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E – COURSE
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

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ENDODONTICS

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CONTENTS

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TOPIC OF MCQs NO OF MCQs PAGE NO.
1. Apical Flare Preparation 24 3

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2. Coronal Flare 10 6
3. Infection control and coronal seal 20 7
4. Preparing the master cone 15 10

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5. Working length 20 12
6. Handling materials: Acid etch 17 14
7. Handling materials: Bonding composite to teeth 20 16
8. Theory: Composite
9. Theory: Amalgam
cm 16
23
18
20
10. Theory: Compomer 10 22
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11. Handling materials: Calcium hydroxide 15 23
12. Handling materials: ChemFill 25 25
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13. Handling materials: Parapost 17 27

14. IBS Molecules and Cells 10 29
15. Dental Pathology MCQs 10 30
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16. Oral Pathology MCQs 13 31

17. Glass Ionomer cement 20 33
18. Endodontics: Coronal Access 20 35
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19. Handling materials: Rubber Dam 16 37

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Endodontics: Apical Flare Preparation

1. The file used to explore the apical A. Water

third of a canal is called a B. Bleach

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A. Searcher C. EDTA
B. Seeker D. Calcium Hydroxide
C. Endodontic explorer 7. At what stage is the apical third

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D. Endodontic probe explored
2. The file used to explore the apical A. After Access is gained
third is normally B. After the coronal 2/3rds have
A. Size 3 or 5 been explored

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B. Size 8 or 10 C. After the coronal 2/3rds has been
C. Size 15 or 20 prepared to a flare shape
D. Size 25 or 30 D. After lunch
3. Which are you NOT looking for when
exploring the apical third of a canal
A. Hypercementosis
B. Branches
cm
8. In a straight canal, how large should
the apical1mm be prepared to
A. The size of the first file that binds
B. Two or three sizes larger than this
C. Lateral canal openings C. Size 30
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D. Internal root resorption D. It depends on which tooth is
E. Obstructions being treated
4. You have discovered a canal is curved, 9. Approximately how many canals are
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and have precurved your file curved in the apical third

accordingly. How can you best tell A. 5%
which direction the file is pointing B. 30%
when inside the tooth C. 60%
.d

A. By mentally noting which D. 90%

direction the file is curved when 10. What is the largest file size you would
inserting it normally use in a slightly curved canal
A. 20
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B. By looking at the position of the

number on the side of the file B. 25
C. By cutting a notch in the rubber C. 30
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stop D. 35
D. By taking a diagnostic E. 40
radiograph 11. What is the largest file size you would
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5. True or false? The tip of the file used normally use in a more curved canal
to explore the canal can be bent to (>20°)
increase tactile feedback A. 20
A. True B. 25
B. False C. 30
6. If a canal is very narrow, which of the D. 35
following can be used to make E. 4
exploration easier
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12. When creating an apical flare with walls to prevent lateral canals
hand files, what is the technique from getting blocked
normally used C. A nickel-titanium rotary file is
A. Crown down used as an Archimedes Screw to
B. Step down remove debris from the canal,
C. Tug back keeping it clear
D. Step back D. A small file is used, together with
13. To create the flare, larger files are bleach, to recapitulate

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used at decreasing lengths. How much 18. What is 'Resistance Form' in
is the difference in each length endodontics
A. 0.5 mm A. A shape which resists extrusion

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B. 1 mm of filling through the apex
C. 1.5 mm B. A shape which resists fracture of
D. 2 mm the root tip during condensation
14. When creating the flare by using files C. A shape which allows insertion of

e.
of decreasing length, what size file do a plugger for vertical
you normally finish with condensation
A. 40 – 45 D. A shape which allows insertion of
B. 50 -55
C. 60 – 70
D. 80 – 90
15. What is the MAF (Master Apical File)
cm a spreader
condensation
for

19. What feature is most important to give

a canal resistance form
lateral

Don't Know A. An apical stop

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A. The file used to measure the B. An apical seat
length of the tooth C. An open apex
B. The file used to clear debris from D. The canal walls are tapered
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the apical region when 20. What taper is created by preparing the
recapitulating apical third with successively larger
C. The first file to bind at working hand files at decreasing lengths
length A. 1%
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D. The file used to set the final B. 2%

diameter of the apical region C. 5%
preparation D. 10%
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16. When a canal is properly prepared E. 15%

apically to size 30, and adequate F. 20%
circumferential filing is completed, the 21. A canal is prepared apically to size 40.
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canal diameter will be It is found that sizes 20 to 35 can pass

A. A little less than size 30 beyond working length, but size 40
B. Size 30 won't. What kind of apical prep is this
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C. A little more than size 30 A. Apical stop

D. A lot more than size 30 B. Apical seat
17. What is 'patency filing' C. Open apex
A. A small file is pushed through D. Closed apex
the apex to keep it clear of debris 22. A canal is prepared apically to size 40.
B. A small file is used It is found no files between sizes 20 and
circumferentially on the canal 40 can pass beyond working length.
What kind of apical prep is this
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A. Apical stop 24. What is recapitulation
B. Apical seat A. Syringing bleach into a canal to
C. Open apex irrigate it and wash out debris
D. Closed apex B. Using a small hand file to loosen
23. Which of these instruments would you dentine shavings
NOT use to create an apical flare C. Using a small hand file to smooth
A. K-flex files the steps on the canal wall
B. NiTi rotary files D. Using a series of hand files to

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C. GT files create a tapered preparation
D. X files

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Endodontics: The Coronal Flare

1. What is the point of coronal flare B. Orifice shapers remove shavings with
preparation an Archimedes Screw action, aiding
A. To allow straight line access to the debris removal
apical third C. Nickel Titanium instruments lose
B. To remove infected dentine from the some of their properties each time
walls of the canal they are used, so should be discarded

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C. To create space for a tapered post regularly
2. You notice the opening to a canal is very D. Orifice shapers are long (21mm),
narrow. What should you do making them harder to use them on
back teeth

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A. Prepare the flare using Gates
Gliddens, stepping back from a size 2 8. Which of these is NOT likely to occur in
B. Prepare the flare with a NiTi orifice the absence of a good coronal flare
shaper A. Zip perforation
C. Pre-enlarge the canal with hand files B. Dentine ledge

e.
to size 35 before preparing the flare C. Elbow
D. Prepare the flare using Gates D. Wall grooving
Gliddens, stepping down from a size E. Apical over-instrumentation

3.
4 cm
How big is the tip of a size 2 Gates Glidden
A. Size 30
B. Size 50
9. What is a zip perforation
A. A perforation caused by the side of a
file going round a curve
B. A perforation caused by the tip of a
C. Size 70 file that was used too heavily
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D. Size 90 C. A perforation of the pulp chamber
4. How big is the tip of a size 4 Gates Glidden floor, often caused by using an over-
A. Size 30 large Gates Glidden
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B. Size 50 D. A perforation of the pulp chamber

C. Size 70 floor, often caused by making the
D. Size 90 access cavity too deep
5. Which of these is NOT true about Gates 10. What can cause a ledge
Glidden drills A. Using a file that is too thick
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A. If they fracture, they are easier to B. Forgetting to create a proper coronal

retrieve than rotary NiTi files flare before exploring the apical
B. They can be 'swept away' from region
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danger areas like furcations, unlike C. Using a file that is inflexible

rotary NiTi's D. Forgetting to irrigate and recapitulate
C. They leave a smooth step-free surface between every instrument
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on the canal wall E. All of these

D. They are cheaper, and thus less likely
to be over-used than NiTi's
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6. Which part of an instrument is used to cut

dentine when preparing a canal
A. The tip region
B. The sides
7. Which statement is not true
A. The crown down approach of NiTi
orifice shapers reduces transportation
of bacteria apically

