can last longer than a day in duration?
A. Football
B. Baseball
C. Rugby
D. Cricket
Question 5. How often is the Olympics held?
A. Every year
B. Every two years
C. Every four years
D. Every day

Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat,
rounders, and town ball.originating in England. As early as the American Revolution. It was noted that
troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York
Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three
strikers – you’re – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning, a nine man team. “The New York
Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way
of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it
was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consists of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and
Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism
(charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the
outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur
first - nine, and their “muffins” (the gently duffers who once ran the game). Beginning with the first
openly all – salaried team Cincinnati‟s Red Stocking Club. In 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the
complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional
baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by
business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League
Baseball‟s “Golden Age”. Profits soared, player‟s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became

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one of 132, a weekly periodical “The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-
deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In
1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American
League.
Question 6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed
D. profits soared
Question 7. The word “somewhat” is closest in meaning to
A. to a significant extent
B. to a minor extent
C. to not the same extent
D. to some extent
Question 8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity
if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and
commercialism that develop in baseball
C. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits
Question 9. The word “inception” is closest in meaning to
A. requirements
B. beginning
C. insistence
D. rules
Question 10. The word “lavish” is closest in meaning to____.
A. prolonged
B. very generous
C. grand
D. extensive
Question 11. Where in the passage does the author first mention payments to players?

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A. lines 4-7
B. lines 8-10
C. lines 11-14
D. 15- 18
Question 12. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origin of baseball
B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 13. Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at
its inception?
A. a team might consist of 40 members
B. the president would choose teams from among the members
C. they didn‟t play on weekend
D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn‟t make the first nine
Question 14. According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except
A. commercialism became more prosperous
B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income
D.people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 15. The word “itself” refers to
A. the Western League
B. growing cities
C. the Midwest
D. the American League
Exercise 3. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
When I injured my back I had to take a break from my running career. I decided to introduce more
women to the sport, to show them how much fun it can be and to give them the confidence to get out and
run. I decided to start a running club for women in my area because I was annoyed by the attitude of
many race organizers. They complained about the lack of women in the sport but also used this as an
excuse for not providing separate changing facilities.

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I put up posters and 40 women, young and old, fit and unfit, joined. All of them were attracted by the
idea of losing weight but I don't think they had really thought about running before. When or if they did,
they had a picture of painful training. They didn't think of chatting and smiling while running in beautiful
places, like by a river.
At first they ran only for a minute - now they can run for thirty minutes. They've also learned from
other runners about diet and keeping fit in general. I want to do something for women’s running and I
have had so much pleasure watching their progress - almost as much as they’ve had themselves
Question 16. What is the writer's main aim in writing the text?
A. to describe her own running career
B. to complain about race organizers
C. to talk about women runners
D. to describe good running method
Question 17. What would a reader find out from the text?
A. the best kind of places for running
B. how runners can avoid injuring themselves
C. the progress made by the women in the club
D. the teaching skills of the writer
Question 18. What is the writer’s opinion of the runners she trained?
A. They were too serious.
B. They needed encouraging,
C. They couldn't develop their skills.
D. They were difficult to train.
Question 19. Why did the women join the running club?
A. to have a good time
B. to meet other people
C. to help them lose weight
D. to become top runners
Question 20. Which of the following would be the best title for the club poster?
A. Discover the Pleasures of Running
B. Riverside Running Club for Women
C. Athletics Competition: How to Win
D. Keep Fit by Training Hard

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