4.

Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem kontrol yang terkait
(Operate main andauxiliary machineryand associatedcontrol systems)

3. Choose the option which most accurately completes the following statement. The
expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is designed to maintain a
positive head on the system and also to……
A. Allow for changes in water volume due to temperature
variation (expansion)
B. Reduce the water temperature
C. Reduce the water turbulence
D. Provide an air cushion
902
DPKP
4. How is the effective delivery stroke of a helix type fuel pump for a diesel engine
controlled to increase or decrease the quantity of fuel delivered?
A. Rotation of the plunger by the fuel rack from the governor
signal.
B. The fuel rail pressure relief valve setting.
C. The fuel injector setting.
D. The fuel booster pump delivery pressure.
6. In a diesel engine lubrication system the circulating pump normally takes suction
from the oil sump tank. Where would the oil normally pass to directly after the
pump?
A. Lube oil cooler.
B. Main thrust bearing.
C. The engine bearings.
D. The lub oil purifier.

9. The lubricating oil in the bearing housing at the turbine end of a turbocharger
gets very dirty after only a few hours in service. What is the most likely reason
for this happening?
A. Damaged rotor shaft sealing bushes allowing exhaust gas
to leak into the bearing housing.
B. The wrong type of lubricating oil has been used.
C. The lubricating oil filling connection screw cap is missing.
D. The turbine end bearing is badly worn.

11. What could be the most likely reason for an increase in the viscosity of a diesel
engine lubricating oil during operation?
A. Fuel oil leakage into the lub oil system.
B. Worn bearing shells.
C. Water-leakage into the lub oil system.
D. Increased lub oil temperature.
904
DPKP
13. What is likely to be the cause of black smoke from a diesel engine exhaust seen
at the funnel?
A. Incomplete combustion of the fuel.
B. Too much combustion air.
C. Water in the fuel.
D. Engine is burning some lubricating oil.

15. What is the purpose of diesel engine cylinder head safety valve?
A. To indicate and relieve excessive high pressure in the
cylinder to protect the engine frombeing damaged.
B. To allow adjustment of the cylinder pressure to a safe
working pressure.
C. To shut down the engine in the event of an unsafe
operating condition.
D. To shut off the fuel to a the cylinder in the event of a high
pressure fuel pipe leak.
905
DPKP

17. What would be the most probable cause of light, smoky exhaust from a diesel
engine?
A. Water carry over from charge air cooler to engine
cylinders.
B. Fouling of the charge air cooler.
C. Air in the fuel oil system.
D. The engine is overloaded.

21. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?

A. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.
B. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers.
C. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder
cover.
D. The piston always has a short skirt.

22. Which would be the most suitable point in the system to obtain a representative
of diesel engine lubricating oil for analysis?
A. From the lubricating system pipeline on the discharge side
of the circulating pump.
B. From the lubricating oil filter drain.
C. From the lubricating oil cooler drain.
D. From the lubricating oil purifier outlet.
23. Why are duplex filters usually employed in the lubricating oil system of an
auxiliary diesel engine?
A. Changing of the filter element can be carried out without
interrupting engine operation.
B. It gives better filtration of the oil.
C. The pressure drop is half that of a single filter unit.
D. Filter blockage will not occur.
907

34. The peak pressure (maximum cylinder pressure) is often taken as an indicator of
medium speed engine performance along with other parameters. What would be
a typical peak pressure for a modern, highly rated, medium speed diesel engine?
A. 140 to 180 bar
B. 80 to 100 bar
C. 14 to 18 bar
D. 10 to 12 bar

