Sample Examination Questions

for Parts I–IX

I. Organization-Wide Planning and Deployment

1. The hoshin kanri X-matrix is used primarily for:
A. design of experiments.
B. sampling plan determination.
C. risk analysis.
D. none of the above.
2. Six Sigma methods are usually considered to be more effective than lean methods
for solving problems that require:
A. extensive data analysis.
B. optimizing an assembly line.
C. coordination with suppliers.
D. a quick solution.
3. The leader in the quality movement who is credited with the concept of
total quality control is:
A. Juran.
B. Ishikawa.
C. Crosby.
D. Feigenbaum.
E. Taguchi.
F. Shewhart.

1
2 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

4. The quality leader responsible for the control charts is:

A. Juran.
B. Ishikawa.
C. Crosby.
D. Feigenbaum.
E. Taguchi.
F. Shewhart.
5. The quality leader most associated with the concept of robustness is:
A. Juran.
B. Ishikawa.
C. Crosby.
D. Feigenbaum.
E. Taguchi.
F. Shewhart.
6. An example of an external stakeholder is:
A. sales director.
B. supply chain engineer.
C. VP for international business.
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.
7. A quality leader who did extensive work with Japanese industry is:
A. Juran.
B. Ishikawa.
C. Deming.
D. Ohno.
E. Taguchi.
F. all of the above.
G. none of the above.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 3

8. Business continuity planning refers to planning for:

A. activities that will occur beyond the next fiscal year.
B. acquisition of another enterprise.
C. departure of key personnel.
D. none of the above.
9. Portfolio analysis refers to:
A. study of the products/services offered by an organization.
B. study of the assets and liabilities associated with a Six Sigma project.
C. study of personnel attributes for possible training needs.
D. none of the above.
10. The word “champion” in the context of Six Sigma projects refers to:
A. the team that has had the most impact on the bottom line.
B. the person who has coordinated teams most effectively.
C. the individual who has outpaced all others in Six Sigma knowledge.
D. none of the above.
11. Which are considered elements of lean?
I. Waste elimination
II. Project management techniques
III. Using customer pull to drive production
IV. Measurement systems analysis
V. 5S
A. I, III, and V
B. I, II, and V
C. I, II, III, and IV
D. II, IV, and V
12. In general, which set of tools is more statistically based?
A. Lean thinking
B. Six Sigma
C. Kanban
D. Visual controls
4 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

II. Organizational Process Management and Measures

13. George is an employee of Black, Inc. John is George’s internal customer. Which
statement is true?
A. John is employed by Black, Inc.
B. John is employed by another company that supplies material to Black, Inc.
C. John is employed by a company that purchases material from Black, Inc.
D. John is employed by another company that has a fiduciary agreement with
Black, Inc.
E. John is employed by another company as an internal auditor.
14. A team has been asked to reduce the cycle time for a process. The team decides to
collect baseline data. It will do this by:
A. seeking ideas for improvement from all stakeholders.
B. researching cycle times for similar processes within the organization.
C. obtaining accurate cycle times for the process as it currently runs.
D. benchmarking similar processes outside the organization.
15. A continuous improvement team decides to compare data from an internal
process with data from a company known for excellence in the field. Such
comparisons are called:
A. comparison data analysis.
B. referential comparison.
C. analysis of variance.
D. benchmarking.
16. External stakeholders may be impacted by Six Sigma projects in which of
these ways?
A. Different inputs may be required
B. The outputs may change
C. New outside services may be required
D. All of the above
17. KPIs are:
A. measures of important quantities.
B. measures of stock on hand.
C. measures of profit/loss.
D. none of the above.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 5

18. A “balanced scorecard” lists four aspects of business metrics. One of these is:
A. learning and growth.
B. litigation and risk.
C. mediation and consensus.
D. opportunities and strengths.
E. none of the above.
19. A Six Sigma project that finds a way to cost-effectively reuse packing
containers rather than purchasing new ones for each shipment impacts the
bottom line through:
A. return on investment.
B. increasing market share.
C. revenue growth.
D. cost avoidance.
20. Is it possible to increase market share while selling fewer items?
A. Yes
B. No
21. One advantage of tracking a leading indicator is:
A. it helps predict future activity.
B. it influences other indicators.
C. it tends to lead competitors’ activities.
22. A sales department tracks the percentage of customers who place more than
three orders per year. This is an example of a:
A. leading indicator.
B. lagging indicator.
C. loyalty metric.
D. cost–benefit analysis.

III. Team Management

23. A team has members at the company’s Texas, Oregon, and Pennsylvania offices.
They agree to meet using computer conferencing software. This is referred to as a:
A. virtual team.
B. self-directed team.
C. cross-functional team.
D. formal team.
6 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

24. A team facilitator’s role includes:

A. selecting team members.
B. selecting team objectives.
C. maintaining team minutes.
D. helping team leaders keep the team on track.
E. All of the above.
25. Standard team growth stages include:
A. forming.
B. learning.
C. cooperating.
D. improving.
E. all of the above.
26. During the norming stage of team development:
A. team members begin working together.
B. team members tend to express their own opinions.
C. team members present a final report and fight to support it.
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.
27. When using the team leadership approach referred to as “delegate,” the team
leader:
A. expects members to represent their constituencies.
B. expects members to remain silent during meetings.
C. expects members to attend only when the topic impacts their department.
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.
28. The team behavior called “groupthink” consists of:
A. the tendency of a team to accept another team’s results.
B. the tendency of a team to split into sub-teams or cliques.
C. the tendency for team members to represent their own group.
D. the tendency of a team to begin thinking the same without requiring evidence.
E. none of the above.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 7

29. When an individual or group dominates team discussion, the team leader should:
A. ask the individual or group to leave.
B. ask the team authority to appoint a new team.
C. ignore the dominating person(s).
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.
30. A list of techniques for making the most of team meeting time would include:
A. publish an agenda.
B. start on time.
C. require outside work by members.
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.
31. A difference between consensus and multivoting is:
A. consensus is less formal than multivoting.
B. consensus is more formal than multivoting.
C. consensus requires less time than multivoting.
D. consensus uses the view of all members and multivoting doesn’t.
32. An initiative to provide team training should include:
A. identification of skill gaps.
B. development of learning objectives.
C. development of training materials.
D. all of the above.
33. Precepts of adult learning theory include:
A. adults learn at a slower rate.
B. adults prefer material with immediate application.
C. adult short-term retention is poorer.
D. none of the above.
8 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

IV. Define
34. Customer segmentation refers to:
A. dividing a particular customer into departments that are easier to deal with.
B. grouping customers by one or more criteria.
C. maintaining secure customer listings to minimize communication among
them.
D. eliminating or “cutting off” customers with poor credit history.
Use the following diagram for questions 35 and 36.