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Endodontics: Infection Control & Coronal Seal

1. What is an amalcore C. Confining excess irrigants

A. An amalgam restoration that enters D. Making access to the pulp chamber
and plugs the canal orifice(s) easier
B. A cast post with an amalgam on top of E. Improving patient comfort

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it F. Reducing medico-legal liability
C. A pinned amalgam core for a crown
D. An amalgam that covers the entire Access to the pulp chamber can be more difficult
occlusal surface of the tooth with dam, as the dam can mask the shape of the

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tooth, causing one to accidentally drill away
An amalcore is an excellent way of sealing from the long axis of the tooth.
a root canal - the seal is provided by the
5. True or false? Excellent mechanical

e.
amalgam corrosion products.
instrumentation will remove virtually all
2. Why is infection control so especially the infected tissue from the root canal
important in endodontics system
A. To prevent cross-infection of the
operator and nurse
B. To allow healing of the peri-radicular
tissues
cm A. True
B. False

Mechanical instrumentation will not remove

C. To prevent the patient picking up infected tissue such as lateral canals, inter-
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infection from previous patients canal bridges, and intra-tubular spread of
D. To reduce New Variant CJD bacteria
transmission
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6. What strength of Sodium Hypochlorite

Every aspect of endodontics is ultimately aimed at (bleach) is used for canal irrigation
reducing infection to allow healing of the peri- A. 1%
radicular tissues. Normal cross-infection B. 2%
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precautions apply to all aspects of dentistry. C. 5%

D. 10%
3. What is meant by aseptic technique E. 20%
F. 50%
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A. Working in a field as near sterile as

possible 7. What intra-canal medication should
B. Limiting infection to the patient's own normally be placed in the canal between
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oral bacteria visits

C. Ensuring all micro-organisms are A. Ledermix (combined anti-biotic and
removed or killed as part of the anti- inflammatory)
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procedure B. Hypocal
D. Not introducing any micro-organisms C. Dycal or Life
to the canal that weren't already there D. Para-chloro-mono-phenol (PCMP)
before you started E. Paper point
4. Which is NOT a function of Rubber Dam
A. Preventing saliva contamination Hypocal is non-setting Calcium Hydroxide
B. Improving visibility
8. When irrigating with bleach, how far
should the needle be inserted
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A. Into the pulp chamber only D. Restoring with a copper band
B. 7mm from the apex E. Placing the dam clamp beaks directly
C. To the point just before it just binds onto the gingiva
on the canal walls, but must be short
of the working length Use of dam is mandatory. Virtually any method of
D. To the working length placement is more acceptable than not using it
9. Which of these does bleach NOT do
A. Lubricate the canal 13. Which of these is NOT true when

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B. Dissolve organic debris Vitrebond is used as a canal orifice sealant
C. Kill bacteria A. Hard to identify if re-treatment is
D. Wash out debris needed
E. Dissolved sclerosed dentin B. May not be fully set all the way

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through
To dissolve sclerosed dentine in ultra-thin canals, C. Doesn't bond well to dentine
you need a chelating agent like EDTA (e.g. File-
Eze) Vitrebond is tooth colored, so hard to identify

e.
without good lighting and loupes. It is light cured,
10. What needle is used for delivering bleach and if placed too thick, the light may not fully
when irrigating a canal penetrate it.
A. Side venting wide bore
B. Side venting narrow bore
C. End venting wide bore
D. End venting narrow bore
cm 14. What is a hermetic seal, as applied to
endodontics
A. Airtight
B. Waterproof
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The needle is blunt ended, and the hole is at the C. Saliva can't pass
side, to prevent bleach being squirted through the D. Micro-organisms can't pass
root apex E. All of these
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15. If a patient has gingival recession, how far

11. About how long does it take bacteria should the gutta percha be trimmed back
contacting the coronal end of a very well before sealing the coronal
condensed root filling to penetrate through A. 1mm below the level of the recession
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it to the apex B. 1mm below the ACJ

A. 1 day max C. 1mm below the canal opening
B. 1 week max D. 1mm below the roof of the pulp
C. 6 weeks max chamber
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D. 6 months max 16. If a patient has NO gingival recession, how

E. Many years far should the gutta percha be trimmed
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back before sealing the coronal

All root fillings, even the best ones, are porous to A. 1mm below the level of the recession
bacteria, so a good coronal seal is essential to B. 1mm below the ACJ
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prevent re-infection of a root filling C. 1mm below the canal opening

D. 1mm below the roof of the pulp
12. If you can't get dam onto a tooth for root chamber
treatment, which solution is unacceptable 17. If you choose to temporarily seal the access
A. Restore the tooth first to enable dam cavity of a tooth with Kalzinol, how thick
placement, then drill access through should it be
the new restoration A. 1 mm
B. Crown lengthening by electrosurgery B. 2 mm
C. Working without dam C. 3 mm
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D. 4 mm
If less than 3mm, the dressing will probably break
and fall out

18. Which of these is the best material as a

temporary dressing for an access cavity
after endo is completed
A. Life or Dycal

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B. Chemfil
C. Kalzinol
D. Poly-F

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Poly-F (Polycarboxylate cement) is white, so easy
to identify for removal. It is much stronger than
kalzinol, so less likely to break and fall out between

e.
visits

19. Which of these pulp locations can be

removed mechanically
A. Lateral Canals
B. Pulp horns
C. Cul-de-sacs (dead ends)
D. Apical Ramifications
cm
E. Isthmi
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F. Concavities

Bleach must be used to deal with all the other

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locations that pulpal tissue can 'hide'

20. To control infection during endo, the files

must be cleaned between uses. How
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A. Dry gauze in a ring holder

B. Gauze dampened with water
C. Gauze dampened with bleach
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D. Gauze dampened with Chlorhexidine

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Endodontics: Preparing the master cone

1. What is mant by 'Friction Fit'

A. A gentle resistance to withdrawal of 6. You have trimmed 1 mm off a standard
the master cone size 30 cone, and found it is now a friction
B. A firm resistance to withdrawal of fit in the apical region of a canal you
the master cone prepared. What is the diameter of your

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C. A good fit of the master cone in the apical region preparation
apical third of the canal A. 0.28 mm (size 28)
2. What is meant by 'Tug Back' B. 0.29 mm (size 29)

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A. A gentle resistance to withdrawal of C. 0.30 mm (size 30)
the master cone D. 0.31 mm (size 31)
B. A firm resistance to withdrawal of E. 0.32 mm (size 32)
the master cone 7. How wide is the tip of a size 20 master cone

e.
C. A good fit of the master cone in the A. 0.02 mm
apical third of the canal B. 0.2 mm
C. 2 mm
Tug back is a very strong form of friction fit

3. What is the taper of a standard GP cone

cm D. 20 mm
8. You have prepared an apical region to size
25. What is the first cone you would try in
A. 0% A. Size 20
B. 1% B. Size 25
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C. 2% C. Size 30
D. 5% D. Size 35
E. 10% 9. If a canal is prepared to a 5% taper, why
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4. You have prepared the apical 1mm of a not use a 5% master cone instead of the
canal with a size 30 Master File. What size standard 2%
master point would you expect to fit A. Cold lateral condensation would be
A. Size 25 very difficult
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B. Slightly less than size 30 B. Sealant would be expressed through