42. Large slow speed diesel engines are usually of the crosshead type and have
various arrangements to deliver lubricating oil directly to the crosshead bearings
and guides to ensure adequate lubrication. Why are the crosshead bearings
considered differently to the other bearing in this type of engine in respect of
lubrication requirements?
A. The running surfaces oscillate relative to each other
during operation rather than rotate and therefore full
film hydrodynamic lubrication is not possible.
B. The lubricating oil has further to travel to the crosshead bearing and so a
separate arrangement is necessary
C. The crosshead bearing is more heavily loaded than other bearings in the
engine so requires more oil to keep it cool.
D. The crosshead bearing is closer to the engine cylinder and therefore runs
hotter.
914
DPKP
44. Many large slow speed diesel engines operating on heavy fuel oil have a fuel
injection system which features Variable Injection Timing. How does this affect
engine operation?
A. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically
maintaining the maximum cylinder pressure over
part of the load range.
B. VIT improves engine operation by automatically controlling the start of fuel
injection when it detects a poor quality fuel.
C. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically maintaining the maximum
cylinder pressure over the entire load range.
D. VIT allows the ship's engineers to alter the injection timing for each load
setting with a simple single adjustment of the fuel rack.
915
DPKP
45. any modern large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion operate
with a so called constant pressure turbocharging system. What is meant by
constant pressure when used to describe such a turbocharging system?
A. Pressure variations at the turbocharger inlet are
damped out due to the large volume of the exhaust
receiver and the short lengths of pipe from
individual cylinders.
B. Pressure variations in the scavenge air supply are avoided by supplementing
the air supply with air from the auxiliary blowers so keeping a constant
pressure across the load and speed range.
C. The exhaust pipes from groups of three cylinders are joined together before
entry into the turbocharger so that the exhaust pulses from each cylinder
cancel each other giving a constant inlet pressure.
D. The exhaust gas pressure is maintained constant by using a bypass waste gate
to dump excess pressure at high engine loads.

46. Modern large slow speed diesel engines operate with very efficient
turbochargers. This has resulted in much later opening of the exhaust valve as
less energy is needed to drive the turbocharger giving exhaust timing which is
almost symmetrical about bottom dead centre. How has this affected the
reversing operation of the engines?
A. Only the fuel and starting air timing needs to be
changed to reverse the engine.
B. It has no effect and the reversing requirements of
the engine are still the same.
C. The engine can be reversed by simply repositioning the main camshaft.
D. Only the air start distributor has to be repositioned prior to reversing the
engine.
916
DPKP
47. Modern slow speed, two stroke diesel engines often have locating pins or pegs to
keep the piston rings in a fixed position. Why is this arrangement used?
A. It avoids the risk of the ends of the piston rings
being forced out by the gas pressure and catching
on the scavenge ports.
B. The piston rings are more difficult to lubricate
because of the slow operating speeds and will wear
more quickly if they are allowed to rotate.
C. The piston ring gaps can be kept in line to control the gas pressure on each of
the rings.
D. It ensures the rings cannot be mixed up and that they are fitted in the correct
order on the piston.
48. The majority of large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion
purposes are direct drive to a fixed pitch propeller? What is the main reason for
this arrangement?
A. A fixed pitch propeller can operate with reasonable
efficiency at the same sort of speed as the engine.
B. Controllable pitch propellers cannot be used with
large slow speed diesel engines which can be
reversed.
C. The amount of power that needs to be transmitted would overload a gearbox.
D. There is usually only one engine sin this arrangement and so clutches are not
required.

49. What is one of the main features of the cylinder lubricating oil used in large 2
stroke marine diesel engines which normally operate on heavy fuel oil?
A. It is strongly alkaline.
B. It is strongly acidic.
C. It is neutral with a pH value of 7.
D. It is a pure mineral oil without any special additives.
917
DPKP
50. What is the main reason for sometimes having a separate forced lubrication
system for the camshaft on large cross head engines?
A. To prevent any fuel leakage from the high pressure
fuel pumps contaminating the oil in the main
lubrication system.
B. Because the camshaft system uses a different grade
oil from that used in the main lubrication system.
C. To prevent the camshaft system being contaminated with any water leaking
into the main lubrication system from faulty cylinder liner seals.
D. Because the camshaft lubrication system has a lower pressure than the main
lubrication system.

51. Why is it important to check the timing of diesel engine cylinder oil lubricators?
A. To ensure cylinder lubricating oil enters the
cylinders when the piston is in the required position.
B. To ensure the correct amount of cylinder lubricating
oil is fed into the cylinders.
C. To avoid excess pressure in the cylinder lubrication system.
D. To ensure the piston is not covering the lubrication points and blocking the
flow of cylinder lubricating oil into the cylinder.
52. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be
50 ppm. What action should be taken if any?
A. No action is necessary.
B. Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals.
C. Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of
treatment chemicals.
D. Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before
filling with fresh feed water.
918
DPKP
53. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double
shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve.
What is the main function of the non-return valve?
A. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from
discharging out through the feed line if the feed line
fractures or a joint in the line blows.
B. To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-return valve is shut
and the boiler is steaming.
C. To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump..
D. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler.

54. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most
accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers.
A. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally
contain less water than fire tube boilers. They are
prone to major damage when run dry during
operation.
B. A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam
pressure.
C. A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water when
the burner is operating.
D. A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the feedwater line.

55. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
A. Every day.
B. Every week.
C. Every hour.
D. Every hour.
919
DPK
56. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm.
What action should be taken?
A. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for
leakage.
B. Increase dosage of treatment chemicals.
C. Increase feed water temperature.
D. Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.

57. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most
beneficial?
A. When the boiler is firing on high rate.
B. When the boiler burner is off.
C. When the boiler is firing on low rate.
D. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.

58. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of less than 9?
A. Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment
chemicals until the pH value is back within normal
range.
B. Blowdown the boiler and refill with good
feedwater.
C. No action is required.
D. Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the pH is back
within normal range.

59. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the pH-value in
the boiler water is slightly over 11.5?
A. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of
boiler water treatment chemicals.
B. No action is required this is the normal level.
C. Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of
boiler water treatment chemicals.
D. Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute
the contents.
920
DPKP
60. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler
water?
A. Conductivity test.
B. Alkalinity test.
C. Chloride test.
D. pH test
61. What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil fired steam
boiler?
A. 9 - 11.
B. 4.5 - 7.
C. Below 4.5
D. 7 – 9

62. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
A. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces
with the risk of overheating.
B. It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler.
C. It increases scale deposits in the boiler.
D. It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the operator from
seeing the water level.

63. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
A. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from
the feed water.
B. To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment.
C. To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water.
D. To act as the primary feed heater.
921
DPKP
64. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam
boiler?
A. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater
when raising steam pressure or when the boiler is
not on-line.
B. To remove air from the superheater.
C. To remove water from the superheater.
D. To control the superheater pressure during operation.

65. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based
compounds present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried out?
A. It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the
boiler.
B. It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in
the boiler.
C. It will reduce the TDS in the boiler.
D. No negative effects are likely.
66. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
A. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which
collect on the surface of the water in the boiler
steam drum.
B. To allow removal impurities from the boiler feedwater
C. To allow removal of sludge and mud which may
collect in the bottom of the boiler water drum.
D. To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water tank.

67. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
A. To heat the feed-water
B. To desuperheat the steam
C. To heat the fuel oil
D. To heat the combustion air.
922
DPKP
68. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace?
A. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect
tubes and other fittings from overheating.
B. To give added strength to the furnace.
C. To support the steam drum.
D. To ignite the burner during automatic operation.

69. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit
of oil or gas fired steam boilers?
A. To check that the flame is present during start up or
normal operation of the burner; if not then fuel is
shut off automatically.
B. To check the colour of the flame.
C. To control the combustion air supply to the boiler.
D. To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.

70. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water
tests?
A. At room temperature.
B. As hot as possible.
C. It makes no difference.
D. At less than room temperature.

71. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing
condensate to build up in the heat exchanger?
A. Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
B. An increase in fuel oil temperature.
C. Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger.
D. Low water level in the boiler.
923
DPKP
72. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
A. From the boiler water space.
B. From the boiler steam space.
C. From the boiler feed system.
D. From the blowdown line.

DPKP
186. Failed O-rings on a 2 stage air compressor cylinder liner have resulted in a water
leak. Where is the leaking water most likely to go when the compressor is
operating?
A. Into the crankcase and mix with the lube oil.
B. Into the LP cylinder.
C. Into the HP cylinder.
D. Into the intercooler.

187. For which duties are gear and screw pumps normally employed?
A. Fuel and lubricating oil services.
B. Jacket cooling water circulation for diesel engines.
C. Bilge pumping.
D. Main sea water circulation systems.

188. From the options given, select the conditions that you would expect to give best
separation results from a centrifuge operating as a purifier.
A. High temperature and low flow rate.
B. High flow rate and low temperature.
C. High flow rate and high temperature.
D. Low flow rate and low temperature.

189. How is the condenser cooling water flow regulating valve automatically
controlled in a vapour compression refrigeration system?
A. By the compressor discharge pressure.
B. By the temperature in the refrigerated room.
C. By the quantity of refrigerant in the system.
D. By the temperature of the refrigerant after the evaporator.

190. How is the condenser in a fresh water evaporator normally cooled?

A. With seawater
B. With distillate
C. With air
D. With brine
957
DPKP
191. How often should an oxygen analyser instrument for the inert gas system be
calibrated?
A. Prior to every plant start-up following a shut down
of 8 hours or more.
B. Every time the plant is shut-down
C. At regular intervals
D. On Chief Officers order

192. In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would be considered to be the maximum
allowable chloride level of the boiler water?
A. 300 PPM.
B. 600 PPM.
C. 1000 PPM.
D. 50 PPM.