Key:
Strong Customer requirements
Moderate
Weak

1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1
Technical features

35. This is an example of part of a:

A. QFD matrix.
B. activity network diagram.
C. interrelationship digraph.
D. affinity diagram.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 9

36. Customer requirement #3 has a ______________ relationship with technical

feature #3.
A. Strong
B. Moderate
C. Weak
37. CTx refers to:
A. continuous training exercises.
B. capital transfers.
C. critical to “various requirements.”
D. continuous team events.
E. control technologies “of various types.”
38. An instrument for collecting customer data should be reviewed for validity and
reliability. Validity refers to:
A. the extent to which an instrument measures what it intends to measure.
B. the statistical methods used to analyze the data.
C. the extent to which the results agree with data collected in other ways.
D. the appropriateness of the reading difficulty for the audience.
E. the extent to which the results are consistent across repeated measurements.
39. A team is investigating ways to reduce power outages. They determine
that an outage can occur in only three ways: grid failure, local transformer failure,
or local overload. They then investigate each of these three events
for possible causes, and so on. They draw a diagram that “fans out” using the
power outage as the handle of the fan. These activities are best described by which
approach to problem solving?
A. Affinity diagram
B. Interrelationship digraph
C. Tree diagram
D. Process decision program chart
E. Matrix diagram
F. Prioritization matrix
G. Activity network diagram
10 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

40. A team’s goal is to improve information flow in a payroll function. They make
33 sticky notes, each listing an issue for further investigation. After some
discussion, they group them into four categories: mandated record keeping,
privacy concerns, insurance concerns, and transfer concerns. This grouping
process is best described by which approach to problem solving?
A. Affinity diagram
B. Interrelationship digraph
C. Tree diagram
D. Process decision program chart
E. Matrix diagram
F. Prioritization matrix
G. Activity network diagram
41. A management team lists nine goals across the top of a rectangle and 15 activity
initiatives along the left-hand side of the rectangle. If one of the activities strongly
supports one of the goals, a circle is placed in the box where that activity’s row
intersects the goal’s column. If the activity’s support is very strong, a bull’s-eye is
placed in the box, and if the support is weak, a triangle is used. This best describes
which problem solving tool?
A. Affinity diagram
B. Interrelationship digraph Goal #1 Goal #2 Goal #3 . . .
Activity #1
C. Tree diagram
D. Process decision program chart Activity #2

E. Matrix diagram Activity #3

F. Prioritization matrix etc.

G. Activity network diagram

42. The management team in the above question assigns each goal a numerical value
designating its importance. The bull’s eyes, circles, and triangles are replaced by
the values 3, 2, and 1, respectively. Entries are made in each box by multiplying the
3, 2, or 1 by the goal value. The importance of each activity is calculated by adding
the entries in its row. This best describes which problem solving tool?
A. Affinity diagram
B. Interrelationship digraph #1 (5) #2 (8) #3 (2) Total
Activity #1 3 (15) 45
C. Tree diagram
Activity #2 1 (8) 2 (4) 12
D. Process decision program chart
E. Matrix diagram Activity #3 2 (10) 3 (24) 34

F. Prioritization matrix etc.

G. Activity network diagram

 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 11

43. A project report has a section on the business case justification for
implementation. This section should include:
A. an explanation of how the project will affect competitive businesses.
B. a survey of business opportunities.
C. evidence of the impact the project will have on the bottom line.
D. a more formal review of the project definition and scope.
44. A team may experience “scope creep.” This means that:
A. the views of team members are inconsistent.
B. the problem being discussed is not the one assigned to the team.
C. the team can’t reach consensus.
D. the project is being addressed by another team.
45. A project’s problem statement and scope should be reviewed with the SMART
acronym in mind. SMART includes:
A. alternatives.
B. appropriateness.
C. answerable.
D. agreement.
E. advantageous.
F. all of the above.
G. none of the above.
46. Critical elements used to determine the success of a project are referred to as:
A. project essentials.
B. project charter items.
C. project team elements.
D. project performance measurements.
47. The project charter:
A. should be reviewed regularly.
B. is not helpful during the project execution.
C. is generated primarily to present to top management.
D. is usually not specific enough regarding boundaries.
12 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

48. A project management tool for listing all individual activities that must be
accomplished in order to complete the project is called:
A. Gantt chart.
B. tollgate review.
C. work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. RACI model (responsible, accountable, consulted, informed).
49. A project management tool for scheduling all individual activities that must be
accomplished in order to complete the project is called:
A. Gantt chart.
B. tollgate review.
C. work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. RACI model (responsible, accountable, consulted, informed).
50. A project management tool that provides periodic checks to determine whether
the team can proceed to the next level is called:
A. Gantt chart.
B. tollgate review.
C. work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. RACI model (responsible, accountable, consulted, informed).
51. A project management tool that identifies where the decision-making buck stops
is called:
A. Gantt chart.
B. tollgate review.
C. work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. RACI model (responsible, accountable, consulted, informed).
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 13

V. Measure
52. WIP is:
A. the amount of time required to complete a process.
B. material that has begun the process but not completed it.
C. the amount of time required to complete one cycle.
D. the amount of time performing activities that the customer is willing to
pay for.
E. the amount of time to convert from making one product to making a
different one.
F. the result of dividing the time available by the number of units to be
produced.
G. material waiting to be processed.
53. WIQ is:
A. the amount of time required to complete a process.
B. material that has begun the process but not completed it.
C. the amount of time required to complete one cycle.
D. the amount of time performing activities that the customer is willing to
pay for.
E. the amount of time to convert from making one product to making a
different one.
F. the result of dividing the time available by the number of units to be
produced.
G. material waiting to be processed.
54. Cycle time is:
A. the amount of time required to complete a process.
B. material that has begun the process but not completed it.
C. the amount of time required to complete one cycle.
D. the amount of time performing activities that the customer is willing to
pay for.
E. the amount of time to convert from making one product to making a
different one.
F. the result of dividing the time available by the number of units to be
produced.
G. material waiting to be processed.
14 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

55. Setup time is:

A. the amount of time required to complete a process.
B. material that has begun the process but not completed it.
C. the amount of time required to complete one cycle.
D. the amount of time performing activities that the customer is willing to
pay for.
E. the amount of time to convert from making one product to making a
different one.
F. the result of dividing the time available by the number of units to be
produced.
G. material waiting to be processed.
56. Value-added time is sometimes defined as:
A. the amount of time required to complete a process.
B. material that has begun the process but not completed it.
C. the amount of time required to complete one cycle.
D. the amount of time performing activities that the customer is willing to
pay for.
E. the amount of time to convert from making one product to making a
different one.
F. the result of dividing the time available by the number of units to be
produced.
G. material waiting to be processed.
57. Takt time is:
A. the amount of time required to complete a process.
B. material that has begun the process but not completed it.
C. the amount of time required to complete one cycle.
D. the amount of time performing activities that the customer is willing to
pay for.
E. the amount of time to convert from making one product to making a
different one.
F. the result of dividing the time available by the number of units to be
produced.
G. material waiting to be processed.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 15

58. A team has members who are not familiar with the process being studied, so the
team visits the area, observes the process, and asks questions. Which of these tools
are they using?
A. Value stream map
B. Process map
C. Work instructions
D. Flowchart
E. Spaghetti diagram
F. Circle diagram
G. Gemba walk
59. A team has members who are not familiar with the process being studied, so the
other team members sketch a series of rectangles, each one being a processing
step. Which of these tools are they using?
A. Value stream map
B. Process map
C. Work instructions
D. Spaghetti diagram
E. Circle diagram
F. Gemba walk
60. A team has members who are not familiar with the process being studied, so the
other team members make a sketch showing physical locations such as printing
press and stockroom as well as decision branch points with associated decision
criteria. Which of these tools are they using?
A. Value stream map
B. PowerPoint
C. Work instructions
D. Flowchart
E. Spaghetti diagram
F. Circle diagram
G. Gemba walk
16 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

