ASME IX PRACTICE QUESTIONS

(Closed Book)

1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

A. The welder is qualified
B. The base metals are strong enough
C. The weldment has the desired properties
D. The skill of the welder

2. The WPS lists:

A. Non-essential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
D. All of the above

3. The PQR must list:

A. essential variables
B. qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables (when notch
toughness is required)
D. all of the above

4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the

current edition?
A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962

5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the

_________ Edition and Addenda of Section IX.
A. 1962
B. current
C. 1986
D. 1995

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6. Each ____________________ shall conduct the tests required
by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the
construction, alteration, or repair.
A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above

7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator

qualification must be available to the __________.
A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorized Inspector
D. Foreman

8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G

position is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over
24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.
A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal

9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and 4F

positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the
_____________ positions.
A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above

10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an

O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds
in:
A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above

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11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies
a welder to make:
A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above

12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above

13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process

on P1 materials may be qualified using radiography.
A. True
B. False

14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of

the weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most
____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.
A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above

15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld

or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any
direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.
A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above

16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance

standards used are found in:
A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code

17. A WPS must describe:

A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables

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 C. Supplementary essential variable when required
for notch toughness
D. All of the above

18. A PQR must describe:

A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods

19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above

20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential

variables for the WPS.
A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning

21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an

essential variable for the WPS.
A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening

22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the

welder’s ____________________________.
A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors

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23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a _______.
A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ

24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,2008

and last welded with SMAW on March 15, 2008, would he still
be qualified on October 7, 2008?
A. Yes
B. No.

25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides
is qualified to weld ________________.
A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P1 backing only

26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval

27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the

___________ variables specified.
A. Essential & nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing

28. A welder depositing 1/2" of weld metal with the SMAW process
is qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.
A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”

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29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:
A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints

30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is

qualified to weld:
A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only

31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number

32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated

using:
A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D.
C. “A” number
D. Page number

33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process

______________________ is an essential variable.
A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter

34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector

35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate,

can be weld a 2 7/8” inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick
in the horizontal position without re-qualification?
A. Yes
B. No

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 C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1

36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas
tungsten arc-welding processes?
A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and
GTAW a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW

37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018
F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is
this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore
flange to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld.

38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make

a single V-groove weld without backing?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable
for a welder

39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu

of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material
and the production welds will be P-22 also.
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers
40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures,
welders and welding operators?
A. The Inspector
B. The A.I.
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor

41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking
indicates:

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 A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds

42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in

production?
A. Yes, welder can be used
B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing

43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if

they are a nonessential variable.
A. True
B. False

44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required

for Performance Qualification in a 6G position?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position
pipe welding?
A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G

46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage

requirements?
A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C

47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for

P-8 to P-8 material welded with either E308, E308L, E309,
E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this
WPS, states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L
material, welded with E308 electrodes. Is the WPS properly
qualified for the base material listed?

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 A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated

48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure

be qualified using real-time ultrasonics?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done

49. Three arc-welding processes are:

A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW

50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E
7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using
E8028 electrodes with backing in production? (Assume the P-4
procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above

51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code

Section IX still applicable?
A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only

52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify
for plate groove welds?
A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above

53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the
6-G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test
results indicate the following:

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 No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld
No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory

Will these test qualify the welder?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is
unacceptable
E. Give your comment

54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests

permitted by the Code?
A. Side and Transverse
B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face

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55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for
what position on plate?
A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH

56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?

A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above

57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of

the following?
A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above

58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME

Section IX, which positions require more than two
guided bend specimens for qualification?
A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above

59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a

welder’s test pipe or plate?
A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above

60. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the

mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:
A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above

61. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld

joints is a:

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 A. Notch Toughness Test
B. Tension Test
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test

62. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the
required properties
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above

63. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires re-

qualification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.
A. True
B. False

64. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld

and the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:
A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required,
only

65. A non-essential variable may be changed without re-

qualification because:
A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-
toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-
qualification

66. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable,

supplementary essential variables.
A. True
B. False

67. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be

changed provided :
A. The AI approves

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 B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should
never be changed. Only editorial information can be changed on
a PQR.
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed

68. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify

welders or welding operators.
A. True
B. False

69. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face
of the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other
indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?
A. Pass
B. Fail

70. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in

any position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.
A. True
B. False

71. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has

the skill necessary to make sound production welds.
A. True
B. False

72. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X

materials?
A. True
B. False

73. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as

other work to prepare coupons.
A. True
B. False
74. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a
_____________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

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75. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is a
______________variable.
A. Essential
B. Non-Essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

76. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature)

indicating that the information given is true and correct.
A. True
B. False

77. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the

SMAW process) is a __________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

78. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed

weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the
required properties for the intended application.
A. True
B. False

79. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove

weld positions.
A. True
B. False

80. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential

variables.
A. True
B. False

81. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination

when qualifying a welding procedure.
A. True
B. False

82. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only

when required by the applicable construction code, such as
ASME VIII Div.1.
A. True

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 B. False

83. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would

have to be qualified in which of the additional positions to
qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?
A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above

84. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without

re-qualification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:
A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above

85. A welder is qualified to weld all thicknesses of material when:

A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and
nominal pipe size was over ½ inches

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86. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface
of a welder qualification bend test after bending except for
corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?
A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed

87. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires

the welder to re-qualify in that process?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI

88. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

A. For heat treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section

89. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also

qualified to weld with:
A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above

90. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for

performance qualification is acceptable if the examination
shows:
A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear
indication not exceeding 1/32 inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above

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91. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding
or brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are
used in Section IX, they shall include:
A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer

92. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thicknesses

________________ shall be prepared by thermal processes,
when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.
A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 11/4 inches
E. None of the above

93. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS

when:
A. Approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. Allowed by ASME V
C. One test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. Compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME
IX is shown

94. A change in a non-essential variable requires

recertification of the PQR
A. True
B. False

95. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-

462.1 (b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an
outside diameter greater than:
A. 2 inches
B. 2 1/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 3 1/2 inches
E. 4 inches

96. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders.

Which of the following shall be used for evaluation?
A. Only bend tests
B. Only radiography

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 C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
E. None of the above

97. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be

qualified during production work?
A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified
by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first 12” length of weld
C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld
length
D. None of the above

98. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to
be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as
follows:
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate
tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate
tensile value of 77,654 psi
What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was
reported on the laboratory report?
A. 51,668 & 46,445
B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
D. None of the above

99. Which of the following welding processes are currently not

permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of
ASME IX?
A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above

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