C. Size 30 the apex
D. Slightly more than size 30 C. It would be too rigid to negotiate
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curved canals
The Master File is used until it is loose, so the D. They are very expensive
10. Recommended master cone sizes for
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apical diameter is slightly more than the file

size Upper Central Incisors fall in the range of
A. Sizes 8 to 15
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B. Sizes 20 to 30
5. What is the ISO color code for size 25
C. Sizes 35 to 60
A. White
D. Sizes 65 to 90
B. Yellow
11. Which statement is true about an apical
C. Red
seat
D. Blue
A. The master cone will go further than
E. Green
the working length
B. The master cone stops at working
length, but smaller ones go further

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C. The master cone, and smaller ones,
all stop at the working length
D. The master cone will not reach the
working length
12. Standard files have a 2% taper. What is
the percentage taper you create when you
'step back' by 1mm per file
A. 1%

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B. 2%
C. 4%
D. 5%

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E. 10%
13. When checking the taper of a prepared
canal with a finger spreader, how far
would you insert the instrument

e.
A. To the apex
B. To the working length
C. To 1 mm short of the working length
D. 2/3rds down the root
cm
14. When checking that the taper is adequate,
and that lateral condensation is possible,
you should
A. Place the Master Cone, then check
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the spreader reaches the desired
length alongside it
B. Place the spreader into the empty
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canal
15. How much sealer paste would you place
on the Master Cone prior to inserting it
A. The length of the canal
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B. The length of the tooth

C. The length of the apical third
D. 3 mm
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E. 1 mm
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Endodontics: Working Length

1. How far short of the anatomical apex 7. If a canal was curved away from the beam
would one normally prepare the root on a pre-op radiograph, how would this
canal affect you estimated working length
A. 0 mm A. It would be on the short side

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B. 1 mm B. It would have no effect
C. 1.5 mm C. It would be on the long side
D. 2 mm 8. When estimating working length from
E. 3 mm your knowledge of average lengths of

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2. When estimating the working length of a teeth and a bisecting-angle radiograph,
tooth which of these would you NOT make an
A. The estimate should be the same as allowance for

e.
the true working length A. Apical root resorption
B. The estimate should err on the long B. Incisal wear
side C. Canal calculi (pulp stones)
C. The estimate should err on the short D. Elongation or foreshortening on the
side cm
D. It doesn't matter, because the canal
preparation does not start until the
radiograph
E. Hypercementosis
9. Which of these is the usual reference point
true working length is known for a molar
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3. To estimate a working length A. Level of access cavity
A. An undistorted pre-op radiograph is B. A cusp tip
essential C. A rubber stop
B. Knowledge of the average lengths D. A graduated 'seeker' file
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of teeth is sometimes enough, if the 10. To obtain the estimated working length
radiograph is distorted from a Parallel technique radiograph, one
4. True or false: The Parallel radiographic subtracts how much from the tooth
technique provides an undistorted view image's length
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of a tooth A. 0 mm
A. True B. 1 mm
B. False C. 2 mm
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5. True or false? The Bisecting-Angle D. 3 mm

radiographic technique provides an 11. For canines, it is usually safe to introduce
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undistorted view of a tooth a file

A. True A. 16 mm
B. False B. 18 mm
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6. When estimating working length using a C. 20 mm

parallel technique radiograph, how much D. 22 mm
enlargement of the image is allowed for 12. For all other teeth (not canines), it is
A. None usually safe to introduce a file
B. 1 mm A. 16 mm
C. 2 mm B. 18 mm
D. 3 mm C. 20 mm
D. 22 mm

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13. A tooth has apical root resorption. When 19. Which of these would NOT sometimes
judging the working length, it will give a false reading on an electronic apex
probably be locator
A. Where it usually is, I.e. 1 mm short A. Lateral canal
of the apex B. Root fracture
B. More than this C. Contact with metal restoration
C. Less than this D. Fluid in canal
14. The true working length is determined E. Canal calculus (Pulp stone)

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with an apex locator and a size 8 or 10 20. In endodontics, what level of accuracy is
file reasonably achievable with good
A. After access to the canal orifice has technique

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been made A. ± 0.1 mm
B. After the coronal 2/3rds has been B. ± 0.25 mm
shaped C. ± 0.5 mm
C. After the apical 1/3rd has been D. ± 1.0 mm

e.
shaped E. ± 1.5 mm
15. The true working length is confirmed
with a radiograph using a
A. Size 8 file
B. Size 10 file
C. Size 25 file
16. The file must be repositioned and a new
cm
working length radiograph taken if it is
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short of the true working length by
A. 1 mm
B. 2 mm
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C. 3 mm
D. 4 mm
E. 5 mm
17. A W.L. radiograph has a file inserted 17
.d

mm. It is 2.5 mm short of the anatomical

apex. What is the true working length
A. 17 mm
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B. 18 mm
C. 18.5 mm
D. 19 mm
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E. 19.5 mm
F. 20.5 mm
18. With a multi-canal tooth
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A. Each root requires a separate W.L.

radiograph
B. All roots should be measured on one
radiograph, using their nearest cusp
(if possible) as a landmark.
C. All roots should be measured on one
radiograph, using the same cusp (if
possible) as a landmark.
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Handling Materials: Acid Etch

1. What acid is normally used to etch 7. What is the point of the water
teeth in restorative dentistry spraying
A. Acetic acid A. To ensure all the acid is
B. Phosphoric acid washed off
C. Hydrochloric acid B. To ensure the calcium

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D. Poly-acrylic acid phosphate precipitates caused
2. What strength of this acid is by the etching are washed
normally used to etch teeth in away

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restorative dentistry 8. How deep is the micro-porous layer
A. 1 % created by etching the enamel (in
B. 5 % micrometers)
C. 10 % A. 0.5 – 5

e.
D. 20 % B. 5 – 50
E. 35 % C. 50 – 500
F. 50% D. 500 – 5000
3. When etching enamel,
approximately how long should the
acid be in place
A. 10 sec
cm9. How much general surface enamel is
removed
micrometres)
A. 0.1
by etching (in

B. 25 sec B. 1
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C. 40 sec C. 10
D. 60 sec D. 100
E. 90 sec 10. How dry should enamel be after
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4. What is 'conditioner’ etching, and before placement of a

A. Acid bonding resin
B. Alcohol A. Absolutely dry
C. Dentine priming agent B. Almost dry
.d

D. Dentine bonding agent C. Slightly moist

5. When etching dentine, D. Wet
approximately how long should the 11. What is the appearance of correctly
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acid be in place etched enamel

A. 10 sec A. Frosted
B. 25 sec B. Blotchy
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C. 40 sec C. Speckled
D. 60 sec D. Translucent
12. Why is etch usually presented as a
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E. 90 sec
6. When washing the acid off a tooth, gel instead of a solution
approximately how long should you A. To make identification easier
spray water for B. To allow better control over
A. 5 sec placement
B. 10 sec C. To enhance and concentrate the
C. 30 sec action of the acid
D. 60 sec D. To make it easier to wash off
E. 90 sec
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13. Why is the etch gel colored
A. To make identification easier
B. Legal requirement
C. The color changes when etching is
completed
14. How should you protect adjacent
teeth from being etched
A. Rubber dam

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B. Vaseline
C. Mylar matrix strip
D. Cavity varnish

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15. How should the patient be protected
from the etchant
A. Excess should be wiped off with
cotton wool first

e.
B. Rubber dam should be used
C. Protective glasses
D. Full size bib
E. High speed aspiration
F. All of these
16. How should the pulp be protected
from etch in a deep cavity
cm
A. Line it with Life or Dycal
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(Calcium hydroxide liner)
B. Line it with Vitrebond (a light-
cured resin modified glass
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ionomer)
C. Line it with Kalzinol (Zinc oxide
/ eugenol)
D. Protect it with Copalite (cavity
.d

varnish) E) Protect it with

ChemFil varnish
17. What type of enamel / restoration
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bond is created when an acid-etch

technique is used
A. Chemical (Ionic)
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B. Chemical (Hydrogen)
C. Chemical (Covalent)
D. Micro-mechanical
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Handling Materials: Bonding Composite to teeth