61. A team has discovered that a three-shift operation is being performed differently
on each of the three shifts. Which of these tools needs attention?
A. Value stream map
B. Process map
C. Work instructions
D. Flowchart
E. Spaghetti diagram
F. Circle diagram
G. Gemba walk
62. In order to study the flow from receiving raw material to shipping finished
product, a scale drawing of the plant is drawn and a line is drawn depicting
each movement of the material. This drawing is called:
A. value stream map.
B. process map.
C. work instructions.
D. flowchart.
E. spaghetti diagram.
F. circle diagram.
G. gemba walk.
63. In order to better understand a series of process steps, a sketch is drawn showing
each step together with the inventory at that step, its setup time, and cycle time.
This sketch is known as a:
A. value stream map.
B. process map.
C. work instructions.
D. flowchart.
E. spaghetti diagram.
F. circle diagram.
G. gemba walk.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 17

64. A commercial construction company is studying the process used to generate

a bid for a construction project. They observe that the chief engineer sees the
document eight times, the accounting department handles it four times, civil
engineering department gets it four times, and so on. The team depicts this
hand-off activity by using a dot to represent each stop and arrows representing
the document’s travel to the next person or department. This sketch is called a:
A. value stream map.
B. process map.
C. work instruction.
D. flowchart.
E. spaghetti diagram.
F. circle diagram.
G. gemba walk.
65. The receiving department of a cellulosic ethanol plant weighs each load of corn
stover and records the value. The department is using which kind of data?
A. Qualitative discrete data
B. Qualitative continuous data
C. Quantitative discrete data
D. Quantitative continuous data
66. The receiving department of a cellulosic ethanol plant classifies each incoming
load of corn stover as either green, brown, yellow, or white. The department is
using which kind of data?
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
67. The receiving department of a cellulosic ethanol plant counts the number of bales
on each load. The department is using which kind of data?
A. Qualitative discrete data
B. Qualitative continuous data
C. Quantitative discrete data
D. Quantitative continuous data
68. Both discrete and continuous data are also referred to as:
A. qualitative data.
B. quantitative data.
18 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

69. A hospital admissions process assigns patient numbers randomly. Which type of
scale does this process use?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
70. A hospital admissions process records each patient’s body temperature in °F.
Which type of scale does this process use?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
71. A hospital admissions process assigns patient numbers sequentially by date.
The first patient admitted on October 12, 2014 receives #101220140001. Which type
of scale does this process use?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
72. A hospital admissions process records each patient’s body temperature in °K.
Which type of scale does this process use?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
73. A team is devising a data collection plan for a three-shift operation. They want
to calculate a daily mean value. They know that 50% of the parts are produced
during shift #1, 30% during shift #2, and 20% during shift #3. They want a total
sample size of 50, so they choose 25 from shift #1, 15 from shift #2, and 10 from
shift #3. What type of sampling is being used?
A. Homogeneity
B. Stratified
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 19

74. A team is devising a data collection plan for a three-shift operation. They want to
calculate a mean value for shift #1 only, so they select their sample from shift #1
only. What type of sampling is being used?
A. Homogeneity
B. Stratified
75. When forming a sample, in order to insure ______________ , all items must come
from the same population.
A. homogeneity
B. bias
C. accuracy
D. precision
76. When using a gage to collect measurements, the gage should be calibrated
periodically to ensure ______________ .
A. homogeneity
B. bias
C. accuracy
D. precision
77. If a gage is found to measure 0.005 too large on each measurement, the gage is
introducing ______________ .
A. homogeneity
B. bias
C. accuracy
D. precision
78. If a gage doesn’t get the same answer each time it is used to measure the same
item, the measurement systems lacks ______________ .
A. homogeneity
B. bias
C. accuracy
D. precision
20 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

79. In gage R&R studies, repeatability refers to:

A. the variation in measurements obtained when one measurement device is
used several times by the same person.
B. the variation in measurements obtained when different people use the same
measurement device.
C. the variation in measurements obtained when different people use different
measurement devices.
D. the variation in measurements obtained when multiple measurement devices
are used several times by different people.
80. After conducting a measurement systems analysis (MSA) the standard deviation
of the measurement error is found to be σM = 0.00035 for a dimension with
tolerance 3.000 ± 0.005. Calculate the precision to tolerance (P:T) ratio.
A. 0.42
B. 0.21
C. 0.105
D. 0.07
81. A ______________ from a sample is used to estimate a population ______________ .
The two words that best fill these blanks are:
A. item, value
B. value, statistic
C. statistic, parameter
D. parameter, value
E. parameter, statistic
82. According to the central limit theorem:
A. the median and the mean have the same value in a symmetric distribution.
B. the mode of a normal distribution is also the mean.
C. the mean of an exponential distribution is smaller than the median.
D. the mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution all have the same value.
E. none of the above.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 21

83. A result of the central limit theorem is that when 100 samples of size n = 50 are
drawn from an exponential distribution with σ = 0.08 and μ = 300:
A. the distribution of sample means is approximately normal.
B. the mean of the set of sample means is approximately 300.
C. the standard deviation of the set of sample means is approximately 0.011.
D. all the above.
E. none of the above.
84. In a normal distribution:
A. the mean is sometimes larger than the mode.
B. the median is always smaller than the mean.
C. the mean, median, and mode are all equal.
D. none of the above.
85. What can be said about a distribution that has mean = median = mode?
A. it is an exponential distribution.
B. it is a Poisson distribution.
C. it is a normal distribution.
D. none of the above.
86. The term “expected value” is closest to the term:
A. median.
B. probabilistic model.
C. mean.
D. Markov value.
E. regressive value.
87. Fifty random samples of size n = 40 are selected from a population of
measurements. The mean of the set of sample means is not exactly equal to
the mean of the population. This is due to:
A. type I error.
B. type II error.
C. sampling error.
D. the population is not normal.
E. measurements were not exact.
22 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

88. A population of size 1,000,000 has mean 42 and standard deviation 6. Sixty
random samples, each of size 15, are selected. According to the central limit
theorem, the distribution of the 60 sample means has a mean of approximately:
A. 42.
B. 42/6.
C. 42/15.
42 / 15.
D.
E. none of the above.
89. A population of size 1,000,000 has mean 42 and standard deviation 6. Sixty
random samples, each of size 15, are selected. According to the central limit
theorem, the distribution of the 60 sample means has a standard deviation of
approximately:
A. 6.
B. 6/42.
C. 6/15.
D.
6/ 15.
E. none of the above.
Use this data set for problems 90–94:
Ten randomly selected parts have measurements:
3.4  3.6  2.9  2.8  3.1  2.9  3.5  3.2  3.1  3.3
90. Find the estimated standard deviation of the population from which this sample
was drawn.
A. 3.18
B. 0.26
C. 0.27
D. 0.027
E. 0.026
91. Find the range of the sample.
A. 0.8
B. 0.7
C. 0.9
D. 0.10
E. 3.18
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 23