193. In a low pressure, auxiliary boiler, water tests show that the p-alkalinity is 50
ppm CaCO3. What action should be taken?
A. Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment.
B. Blow down the boiler and reduce dosage of boiler
water treatment.
C. No action is necessary because this is a normal reading..
D. Reduce dosage of boiler water treatment.

194. In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is the probable
cause of the processed oil containing water?
A. The gravity disc is too small and/or the flow rate is
too high
B. The gravity disc is too large
C. The throughput is too low
D. The back pressure at the clean oil outlet is too high
958
DPKP
195. The amp-load for an electric motor driving a centrifugal pump has gradually
reduced over a period of service. The pump is still supplying water but at a
reduced pressure and flow. Which of the alternatives given is the probable reason
for this?
A. The pump impeller and wear rings have worn.
B. The pump is running at a lower speed due to a short
circuit in the electric motor.
C. The pump has suction from a number of sources at the same time.
D. The suction strainer element has been removed so the pump is more efficient.
196. What action should be taken if a purifier starts to vibrate heavily during normal
operations?
A. Stop the purifier immediately. Check the machine
for fouling or mechanical damage. Donot restart
until cause is identified and fault rectified.
B. Stop the purifier and then restart it
C. Change the flow rate.
D. Leave the purifier running and check it again after its next scheduled sludge
cycle.

197. What action should be taken if the heat transfer capacity of a heat exchanger
operating as a lubricating oil cooler is reducing?
A. The heat transfer surfaces should be cleaned.
B. Increase the cooling water pressure.
C. Decrease the lubricating oil flowrate.
D. Increase the lubricating oil flowrate.

198. What cooling medium is normally used to cool the condenser of a fresh water
generator?
A. Seawater
B. Distillate (Freshwater)
C. Air
D. Brine
959
DPKP
199. What effect does an increased oil feed flow rate have on the performance of a
centrifuge operating as a purifier?
A. Separating efficiency is reduced.
B. Separating efficiency is increased, more water is
removed.
C. Separating efficiency is unchanged.
D. Separating efficiency is increased, more solids are removed.

200. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a
centrifugal pump?
A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.
B. By throttling of the pump suction valve.
C. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
D. By opening the pump recirculation line.

201. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion
valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system?
A. Liquid at high pressure.
B. Vapour at high pressure.
C. Liquid at low pressure.
D. Vapour at low pressure.
202. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board
ship?
A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using only sea
water.
B. It is a simple system with minimum control
requirements.
C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties.
D. It does not require any seawater.
960
DPKP
203. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh
water in a central cooling system?
A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.
B. Insufficient cooling water treatment.
C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the
turbochargers.
D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.

204. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than
normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?
A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned.
B. High fuel oil temperature.
C. Broken water seal.
D. Drive clutch slipping.

-205. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a
centrifugal pump when it is running?
A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation.
B. Water hammer in the pump casing.
C. Fluid friction in the suction line.
D. Pump suction valve fully open.

206. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit?

A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the
evaporator.
B. To control the suction pressure at the compressor.
C. To control the cargo hold temperature.
D. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.
961
DPKP
207. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression refrigeration
compressor?
A. The same as the suction pressure.
B. The same as the discharge pressure.
C. The same as the atmospheric pressure.
D. The same as the lubricating oil pressure.
208. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor
discharge of an air conditioning system?
A. + 85 ° C
B. + 5 ° C
C. -10 ° C
D. + 40 ° C

209. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil
throughput rate is too great?
A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to
discharge from the water outlet.
B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will
be lost.
C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil
outlet.
D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.

210. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a
centrifuge in order to ensure good separation?
A. 95 - 98 Celsius.
B. 85 - 88 Celsius
C. 75 - 78 Celsius.
D. 105 - 108 Celsius.
962
DPKP
211. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil
based lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
A. 65 -85 C.
B. 45 - 65 C.
C. 85 - 105 C.
D. < 45 C.

212. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
A. + 1.0 bar
B. - 0.5 bar
C. + 5.0 bar
D. + 10 bar

213. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low
pressure auxiliary boiler?
A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3.
B. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3.
C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3.
D. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.
214. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the
discharge valve closed for an extended period of time?
A. The pump will eventually overheat.
B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to
the bilge.
C. The electric motor will eventually overheat.
D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.
963
DPKP
215. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling
water flow through the condenser?
A. Increased delivery pressure
B. Reduced delivery pressure
C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line.
D. reduced suction pressure

216. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement,
what is the purpose of the clarifier?
A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal.
B. To stabilise the feed temperature.
C. To increase the overall throughput rate.
D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.

217. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning
system evaporator icing up?
A. Too low suction pressure.
B. Too high discharge pressure.
C. Low sea water temperature.
D. High sea water temperature..

218. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage
piston.
B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage.
D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from
each stage is equal.
964
DPKP
219. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat
exchanger during operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for
both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid.
C. Pressure drop for cooling water.
D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids

220. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the
cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator?
A. Chromates are poisonous.
B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water
generators.
C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh
water generator.
D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any
cooling water system.

221. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase
when the compressor is stopped.
B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
C. To boil off any water from condensation in the
crankcase.
D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.

222. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems?
A. To prevent biological growth in the system.
B. To prevent corrosion of the system
C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system.
D. To reduce sediment build up in the system.
965
DPKP
223. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water
pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
A. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central
cooling system in the event of seal failure.
B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat
exchanger.
D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.
224. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is
the difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil,
whereas in a purifier both solids and water are
removed from the oil
B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil.
D. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.

225. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a
centrifugal pump?
A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.
B. By throttling of the pump suction valve.
C. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
D. By opening the pump recirculation line.

226. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion
valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system?
A. Liquid at high pressure.
B. Vapour at high pressure.
C. Liquid at low pressure.
D. Vapour at low pressure.
966
DPKP
227. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board
ship?
A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using only sea
water.
B. It is a simple system with minimum control
requirements.
C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties.
D. It does not require any seawater.

228. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh
water in a central cooling system?
A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.
B. Insufficient cooling water treatment.
C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the
turbochargers.
D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.
229. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than
normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?
A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned.
B. High fuel oil temperature.
C. Broken water seal.
D. Drive clutch slipping.

230. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a
centrifugal pump when it is running?
A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation.
B. Water hammer in the pump casing.
C. Fluid friction in the suction line.
D. Pump suction valve fully open.
967
DPKP
231. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit?
A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the
evaporator.
B. To control the suction pressure at the compressor.
C. To control the cargo hold temperature.
D. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.

232. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression refrigeration

compressor?
A. The same as the suction pressure.
B. The same as the discharge pressure.
C. The same as the atmospheric pressure.
D. The same as the lubricating oil pressure.
233. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor
discharge of an air conditioning system?
A. + 85 ° C
B. + 5 ° C
C. -10 ° C
D. + 40 ° C

234. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil
throughput rate is too great?
A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to
discharge from the water outlet.
B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will
be lost.
C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil
outlet.
D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.
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DPKP
235. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a
centrifuge in order to ensure good separation?
A. 95 - 98 Celsius.
B. 85 - 88 Celsius
C. 75 - 78 Celsius.
D. 105 - 108 Celsius.

236. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil
based lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
A. 65 -85 C.
B. 45 - 65 C.
C. 85 - 105 C.
D. < 45 C.

237. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
A. + 1.0 bar
B. - 0.5 bar
C. + 5.0 bar
D. + 10 bar

238. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low
pressure auxiliary boiler?
A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3.
B. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3.
C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3.
D. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.
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239. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the
discharge valve closed for an extended period of time?
A. The pump will eventually overheat.
B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to
the bilge.
C. The electric motor will eventually overheat.
D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.

240. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling
water flow through the condenser?
A. Increased delivery pressure
B. Reduced delivery pressure
C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line.
D. reduced suction pressure

241. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement,
what is the purpose of the clarifier?
A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal.
B. To stabilise the feed temperature.
C. To increase the overall throughput rate.
D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.

242. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning
system evaporator icing up?
A. Too low suction pressure.
B. Too high discharge pressure.
C. Low sea water temperature.
D. High sea water temperature..
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DPKP
243. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage
piston.
B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage.
D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from
each stage is equal.

244. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat
exchanger during operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for
both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid.
C. Pressure drop for cooling water.
D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids

245. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the
cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator?
A. Chromates are poisonous.
B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh
water generators.
C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh
water generator.
D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any
cooling water system.
246. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase
when the compressor is stopped.
B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
C. To boil off any water from condensation in the
crankcase.
D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.
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247. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems?
A. To prevent biological growth in the system.
B. To prevent corrosion of the system
C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system.
D. To reduce sediment build up in the system.

248. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water
pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
A. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central
cooling system in the event of seal failure.
B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat
exchanger.
D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.

249. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is
the difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil,
whereas in a purifier both solids and water are
removed from the oil
B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil.
D. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.