1. What does Enamel Bonding Agent 6. A dentine 'Conditioner'

(EBA) consist of A. Removes the smear layer
A. Unfilled resin B. Raises the surface-free energy of the
B. A mixture of resins in an acetone or dentine
ethanol solvent C. Bonds the composite
D. Thinly coats the collagen fibrils with

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C. A wetting agent and resins
D. A mixture of priming and bonding resin
7. What is the approximate stress caused by
agents
polymerisation contraction of composite

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2. Which of these products is an EBA A. 1 MPa
A. Prime & bond B. 5 MPa
B. Durafill C. 15 MPa
C. One Step D. 30 MPa

e.
D. Liner-bond 8. Does the bond strength of EBA to enamel
E. Gluma exceed the contraction stress of
3. Etched enamel does not need 'wetting' polymerised composite
before the Enamel Bonding Agent is
applied. Why not
A. It has a high surface-free energy
B. It has a low surface-free energy
cm A. No
B. About equal
C. Yes, slightly
D. Yes, greatly
C. Enamel Bonding Agent has low 9. Can a dentine bonding system be used on
etched enamel
ta
surface tension
4. True or false? If a cavity margin is in A. Yes
dentine (e.g. some cervical cavities), EBA B. No
10. Which of these is NOT an advantage of
en

should not be used

EBA over dentine bonding systems
A. True
A. Less marginal leakage
B. False B. Better colour stability
5. What is the bond strength achievable C. Higher bond strength
.d

using EBA on etched enamel? (1MPa= D. Easier to apply

1kg/mm2) E. Cheaper
A. 1 MPa F. Less moisture sensitive
w

B. 5 MPa 11. A dentine 'Primer'

C. 15 MPa A. Etches the dentine
D. 30 MPa B. Raises the surface-free energy of
w

(I.e. 'wets') the dentine

C. Removes the smear layer
D. Bonds the composite
w

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12. The resin in EBA is usually 17. Does the bond strength to dentine when a
A. HEMA DBS is used exceed the contraction stress
B. Bis-GMA of polymerised composite
C. PENTA A. No
D. Di-Methyl Methacrylate B. About equal
E. Methyl Methacrylate C. Yes
13. The resins in a Dentine Bonding Sytem
Primer
It does, but only with the latest generation of DBS's

m
A. Have a high molecular weight
B. Are viscous
C. Have high surface tension 18. Which of these does acid etch NOT do to
D. Are hydrophilic dentine

co
14. The solvent that helps dentine 'wetting' in A. Remove the smear layer
DBS's is often B. Open up the dentinal tubules
A. Water C. Expose collagen fibrils
B. Acetone or Ethanol D. Increase the surface-free energy

e.
C. Carbon Tetrachloride 19. True or false? Dentine should be slightly
D. Ethylamine moist when applying a DBS Primer
E. Low molecular weight resin A. True
15. Including etching, how many stages are
involved in dentine bonding
A. 2
B. 3
cm B. False
20. True or false? Enamel should be slightly
moist when applying an EBA
A. True
C. 4
B. False
ta
D. Varies with different systems
16. What is the approximate bond strength
between dentine and composite when a
modern DBS is used
en

A. 1 MPa
B. 5 MPa
C. 15 MPa
D. More than 15 MPa
.d
w
w
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Theory: Composite
A. True
1. What is the matrix in composite
B. False
A. The resin into which the filler
9. True or false? Higher filler loading
particles are inserted
makes a composite easier to handle
B. A transparent strip which holds
A. True

m
it against the tooth
B. False
C. The polymerisation initiator
10. True or false? Microfilled composite
D. An energy source for machines
can be used for Class V cavities
2. What is the Matrix usually made of

co
A. True
A. HEMA
B. False
B. Mylar
11. What is the typical particle size in
C. EDTA
microfilled composite, in micrometres

e.
D. Bis-GMA
A. 0.04
E. Celluloid
B. 0.4
3. Composite: What is the initiator
C. 4
A. Light
B. A chemical which starts the
polymerisation reaction
C. Either of these
cm D. 40
12. What is special about a hybrid
composite
A. It is a mixture of Composite and
4. Composite: How are the filler
Compomer
ta
particles joined to the matrix
B. It contains both large and small
A. Micro-mechanical retention
filler particles
B. Bipolar bond
C. The matrix is a mixture of Bis-
C. With a silane coupling agent
en

GMA and TEG-GMA

D. The outside of the particles is
D. The filler particles are a mixture
dissolved and a metal ionic bond
of glass and Silicon Dioxide
is formed
13. What is special about a posterior
5. True or false? Composite is naturally
.d

composite
adhesive to teeth
A. It is dual-cured
A. True
B. It is very heavily filled
B. False
w

C. It flows easily during placement

6. True or false? Higher filler loading
D. It is cured outside the mouth and
makes a composite easier to polish
cemented into the tooth
w

A. True
14. Which of these lining materials should
B. False
not be used with composite
7. True or false? Higher filler loading
A. Life
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makes a composite stronger

B. Poly-F
A. True
C. Vitrebond
B. False
D. Kalzinol
8. True or false? High filler loading
E. Zinc Phosphate
results in less polymerisation
contraction

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15. What is the maximum thickness of
composite that a curing light can
penetrate
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 3 mm
16. What is NOT a common result of

m
microleakage at a composite margin
A. Secondary caries
B. Sensitivity

co
C. Staining
D. Enamel fracture

e.
cm
ta
en
.d
w
w
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Theory: Amalgam C. It expands

D. None of these

1. What is an amalgam
A. A mercury alloy
B. A silver alloy
C. An alloy of mercury and silver 6. What happens to a zinc containing high-
D. An alloy of mercury, silver, tin, copper alloy if it gets moisture in it

m
zinc, and maybe copper A. It corrodes
2. What is a dental amalgam alloy B. It contracts
A. A mercury alloy C. It expands

co
B. A silver alloy D. It creeps
C. An alloy of mercury and silver E. None of these
D. An alloy of mercury, silver, tin, 7. True or false? The gamma 2 phase of old-
zinc, and maybe copper fashioned amalgams is weak

e.
A. True
An amalgam is an alloy of mercury and one B. False
or more other metals. Dental amalgam is 8. True or false? The gamma 2 phase of old-
produced by mixing liquid mercury with solid
particles of an alloy of silver, tin, copper, and
sometimes zinc, palladium, indium, and
selenium. This combination of solid metals is
cm fashioned amalgams is highly corrodible
A. True
B. False
9. Which of these is a mixture of lathe-cut
known as the amalgam alloy - Craig and spherical alloy particles
ta
A. Hybrid
3. How much copper is in a high-copper B. Admixed
dental amalgam alloy C. Gamma 2
en

A. 2 - 12 % D. Non gamma 2
B. 12 - 32 % 10. True or false? Dental amalgam wears at
C. 32 - 52% approximately the same rate as tooth
D. Above 52% structure
A. True
.d

4. What is another name for a high-

copper dental amalgam alloy B. False
A. Gamma 2 11. True or false? Corrosion of dental
amalgam helps to reduce microleakage
w

B. Non gamma 2
5. Zinc is often added to improve dental A. True
amalgam properties. What happens to B. False
w

a zinc containing low- copper alloy if it 12. True or false? Corrosion of dental
gets moisture in it amalgam helps to bond amalgam to the
A. It corrodes tooth
w