92. Find the mean of the sample.

A. 0.8
B. 0.7
C. 0.9
D. 0.10
E. 3.18
93. Find the median of the sample.
A. 2.99
B. 3.15
C. 3.36
D. 3.55
E. None of the above
94. Find the mode of the sample.
A. 2.99
B. 3.15
C. 3.36
D. 3.55
E. None of the above
40
Use the box-and-whisker diagram on the right for problems 95
and 97. 30

95. What is the range of these data? 20

A. 30 10

B. 20 0

C. 10
D. 5
96. About half of the values lie between:
A. 10 and 20.
B. 10 and 30.
C. 15 and 20.
D. 15 and 25.
24 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

97. In the box-and-whisker diagram it appears that the mode is:

A. 10.
B. 15.
C. 20.
D. none of the above.
98. The population shown in the histogram on
the right is:

Frequency
A. normal.
B. bimodal.
C. skewed right.
D. skewed left. Measurement

99. Kurtosis refers to the ______________ of a histogram.

A. symmetry
B. skewness
C. flatness
D. normality
100. If the probability that an event will occur is 0.83, then the probability that the
event will not occur is:
A. 0.17.
B. 0.07.
C. 0.6889.
≈ 1.20.
D.
E. 83%.
101. If the probability that event A occurs is 0.51, the probability that event B occurs is
0.64, and the probability that both A and B occur is 0.23, then:
A. events A and B are complementary.
B. events A and B are mutually exclusive.
C. events A and B are supplementary.
D. events A and B are not mutually exclusive.
E. events A and B are statistically independent.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 25

102. If the probability that event A occurs is 0.51, the probability that event B occurs is
0.64, and events A and B are statistically independent, then:
A. A and B are mutually exclusive.
B. the probability that both A and B occur is 0.3264.
C. A and B can’t both occur.
D. the probability that A occurs is 1 – (probability that B occurs).
E. A and B have different standard deviations.
103. A population is bimodal. One hundred samples of size 30 are randomly
collected, and the 100 sample means are calculated. The distribution of these
sample means is:
A. bimodal.
B. approximately exponential.
C. approximately Poisson.
D. approximately normal.
E. approximately uniform.
104. A population is bimodal with a variance of 5.77. One hundred samples of
size 30 are randomly collected, and the 100 sample means are calculated.
The standard deviation of these sample means is approximately:
A. 5.77.
B. 2.40.
C. 1.05.
D. 0.44.
E. 0.19.
105. The median is a better choice than the mean for a measure of central tendency
if the data:
A. are bimodal.
B. often have outliers.
C. are normally distributed.
D. are exponentially distributed.
26 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

106. A team wants a technique for determining and displaying priorities based on
frequency of various defect types. They should use:
A. written and diagrammed work instructions.
B. flowcharts and process maps.
C. cause-and-effect diagrams.
D. Pareto chart.
E. relationship matrix.
107. A team wants a technique for improving consistency of assembly operations.
They should use:
A. written and diagrammed work instructions.
B. flowcharts and process maps.
C. cause-and-effect diagrams.
D. Pareto chart.
E. relationship matrix.
108. A team wants a technique for doing an initial study of a process that not every
team member is familiar with. They should use:
A. written and diagrammed work instructions.
B. flowcharts and process maps.
C. cause-and-effect diagrams.
D. Pareto chart.
E. relationship matrix.
109. A team wants a technique for displaying the connection between various
customer needs and various features on a product. They should use:
A. written and diagrammed work instructions.
B. flowcharts and process maps.
C. cause-and-effect diagrams.
D. Pareto chart.
E. relationship matrix.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 27

110. A team wants a technique for obtaining a large number of possible reasons for
excess variation in a dimension. They should use:
A. written and diagrammed work instructions.
B. flowcharts and process maps.
C. cause-and-effect diagrams.
D. Pareto chart.
E. relationship matrix.
111. The central limit theorem states that the distribution of sample means
approximates a normal distribution if:
A. the population is normally distributed.
B. the sample is normally distributed.
C. the sample is randomly selected.
D. the sample size is sufficiently large.
E. the means are carefully calculated.
112. Samples of size n = 36 are randomly selected from a population with mean
µ = 125 and variance 12. Find the variance of the distribution of sample means.
A. 0.333
B. 0.577
C. 2
D. 3.464
E. 12
113. P(A) = 0.42, P(B) = 0.58, P(A ∩ B) = 0.10. Find P(A or B).
A. 0.90
B. 1.00
C. 0.24
D. None of the above
114. P(A) = 0.42, P(B) = 0.58, P(A ∩ B) = 0.10. Are A and B independent?
A. Yes
B. No
115. P(A) = 0.42, P(B) = 0.58, P(A ∩ B) = 0.10. Are A and B mutually exclusive
(or disjoint)?
A. Yes
B. No
28 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

Use the following for questions 116–120.

This table displays the inventory of fasteners in a storage cabinet.

Size

0.500 0.625 0.750 0.875

Nut 146 300 74 41

Washer 280 276 29 32

Bolt 160 214 85 55

116. An item is selected at random from the fastener cabinet. Find the approximate
probability it is a bolt.
A. 160
B. 0.160
C. 0.09
D. 0.30
E. None of the above
117. An item is selected at random from the fastener cabinet. Find the approximate
probability it is size 3/4.
A. 0.85
B. 0.185
C. 0.03
D. 0.11
E. None of the above
118. A bolt is selected at random from the fastener cabinet. Find the approximate
probability it is size 7/8.
A. 0.11
B. 0.08
C. 0.09
D. 0.30
E. None of the above
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 29

119. An item is selected at random from the fastener cabinet. Find the approximate
probability it is larger than ½.
A. 0.35
B. 0.65
C. 0.1106
D. 0.47
E. None of the above
120. An item is selected at random from the fastener cabinet. Find the approximate
probability it is a ½-inch bolt.
A. 0.65
B. 0.30
C. 0.09
D. 0.35
E. None of the above
121. A medicine with efficacy of 0.52 is given to five patients. Find the approximate
probability that at least one of the patients is cured. (Hint: Use the binomial
formula.)
A. 0.975
B. 0.480
C. 0.531
D. 0.416
E. None of the above
122. Takt time is the:
A. time required to complete one step of the process.
B. time required to take one item one unit distance.
C. rate that standard work allocates.
D. rate based on customer demand.
E. optimum rate based on ergonomics.
123. In gage R&R studies, precision refers to:
A. accuracy.
B. bias.
C. a combination of repeatability and reproducibility.
D. calibration.
30 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

124. Which probability distribution is used to model number of defects per unit
of time?
A. Normal
B. Poisson
C. Binomial
D. Chi square
E.
t
F.
F
G. Hypergeometric
H. Bivariate
I. Exponential
J. Lognormal
K. Weibull
125. Which probability distribution is used to model time between defects?
A. Normal
B. Poisson
C. Binomial
D. Chi square
E.
t
F.
F
G. Hypergeometric
H. Bivariate
I. Exponential
J. Lognormal
K. Weibull
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 31

126. Which probability distribution is used to model number of defectives per unit
of time?
A. Normal
B. Poisson
C. Binomial
D. Chi square
E.
t
F.
F
G. Hypergeometric
H. Bivariate
I. Exponential
J. Lognormal
K. Weibull
127. Which probability distribution is used to model life spans for products that
degrade over time?
A. Normal
B. Poisson
C. Binomial
D. Chi square
E.
t
F.
F
G. Hypergeometric
H. Bivariate
I. Exponential
J. Lognormal
K. Weibull
32 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

128. Which probability distribution is used in hypothesis tests comparing standard

deviations?
A. Normal
B. Poisson
C. Binomial
D. Chi square
E.
t
F.
F
G. Hypergeometric
H. Bivariate
I. Exponential
J. Lognormal
K. Weibull
129. Which probability distribution is used to model the joint distribution of two
dependent variables when each is normally distributed?
A. Normal
B. Poisson
C. Binomial
D. Chi square
E.
t
F.
F
G. Hypergeometric
H. Bivariate
I. Exponential
J. Lognormal
K. Weibull
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 33

130. Which probability distribution is used in place of the normal distribution when
σ is not known?
A. Normal
B. Poisson
C. Binomial
D. Chi square
E.
t
F.
F
G. Hypergeometric
H. Bivariate
I. Exponential
J. Lognormal
K. Weibull
131. Which probability distribution is used when sampling from a finite population
without replacement?
A. Normal
B. Poisson
C. Binomial
D. Chi square
E.
t
F.
F
G. Hypergeometric
H. Bivariate
I. Exponential
J. Lognormal
K. Weibull
34 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

Use the following information for problems 132–139.

A dimension has tolerance 8.035 – 8.055 and x = 8.041 and σ = 0.005.
132. Find approximate value for Cp.
A. 0.12
B. 0.26
C. 0.40
D. 0.51
E. 0.67
F. 0.34
133. Find approximate value for Cpk.
A. 0.12
B. 0.26
C. 0.40
D. 0.51
E. 0.67
F. 0.34
134. Assuming a normally distributed population, approximately what percentage
will exceed the upper tolerance limit?
A. 0.12%
B. 0.26%
C. 0.40%
D. 0.55%
E. 0.67%
F. 0.34%
135. Assuming a normally distributed population, approximately what percentage
will violate the lower tolerance limit?
A. 11.51%
B. 0.25%
C. 0.40%
D. 0.55%
E. 0.67%
F. 0.34%
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 35

136. If some adjustments allow the process to be centered (that is, x = 8.045),
find Cp.
A. 0.18
B. 0.25
C. 0.40
D. 0.55
E. 0.67
F. 0.34
137. If some adjustments allow the process to be centered (that is, x = 8.045),
find Cpk.
A. 0.18
B. 0.23
C. 0.40
D. 0.55
E. 0.67
F. 0.34
138. If some adjustments allow the process to be centered (that is, x = 8.055), and
again assuming a normally distributed population, what percentage violates the
upper tolerance limit?
A. 1.8%
B. 2.3%
C. 4.0%
D. 5.5%
E. 6.7%
F. 3.4%
139. If some adjustments allow the process to be centered (that is x = 8.045), and
again assuming a normally distributed population, what percentage violates the
lower tolerance limit?
A. 1.8%
B. 2.3%
C. 4.0%
D. 5.5%
E. 6.7%
F. 3.4%
36 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

Use the following information for questions 140 and 141.

There are 14 different defects that can occur on a completed time card. The payroll
department collects 328 cards and finds a total of 87 defects.
140. DPU =
A. 87 ÷ 328.
B. 87 ÷ (328 × 14).
C. 14 ÷ 87.
D. 87 ÷ 14.
E. 328 ÷ 87.
F. 87 × 1,000,000 ÷ (14 × 328).
141. DPMO =
A. 87 ÷ 328.
B. 87 ÷ (328 × 14).
C. 14 ÷ 87.
D. 87 ÷ 14 × 1,000,000.
E. 328 ÷ 87.
F. 87 × 1,000,000 ÷ (14 × 328).
142. A random sample of 2500 printed brochures is found to have a total of three ink
splotches. The rate of ink splotches in ppm is:
A. 1,000,000 ÷ 2500 ÷ 3.
B. 2500 ÷ 1,000,000 × 3.
C. 3 ÷ 2500 × 1,000,000.
D. 3 × 2500 ÷ 1,000,000.
143. If DPU = 0.022, the throughput yield is approximately:
A. 0.022.
B. 0.078.
C. 0.0022.
D. 0.98.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 37

VI. Analyze
144. Find the equation of the regression line
for these sample data points:
(1, 7) (3, 3) (3, 2) (5, –1).
A.
y = 10.8 – 2.9x
B.
y = 12.9 + 5.2x
C.
y = 16 – 3.7x
D.
y = 8.75 – 2­x
E.
y = 22.6 – 4.8x
145. Find the sample linear correlation coefficient and the sample coefficient of
determination for the data in question 144.
A. 0.830, 0.690
B. –0.988, 0.977
C. 0.74, 0.55
D. –0.33, 0.11
Use α = 0.05 for questions 146–151.
146. A sample of size 50 from machine A has a mean of 18.2 and standard deviation
3.1. A sample of size 40 from machine B has mean 17.6 and standard deviation
2.8. Do these data indicate that the population for machine A has a larger mean?
Assume the populations are normal.
A. Yes
B. No
147. In question 69, do the data indicate that the population for machine A has a
larger standard deviation?
A. Yes
B. No
148. The average weight of castings produced at the Nebraska foundry is 3.7 lbs.
A new supplier from Kansas has submitted a batch of castings known to have
normally distributed weights. A random sample of 10 has an average weight of
3.6 lbs. and standard deviation 0.06 lbs. Do these data indicate that the Kansas
foundry produces lighter castings on average?
A. Yes
B. No
38 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

149. A machine tool vendor wants to sell an injection-molding machine. The current
machine produces 3.2% defectives. A sample of 1100 from the vendor’s machine
has 2.9% defective. Do these numbers indicate that the proposed machine has a
lower rate of defectives?
A. Yes
B. No
150. An engineer wants to try two hardening ovens to see whether they have
different hardness scores. She cuts eight pieces of bar stock in half, putting half
of each in oven A and the other half in oven B. The following data are collected:

Piece # 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Oven A 20.3 19.7 21.4 22.0 21.6 21.0 20.8 20.8

Oven B 19.7 20.0 20.1 21.2 21.4 20.7 21.0 19.6

Do the data indicate that the ovens have different average scores? Assume
differences are normally distributed.
A. Yes
B. No
151. When comparing two vendors’ machines it is found that a sample of 1000 parts
from machine A has 23 defectives and a sample of 1300 parts from machine
B has 36 defectives. Do the data indicate that machine B has a higher rate of
defectives?
A. Yes
B. No
C. All of the above
152. One advantage of using a confidence interval rather than a point estimate is:
A. a confidence interval is easier to calculate.
B. a confidence interval provides information about accuracy.
C. a confidence interval links a proposal to a section of the balance sheet.
D. a confidence interval is easier to understand.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 39