B. It contracts A. True
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B. False 20. Which is more important when
13. When amalgam is polished, the metal comparing dental amalgams
crystals at the surface get flattened. A. Low creep
This layer is called the B. High compressive strength
A. Dalby layer C. High shear strength
B. Trilby layer 21. What is the ratio of mercury to alloy
C. Whitby layer A. 0.5 : 1
D. Beilby layer B. 0.75 : 1

m
14. Why is there tin in dental amalgam C. 1 : 1
A. To slow down the reaction rate D. 1.25 : 1
and give adequate working time E. 1.5 : 1

co
B. To reduce corrosion 22. What is trituration
C. To scavenge water molecules A. Mixing
D. To give the filling strength B. Packing
15. True or false? Copper reacts with the C. Carving

e.
Tin to create a strong phase. This D. Polishing
prevents the tin from reacting with the 23. How long before amalgam forms a seal
mercury to create a weak phase with the tooth
A. True
B. False
16. Which is the gamma 1 phase
A. Ag3Sn
cm A. 1 hour
B. 24 hours
C. 1 week
D. 1 month
B. Ag2Hg3 E. 3 months
ta
C. AgCu
D. Cu6Sn5
E. Sn7Hg
en

17. Which is the gamma 2 phase

A. Ag3Sn
B. Ag2Hg3
C. AgCu
.d

D. Cu6Sn5
E. Sn7Hg
18. True or false? The reaction for low-
w

copper amalgam is
Ag3Sn + Hg -> Ag3Sn + Ag2Hg3 + Sn7Hg
A. True
w

B. False
19. What is the most serious problem with
restoring posterior teeth with amalgam
w

A. Mercury toxicity
B. Unaesthetic
C. Lots of sound tooth needs to be
removed
D. Expansion can cause cusp fracture
E. Short lifetime compared to many
other restorative materials

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Theory: Compomer

1. True or false: Compomer is a Resin A. True

Modified Glass Ionomer B. False
A. True 10. True or false? Compomer is water based
B. False A. True

m
2. Which of these is a compomer B. False
A. Herculite
B. Gluma

co
C. Fuji IX
D. Dyract
E. Vitremer
3. How does compomer set

e.
A. Acid-base reaction
B. Polymer chains cross-linked with
metal ions

4.
C. Polymerisation of methacrylate
resins
D. Precipitation of soluble ions
cm
True or false? The acid soluble glass in
compomer is silane coated.
ta
A. True
B. False
5. What is the most useful property of
en

compomer
A. Releases fluoride
B. Handles easily
C. Bonds to enamel and dentine
.d

6. True or false? Compomer is permable

to water
A. True
w

B. False
7. True or false? Compomer is more color-
w

stable than composite

A. True
B. False
w

8. True or false? Compomer is stronger

than composite
A. True
B. False
9. True or false? Compomer has less filler
than composite

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Handling Materials: Calcium Hydroxide

1. Which of these is NOT a form of 7. Which of these is NOT a good use for
Calcium Hydroxide Calcium Hydroxide
A. Life A. Lining under an amalgam restoration
B. Dycal B. Dressing inside a root canal in
C. Hypocal between visits

m
D. Coltosol C. Promoting apical closure in a young
E. Apexit non-vital tooth
2. Calcium Hydroxide causes production of D. Pulp capping

co
tertiary dentine. How E. Lining under a composite restoration
A. By direct stimulation of 8. True or false? Calcium Hydroxide linings
odontoblasts have good compressive strength
B. By killing bacteria, allowing A. True

e.
natural healing processes to occur B. False
C. By sealing dentinal tubules 9. True or false? Calcium Hydroxide linings
3. True or false? Calcium Hydroxide provide a good seal by bonding to dentine
should be placed into deep cavities prior
to acid etching, to protect the pulp from
the etchant
A. True
cm A. True
B. False
10. True or false? Dental preparations of
Calcium Hydroxide have a limited shelf
B. False life as they turn into Calcium Oxide over
ta
time
If it is placed into deep cavities, it is for A. True
caries management, not as protection against B. False
en

etchant 11. True or false? Calcium Hydroxide linings

can be placed when the dentine is slightly
4. True or false? When Calcium moist
Hydroxide is used as a lining, it should A. True
.d

cover the entire cavity floor. B. False

A. True 12. True or false? Light cured Calcium
B. False Hydroxide formulations have better
w

5. Why is Calcium Hydroxide anti- mechanical properties than self-cured

bacterial ones
A. Calcium ions disrupt bacterial A. True
w

metabolism B. False
B. It has a high pH 13. True or false? When doing an Indirect
C. It is acidic Pulp Cap, the deep layer of leathery
w

6. Approximately how long does the infected dentine is left behind, and
antibacterial effect of a Calcium covered over with Calcium Hydroxide
Hydroxide lining last A. True
A. 2 days B. False
B. 2 weeks 14. Which of these is NOT essential for a
C. 2 months successful direct pulp cap
D. 2 years A. There should be no spontaneous pain
E. Permanently from the tooth

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B. When stimulated by hot or cold, the
pain should disappear as soon as
the stimulus is removed
C. Bleeding from the pulp should be
minimal and easily controlled
D. The exposure must be traumatic,
I.e. no infected dentine present.
E. Hard leathery infected dentine

m
should be present
15. True or false? Calcium Hydroxide is an
excellent sealant for root canal therapy

co
A. True
B. False

e.
cm
ta
en
.d
w
w
w

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Handling Materials: ChemFill

1. What type of material is Chemfill A. 20 sec

A. Composite B. 40 sec
B. Compomer C. 60 sec
C. Glass Ionomer D. 90 sec
D. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer 10. How does ChemFil set
E. Synthetic Porcelain A. Light cured

m
2. Chemfill's elasticity (elastic modulus) B. Chemical cured
matches that of C. Dual cured ( i.e. sets quickly with
A. Cementum light, slowly without light)

co
B. Dentine 11. When newly placed, it is essential to
C. Enamel protect ChemFil from moisture. How
D. None of these A. Cover with petroleum jelly (Vaseline)
3. True or False? Chemfill is suitable to treat B. 1 coat of ChemFil Varnish

e.
erosion cavities because it is resistant to C. 2 coats of ChemFil Varnish
acid attack D. Use rubber dam
A. True 12. How is chemfil placed into a cavity
B. False
4. True or False? ChemFil is suitable to cm
restore toothbrush abrasion cavities as it
has good wear resistance
A. Place and pack with a flat plastic
instrument, then allow to set
B. Use a matrix foil or strip to hold it in
place
A. True C. Either way is satisfactory
ta
B. False 13. Ideally, how long must a ChemFil
5. True or False? ChemFil is suitable to restoration be left before finishing and
restore occlusal cavities as it has good polishing it
en

compressive strength A. 3 minutes

A. True B. 7 minutes
B. False C. 1 hour
6. True or False? ChemFil is suitable to treat D. 24 hours
.d

cervical caries as it releases fluoride, 14. What is the minimum time before it can be
which may reduce recurrent caries. finished
A. True A. 3 minutes
w

B. False B. 7 minutes
7. True or False? ChemFil bonds well to C. 1 hour
dentine D. 24 hours
w

A. True 15. If you have to finish a Chemfil restoration

B. False on the same visit, how would you prevent
8. How should ChemFil be mixed when used heat from polishing
w

as a restoration A. Use water spray from the polishing

A. Very thick handpiece
B. Medium thick B. Use vaseline on the restoration
C. Thin C. Both of these
D. Runny 16. True or False? ChemFil restorations
E. Watery normally have long term excellent
9. What is the mixing time for ChemFil aesthetics
A. True
B. False
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17. What is the working time for ChemFil B. High speed diamond burs
A. 20 sec C. 3M 'Enhance' polishing cup and disc
B. 40 sec D. Tungsten Carbide finishing burs
C. 60 sec E. Impregnated rubber point
D. 90 sec F. Abrasive polishing paste
18. True or false? ChemFil is a useful material
for temporary dressings
A. True

m
B. False
19. What liquid is ChemFil powder mixed
with

co
A. Polyacrylic acid
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Unfilled resin
D. Water

e.
E. Acetone
20. What is the bond strength of ChemFil to
Dentine? (1 MegaPascal = 1kg / mm2)
A. 0.1 Mpa
B. 1 Mpa
C. 5 Mpa
D. 10 Mpa
cm
E. 25 Mpa
ta
21. Ideally, what type of margin should be
prepared on a cavity before placing a
ChemFill restoration
en

A. Feather edge
B. 1mm bevel
C. Butt joint
22. True or false? Unfilled composite resin
.d

can be placed and cured as a glaze over

Chemfill to protect it from moisture
A. True
w

B. False
23. True or false? Unfilled composite resin
can be used as a lubricant when finishing a
w

Chemfill restoration
A. True
B. False
w

24. True or false? A scalpel blade can be used

to trim excess Chemfil interproximally
when finishing a ChemFil restoration
A. True
B. False
25. Which of these would you NOT use to
finish a ChemFil restoration
A. Steel finishing burs
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Handling Materials: ParaPost

1. What is the minimum acceptable length A. To resist post rotation

for a post B. To increase post retention
A. 5 mm C. To reduce the crowbar effect
B. 7 mm D. All of these
9. Which ParaPost is used for the impression

m
C. 9 mm
D. 5 mm from apical constriction A. The metal one
E. 3mm from apical constriction B. The smooth plastic one
F. The same length as the crown it C. The serrated plastic one

co
supports 10. Which ParaPost is used for the temporary
2. True or false? There is a higher risk of crown
root perforation with the ParaPost A. The metal one
technique than a custom-made post B. The smooth plastic one

e.
technique C. The serrated plastic one
A. True 11. Which ParaPost is used for the burn-out
B. False post
3.

4.
ParaPost drills are
A. Side cutting
B. End cutting
A black ParaPost drill has the same
cm A. The metal one
B. The smooth plastic one
C. The serrated plastic one
12. Which post-hole design provides the most
diameter as which size Gates Glidden acceptable anti-rotation effect
ta
drill A. An anti-rotation notch
A. No 3 B. An oval cross section in the coronal
B. No 4 third
C. No 5 C. A groove in the thickest wall of the
en

D. No 6 root
5. True or false? A post hole is initially 13. What is the minimum thickness (width) of
prepared by stepping through ParaPost coronal dentine that can be left
drills, then using a Gates Glidden to A. 0.1 mm
.d

shape it B. 0.5 mm
A. True C. 1 mm
B. False D. 1.5 mm
w

6. True or false? Tapered posts are less E. 2 mm

retentive than parallel sided posts 14. What type of impression should be used in
A. True conjunction with the ParaPost technique
w

B. False A. One stage

7. Approximately how many roots are B. Two stage
curved in the apical third 15. How should the impression be removed
w

A. 5% from the mouth with the ParaPost

B. 25% technique
C. 50% A. Snap action
D. 75% B. Slowly, in line with the post
E. 95% C. By tilting it to break the seal
8. Why is it important to retain as much posteriorly
coronal dentine as possible when 16. True or false? The cast post should be
preparing a post crown sandblasted by the lab before it is returned
for fitting
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A. True B. With a finishing bur on a low-speed
B. False (RA) handpiece
17. How should the inside of the post hole be C. With a sonic scaler
cleared of residual sealer paste and Gutta D. With hand files and Gates Glidden
Percha strands drills
A. With a high speed handpiece

m
co
e.
cm
ta
en
.d
w
w
w

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IBS Molecules and Cells

1. Which of the following is NOT true? DNA 7. In which of the following phases of mitosis
synthesis does chromosome separation occur
A. Is semi-conservative A. Telophase
B. Proceeds at a maximum rate of 50 B. Prophase
base pairs per second C. Anaphase
C. Occurs once per cell cycle D. Metaphase

m
D. Requires all four dNTPS E. None of the above
E. Proceeds in a 5’ to 3’ direction 8. Which of the following is NOT inherited in
2. Which of the following is NOT true an autosomal dominant fashion

co
A. RNA contains the bases adenine, A. Achondroplasia
uracil, guanine and cytocine B. Cystic fibrosis
B. RNA synthesis proceeds in a 5’ to 3’ C. Osteosclerosis
direction D. Hypercholesterolaemia

e.
C. RNA is proof read during synthesis E. Huntingdon disease
D. RNA can form secondary structures 9. Which of the following best describes the
E. RNA cannot be synthesised without a bladder
DNA template A. A simple cuboidal epithelium
3.
fatty acid
A. Lauric
cm
Which of the following is NOT a saturated B. A stratified cuboidal epithelium
C. A transitional epithelium
D. A stratified squamous epithelium
B. Linoleic E. A pseudostratified columnar
C. Arachidic epithelium
ta
D. Myristic 10. Connexins are important protein
E. Palmitic components of which of the following
4. In glycolysis which of the following A. Adherans junction
en

enzymes catalyses the reversible reaction B. Desmosomes

between glucose-6- phosphate and C. Gap junctions
fructose-6-phosphate D. Tight junctions
A. Enolase E. Extracellular matrix
.d

B. Pyruvate kinase
C. Phosphofructokinase
D. Hexokinase
E. Phosphoglucose isomerase
w

5. Which of the following is NOT true?

Intermediate filaments
w

A. Are 10nm in diameter

B. Are abnormal in some skin blistering
diseases
w

C. Bind adherans junctions

D. Can be made of keratin or vimentin
E. Are part of the cell cytoskeleton
6. In which of the following cell
compartments does protein synthesis take
place
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. Cytoplasm
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Dental Pathology MCQs

1. Which one of the following would

Initial demineralisation of the dentine is due
normally be found in the oral cavity of a
newborn baby to the diffusion of acid produced by
A. Actinomyces viscosus acidogenic bacteria.
B. Streptococcus sanguis

m
C. Streptococcus salivarius 7. Which one of the following becomes more
2. (i) The acquired pellicle is normally 1- prominent in carious enamel
3mm thick; (ii) The acquired pellicle A. Striae of Retzius
B. Hunter-Schreger band

co
attains its full thickness within
approximately two hours of prophylaxis C. Imbrication lines of Pickerill
A. Only (i) is true D. Striae of Wickham
B. Only (ii) is true E. Dead tracts of Fish
8. Which statement is true

e.
C. Both (i) and (ii) are true
D. Both (i) and (ii) are false A. An apical granuloma always precedes
a radicular cyst
The acquired pellicle reaches only a few B. An apical granuloma may not precede
micrometres in thickness.