153. For a line in an FMEA form, a team has established the following:
Cost: $82
Severity: 7
Occurrence: 9
Detection: 4
Target date: 7 days
What should the risk priority number (RPN) be for this line?
A. 144,648
B. 252
C. 1764
D. 63
E. None of the above
154. If item A is more likely to be detected than item B, which will have the highest
severity value?
A. Item A
B. Item B
C. Cannot be determined
155. If item A is more likely to be detected than item B, which will have the highest
occurrence value?
A. Item A
B. Item B
C. Cannot be determined
156. If item A is more likely to be detected than item B, which will have the highest
detection value?
A. Item A
B. Item B
C. Cannot be determined
157. Gap analysis studies allow us to:
A. determine the difference between where we are and where we want to be.
B. determine the appropriate amount of tolerance for a machining process.
C. define metrics for detecting variations from specifications.
D. calculate the difference between cycle time and takt time.
40 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

VII. Improve
158. A pharmaceutical manufacturer is designing an experiment to test four
different capsule ingredients designed to reduce dissolution time. Each
ingredient will be tested at 10 milligrams and 40 milligrams. A full factorial
design is used with five repeats per run. The number of levels, factors, and runs
is, respectively:
A. 2, 4, 16.
B. 4, 5, 8.
C. 10, 4, 40.
D. 2, 20, 16.
159. (Refer to question 158.) The variance of the five repeats for each run is calculated.
Most of these variances are approximately equal, but two are significantly lower
than the others. The experimenters would be especially interested in those two
runs if they wanted to optimize:
A. dissolution time.
B. interactions.
C. main effects.
D. robustness.
E. degrees of freedom.
160. (Refer to question 158.) To estimate the within-treatment variance, the
experimenters would calculate the variances of:
A. all 80 readings.
B. the five repeats for each run.
C. the runs for which a factor is at its lowest level.
161. An experiment has seven factors with two levels each. The experiment has eight
runs. This experimental design is called:
A. full factorial design.
B. half fractional factorial design.
C. interaction.
D. none of the above.
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 41

162. The principal disadvantage of fractional factorial experiments is that:

A. experimental error is high.
B. robustness is compromised.
C. effects are confounded.
D. measurements are less precise.
E. analysis is more difficult.
163. In a resolution III fractional factorial experimental design, main effects are
confounded with:
A. one-factor interactions.
B. two-factor and higher interactions.
C. three-factor and higher interactions.
D. no other effects.
164. When Tricia empties a box of capacitors, she places it at a designated spot on
her work table. Sam notices the empty box and brings a full box of capacitors
from the stock room. This is an example of:
A. 5S.
B. kanban.
C. poka-yoke.
D. standard work.
E. setup time reduction (SMED).
165. A meeting is called for all three shifts to determine the settings to be used on
machine #45. This is an example of:
A. visual factory.
B. kanban.
C. poka-yoke.
D. standard work.
E. setup time reduction (SMED).
42 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

166. There have been some instances in which 1.5-inch sheet metal screws are used
where 1.25-inch should have been used. This produces a critical defect. The
decision is made to have all 1.25-inch screws have a square recessed head and
all 1.5-inch screws be Phillips. This is an example of:
A. visual factory.
B. kanban.
C. poka-yoke.
D. standard work.
E. setup time reduction (SMED).

VIII. Control
Use the following data for questions 167–171.
A set of data from a process has eight readings per sample and 50 samples. The mean of
the 50 sample means is 12.62. The mean of the 50 ranges is 0.18.
167. Find the control limits for the X chart.
A. 12.55 and 12.69
B. 12.11 and 13.13
C. 12.54 and 12.70
D. None of the above
168. Find the control limits for the R chart.
A. 0.10 and 0.25
B. 0 and 0.34
C. 0.02 and 0.34
D. None of the above.
169. Assuming the average standard deviation is 0.18, find the control limits for
the X chart.
A. 12.52 and 12.72
B. 12.42 and 12.82
C. 0.02 and 0.33
D. None of the above
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 43

170. A customer requires that SPC charts be done on their forms, which have spaces
for only five readings per sample. In preparation for calculating the new control
limits, the following question is asked: “Will the new average range be larger or
smaller than the current average range?” The answer is:
A. smaller.
B. larger.
C. same size.
D. none of the above.
171. A customer requires that SPC charts be done on their forms, which have spaces
for only five readings per sample. What should the UCL and LCL be for the new
averages chart?
A. 12.53 and 12.71
B. 12.58 and 12.66
C. 11.61 and 13.63
D. None of the above
Use the following data for questions 172 and 173.
The following is a set of individual measurements:
3  5  4  5  6  3  4  3  2  4  5  6  5  7  6  4  5  5  8  7  6  6  7  7  4
172. Find the control limits for the individuals chart.
A. 0.7 and 11.2
B. 1.65 and 8.51
C. 2.7 and 7.5
D. None of the above
173. Find the control limits for the range chart.
A. 0 and 4.2
B. 0 and 5.1
C. 0.2 and 1.5
D. None of the above
174. A process using a p-chart has p– = 0.076 and n– = 486. Find the control limits.
A. 0.069 and 0.083
B. 0.072 and 0.080
C. 0.040 and 0.112
D. 0.0756 and 0.0764
E. None of the above
44 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

Use the following information for questions 175 and 176.

A process shows the following number of defects. Each sample size for this process
is 85.
3  8  2  7  7  6  8  8  9  5
175. What control chart should be used?
A. X and R
B. Median
C. Individuals and moving range
D.
p
E.
np
F.
c
G.
u
H. None of the above
176. Find the control limits.
A. 0 and 13.8
B. 12.6 and 25.2
C. 0 and 25.2
D. None of the above
Use the following information for question 177.
A process shows the following number of defectives. Each sample size for this process
is 85.
3  8  2  7  7  6  8  8  9  5
177. What control chart should be used?
A. X and R
B. Median
C. Individuals and moving range
D.
p
E.
np
F.
c
G.
u
H. None of the above
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 45

IX. Design for Six Sigma

178. Two design for Six Sigma acronyms are DMADV and DMADOV. In each case
the V stands for:
A. validate.
B. verify.
C. variable.
D. versatile.
Use this sketch for problems 179 and 180:

5.250 4.280 6.500

5.253 4.290 6.515
?