3. Which one of the following is the normal

cm a radicular cyst
C. An apical granuloma never precedes a
radicular cyst
serum fluoride concentration in the
absence of a dietary fluoride supplement Radicular cysts develop from the
ta
A. 0.01ppm proliferation of epithelial rests in apical
B. 0.1ppm granulomas. However, not all granulomas
C. 1.0ppm progress into a radicular cyst
en

D. 2.0ppm
E. 5.0ppm 9. Tertiary dentine…
4. Which one of the following is not an A. Can be observed in routine intraoral
histological feature of dentine caries radiographs
.d

A. Liquefaction foci B. Can be observed in demineralized

B. Transverse clefts histological sections
C. Cholesterol clefts C. Is initially deposited as secondary
5. Plaque extracellular polysaccharide dentine
w

synthesis is greatest when which one of the D. Starts being deposited with the onset
following sugars is present in the diet of early enamel carious lesions
10. Regarding pulp inflammation…
w

A. Glucose
B. Mannose i. The size of the apical vessels
C. Fructose in the pulp
w

D. Sucrose ii. Rigidity of pulp chamber

E. Sorbitol due to dentine walls
6. Which one of the following occurs earliest A. Only A influences pulp inflammation
in caries of dentine B. Only B influences pulp inflammation
A. Beading of tubules C. Both A and B influence pulp
B. Invasion of pioneer bacteria inflammation
C. Initial demineralization D. Neither A nor B influence pulp
D. Liquefaction foci inflammation

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Oral Pathology MCQs

1. (i) Following a tooth extraction, the socket

5. Which one of the following is the most
heals by ''primary intention'' (ii) Primary
common site of occurrence of Oral
callus is the initial hard tissue laid down in
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
healing of a broken bone
A. Lateral border of tongue

m
A. Only (i) is true
B. Ventral surface of tongue
B. Only (ii) is true
C. Floor of mouth
C. Both (i) and (ii) are true
D. Gingiva
D. Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect

co
E. Cheek
6. Which one of the following is an
Sockets heal by ''secondary intention''
histological feature of Pemphigus Vulgaris
A. Subepithelial bullae

e.
2. In the description of an ulcer, the term
B. Positive immunofluorescence to
'induration'' refers to the fact that it
basement membrane antigens
A. Has a raised border
C. Acantholytic cells
B. Feels hard
C. Has a necrotic base
D. Is often surrounded by erythema
E. Takes weeks to heal
cm D. Band-like lympho-histiocytic
infiltration of the lamina propria

Acantholytic cells (or Tzank cells) are small,

3. Which one of the following entities is
roundish epithelial cells found in the bullae
ta
odontogenic in origin
which have detached from their neighbors.
A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Pemphigus Vulgaris is characterized by the
B. Nasopalatine cyst
presence of intra- epithelial bullae (not sub-
C. Epidermoid cyst
en

epithelial)
D. Residual cyst
7. Which one of the following statements
The lining of Residual and Radicular cysts
about odontomes is correct
derives from the epithelial rests of Malassez
.d

A. A complex odontome consists of

(which are rests of the Root Sheath of
numerous denticles
Hertwig)
B. Invaginated odontomes predispose the
w

tooth to pulpitis
4. Which one of the following is not a
C. A compound odontome is considered
recognized complication of Paget’s disease
a choristoma rather than a tumor
w

of bone
A. Difficult extractions
In the invaginated odontome or dens in
B. Post-extraction haemorrhage
dente the enamel at the end of the
w

C. Multiple unerupted teeth

invagination can be poorly
D. Neurological symptoms such as
formed/mineralised or even absent. Dentine
paresthesia
may also be defective, facilitating the
E. Pain
access of retained plaque and debris to the
pulp. Compound and complex odontomes
There is no known association between
are considered hamartomas (not
Paget's disease of bone and anomalies of
choristomas) rather than true neoplasms
eruption of teeth

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8. Which one of the following is not a feature E. The range of cells you wish to use to
of Gardner’s syndrome display a graph.
A. Supernumerary teeth F. The list of numbers that you will use
B. Multiple osteomas to define the y-axis of a frequency
C. Condylar hyperplasia hiostogram
D. Colonic polyps 12. It is necessary to perform an F-test before
E. Epidermoid cysts a T- test can be reliably undertaken. Why
is this

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Condylar hyperplasia is not a feature of A. The F-test formats the data into the
Gardner's syndrome. The intestinal correct type for the T-test to work
polyps in this syndrome are upon.

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premalignant, so it is important to be B. The T-test function does not work in
able to diagnose patients with this excel unless the F-test function has
disease been run previously
C. You need to know whether the

e.
9. Regarding Chronic Hyperplastic averages are statistically different
Candidosis, which of the following before you can use the T-test to
statement is true examine differences in variance.
A. It is always a homogeneous white
patch cm
B. Candidal hyphae penetrate to the full
depth of the epithelium
D. That is a trick question! It doesn't
actually matter whether you do an F-
test at all.
E. You need to know whether there is
C. The white patch can be rubbed off any statistical difference between
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D. Shows epithelial dysplasia in about variances before you can select the
50% of cases correct type of T-test to employ
E. It is always successfully treated with 13. You have oral health data taken from a
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topical antifungals group of people from London and a group

10. Which one of the following is not regarded from Birmingham and you wish to know
as a feature of cellular atypia in the oral whether there is any statistical difference
mucosa in the proportion of people from each city
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A. Increased number of basal mitosis who have gingivitis. Which statistical test
B. Loss of cell cohesion would you employ
C. Cellular pleomorphism A. Regression analysis
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D. Nuclear pleomorphism B. Chi-squared test

E. Prominent nucleoli C. One-way analysis of Variance
11. What does Microsoft Excel refer to when (ANOVA)
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it asks you to select your Bin Range D. T-test

A. The difference between the maximum E. F-test
value and the minimum value in a
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dataset.
B. The distance to the waste paper
basket from your desk.
C. The difference between the average
of one dataset and another.
D. The list of numbers that you will use
as x-axis categories for a frequency
histogram
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Glass Ionomer Cements

B. Releases fluoride
1. Which of these is a more proper name C. GIC elasticity matches dentine's
for Glass Ionomer elasticity
A. Glass Polyalkelate D. Good biocompatibility
B. Glass Polyalkenate 9. When fluoride ions leach out of GIC, what
C. Glass Polyalkenoate replaces them

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D. Glass Polyalkenite A. Aluminium ions
2. Why is GIC called a cement B. Hydroxyl ions
A. It sticks to tooth tissues C. Carboxylate ions
B. It sets with an acid-base reaction in

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D. Silicate ions
a water solvent 10. What does 'chelate' mean when we say
C. It can be used to cement crowns, 'GIC chelates calcium atoms'
bridges etc A. Dissolve
3. Which of these ions is NOT released

e.
B. Replace
from the glass filler when GIC sets C. Grab
A. Aluminium D. Ionise
B. Calcium E. Precipitate
C. Fluoride
D. Zinc
E. Silicate
F. Sodium
cm 11. Which part of a GIC bonds to dentine
A. Carboxylic groups of the polymer
chains
B. Metal ions
4. What type of bond joins (cross-links) the C. Unsaturated Carbon-Carbon bonds
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polymer matrix together when GIC is set D. Polymer cross-links
A. Ionic 12. Which of these is NOT true about GIC? A)
B. Covalent Brittle
C. Hydrogen
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A. Low tensile strength

D. Micromechanical B. Low fracture toughness
5. Which of these are most involved in the C. Poor long-term aesthetic
GIC polymer cross-links D. Very technique-sensitive
A. Aluminium and Calcium
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E. Poor marginal seal

B. Aluminium and Sodium
13. True or false? Resin Modified GIC has
C. Sodium and Calcium
D. Fluoride and Silicate better aesthetics than GIC
A. True
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6. What is a main feature of the polymer in

GIC B. False
A. Alkaline 14. True or false? Resin Modified GIC has
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B. Acidic better fracture resistance than GIC

C. Acid soluble A. True
D. Neutral pH B. False
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7. What is a main feature of the glass filler 15. True or false? Compomer is a type of
in GIC Resin Modified GIC
A. Silane coated A. True
B. Acidic B. False
C. Acid soluble 16. True or false? The glass particles in
D. Neutral pH RM-GIC are silane coated
8. Which is the most useful feature of GIC A. True
A. Adheres to tooth tissues B. False
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17. Which of these is a RM-GIC B. 5 MPa
A. Vitremer C. 15 MPa
B. Dyract D. 30 MPa
C. Gluma 19. What is the typical bond strength of GIC
D. Chemfil to dentine
E. Herculite A. 1 MPa
F. Fuji IX B. 5 MPa
C. 15 MPa

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Chemfil and Fuji IX are conventional D. 30 MPa
(not RM) GI's. Dyract is a Compomer. 20. Which is the best material for treatment of
Herculite – composite resin. Gluma - non-carious Class V cavities in unstable
acid erosion cases

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dentine bonding system
A. GIC
18. What is the typical bond strength of GIC B. RM-GIC
to enamel C. Compomer
D. Composite

e.
A. 1 MPa

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Endodontics: Coronal Access

C. 25%
1. What is the objective of coronal access D. 50%
A. To expose and unroof the pulp E. 75%
chamber to gain visibility, including F. 95%
removal of pulp horns 9. How many lower incisors have two canals
B. To locate the canal openings A. Hardly any
C. To enable a small file to be placed

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B. 5%
down the canal openings C. 25%
2. What instrument is NOT ever needed for D. 50%
access preparation E. 75%

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A. High speed diamond burs F. 95%
B. RA Steel round burs 10. Where is an 'extra' canal often found in
C. Gates Glidden Drills upper molars
D. Long shank burs A. Mesiobuccal root

e.
E. Swan neck burs B. Distobuccal root
3. How can you identify dentine on the floor C. Palatal root
of the pulp chamber in a molar D. Mesiolingal root
A. It is smooth
B. It is grey
C. It is knobbly
D. It is dark brown
cm 11. The opening of the distal canal(s) in molars
is usually directly under
A. The distal marginal ridge
B. The centre of the tooth
E. It is hard C. The buccal groove
4. What shape is the access cavity for upper
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D. The palatal fissure
and lower incisors E. The cusp of Caribelli
A. Triangular 12. Upper first premolars usually have
B. Ovoid
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A. One canal
C. Round B. Two canals
D. Oblong C. Three canals
5. What shape is the access cavity for upper 13. Upper second premolars usually have
and lower canines A. One canal
.d

A. Triangular B. Two canals

B. Ovoid C. Three canals
C. Round 14. If the canal orifice in an upper second
D. Oblong
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premolar appears under the buccal cusp,

6. What shape is the access cavity for upper one might suspect
and lower premolars A. Pulpal sclerosis
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A. Triangular B. A palatal canal

B. Ovoid C. Internal resorbtion
C. Round 15. When preparing an access cavity, you find
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D. Oblong what appears to be the canal opening much

7. What shape is the access cavity for upper earlier than expected. What might explain
and lower molars this
A. Triangular A. Incorrect measurement of the pre-op
B. Ovoid radiograph
C. Round B. You have hit a pulp horn
D. Oblong C. Internal resorption
8. How many upper incisors have two canals
A. Hardly any
B. 5%
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16. When preparing an access cavity, you 19. Why is often advisable to remove an
come across an orange-yellow slurry artificial crown from a tooth before
inside the pulp chamber. What is it likely preparing an access cavity
to be A. Metal shavings may drop into the
A. Pus canal
B. Ledermix placed by a previous B. The metal will create false readings
dentist when the electronic apex locator is
C. Necrotic pulp used

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D. Unset composite resin C. The tooth may be rotated or tilted
17. True or false? After entering the pulp under the crown, and the crown just
chamber, an option is to continue makes it look straight
preparation without water spray D. Dam clamps may loosen the crown

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A. True 20. To find pulp horns, which instrument is
B. False most useful
18. True or false? You should not normally A. A Briault Probe
extend the access for anterior teeth under B. A file with a curved tip

e.
the cingulum C. A small round bur
A. True D. A Hedstrom File
B. False
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Handling Materials: Rubber Dam

1. You notice during an endo that saliva is B. Push it through with floss
creeping through your rubber dam hole. C. Use lubricant
What should you do D. Use wooden wedges for a short while
A. Put on a new piece with a smaller to separate the teeth
hole E. Use an abrasive finishing strip to
B. Put in a new piece using thicker dam

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reduce the contact points
C. Use caulking paste to seal the leak F. Use an abrasive finishing strip to
D. Use a curved saliva ejector in the smooth off rough interproximal
mouth under the dam fillings

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2. When doing an MO restoration under 8. Where does the metal dam frame go
dam on an upper first premolar, you A. Under the dam
should apply the dam clamp to the B. Over the dam
A. Canine 9. Which is true

e.
B. First premolar A. The curved parts of the clamp beaks
C. Second premolar should rest on the tooth
D. Any of these B. The pointed parts of the clamp beaks

3. It is essential to lubricate dam before

applying it. Which of these is NOT a
suitable lubricant
cm
E. None of these - you must use wedges should rest on the tooth
10. Which of these medical conditions is not
relevant when considering use of dam
A. Latex allergy
A. Shaving cream B. Sleep apnoea
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B. Liquid soap C. Claustrophobia
C. Hibiscrub D. Sinusitis
D. Vaseline E. Emphysema
4. When doing an endo, how many teeth 11. You are unable to apply dam to an upper
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would you normally have coming through molar that requires endodontic treatment.
the dam What should you do
A. Just the one being root treated A. Advise extraction
B. 2 B. Dress the pulp with a mummifying
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C. 3 paste and provide a good coronal seal

D. As many as possible and practical C. Continue without dam
5. You have problems with the dam tearing. D. Refer the patient to an endodontic
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What might you consider specialist

A. Using thinner dam 12. Which is NOT a function of dam in
B. Using thicker dam endodontics
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C. Making the holes closer together A. Preventing saliva contamination

D. Making the holes further apart B. Improving visibility
6. Which of these will make the dam most C. Confining excess irrigants
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likely to tear D. Making access to the pulp chamber

A. A large tooth easier
B. A large clamp E. Improving patient comfort
C. A small hole F. Reducing medico legal liability
D. A rusty dam puncture 13. If you can't get dam onto a tooth for root
7. You are having trouble getting the dam treatment, which solution is unacceptable
between the contact points for four A. Restore the tooth first to enable dam
anterior teeth. What might you NOT do placement, then drill access through
A. Punch the holes closer together the new restoration
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B. Crown lengthening by electrosurgery C. Attach the dam to the clamp and
C. Working without dam frame outside the mouth, then put the
D. Restoring with a copper band assembly over the tooth using clamp
E. Placing the dam clamp beaks directly holders over the dam
onto the gingiva D. Attach the dam to the clamp and
14. You are providing anterior composite tip frame outside the mouth, then put the
restorations, but the dam clamp is in the assembly over the tooth using clamp
way. What is the best option holders under the dam
16. When the dam is in place, which of these

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A. Proceed without dam
B. Use rubber or wooden wedges instead will further improve the seal to the tooth
to hold the dam in place A. Placing vaseline round the tooth
C. Use adhesive to fix the dam to the margins

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gingiva B. Inverting the edge of the dam around
15. Which is the WRONG way to apply dam the tooth with a small plastic
using a wingless clamp instrument
A. Put the clamp on the tooth, then pull C. Leaving strips of floss interproximally

e.
the dam over it D. Coating the assembly with cavity
B. Place the dam on the tooth with varnish
fingers, then position the clamp over
it
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