179. Find the overall dimension using conventional (non-statistical) tolerancing.

A. 16.030 – 16.058
B. 16.040 – 16.081
C. 16.030 – 16.061
180. Find the overall dimension limits using statistical tolerancing. Assume the
processes that produce these dimensions have Cpk = 1 and that the distributions
are normal.
A. 16.025 – 16.066
B. 16.035 – 16.053
C. 16.045 – 16.076
46 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

ANSWERS TO SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS

1. D [I.A] (Correct answer is strategic planning and deployment.)
2. A [I.A]
3. D [I.A]
4. F [I.A]
5. E [I.A]
6. E [I.A] (External stakeholders are not part of the enterprise.)
7. F [I.A]
8. C [I.A]
9. A [I.A]
10. D [I.B]
11. A [I.A]
12. B [I.A]
13. A [II.A]
14. C [II.C]
15. D [II.B]
16. D [II.A]
17. A [II.C]
18. A [II.C]
19. D [II.C]
20. A [II.C] (This will occur if the entire market for an item shrinks while the
percentage of the total sold by the company increases.)
21. A [II.C]
22. C [II.C]
23. A [III.A]
24. D [III.A]
25. A [III.B]
26. E [III.B]
27. E [III.B] (The team leader delegates responsibility to team.)
28. D [III.C]
29. E [III.C]
30. D [III.D]
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 47

31. A [III.E]
32. D [III.D]
33. B [III.D]
34. B [IV.A]
35. A [IV.A]
36. B [IV.A]
37. C [IV.A]
38. A [IV.A]
39. C [IV.D]
40. A [IV.D]
41. E [IV.D]
42. F [IV.D]
43. C [IV.B]
44. B [IV.B]
45. G [IV.B]
46. D [IV.B]
47. A [IV.B]
48. C [IV.C]
49. A [IV.C]
50. B [IV.C]
51. D [IV.C]
52. B [V.A]
53. G [V.A]
54. C [V.A]
55. E [V.A]
56. D [V.A]
57. F [V.A]
58. G [V.A]
59. B [V.A]
60. D [V.A]
61. C [V.A]
62. E [V.A]
48 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

63. A [V.A]
64. F [V.A]
65. D [V.B]
66. A [V.B]
67. C [V.B]
68. B [V.B]
69. A [V.B]
70. C [V.B] (The Fahrenheit scale has an arbitrary point called 0.)
71. B [V.B]
72. D [V.B] (The Kelvin scale defines 0 as having no energy.)
73. B [V.B]
74. A [V.B]
75. A [V.B]
76. C [V.B]
77. B [V.B]
78. D [V.B]
79. A [V.C]
80. B [V.C] (P:T = 6σ/Tolerance.)
81. C [V.D]
82. E [V.D]
83. D [V.D] (Properties A–C are true regardless of the distribution of the population.)
84. C [V.D]
85. D [V.D] (Any symmetric distribution with mode = median [such as ]).
86. C [V.D]
87. C [V.D] (Sampling error is not a mistake. It is inherent in the sampling process.)
88. A [V.D] (By CLT, the mean of the set of sample means = population mean.)
89. D [V.D] (The central limit theorem gives the formula as σ / n.)
90. C [V.D] (Be sure to use the sample standard deviation key.)
91. A [V.D] (Range is high–low.)
92. E [V.D] (On most calculators this is the xbar key.)
93. B [V.D] (When there are an even number of values, average the two middle ones.)
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 49

94. E [V.D] (There are two modes, 2.9 and 3.1. Each of these occurred twice.)
95. B [V.D]
96. D [V.D]
97. D [V.D] (Box-and-whisker does not show mode.)
98. D [V.D]
99. C [V.D] (A normal population has kurtosis = 3, and k < 3 means flatter than
normal.)
100. A [V.E] (Probability of not A = 1 – Prob A [that is, P(–A) = 1 – P(A)].)
101. D [V.E] (If A and B were mutually exclusive, P(A&B) = 0.)
102. B [V.E] (If A and B are independent, P(A&B) = P(A) × P(B)
103. D [V.E] (Because of the central limit theorem.)
σX 5.77
104. D [V.E] σ = variance = 5.77 CLT says σ X = =
n 30

105. B [V.E] (Outliers tend to distort the mean more than they distort the median.)
106. D [V.A]
107. A [V.A]
108. B [V.A]
109. E [V.A]
110. C [V.A]
111. D [V.D] (Central limit theorem requires that the sample size must be at least 30.)

112. A [V.D] (σ X = σ X / n and σ X = 12 ≈ 3.46 so σ X ≈ 3.46/ 36.)

113. A [V.E] P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A∩B) = 0.42 + 0.58 – 0.10.)

114. B [V.E] (If A and B are independent, P(A∩B) = P(A) × P(B) = (0.42)(0.58) =
0.2436 ≠ 0.10.)
115. B [V.E] (If A and B are mutually exclusive, P(A∩B) = 0.)
116. D [V.E] (514/1692 ≈ 0.30)
117. D [V.E] (188/1692 ≈ 0.11)
118. A [V.E] (55/514 ≈ 0.11)
790 + 188 + 128
119. B [V.E] ⎛⎜ ≈ 0.65⎞⎟
⎝ 1692 ⎠

120. C [V.E] (160/1692 ≈ 0.09)

50 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

121. A [V.E] (P(at least one cure) = 1– P(no cures))

Let x = Number of cures, p = 0.52, n = 5 in binomial formula:
n!
P( x) = [ p x (1 − p )
n−x

( n − x )!x!
5!
P ( no cures ) = P ( x = 0 ) = 0.52 0 0.48 5 ≈ 0.025
( 5 − 0 )!0!
P ( at least one cure ) ≈ 1 − 0.025 ≈ 0.975

122. D [V.A]
123. C [V.C]
124. B [V.E]
125. I [V.E]
126. C [V.E]
127. J [V.E]
128. D [V.E]
129. H [V.E]
130. E [V.E]
131. G [V.E]
⎛ USL − LSL 8.055 − 8.035 ⎞
132. E [V.F] ⎜ C p = = ≈ 0.67 ⎟
⎝ 6σ 6 ( 0.005 ) ⎠

USL − x 8.055 − 8.041

133. ⎛ ZU = = ≈ 2.8 ⎞
⎜ σ 0.005 ⎟
⎜ ⎟
⎜ Z = x − LSL ≈ 1.2 ⎟
⎜ L σ ⎟
⎜ ⎟
⎜ C pk = min ( ZU − ZL ) / 3 = 1.2 / 3 = 0.4⎟
⎜⎝ ⎟⎠

134. B [V.F] (Look up 2.8 in a normal distribution table to find 0.0026.)

135. A [V.F] (Look up 1.2 in a normal distribution table to find 0.1151.)
136. E [V.F] (Centering doesn’t impact Cp.)
137. E [V.F]
8.045 − 8.035
138. B [V.F] (ZU = = 2 from a normal table, fraction = 0.0228)
0.005
8.035 − 8.025
139. B [V.F] (ZL = = 2 from a normal table, fraction = 0.0228)
0.005
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 51

Number of defects ⎞
140. A [V.F] ⎛⎜ DPU = ⎟
⎝ Number of units ⎠

⎛ ( Number of defects )( 1, 000, 000) ⎞

141. F [V.F] ⎜ DPMO =
⎝ Number of opportunities ⎟⎠

⎛
142. C [V.F] ⎜ PPM = DPU × 1, 000, 000 =
( Number of defects )( 1, 000, 000) ⎞
⎝ Number of units ⎟⎠

143. D [V.F] (Yield = e–DPU = e–0.022)

144. D [VI.A] Details:

x y x2 xy y2
1 7 1 7 49
3 3 9 9 9
3 2 9 6 4
5 –1 25 –5 1
12 11 44 17 63

Sxx = 44 – (122 ÷ 4) = 8 Syy = 63 – (122 ÷ 4) = 32.75

b1 = Sxy ÷ Sxx = –16 ÷ 8 ≈ –2 Sxy = 17 – ((12 × 11) ÷ 4) = –16
best equation: y = 8.75 – 2x b0 = 2.75 + (2 × 3) = 8.75

⎛ Sxy ⎞
145. ⎜ r = = −0.988 so r 2 = 0.977 ⎟
⎝ SxxSyy ⎠

146. B [VI.B] (Use the non-pooled t-test for two population means.)
1. Conditions are met.
2. H0: µ1 = µ2    HA: µ1 > µ2 (right-tailed test).
α = 0.05.
3.
4. Degree of freedom calculation:
a1 = 3.12 ÷ 50 ≈ 0.192    a2 = 2.8 ÷ 40 ≈ 0.196
df = (0.192 + 0.196)2 ÷ (0.00075 + 0.00099) ≈ 87
For df beyond the table, use the corresponding z-value. Critical value is 1.645
so the reject region is the area to the right of 1.645.
5. Test statistic t = (18.2 – 17.6) ÷ (0.192 + 0.196)0.5 ≈ 0.96.
6. Do not reject the null hypothesis (because the test statistic is not on the
reject region).
52 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

147. B [VI.B] (Use the two-population standard deviation hypothesis test.)

1. Conditions are met.
2. H0: σ1 = σ2    HA: σ1 > σ2 (right-tailed test).
α = 0.05.
3.
4. Critical value is at Fα,n1–1,n2 or F0.05,49,40.
Since 49 is not in the table:
Method 1: Interpolate in the table to get about 1.65.
Method 2: Excel returns about 1.66 for F(0.05, 49, 40).
So, the reject region is the area to the right of 1.65 or 1.66.
F = 3.12 ÷ 2.82 ≈ 1.23.
5.
6. Do not reject the null hypothesis (because the test statistic is not in the
reject region).
148. A [VI.B] (Use the t-test for one population mean.)
1. Conditions are met.
2. H0: µ = 3.7    HA: µ < 3.7 (left-tailed test).
α = 0.05.
3.
4. Critical value (found in row 9 of the 0.05 column of the t-table) = –1.833
(reject region is the area to the left of –1.833).
( 3.6 − 3.7 )
5. Test statistic t = ≈ −5.3
0.06/ 10

6. Reject the null hypothesis (because the test statistic is in the reject region).
149. B [VI.B] (Use the one-population proportion test with
n = 1100, p′ = 0.029, p0 = 0.032.)
1. H0: p = 0.032    HA: p < 0.032 (left-tailed test).
α = 0.05.
2.
3. Critical value = –1.645 (reject region is to the left of –1.645).
4. Test statistic z = (0.029 – 0.032) ÷ (0.032 × 0.968 ÷ 110) 0.5 ≈ –0.57.
5. Do not reject the null hypothesis (because test statistic is not in the
reject region).
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 53

150. B [VI.B] (Use the paired t-test for two population means.)
1. Conditions are met.
2. H0: µ1 = µ2    HA: µ1 ≠ µ2 (two-tailed test).
α = 0.05 α/2 = 0.025.
3.
4. Critical values = ± 2.365 (reject region consists of the area to the left of –2.365
and the area to the right of 2.365).
5. Calculate the test statistic:

Piece # 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Oven A 20.3 19.7 21.4 22.0 21.6 21.0 20.8 20.8

Oven B 19.7 20.0 20.1 21.2 21.4 20.7 21.0 19.6

Difference, d: 0.6 –0.3 1.3 0.8 0.2 0.3 –0.2 1.2

Find the mean and standard deviation of the d-values:

dbar = 0.4875    sd = 0.5963
Test statistic t = 0.4875 × 8 ÷ 0.5963 ≈ 2.312
6. Do not reject the null hypothesis (because the test statistic is not in the
reject region).
151. B [VI.B] (Use the two-population proportions hypothesis test.)
n1 = 1000   n2 = 1300   x1 = 23   x2 = 36
p1′ = 23 ÷ 1000 = 0.023   p2′ = 36 ÷ 1300 ≈ 0.0277
1. Conditions are met.
2. H0: p1 = p2    HA: p1 < p2 (left-tailed test).
α = 0.05.
3.
4. Critical value is –1.645 (reject region is the area to the left of –1.645).
5. Calculate the test statistic.
Pp′ = (23 + 36) ÷ (1000 + 1300) ≈ 0.02565
( 0.023 − 0.0277 )
z= = −0.71

( 0.2565 )( 0.9744 )( 0.001 + 0.000769)
6. Do not reject the null hypothesis (because the test statistic is not in the
reject region).
54 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I-IX

152. B [VI.B]
153. B [VI.C] (RPN = S × O × D.)
154. C [VI.C] (Detection value doesn’t impact severity.)
155. C [VI.C] (Detection value doesn’t impact occurrence.)
156. B [VI.C] (Higher likelihood of detection gives lower detection score.)
157. A [VI.D]
158. A [VII.A] (The formula for number of runs for a full factorial experiment =
(#levels)(#factors).)
159. D [VII.A] (The most robust design occurs when the environmental factors
[those not being controlled] have the least impact on the quality characteristic
being studied.)
160. B [VII.B] (Within-treatment variation is the variation that occurs when the
treatment [levels and factors] is not changed.)
161. D [VII.A] (A full factorial would have 27 = 128 runs. A half factorial would have
64 runs. This is a one-sixteenth fractional factorial.)
162. C [VII.A]
163. B [VII.A]
164. B [VII.B]
165. D [VII.B]
166. C [VII.B]
167. A [VIII.A] (Control limits: 12.62 ± 0.373 × 0.18; UCL = 12.55, LCL = 12.69.)
168. C [VIII.A] (LCL = 0.136 × 0.18 = 0.02; UCL = 1.864 × 0.18 = 0.34.)
169. B [VIII.A] (Control limits: A3 = 1.099; 12.62 ± 1.099 × 0.18; LCL = 12.42;
UCL = 12.8.)
170. A [VIII.A] (Regardless of sample size, σ̂ will not change.)
R 0.18 R R 0.18 R
If n = 8, σ̂ = = . If n = 5, σ̂ = = so = so R = .15.
d2 2.847 d2 2.326 2.847 2.326
171. A [VIII.A] (Control limits: 12.62 ± 0.577 × 0.15; LCL = 12.53; UCL = 12.71.)
172. B [VIII.A] (Control limits: 5.08 ± 2.660 × 1.29; LCL = 1.65; UCL = 8.51.)
173. A [VIII.A] (LCL = 0; UCL = 3.267 × 1.3 = 4.2.)

0.076 × 0.924
174. C [VIII.A] 0.076 ± 3 = 0.076 ± 0.036 ; LCL = 0.040; UCL = 0.112.)
486
175. F [VIII.A] (The u- and c-charts are used for defects rather than defectives. The
c-chart is used when sample size is constant.)
 Sample Examination Questions for Parts I­–IX 55

176. A [VIII.A] (Control limits: 6.3 ± 3 6.3 ; LCL = 0; UCL = 13.8.)

177. E [VIII.A] (The p- and np-charts are used for defectives. The np-chart is used
when sample size is constant.)
178. A [IX.A]
179. A [IX.C] (The conventional way to get the lower tolerance limit is to add all three
lower limits, similarly for the upper tolerance limit.)
180. B [IX.C] (Nominal ± T12 + T22 + T32 ÷ 2 = 16.044 ± 0.0062 + 0.0102 + 0.0192 ÷ 2